AIIMS 2009 Nov Mcqs with Ans.

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by Guest, Dec 23, 2009.

  1. Guest

    Guest Guest

    AIIMS 2009 Nov Mcqs

    Anaesthesiology Mcqs

    Question 1: The first local anaesthetic used in clinical anaesthesia ?
    A) Bupivacaine
    B) Cocaine
    C) Lidocaine
    D) Procaine
    Answer: B) Cocaine

    Question 2: A chlid posted for surgery has renal failure. Which muscle relaxant can be used ?
    A) Atracurium
    Answer: A) Atracurium
  2. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Anatomy Mcqs

    Question 1: Stability of the ankle joints is maintained by all except ?
    A) Collateral ligaments
    B) Cruciate ligaments
    C) Tendons of muscles attached
    D) Close apposition of articular surfaces of bones
    Answer: B) Cruciate ligaments

    Question 2: Which of the following is the most medial in the femoral triangle ?
    A) Lymphatics
    B) Nerve
    C) Artery
    D) Vein
    Answer: A) Lymphatics

    Question 3: Which of the following does not pass below the flexor retinaculum ?
    A) Median Nerve
    B) Ulnar Nerve
    C) Flexor Digitorum Profundus
    D) Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
    Answer: B) Ulnar Nerve

    Question 4: All of the following can be involved in an injury to the head of the fibula, except ?
    A) Anterior tibial nerve
    B) Common peroneal nerve
    C) Superficial peroneal nerve
    D) Tibial nerve
    Answer: D) Tibial nerve

    Question 5: Deep peroneal nerve provides sensory innervation to ?
    A) Anterolateral dorsum of foot
    B) Lateral part of leg
    C) 1st web space
    D) 5th web space
    Answer: C) 1st web space

    Question 6: Which of the following is not true ?
    A) Superior thyroid artery is a branch of external carotid artery
    B) Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of thyrocervival trunk
    C) Parathyroid artery is a branch of posterior division of superior thyroid artery
    D) Arteria thyroidia ima is invariably a branch of arch of aorta
    Answer: D) Arteria thyroidia ima is invariably a branch of arch of aorta

    Question 7: Which of the following is not true about Prostatic Urethra ?
    A) It is trapezoid in cross-section
    B) It contains opening of prostatic ducts
    C) Presence of verumontanum
    D) Contains Urethral crest
    Answer: A) It is trapezoid in cross-section

    Question 8: Transitional cell epithelium lines all of the following except ?
    A) Major calyces
    B) Ureters
    C) Bladder
    D) Membranous urethra
    Answer: D) Membranous urethra

    Question 9: All of the following are contents of vaginal sphincter except ?
    A) External urethral sphincter
    B) Internal urethral sphincter
    C) Bulbospongiosus
    D) Pubovaginalis
    Answer: B) Internal urethral sphincter
  3. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Biochemistry Mcqs

    Question 1: NARP is related to ?
    A) Glycogen storage disease
    B) Lipid storage disease
    C) Protein
    D) Mitochondria
    E) Lysosomal storage disease
    Answer: D) Mitochondria

    Question 2: Zinc is required for ?
    A) Alcohol dehydrogenase
    B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
    C) Pyruvate Decarboxylase
    D) Alpha keto acid Dehydrogenase
    Answer: A) Alcohol dehydrogenase

    Question 3: Western blotting is used for ?
    A) DNA
    B) RNA
    C) Proteins
    Answer: C) Proteins

    Question 4: All of the following use cAMP as a second messenger except ?
    A) Corticotrophin
    B) Dopamine
    C) Glucagon
    D) Vasopressin
    Answer: A) Corticotrophin
  4. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Community Medicine Mcqs

    Question 1: The objective of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) is all except ?
    A) Implementation of JSY
    B) Recruitment of ASHA
    C) Formulation of state and district health programme
    D) Formulation of family planning and welfare societies
    Answer: D) Formulation of family planning and welfare societies

    Question 2: Reliability refers to ?
    A) The extent to which the observer can go in finding the result
    B) The number of times the result can be reproduced
    Answer: B) The number of times the result can be reproduced

    Question 3: Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design ?
    A) Case control study
    B) Cohort study
    C) Cohort-case control study
    D) Cross sectional study
    Answer: A) Case control study

    Question 4: Odds Ratio / Confidence 95% limits (Table( in risk factor association ?
    A) A high hishest risk association
    B) B has highest risk association
    C) C has highest risk association
    D) All have equal association
    Answer: A) A high hishest risk association

    Question 5: Positive Predictive value ?
    A) 54%
    B) 47%
    C) 17%
    D) 97%
    Answer: A) 54%

    Question 6: Outdated drugs and Cytotoxic wastes are disposed by ?
    A) Dumping
    B) Destruction and disposal
    C) Store for month and burial
    D) Incineration
    Answer: B) Destruction and disposal

    Question 7: All of the following are indicative of effective leprosy control programme except ?
    A) High new case detection rate
    B) Increasing number of children affected
    C) Decreased Type 2 disability
    Answer: B) Increasing number of children affected

    Question 8: All are true regarding growth chart except ?
    A) It is an important tool for educating mothers
    B) The position of dot is more important than direction
    C) Between top 2 line it shows Road to Health
    D) lowermost line represents children below third percentile
    Answer: B) The position of dot is more important than direction
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Dermatology Mcqs

    Question 1: A 10 year old boy with a boggy swelling on scalp with multiple sinuses and easily pluckable hairs. Lymph nodes enlargd in occipital region, Which investigation should be done for diagnosis ?
    A) Biopsy
    B) Culture
    C) KOH preparation
    Answer: C) KOH preparation
  6. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Mcqs

    Question 1: All of the following are seen in Antemortem burns except ?
    A) Vesicle with Air
    B) Pus formation
    C) Inflammatory Red line
    D) Vesicle with hyperemic base
    Answer: A) Vesicle with Air

    Question 2: Hatter's shakes are seen in ?
    A) Mercury poisoning
    B) Arsenic poisoning
    C) Lead
    D) Copper
    Answer: A) Mercury poisoning

    Question 3: Article 377 of IPC deals with ?
    A) Rape
    B) Incest
    C) Unnatural sexual offence
    D) Adultry
    Answer: C) Unnatural sexual offence

