AIIMS 2008 (Questions With Answers) 1. Diabetes in pregnancy all except: a- Glucose challenge test is done between 24-28 week b- 50 gm of sugar given as screening test c- Insulin resistance improves with pregnancy d- Diabetes control before conception is important to prevent malformation Ans: c- Insulin resistance improves with pregnancy 2. Marker for granulosa cell tumor â€“ a- CA 19-9 b- CA 50 c- Inhibin d- Teratoma Ans: c- Inhibin 3. A 35 yr old female, with post coital bleeding, next step â€“ a- Clinical examination and pap smear b- Visual inspection with acetowhite c- Visual inspection with lugolâ€™s iodine d- Colposcopy directed biopsy Ans: a- Clinical examination and pap smear 4. Clue cells are seen in: a- Bacterial vaginosis b- Candidiasis c- Trichomoniasis d- Gonorrhoea Ans: a- Bacterial vaginosis 5. Topical antifungal in keratomycosis is â€“ a- Silver sulfadiazine b- Natamycin c- Ketoconazole d- Flucytosine Ans: b- Natamycin 6. Which of the following does not handle free radical in less? a- Vitamin A b- Vitamin C c- Vitamin E d- Catalase Ans: a- Vitamin A 7. Retinitis pigmentosa is associated with all except a- Usher syndrome b- Kornzweing syndrome c- Kearns-Sayre syndrome d- Marfan syndrome Ans: d- Marfan syndrome 8. Choroidal neurovacularization is seen in all except â€“ a- Trauma b- Angiod streak c- Myopia d- Hypermetropia Ans: d- Hypermetropia 9. Iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is associated with: a- Progressive atrophy of iris stroma b- Bilateral stromal edema of iris & cornea c- Deposition of collagen in Descemetâ€™s membrane d- Deposition of Glycosaminoglycan in Descemetâ€™s membrane Ans: a- Progressive atrophy of iris stroma 10. Pterygium is a- A vascular anomaly b- A connective tissue degeneration c- An inflammatory condition d- Associated with Vit. A deficiency Ans: b- A connective tissue degeneration 11. Chalazion of lid is â€“ a- Caseous necrosis b- Chronic nonspecific inflammation c- Chronic lipogranulomatous inflammation d- Liposarcoma Ans: c- Chronic lipogranulomatous inflammation 12. An orbital tumor has the following characteristics: Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily respectable, occurs most commonly in the 2nd to 4th decade. The diagnosis is: a- Hemangiopericytoma b- Dermoid c- Capillary hemangioma d- Cavernous hemangioma Ans: d- Cavernous hemangioma 13. A 12 yr old boy comes into room with left sided head tilt, on correcting that he has right sided hypertropia. The hypertropia increases on left gaze and tilting the head towards right. Which muscle is paralyzed? a- Right superior rectus b- Left superior rectus c- Right superior oblique d- Left superior oblique Ans: c- Right superior oblique 14. All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of macular edema in diabetic retinopathy except: a- Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction b- Oxidative stress c- VEGF d- Increased protein kinase-C Ans: a- Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction 15. Telecanthus is â€“ a- Narrow medial epicanthus b- Widely separated medial orbital wall c- Lateral epicanthal fold thickened d- Increase in intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance Ans: d- Increase in intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance 16. Turner syndrome is maximally associated with: a- Horseshoe kidney b- Coarctation of aorta c- VSD d- ASD Ans: b- Coarctation of aorta 17. Only females are affected in? a- Scheieâ€™s syndrome b- Hunters syndrome c- Hurlers syndrome d- Gauchers syndrome Ans: ?? 