    Question 4: Semen stains on clothes can be identified by ?
    A) Infrared rays
    B) Magnifying lens
    C) Spectrometry
    D) Ultraviolet rays
    Answer: D) Ultraviolet rays

    Question 5: A teacher slapped a student and the student suffered from 25% hearing loss which was healed by surgery. What kind of injury is it ?
    A) Simple
    B) Griveous
    C) Dangerous
    Answer: A) Simple

    Question 6: Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because ?
    A) It is hygroscopic
    B) It has affinity for mucosa
    C) It has glue like action
    D) It is programmed to stick
    Answer: A) It is hygroscopic
  7. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Gynaecology Mcqs

    Question 1: Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is ?
    A) DMPA
    B) Levonorgestrol
    C) Norgesterone
    D) Micronised Progesterone
    Answer: B) Levonorgestrol

    Question 2: A 35 year old lady with post coital bleeding. What is the most likely management ?
    A) Clinical examination with PAP smear
    B) Visual examination with lugol's iodine
    C) Visual examination with acetic acid
    Answer: C) Visual examination with acetic acid

    Question 3: A 17 year old girl presented with amenorrhoea. Examination revelaed absent breasts adn hypoplastic uterus. Most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
    B) Gonadal dysgenesis
    C) Turner's syndrome
    Answer: C) Turner's syndrome
  8. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Medicine Mcqs

    Question 1: Regarding Pseudogout, wrong statement is ?
    A) It does not affect large joints
    B) It does not affect small joints
    C) Chondrocalcinosis
    D) Deposition of Calcium pyrophosphate
    Answer: A) It does not affect large joints

    Question 2: Third nerve palsy with normal pupillary reaction is seen in ?
    A) Diabetes
    B) Aneurysm
    C) Trauma
    D) Raised ICT
    Answer: A) Diabetes

    Question 3: Recent Nobel Prize in ?
    A) Medicine
    Answer: A) Medicine

    Question 4: A drug addict with 3 months fever with vegetations in tricuspid valve. Most likely cause is ?
    A) Tricuspid valve
    Answer: A) Tricuspid valve

    Question 5: Hyperkalemia without ECG changes is treated with all except ?
    A) Calcium gluconate
    B) Sodium bicarbonate
    C) Insulin with dextrose
    D) Salbutamol
    Answer: A) Calcium gluconate

    Question 6: HPV (Human Papilloma Virus) Vaccine is ?
    A) Monovalent
    B) Bivalent
    C) Quadrivalent
    D) Bivalent and Quadrivalent
    Answer: D) Bivalent and Quadrivalent

    Question 7: Dissociative anaesthesia in spinal cord diseases is due to ?
    A) Dorsal column
    B) Decussating branches of lateral spinothalamic tract
    C) Anterior spinothalamic tract
    D) Cilioretinal pathway
    Answer: B) Decussating branches of lateral spinothalamic tract

    Question 8: Mil Wheel murmur is heard in ?
    A) Air embolism
    Answer: A) Air embolism

    Question 9: In post ductal coarctation of aorta, collaterals to lower limb are formed by all except ?
    A) Intercostal artery
    B) Internal thoracic artery
    C) Suprascapular artery
    D) Vertebral artery
    Answer: D) Vertebral artery

    Question 10: Which of the following is not seen in Dermatomyositis ?
    A) Gottrens papules
    B) Mechanics Hand
    C) Periungual telangiectasia
    D) Salmon Rash
    Answer: D) Salmon Rash

    Question 11: All are used in the treatment of Visceral Leishmaniasis except ?
    A) Hydoroxychloroquine
    B) Miltefosine
    C) Paromomycin
    D) Sitamaquine
    Answer: C) Paromomycin

    Question 12: The most common sequelae to periventricular leukomalacia is ?
    A) Spastic dipegia
    B) Spastic quadriplegia
    Answer: B) Spastic quadriplegia

    Question 13: Which of the following statements is false regarding Japanese Encephalitis ?
    A) Transmitted by Culex mosquitoes
    B) Water tanks serve as breeding sites
    C) Pigs are amplifiers
    D) Two doses of vaccine
    Answer: D) Two doses of vaccine

    Question 14: A male with azoospermia had on examination a normal sized testes, with normal levels of FSH and Testosterone. The most probable cause is ?
    A) Kallman's syndrome
    B) Klinefelter's syndrome
    C) Maldescended Testes
    D) Vas deferens obstruction
    Answer: D) Vas deferens obstruction

    Question 15: Anti TNF alpha is not used in ?
    A) RA + Hepatitis B
    B) RA + Hepatitis C
    C) RA + HIV
    D) RA + Pulmonary Fibrosis
    Answer: C) RA + HIV

    Question 16: Which of the following is the best marker for Dyslipidemia ?
    A) Apo A1
    B) LDL/Cholesterol
    C) LDL/HDL ratio
    D) TG and Cholesterol
    Answer: C) LDL/HDL ratio

    Question 17: Which of the following is true regarding Asthma ?
    A) Reduced FRC, Reduced Residual Volume
    B) Reduced FRC, Increased Residual Volume
    C) Increased FRC, Reduced Residual Volume
    D) Increased FRC, Increased Residual Volume
    Answer: D) Increased FRC, Increased Residual Volume

    Question 18: Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6 vision is seen with ?
    A) Trauma
    B) Chiasmal lesion
    C) Bilateral Cavernous leison
    Answer: B) Chiasmal lesion

    Question 19: Sudden thunderclap headache, unconsciousness, ipsilateral dilated pupil, is suggestive of a diagnosis of ?
    A) Acute aneurysmal hemorrhage
    B) Acute ischemia of midbrain
    C) Brain stem encephalitis
    D) Meningitis
    Answer: A) Acute aneurysmal hemorrhage

    Question 20: Rib notching is seen in all except ?
    A) BT shunt
    B) Pulmonary atresia with VSD
    C) Waterston's shunt
    Answer: C) Waterston's shunt

    Question 21: An elderly male presented with chest pain, cough and sputum. Culture on Blood agar reveals gram positive cocci. Which of the following can be used to differentiate with normal commensals ?
    A) Catalase
    B) Bacitracin
    C) Bile solubility
    D) Optochin
    Answer: B) Bacitracin

    Question 22: Recurrent plaques on glans which heal with residual hyperpigmentation is suggestive of ?
    A) Aphthous ulcer
    B) Fixed Drug Eruptions
    C) Herpes Gestationalis
    D) Chlamdial infection
    Answer: C) Herpes Gestationalis

    Question 23: Not true about ASO titre ?
    A) It may not be elevated even in presence of Carditis
    B) It is a Major Jones' Criteria
    Answer: B) It is a Major Jones' Criteria

    Question 24: Glassgow coma scale score of a patient with eye opening on painful stimulus, inappropriate verbal response to pain and localizes to pain ?
    A) 8
    B) 10
    C) 12
    D) 14
    Answer: B) 10

    Question 25: Valsalva maneuver increases the murmur in ?
    A) AS
    B) MS
    C) HOCM
    Answer: C) HOCM

    Question 26: Recurrent occipital headache in a girl, which is also seen in her mother, is most likely due to ?
    A) Basilar migraine
    B) Cervical spondilitis
    C) Temporal arteritis
    D) Vestibular neuritis
    Answer: A) Basilar migraine
  9. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Microbiology Mcqs

    Question 1: True about clostridium perfringens is ?
    A) It is the commonest cause of Gas gangrene
    B) It can be detected by Neagler's reaction
    C) The food poisoning spores of clostridium perfringens are heat sensitive
    D) The major enzyme secreted is hyaluronidase
    Answer: D) The major enzyme secreted is hyaluronidase

    Question 2: Which of the following is not true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae ?
    A) It is an exclusive human pathogen
    B) Some stains may cause disseminated disease
    C) Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation in males
    D) All stains are highly sensitive to penicillin
    Answer: D) All stains are highly sensitive to penicillin

    Question 3: All are correct regarding Widal test, except ?
    A) Baseline titres differ depending on the endemicity of the disease
    B) Even one high titre is not enough for conclusive diagnosis
    C) O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection
    D) H antibody cannot differentiate betwen types
    Answer: C) O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection

    Question 4: All of the following tumors are associated with organisms except ?
    A) Gastric Carcinoma
    B) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
    C) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
    D) Non-small cell lung carcinoma
    Answer: D) Non-small cell lung carcinoma
  10. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Obstetrics Mcqs

    Question 1: Treatment of choice for Genital Warts in pregnancy is ?
    A) Salicylic Acid with Lactic Acid solutioin
    B) Imiquimod
    C) Podophylotoxin
    D) Cryotherapy
    Answer: D) Cryotherapy

    Question 2: Heparin is introduced in a cardiac patient with pregnancy at which week ?
    A) 32
    B) 36
    C) 40
    D) at the time of labour
    Answer: B) 36

    Question 3: Hematuria during labour in a post cesarean pregnancy indicates ?
    A) Urethral trauma
    B) Impending scar rupture
    C) Cystitis
    Answer: B) Impending scar rupture

    Question 4: The recommended management of Occipito-posterior position in labour is ?
    A) Waitful Watch
    B) Oxytocin drip
    C) Cesarean Section
    D) Artifiical rupture of membranes
    Answer: A) Waitful Watch

    Question 5: Vaccine contraindicated in Pregnancy is ?
    A) Diphtheria
    B) Hepatitis B
    C) MMR
    D) Rabies
    Answer: C) MMR

    Question 6: The most useful investigation in a suspected ectopic pregnancy is ?
    A) Culdocentesis
    B) Serial HCG estimation
    C) Transvaginal USG
    Answer: C) Transvaginal USG

    Question 7: Tocolytic of choice in heart disease is ?
    A) Alcohol
    B) Atosiban
    C) MgSO4
    D) Nifedipine
    Answer: C) MgSO4

    Question 8: Uterine blood flow at term is ?
    A) 50 - 75 ml/min
    B) 150 - 200 ml/min
    C) 350 - 400 ml/min
    D) > 500 ml/min
    Answer: D) > 500 ml/min
  11. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Ophthalmology Mcqs

    Question 1: A 17 year old girl is on decongestants for the last 3 days, She has been treated in the past also with symptoms of Nasal discharge and pain on pressing medial canthus. Now she is having miosis and ciliary conjunction. She has right sided proptosis and defective right gaze. What is the diagnosis for this acute condition ?
    A) Orbital cellulitis
    B) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
    C) Ethmoid sinusitis
    D) Orbital apex syndrome
    Answer: D) Orbital apex syndrome

    Question 2: The most likely diagnosis in a 25 year old male / female having generalized restriction of eye movement in all the directions, intermittent ptosis, proximal muscle weakness, fatiguability. The most useful test is ?
    A) CPK
    B) Edrophonium test
    C) EMG
    D) Muscle Biopsy
    Answer: B) Edrophonium test

    Question 3: Sclera is weakest at all of the following sites except ?
    A) Apex
    B) Limbus
    C) In front of insertion of rectus muscle
    D) Behind insertion of rectus muscle
    Answer: C) In front of insertion of rectus muscle

    Question 4: A blow out fracture of orbit refers to a fracture in ?
    A) Roof of the orbit
    B) Posterior wall of floor of orbit
    C) Medial wall of orbit
    D) Medial part of floor of orbit
    Answer: D) Medial part of floor of orbit

    Question 5: Most common tumor of eyelid is ?
    A) Sebaceous Ca
    B) BCC
    C) SCC
    D) Malignant melanoma
    Answer: B) BCC

    Question 6: A persron has restricted eye movements in all directions, ptosis with no squint or diplopia. The most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) CDEM
    B) Multiple cranial nerve palsies
    C) Myasthenia gravis
    D) Thyroid myopathy
    Answer: D) Thyroid myopathy
  12. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Orthopaedics Mcqs

    Question 1: A 2 month old fracture of distal 1/4 of tibia with multiple discharging sinuses with shorting of 4 cm. Management is?
    A) Plating
    B) Intramedullary nailing
    C) External fixation
    D) Ilizarov technique
    Answer: D) Ilizarov technique

    Question 2: A child presents with perisoteal reaction, fever and raised ESR after a 1 month trauma. Investigation of choice in this case is ?
    A) CT Scan
    B) MRI Scan
    C) PET Scan
    D) Core Biopsy
    Answer: D) Core Biopsy
  13. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Otorhinolaryngology Mcqs