18. Most common cause of seizure in newborn is: a- Hypoxia induced ischemic encephalopathy b- Hypocalcemia c- Metabolic abnormality d- Sepsis Ans: a- Hypoxia induced ischemic encephalopathy 19. An infant with cleft lip, cleft palate, polydactly, microcephaly with holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp defect is suffering from: a- Trisomy 21 b- Trisomy 18 c- Trisomy 13 d- Turner Ans: c- Trisomy 13 20. Auxillary orthotopic liver transplant is indicated for: a- Metabolic liver disease b- As a standby procedure until finding a suitable donor c- Drug induced hepatic failure d- Acute fulminant liver failure for any cause Ans: d- Acute fulminant liver failure for any cause 21. Internal oblique, external oblique and transverses is retracted laterally in: a- Classic renal approach b- Laparoscopic approach c- Spigelian hernia d- â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦. Ans: ??? 22. In which of the following head and neck cancers, is lymph node metastasis least common: a- Tongue b- Buccal mucosa c- Hard palate d- Lower alveolus Ans: c- Hard palate 23. Most common testicular tumor in prepubertal adults is a- Yolk sac tumor b- Embryonal cell ca c- Seminoma d- Teratoma Ans: a- Yolk sac tumor 24. Metabolic abnormality seen in gastric outlet obstruction is a- Hypochloremic, hypokalemic acidosis b- Hypochloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis c- Hyperchloremic, hypokalemic acidosis d- Hyperchloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis Ans: b- Hypochloremic, hypokalemic alkalosis 25. Metabolic abnormality seen in large colorectal villous adenoma a- Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis b- Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis c- Chlorine sensitive metabolic acidosis d- Chlorine sensitive metabolic alkalosis Ans: b- Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis 26. Abbey estender flap is based on: a- Lingual artery b- Facial artery c- Labial artery d- Internal maxillary artery Ans: c- Labial artery 27. Chronic Burrowing ulcer is caused by: a- Microaerophilic streptococci b- Peptostreptococcus c- Streptococcus viridans d- Streptococcus pyogenes Ans: a- Microaerophilic streptococci 28. True about denaturation of proteins is all except: a- Unfolding occurs b- Disruption of secondary structure occurs c- Sequence of amino acids remain the same d- Biological activity is retained Ans: d- Biological activity is retained 29. False about Gastric lymphoma is: a- Stomach is the most common site b- Associate with H. pylori infection c- Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice d- 5 yr survival rate after treatment is 60%. Ans: c- Total gastrectomy with adjuvant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice 30. A six yr. old female presents with constipation and urinary retention. On examination a presacral mass is noted. Most probable diagnosis is: a- Pelvic neuroblastoma b- Rectal duplication cyst c- Sacrococcygeal teratoma d- Anterior sacral meningocele Ans: d- Anterior sacral meningocele 31. True about treatment of early breast carcinoma a- Aromatase inhibitors are replacing tamoxifen in premenopausal women b- Postmastectomy radiation therapy is given when 4 or more lymph nodes are positive c- Tamoxifen is not useful in post-menopausal women d- In premenopausal women, multidrug chemotherapy is given in selected patients Ans: b- Postmastectomy radiation therapy is given when 4 or more lymph nodes are positive 32. The reciptocal inhibition of antagonistic muscle upon lateral gaze is explained by: a- Sherrington law b- Herning law c- Laplace law d- Hickâ€™s law Ans: a- Sherrington law 33. Which is the correct statement regarding facial nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures? a- More common with transverse fractures b- More common with longitudinal fractures c- Facial palsy is of immediate onset d- It is always associated with CSF leakage. Ans: a- More common with transverse fractures 34. Laryngocele arises from a- True cords b- Subglottis c- Saccule of the ventricle d- Anterior commissure Ans: c- Saccule of the ventricle 35. An elderly diabetic with excruciating pain in ear, appearance of granulation in meatus, skull base infection with facial paralysis should