    Question 24: ONODI and HALLER cells of Ethmoid Labyrihth are related to ?
    A) Carotid artery and orbital floor
    B) Optic nerve and internal carotid artery
    C) Orbital floor and NLD
    Answer: B) Optic nerve and internal carotid artery

    Question 63: Acoustic neuroma arises from ?
    A) Inferior divison of vestibular nerve
    B) Superior division of vestibular nerve
    C) Cochlear nerve
    D) Facial nerve
    Answer: B) Superior division of vestibular nerve
  14. aman.

    aman. Guest

    Paediatrics Mcqs

    Question 1: A 3.5 kg baby born to diabetic mother develops seizures at 16 hours. The most likely cause is ?
    A) Hypoglycemia
    B) Hypoxia / Respiratory Distress Syndrome
    C) Hypomagnesemia
    D) Hypocalcemia
    Answer: A) Hypoglycemia

    Question 2: Which of the following is not used to term a baby as VIGOROUS ?
    A) Color
    B) Heart rate
    C) Respiratory Effort
    D) Muscle Tone
    Answer: A) Color

    Question 3: Early neonatal sepsis in India is most commonly due to ?
    A) Escherichia coli
    B) Group B streptococci
    C) Staphylococci
    D) Pseudomonas
    Answer: B) Group B streptococci

    Question 4: Vitamin deficiency that does not lead to seizure in a neonate ?
    A) Niacin
    B) Pyridoxine
    C) Vitamin C
    D) Vitamin B12
    Answer: B) Pyridoxine

    Question 5: A neonate with recurrent infection and abscess was diagnosed with Kostmann syndrome. Treatment is ?
    A) G-CSF
    B) GM-CSF
    C) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin
    D) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF
    Answer: D) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF

    Question 6: Aniridia is associated with ?
    A) Hepatoblastoma
    B) Medulloblastoma
    C) Nephroblastoma
    D) Retinoblastoma
    Answer: C) Nephroblastoma

    Question 7: All of the following are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome except ?
    A) Microcephaly
    B) Overgrowth
    Answer: B) Overgrowth

    Question 8: Which of the following is associated with > 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies ?
    A) Cleft lip
    B) Gastroschisis
    C) Omphalocele
    D) Spina bifida
    Answer: C) Omphalocele

    Question 9: A baby wiht 46XX karyotype has external genitalia of male. Which of the following is not a possible differential diagnosis of this condition ?
    A) Aromatase deficiency
    B) Maternal adrenal androgen tumor
    C) Anti mullerian hormone deficiency
    Answer: C) Anti mullerian hormone deficiency

    Question 10: A premature baby weighing 1.5 kg, born with Emergency C.S. at 32 weeks, now develops resipatory distress with grunting. The best managment would be ?
    A) C-PAP
    B) Mechanical ventilation
    C) Moist oxygen through headbox
    D) Surfactant therapy plus mechanical ventilation
    Answer: D) Surfactant therapy plus mechanical ventilation

    Question 11: A robust male baby has vigorous feeding and immediate vomiting at 2 months. Most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Brain tumor
    B) Congential hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    C) Hirschprung's disease
    D) Paralytic Ileus
    Answer: B) Congential hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
  15. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Parasitology Mcqs

    Question 1: Infective stage of mosquito in case of Plasmodium is ?
    A) Sporozoite
    B) Gametocyte
    Answer: B) Gametocyte
  16. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Pathology Mcqs

    Question 1: All of the following are B cell markers except ?
    A) CD 10
    B) CD 19
    C) CD 20
    D) CD 34 or CD 135
    Answer: D) CD 34 or CD 135

    Question 2: Lipid detection in frozen sample can be done with ?
    A) Mucicaramine
    B) Oil Red O
    C) PAS
    Answer: A) Mucicaramine

    Question 3: Low serum haptoglobin in hemolysis is masked by ?
    A) Bile duct obstruction
    B) Liver disease
    C) Malnutrition
    D) Pregnancy
    Answer: A) Bile duct obstruction

    Question 4: Clue cells are found in ?
    A) Bacterial vaginosis
    B) Chlamydia trachomatis
    C) Neisseria gonorrhoea
    D) Trichomonas
    Answer: A) Bacterial vaginosis

    Question 5: Elevated AFP levels are seen in all of the following except ?
    A) Hepatoblastoma
    B) Seminoma
    Answer: B) Seminoma

    Question 6: Call exner bodies are seen in ?
    A) Granulosa cell tumor
    B) Yolk sac tumor
    Answer: A) Granulosa cell tumor

    Question 7: A 15 year old boy died suddenly while playing in the field. On autopsy, myocardial fibre hypertrophy and fibrosis reticular pattern is seen. Most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Arrythmogenic heart disease
    B) Dilated cardiomyopathy
    C) Hypertropathic cardiomyopathy
    D) Obstructive cardiomyopathy
    Answer: A) Arrythmogenic heart disease

    Question 8: ANCA is associated with ?
    A) Henoch Schonlein Purpura
    B) Wegener's granulomatosis
    Answer: B) Wegener's granulomatosis

    Question 9: In Wegner's glomerulonephritis, the characteristic feature seen is ?
    A) Focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis
    B) Granulomas in the vessel wall
    C) Interstitial granulomas
    D) Nodular glomerulosclerosis
    Answer: B) Granulomas in the vessel wall

    Question 10: HLA is present on ?
    A) Short arm of Chromosome 3
    B) Short arm of Chromosome 6
    C) Long arm of Chromosome 3
    D) Long arm of Chromosome 6
    Answer: B) Short arm of Chromosome 6

    Question 11: False about p53 is ?
    A) It is present on Chromosome 17
    B) It causes cell cycle arrest in G1
    C) 53 KDa
    D) Non Mutated wild p53 is associated with neoplasms in childhood
    Answer: D) Non Mutated wild p53 is associated with neoplasms in childhood

    Question 12: A 67 year male smoker presents with haemoptysis and cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy revealed undifferentiated tumor. The immunohistochemical marker that can be most helpful is ?
    A) Calretinin
    B) Vimentin
    C) Cytokeratin
    Answer: C) Cytokeratin

    Question 13: Defective DNA repair is associated with ?
    A) Albinism
    B) Xeroderma Pigmentosum
    Answer: B) Xeroderma Pigmentosum

    Question 14: "C" in CRP stands for ?
    A) Concanavalin A
    B) Chondroitin Sulfate in series with ARP, BRP
    C) Capsular polysaccharide of Pneumococcus
    D) Cellular
    Answer: C) Capsular polysaccharide of Pneumococcus

    Question 15: Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in ?
    A) Hodgkin's disease
    B) Kikuchi disease
    C) Kimura disease
    D) Sarcoidosis
    Answer: B) Kikuchi disease

    Question 16: Type of anemia caused by Ileocaecal tuberculosis ?
    A) Iron deficiency
    B) Megaloblastic
    C) Normocytic normochromic
    D) Sideroblastic
    Answer: B) Megaloblastic

    Question 17: Which of the following is not a high risk factor for Cholangiocarcinoma ?
    A) Chronic typhoid
    B) Choledocholithiasis
    C) C. sinensis infestation
    D) Ulcerative colitis
    Answer: A) Chronic typhoid

    Question 18: Which fo the following is not a common cause of vasculitis in adults ?
    A) Giant cell arteritis
    B) Kawasaki disease
    C) Henoch Schonlein Purpura
    D) Polyarteritis Nodosa
    Answer: B) Kawasaki disease

    Question 19: HLA B27 is positive in ?
    A) Ankylosing spondilitis
    Answer: A) Ankylosing spondilitis

    Question 20: A young boy presented with multiple flaccid bulla and oral mucosal lesions. The most likely finding would be ?
    A) Granular IgA in reticular dermis
    B) FISH NET IgG in epidermis
    C) Linear IgG in dermoepidermal junction
    D) Linear IgA in dermal papillae
    Answer: B) FISH NET IgG in epidermis

    Question 21: Maternal Chromosome Disomy 15 is associated with ?
    A) Angelmann syndrome
    B) Fragile X syndrome
    C) Prader willi syndrome
    Answer: A) Angelmann syndrome

    Question 22: Poor prognostic indicator in ALL ?
    A) Age < 2 years
    B) TLC 4000 - 10,000
    C) Presence of testicular involvement at presentation
    D) Presence of Blasts in peripheral smear
    Answer: A) Age < 2 years

    Question 23: ABO antigens are not found in ?
    A) CSF
    B) Plasma
    C) Saliva
    D) Semen
    Answer: A) CSF

    Question 24: ABO incompatibility is not seen with ?
    A) FFP
    B) Packed RBCs
    C) Platelet concentrate
    D) Cryoprecipitate
    Answer: C) Platelet concentrate

    Question 25: Serum alkaline phosphatase is low in ?
    A) Primary biliary cirrhosis
    B) Hypophosphatemia
    C) Hyperphosphatemia
    D) Hepatitis A
    Answer: C) Hyperphosphatemia

    Question 26: Which of the following karyotyping is done under light microscopy ?
    A) C Banding
    B) G Banding
    C) F Banding
    D) G Banding
    Answer: B) G Banding
  17. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Pharmacology Mcqs

    Question 1: Buspirone ?
    A) induces sleep
    B) causes sedation
    C) anxiolytic
    Answer: C) anxiolytic

    Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a prodrug ?
    A) Lisinopril
    B) Fosinopril
    C) Enalapril
    Answer: A) Lisinopril

    Question 3: COX 2 inhibits ?
    A) Cell Adhesion
    B) Cell Differentiation
    C) Cell Migration
    D) Cell Proliferation
    Answer: D) Cell Proliferation

    Question 4: False regarding Flumazenil is ?
    A) It is a specific antagonist of Benzodiazepines
    B) It may be used in barbiturate poisoning
    Answer: B) It may be used in barbiturate poisoning

    Question 5: True regarding Phenytoin is ?
    A) It is not teratogenic
    B) It is excreted unchanged
    C) It shows Zero order kinetics
    Answer: C) It shows Zero order kinetics

    Question 6: Erythromycin is given in intestinal hypomolility ?
    A) As because it binds to motilin receptors
    Answer: A) As because it binds to motilin receptors

    Question 7: Nephrotoxicity is seen with ?
    A) Azathioprine
    B) Leflunomide
    C) Mycophenolate mofetil
    D) Tacrolimus
    Answer: D) Tacrolimus

    Question 8: Nitrates are not used in ?
    A) Congestive Heart Failure
    B) Cyanide poisoning
    C) Renal colic
    D) Esophageal spasm
    Answer: C) Renal colic

    Question 9: Drug not used in CHF is ?
    A) Nisiritide
    B) NTG
    C) Spironolactone
    D) Trimetazidine
    Answer: D) Trimetazidine

    Question 10: OCP fails when used with any of the following except ?
    A) Aspirin
    B) Phenytoin
    C) Rifampicin
    D) Tetracycline
    Answer: D) Tetracycline

    Question 11: Thiazides can cause ?
    A) Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
    B) Hypolipidemia
    C) Hypouricemia
    D) Impotence
    Answer: D) Impotence

    Question 12: Voriconazole is used for all the diseases mentioned below except ?
    A) Aspergillosis
    B) Candida albicans
    C) Candida tropicalis
    D) Mucoromycosis
    Answer: D) Mucoromycosis

    Question 13: Carisoprodol activation forms which of the following metabolites ?
    A) Amphetamine
    B) Doxylamine
    C) Dimethadione
    D) Meprobamate
    Answer: D) Meprobamate
  18. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Physiology Mcqs

    Question 1: Loss of position and vibration sense is seen in lesions of ?
    A) Anterior column
    B) Dorsal column
    C) Spinal thalamic tract
    Answer: B) Dorsal column

    Question 2: Transection at the level of mid pons leads to ?
    A) Hyperventilation
    B) Asphyxia
    C) Apnea
    Answer: A) Hyperventilation

    Question 3: Pacemaker of respiration lies at ?
    A) J Centre
    B) DRG
    C) Pneumotaxic centre
    Answer: C) Pneumotaxic centre

    Question 4: Stimulation of which of the following leads to elevated mood ?
    A) Olfactory nerve
    B) Optic nerve
    C) Trigeminal nerve
    D) Vagus nerve
    Answer: A) Olfactory nerve

    Question 5: Substance P is released in response to pain in periphery by ?
    A) Endothelium
    B) Mast cells
    C) Nerve terminals
    D) Plasma
    Answer: C) Nerve terminals