be treated with a- Penicillin b- Ciprofloxacin c- 2nd generation cephalosporin d- Erythromycin Ans: a- Penicillin 36. Direct bronchoscopy can visualize all except: a- Trachea b- Vocal cords c- First segmental subdivision of branch d- Subcarinal lymph nodes Ans: d- Subcarinal lymph nodes 37. Auspitz sign is seen in: a- Pustular psoriasis b- Plaque type psoriasis c- Lichen planus d- Pityriasis rubra pilaris Ans: b- Plaque type psoriasis 38. Keratoderma blenorrhagicum is seen in: a- Psoriasis b- Reiterâ€™s syndrome c- Syphilis d- Disseminated gonococcal infection Ans: b- Reiterâ€™s syndrome 39. Most common cause of plant induced dermatitis in India: a- Poison ivy b- Parthenium c- Ragweed d- Cotton fibres Ans: b- Parthenium 40. Shortest acting NDMR: a- Succinyl choline b- Rapacuronium c- Altracurium d- Pancuronium Ans: b- Rapacuronium 41. All of the following are used to maintain proper oxygen flow to the patient except: a- Placement of nitrogen flowmeter downstream of the oxygen flowmeter b- A proportionater between N2 and O2 control valve c- Different pin index for nitrogen and oxygen d- Calibrated oxygen concentration analyses Ans: c- Different pin index for nitrogen and oxygen 42. Most common cause of postoperative renal failure: a- Decreased renal perfusion b- Toxicity of anesthetic drugs c- Toxicity of antibiotics d- ?? Ans: a- Decreased renal perfusion 43. Order of sensitivity of nerve fibres to Local anaesesthetic in decreasing order: a- Pain (C and A-delta), Preganglionic sympathetic (B), motor b- Preganglionic sympathetic (B), Pain (C and A-delta), sensory, motor c- Pain (C and A-delta), sensory, motor, Preganglionic sympathetic (B) d- Preganglionic sympathetic (B) sensory, motor, Pain (C and A-delta) Ans: b- Preganglionic sympathetic (B), Pain (C and A-delta), sensory, motor 44. An absolute contraindication of MRI is: a- Pacemaker b- Prosthetic cardiac valves c- Insulin pump d- Choclear implants Ans: d- Choclear implants 45. Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is: a- Synovial sarcoma b- Osteosarcoa c- Malignant fibrous histiocytoma d- Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma Ans: c- Malignant fibrous histiocytoma 46. PACS in medical imaging stands for: a- Planned archiving common system b- Planned archiving computerized system c- Picture archiving and communication system d- Picture archiving or computerized system Ans: c- Picture archiving and communication system 47. Snowman appearance on x-ray is seen in which cardiac pathology â€“ a- Fallots tetrology b- TAPVC c- TGA d- Ebsteinâ€™s anomaly Ans: b- TAPVC 48. If the right cardiac silhouette is obliterated, it means the pathology involves: a- Right middle lobe b- Right lower lobe c- Right atrium of heart d- Right ventricle of heart Ans: a- Right middle lobe 49. Egg on side appearance is seen in a- TOF b- TAPVC c- Uncorrected TGA d- Truncus arteriosus Ans: c- Uncorrected TGA 50. Investigation of choice for acoustic neuroma: a- CT without contrast b- CT with contrast c- MR without contrast d- MR with contrast Ans: d- MR with contrast 51. Which of these is not a sign of increased ICT? a- Erosion of dorsum sella b- Sutural diastasis c- Ballooning of sella d- Copper-beaten appearance Ans: c- Ballooning of sella 52. Hair on end appearance is seen in a- Thallassemia b- Scurvy c- Rickets d- Hemochromatosis Ans: a- Thallassemia 53. Atypical antipsychotic are all except: a- Olanzepine b- Clozapine c- Risperidone d- Thioridazone Ans: d- Thioridazone 54. A 25 yr old female patient history of 6 months, altered sensorium, involuntary movements, memory deficit, headache convulsions, abnormal movements, forgetfulness, 4 attack during day, 2 attack at night, CT normal: a- Epilepsy b- Dissociative disorder c- Hypochiondriasis d- Somatization disorder Ans: a- Epilepsy 55. A girl with normal milestone spend her time seeing her own hand, do not interact with others, what