    Question 6: Transtentorial herniation results in all except ?
    A) Cheyne stokes respiration
    B) Decebration
    C) Ipsilateral hemiparesis
    D) Ipsilateral oculomotor paresis
    Answer: C) Ipsilateral hemiparesis

    Question 7: High Prolactin is due to ?
    A) Elevated Estradiol
    B) Elevated Testosterone
    C) High FSH
    Answer: C) High FSH

    Question 8: Which of the following is a glucose transporter in myocyte ?
    A) GLUT 1
    B) GLUT 2
    C) GLUT 3
    D) GLUT 4
    Answer: D) GLUT 4

    Question 9: Highest concentration of potassium is seen in ?
    A) Bile
    B) Pancreatic juice
    C) Ileal secretions
    D) Rectum
    Answer: B) Pancreatic juice
  19. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Psychiatry Mcqs

    Question 1: Which of the following is least narcotic ?
    A) Codeine
    B) Morphine
    C) Papaverine
    Answer: A) Codeine

    Question 2: Learned Behaviour which is permanent but can be changed is ?
    A) Attitude
    B) Cultural belief
    C) Knowledge
    D) Practice
    Answer: A) Attitude

    Question 3: Which of the following is not a personality disorder ?
    A) Neurotism
    B) Pleasure seeking
    C) Problem solving
    D) Sensation seeking
    Answer: C) Problem solving

    Question 4: Not related to development of dependence is ?
    A) Family history
    B) Personality
    C) Peer pressure
    D) Intelligence
    Answer: D) Intelligence
  20. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Radiodiagnosis Mcqs

    Question 1: Radiation induced brain necrosis can be diagnosed by ?
    A) PET Scan
    B) MRI
    C) CT Scan
    D) Biopsy
    Answer: D) Biopsy

    Question 2: A vascular ring causing external airway compression can be diagnosed by ?
    A) CT
    B) PET CT
    C) MRI
    D) Angiography of aortic and pulmonary circulation
    Answer: D) Angiography of aortic and pulmonary circulation

    Question 3: An indentation posteriorly on barium swallow is due to ?
    A) Pulmonary Artery
    B) Arch of Aorta
    Answer: B) Arch of Aorta
  21. nirmal.

    nirmal. Guest

    Radiotherapy Mcqs

    Question 1: Which of the following is not used now-a-days ?
    A) Co 60
    B) Cs 137
    C) Iridium 192
    D) Radium 226
    Answer: D) Radium 226

    Question 2: Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for ?
    A) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma T3N1
    B) Supraglottic CA T3N0
    C) Glottic CA T3N1
    D) Subglottic CA T3N0
    Answer: A) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma T3N1
  22. AMIT.

    AMIT. Guest

    Surgery Mcqs

    Question 1: Which of the following is a marker for GIST ?
    A) CD 117
    B) CD 34
    Answer: A) CD 117

    Question 2: During APR for CA rectum in a thyrotoxic female, the pCO2 falls from 40 mm Hg to 10 mm Hg. The most likely explanation is ?
    A) High blood pressure
    B) Pulmonar embolism
    C) Thyrotoxic storm
    Answer: C) Thyrotoxic storm

    Question 3: Treatment of choice for desmoid tumor is ?
    A) Local Excision
    B) Wide Excision
    Answer: B) Wide Excision

    Question 4: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is associated with ?
    A) Hypokalemic acidosis
    B) Hypokalemic alkalosis
    C) Hyperkalemic acidosis
    D) Hyperkalemia alkalosis
    Answer: B) Hypokalemic alkalosis

    Question 5: Hirschprung's disease is due to ?
    A) Atrophy of longitudinal muscles
    B) Loss of ganglion cells in the sympathetic chain
    C) Failure of migration of neural crest cells from cranial to caudal direction
    Answer: C) Failure of migration of neural crest cells from cranial to caudal direction

    Question 6: Lynch syndrome is associated with tumors of ?
    A) Colon, Breat, Endometrium
    B) Breast, Ovary, Endometrium
    C) Colon, Breast, Ovary
    D) Colon, Endometrium, Ovary
    Answer: D) Colon, Endometrium, Ovary

    Question 7: Risk of malignancy exists in all except ?
    A) Juvenile polyp
    B) Juvenile polyposis
    C) Peutz jeghers syndrome
    D) FAP
    Answer: A) Juvenile polyp

    Question 8: Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a patient with blunt injury of abdomen who is hemodynamically stable ?
    A) CT Scan
    B) DPL
    C) FAST
    Answer:

    Question 9: Which of the following is not felt with a P/R examination ?
    A) Anorectal ring
    B) Prostate
    C) Bulb of penis
    D) Ureter
    Answer: D) Ureter

    Question 10: For adenocarcinoma of gall bladder penetrating muscular layer but not serosa, the next line of management is ?
    A) Wait and serial USGs
    B) Chemotherapy
    C) Immediate plan for segmental hepateectomy
    Answer: C) Immediate plan for segmental hepateectomy

    Question 11: All are true regarding FLAIL Chest except ?
    A) Fracture of at least three ribs bilaterally
    B) Paradoxical breathing is not seen in conscious patient
    C) Patient should be intubated if PO2 is less than 40% with 60% oxygen
    D) If overlapping is seen then it should be treated with open reduction
    Answer: B) Paradoxical breathing is not seen in conscious patient

    Question 12: A full thickness graft can be obtained from all of the following sites except ?
    A) Axilla
    B) Elbow
    C) Groin
    D) Supraclavicular
    Answer: D) Supraclavicular
  23. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Forensic Medicine AIIMS PRE PG EXAM

    AIIMS MD Entrance Exam November 2009

    Autopsy of AIIMS MD EXAM November 2009:

    "After autopsy it has been revealed beyond doubt that the following questions could be answered from the 3rd Edition of Review of Forensic Medicine ROFM "


    1 . HATTERS SHAKE IS ASSOCIATED WITH ( Page 185 ROFM 3rd Edition)

    · ARSENIC
    · LEAD
    · MERCURY
    · COPPER

    Explanation Notes :

    Symptoms: Acid metallic taste, hoarse voice, greyish white coating of tongue, blood-stained stool, circulatory collapse, necrosis of jaw, membranous, colitis, proximal renal tubular necrosis.*

    Acrodynia*(Acro-Limbs Odynia-Pain) is seen in mercury poisoning (Pink’s Disease),It is Pain,swelling and parasthesia of Limbs

    Mimimata disease—Contamination of fish with mercury, at a place called Minimate Bay in Japan.

    Chronic Poisoning: (Hydrar gyrism)

    • The symptoms are salivation, sore mouth and throat, fine tremors of the tongue, hands, arms, anemia.

    • Shaking palsy is associated with Hg poisoning.

    Mercurial tremors are also called hatter’s shakes or glass blower’s shake.(Danbury Tremors)

    • Mercurial erethism** is seen in persons working with mercury in mirror manufacturing firms. Erethism is characterized by shyness, timidity, irritability, loss of confidence, mental depression, loss of memory and insomnia. (Psychological symptoms).

    • Mercurialentis is a peculiar eye change due to brownish deposit of mercury through the cornea on the anterior lens capsule (Brown-Malt Reflex*). It is bilateral and has no effect on visual acuity



    2. DRIED SEMEN ON CLOTHS CAN BE DETECTED BY ( Page 108 )



    · INFRA RED
    · SPECTROSCOPY
    · MAGNIFYING LENS
    · ULTRAVIOLET RAY


    Explanation Notes:

    Seminal Fluid

    • Seminal stains have to be detected in cases of rape or attempted rape, sexual murder of the female, sodomy and bestiality.

    • Fertility of fluid has to be proved in disputed paternity.

    • Seminal fluid choline is originated from Leyding cells.

    • Smegma: If the smegma is present around glans of penis, it is suggestive of the fact that an individual did not have sexual intercourse in last 24 hours.

    CHEMICAL EXAMINATION

    a. Florence test: (Choline Per. Iodide cystols)

    • The stain is extracted by 1% hydrochloric acid and a drop is placed on a glass slide.

    • A drop of Florence solution (Postassium iodine, iodine and water) is allowed to run under the cover slip.

    • If semen is present, dark-brown crystals of choline iodide appear immediately.

    • They are rhombic crystals resembling haemin.

    • A negative test means the fluid is not semen.

    b. Barberio’s test:

    • A saturated aqueous or alcoholic solution of picric acid* when added to spermatic fluid, produces yellow needle shaped rhombic crystals of spermine picrate.

    • In Barberio’s test, presence of spermine in semen is detected.

    • Spermine picrate crystals are seen.

    c. The Acid phosphatase test:

    • The prostatic secretion element of seminal fluid contains a very much higher percentage of acid phosphatase.

    • This test is conclusive in the absence of demonstrable sperms or in aspermia.

    d. Creatine phosphokinase: Level of CPK is high in seminol fluids, can be detected in old stains of 6 months.

    e. Ammouium molybdate test:

    • For semen stains, detect presence of phosphorous.

    f. Glycoprotein P30: This test has replaced the quantitative analysis for acid phosphatase.

    g. MHS-S1 is also positive and a highly reliable test for semen.

    h. Serological typing of the semen is possible by precipitin method.

    i. Dried Semen can be detected by UV rays.





    101. SECTION 377 DEALS WITH( Page 270)

    · RAPE
    · ADULTRY
    · INCEST
    · UNNATURAL SEXUAL OFFENCE



    Explanatory Notes:

    Medico-legally Important Sections/Acts

    Medico-legal Important Sections

    Indian Penal Code

    • Sec 44 Injury

    • Sec 84 Act of a person of unsound mind/McNaughtens Rule

    • Sec 85 Act of a person who is intoxicated against will

    • Sec 191 & sec 193 definition and Punishment of perjury

    Offence Affecting Human Body

    Sec 299 to Sec 377

    • Sec 299 Culpable Homicide

    • Sec 300 Murder

    • Sec 302 Punishment of murder/infanticide*

    • Sec 304 Culpable Homicide not amounting to murder

    • Sec 304 A Causing death by negligence*

    • Sec 304 B Dowry Death

    Sections Related to Criminal Abortion

    • Sec 312 to Sec 316

    Abandonment of Child under 12 years

    • Sec 317

    Concealment of birth

    • Sec 318

    Hurt

    Sec 319

    Grievous Hurt

    • Sec 320

    Assault

    • Sec 351

    Assault to Outrage the Modesty of Women

    • Sec 354

    Rape

    Definition Sec 375

    Punishment Sec 376

    Unnatural Sexual offense

    Sec 377

    Criminal Procedure Code

    Sec 174 Police Inquest

    Sec 176 Magistrate’s Inquest

    Indian Evidence Act

    Sec 32 Dying Declaration

    Medico-legal Important Acts

    1. Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945

    (Framed under: Drugs Act, 1940)

    • Classification of drugs in schedules:

    – C– Biological and special products.

    – E– Poisons.

    – F– Vaccines and Sera.

    – G– Hormonal preparations.

    – H–Drugs/poisons to be sold prescription of RMP.

    – J– Diseases for cure of which no drug should be advertised.

    – L– Antibodies, Antihistaminic, chemothera- peutic agents.

    2. Employees State Insurance Act 1948

    3. Indian Medical Council Act 1956

    Schedule 1—India

    Schedule 2—Outside India

    4. The Medical Termination of 1971,

    Pregnancy Act (Amend 1975)

    5. The Narcotic Drugs & 1985

    Psychotropic Substance Act

    6. Consumer Protection Act 1986

    7. Mental Health Act 1987

    8. Organs Transplantation of Human Act 1994

    9. Prenatal Diagnostic Technique 1994(Amend in 2000)





    4. A TEACHER SLAPPED A GIRL STUDENT ,SHE SUFFERED FROM 25%HEARING LOSS WHICH RESOLVED ON SURGERY WHAT KIND OF INJURY THIS IS ( Page 68 )



    · SIMPLE
    · GRIEVIOUS
    ·
    DANGEROUS
    · PUNISHMENT

    Medico-legal Importance Of Injuries

    Important Definitions

    1. Injury: Any harm whatever illegaly caused in Body, Mind, Reputation or Property (Memory Aid ® BMR is an important concept of Physiology)

    • Section Forty four (44), IPC.

    2. Murder: Definition is under section 300 IPC and punishment under Section 302 IPC.

    3. Hurt:

    • Section 319 (IPC)

    • Bodily pain, Disease or Infirmity caused to a person (BID).

    4. Grievous Hurt

    • According to S 320 I.P.C(Only Defines*) any of the following injury is grievous: The eight clauses of grievous injury can be remembered with the help of sentence—“Every Student Has reMEMBERed Injury’s Definition and Forgot it within 20 days of Passing Examsâ€.

    1. Emasculation (Impotency/ sterility).

    2. Permanent privation (loss) of Sight of either eye.

    3. Permanent privation of Hearing of either ear. ( Permanence is in ordinary course of nature , irrespective of medical treatment)

    4. Privatation of any Member or joint.

    5. Destruction or permanent Impairing of the power of any member or joint.

    6. Permanent Disfiguration of the head and face.

    7. Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth.(Discontinuity till medullary Cavity is considered grievous)

    8. Any hurt which Endangers life or, which causes the victim to be in the severe bodily Pain or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits (not mere hospitalization) for a period of 20 days.

    5. Dangerous Weapon*(Sec 324 &Sec 326 IPC)

    Any weapon used for Stabbing Shooting or Cutting(S.S.C),or is likely to cause death


    163. CAUSTIC POISON ERODES MUCOSA BECAUSE



    · HYGROSCOPIC IN NATURE
    · IT HAS GLUE LIKE ACTION
    · IT IS BEING PROGRAMMED TO STICK
    · IT HAS AFFINITY FOR MUCOSA


    Alkalis include sodium, potassium, and ammonium hydroxide and are bases and hygroscopic in nature thus they dissolve in water. They all contain a positive radical and a hydroxyl group. Alkalis produce a liquefaction necrosis when they come in contact with mucosa and penetrate deeply with full thickness burns common.

    Acids cause coagulation necrosis; an eschar forms, limiting further damage. Acids tend to affect the stomach more than the esophagus.

    Alkalis ( more damage than acids) cause rapid liquefaction necrosis; no eschar forms, and damage continues until the alkali is neutralized or diluted. Alkalis tend to affect the esophagus more than the stomach, but ingestion of large quantities severely affects both.


    165. FEATURES OF ANTE MORTEM BURN ARE All /Except ( Page 127- 128 )



    · VESICLE WITH HYPERAEMIC BASE
    · RED LINE
    · VESICLE WITH AIR

    . VITAL REACTION PRESENT

    Explanation

    • Difference between Anti-mortem and Post- mortem burns

    Trait Ante mortem Post- mortem
    burns

    1. Line of redness i. Present i. Absent

    2. Blister ii. Contains serous ii. Contains air only.
    fluid with Base is dry hard
    proteins and and yellow
    chlorides. Base
    is inflamed

    3. Vital reaction iii. Present iii. Absent

    4. Enzymes iv. Increase in iv. Does not show
    enzyme reaction increase in
    and SH group. enzyme reaction.

    5. CO Hb v. More than 5% v. Less
    of CO Hb






    Dr. Sumit Seth
    Author: " Review of Forensic Medicine"
    doctorsumitsethdotblogspotdotcom
  24. Guest

    Guest Guest

    LIVER DISEASE
  25. AIIMS Nov 2009: Answer rectified

    Lipid detection in frozen sample can be done with ?
    A) Mucicaramine
    B) Oil Red O
    C) PAS
    Answer: A) Mucicaramine (wrong)
    Pls rectify , it is Oil Red O: iss a lysochrome (fat-soluble dye) diazo dye used for staining of neutral triglycerides and lipids on frozen sections and some lipoproteins on paraffin sections.

    Mucicaramine: used to identify microorganisms with polysaccharide in the cell wall.
  26. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Rectified AIIMS 2009 Nov

    A 67 year male smoker presents with haemoptysis and cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy revealed undifferentiated tumor. The immunohistochemical marker that can be most helpful is ?
    A) Calretinin
    B) Vimentin
    C) Cytokeratin
    Answer: C) Cytokeratin (??????????)

    Calretinin: Calretinin is a vitamin D-dependent calcium-binding protein involved in calcium signaling.
    It stains mesothelioma and can be used to help differentiate different lung tumours.
    Calretinin is also abundantly expressed in neurons.
  27. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 21: Maternal Chromosome Disomy 15 is associated with ?
    A) Angelmann syndrome
    B) Fragile X syndrome
    C) Prader willi syndrome

    correct ans: prader willi syndrome
  28. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 5: A neonate with recurrent infection and abscess was diagnosed with Kostmann syndrome. Treatment is ?
    A) G-CSF
    B) GM-CSF
    C) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin
    D) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF
    Answer: D) Antithymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF
    CORRECT ANS :(A) G-CSF
  29. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 4: Vitamin deficiency that does not lead to seizure in a neonate ?
    A) Niacin
    B) Pyridoxine
    C) Vitamin C
    D) Vitamin B12
    Answer: B) Pyridoxine
    CORRECT ANS: DONT KNOW (VIT C IS BETTER GUESS THAN PYRIDOXINE)
  30. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 3: Early neonatal sepsis in India is most commonly due to ?
    A) Escherichia coli
    B) Group B streptococci
    C) Staphylococci
    D) Pseudomonas
    Answer: B) Group B streptococci
    correct ans maybe: (C) STAPHYLOCOCCI
  31. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 11: All are used in the treatment of Visceral Leishmaniasis except ?
    A) Hydoroxychloroquine
    B) Miltefosine
    C) Paromomycin
    D) Sitamaquine
    Answer: C) Paromomycin
    CORRECT ANS: A (Hydoroxychloroquine)
  32. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 3: A 17 year old girl presented with amenorrhoea. Examination revelaed absent breasts adn hypoplastic uterus. Most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
    B) Gonadal dysgenesis
    C) Turner's syndrome
    Answer: C) Turner's syndrome

    CORRECT ANS:(B) GONADAL DYSGENISIS
    (pure gonadal dysgenisis= swyer syndrome)
  33. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Question 4: All of the following use cAMP as a second messenger except ?
    A) Corticotrophin
    B) Dopamine
    C) Glucagon
    D) Vasopressin
    Answer: A) Corticotrophin

    CORTICOTROPHIN IS WRONG ANS
    CORRECT ANS: DONT KNOW

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