is the diagnosis? a- ADHD b- Autism c- Aspergerâ€™s syndrome d- Rettâ€™s disorder Ans: b- Autism 56.Increased suicidal tendency is associated with: a- Noradrenaline b- Serotonin c- Dopamine d- GABA Ans: b- Serotonin 57. Irresistible sexual desire in male is known as: a- Sadism b- Tribadism c- Satyriasis d- Nymphomania Ans: c- Satyriasis 58. In National Water Supply & Sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except â€“ a- Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km b- Water is exposed to the risk of cholera c- Water source has excess iron & heavy metals d- Water infested with Guniea worm Ans: d- Water infested with Guniea worm 59. Endemic ascitis is associated with the following â€“ a- Pyrrolizidine b- Aflatoxin c- Sanguinarine d- Beta oxalylamino alanine (BOAA) Ans: a- Pyrrolizidine 60. Which of the following is an example of disability limitation/ a- Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization b- Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP c- Resting affected limbs in neutral position d- Providing calipers for walking Ans: c- Resting affected limbs in neutral position 61. Specificity of a screening test measures â€“ a- True positives b- False positives c- False negatives d- True negatives Ans: d- True negatives 62. â€˜Vision 2020â€™ includes all of the following except â€“ a- Onchocerciasis b- Epidemic conjunctivitis c- Cataract d- Trachoma Ans: b- Epidemic conjunctivitis 63. Life cycle of filaria is a- Cyclodevelopmental b- Cyclopropagative c- Propagative d- Transovarian Ans: a- Cyclodevelopmental 64. All are criteria for normal Indian Reference male except: a- 60 kg b- 2200 Kcal/day c- 8 hrs in bed d- 20-39 age Ans: b- 2200 Kcal/day 65. Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is a- Zinc b- Aluminium c- Copper d- Magnesium Ans: b- Aluminium 66. In India, the cause for maximum maternal mortality is: a- Anemia b- Hemorrhage c- Abortion d- Sepsis Ans: b- Hemorrhage 67. In which of the following disease, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure a- Prostate Ca b- Lung cancer c- Colon Ca d- Ovarian Ca Ans: c- Colon Ca 68. A man with painful opthalmoplegia, cavernous sinus dilation: diagnosis is â€“ a- Gradinego syndrome b- Tolosa Hunt syndrome c- Cavernous sinus thrombosis d- Orbital pseudotumour Ans: b- Tolosa Hunt syndrome 69. Which is not a tumor suppressor gene? a- WT-1 b- Rb c- p53 d- RAS Ans: d- RAS 70. Which is the best distribution study the daily admission of head injury patients in a trauma care centre? a- Normal distribution b- Binominal distribution c- Uniform distribution d- Poisson distribution Ans: d- Poisson distribution 71. Mean bone density among two groups of 50 people each is compared with each other. The test of significance used would be: a- Paired-t-test b- Student t-test c- Analysis of variance d- Chi-Square test Ans: b- Student t-test 72. After applying a statistical test, an investigator gets the â€˜p valueâ€™ as 0.01. It means that: a- The probability of finding a significant difference is 1% b- The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference, is 1% c- The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times d- The power of the test used is 99% Ans: c- The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times 73. If mean is less than the median, than the data is said to be a- Positively skewed b- Negatively skewed c- Equitable distribution d- Normal distribution Ans: b- Negatively skewed 74. Study done on a group of patients showed coefficient of variance for BP and serum creatinine to be 20% & 15% respectively. Inference is that: a- Variation in BP is more than in serum creatinine b- Variation in serum creatinine is more than in BP c- Standard deviation of BP is more than of creatinine d- Standard deviation of creatinine is more than of BP Ans: a- Variation in BP is more than in serum creatinine 75. In a study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of a- Ecological study b- Cohort study c- Case reference study d- Experimental study Ans: a- Ecological study 76. Occupational cancer involve following organs except: a- Lung b- Breast c- Bladder d- Liver Ans: b- Breast 77. Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with: a- Rifampicin b- Ethionamide c- Cycloserine d- Ethambutol Ans: b- Ethionamide 78. Which drug is not acetylated? a- INH b- Dapsone c- Hydralazine d- Metoclopropamide Ans: d- Metoclopropamide 79. Which is not prodrug? a- Enalapril b- Clonidine c- Salmeterol d- Acetazolamide Ans: a- Enalapril 80. Free water clearance decreased by? a- Vincristine b- Vinblastine c- Chlorpropamide d- Furosemide Ans: d- Furosemide 81. Which of the following antibiotics acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis? a- Cefepine b- Aminoglycosides c- Erythromycin d- Doxycycline Ans: a- Cefepine 82. Which drug would treat both dermatophysis and candidal infection/ a- Ketoconazole b- Griseofulin c- Nystatin d- Tolnafet Ans: a- Ketoconazole 83. SIADH is caused by all except: a- Vincristine b- Vinblastine c- Actinomycin D d- Cyclophosphamide Ans: c- Actinomycin D 84. Which teratogen causes deafness? a- Isotretinoin b- Chloroquine c- Alcohol d- Warfarin Ans: a- Isotretinoin 85. Imatinib is used in the treatment of? a- Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia b- MDS c- ALL d- GIST Ans: a- Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia d- GIST 86. Sustained neutropenia is seen with? a- Vinblastin b- Cisplatin c- Carmustine d- â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦.. Ans: c- Carmustine 87. NOT used in scabies? a- BHC b- Permethrin c- Ciclopirox oleamine d- Crotamiton Ans: c- Ciclopirox oleamine 88. Not used in erectile dysfunction? a- PGE-2 b- Vardalafil c- Phenylephrine d- Alprostadil Ans: c- Phenylephrine 89. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic? a- Loratidine b- Acrivastatine c- Cyclizine d- â€¦â€¦â€¦. Ans: c- Cyclizine 90. True about aminoglycoside is all except: a- Are bacteriostatic b- Distributed only extracellularly c- Excreted unchanged in urine d- Teratogenic Ans: a- Are bacteriostatic 91. Loading dose depends on: a- Volume of distribution b- Clearance c- Rate of administration d- Half life Ans: a- Volume of distribution 92. Drug not used in H. pylori: a- Metronidazole b- Omeprezole c- Mosapride d- Amoxicillin Ans: c- Mosapride 93. Long acting beta-2 agonist? a- Albuterol b- Salmetarol c- Pirlbuterol d- Orciprenaline Ans: b- Salmetarol 94. Benzodiazepine antagonist ? a- Flumazenil b- Naloxone c- Furazolidone d- Naltrexone Ans: a- Flumazenil 95. Which is Cyt. P450 inhibitor ? a- Ketoconazole b- Rifampicin c- Phenytoin d- INH Ans: a- Ketoconazole 96. Which statement is true about carbamazepine? a- Used in trigeminal neuralgia b- Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor c- Can cause megaloblastic anemia d- It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus Ans: a- Used in trigeminal neuralgia 97. Drug used in uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal? a- Diazepam b- Clonidine c- Propanalol d- Methadone Ans: a- Diazepam 98. Buprenorphine is? a- Pure agonist b- Pure antagonist c- Partial agonist d- None Ans: c- Partial agonist 99. In cases of coarctation of aorta which of the following is not involved in collateral formation: a- Vertebral artery b- Posterior intercostals artery c- Axillary artery d- Subscapular artery Ans: a- Vertebral artery 100. U/L injury to hypoglossal nerve leads to all except a- Hemiatrophy of involved side b- Deviation of tongue towards the same side c- Loss of taste sensation in one half of the tongue d- Fasciculation of the tongue Ans: c- Loss of taste sensation in one half of the tongue 101. If median nerve is injured at the wrist then loss of function of all of the following will take place except: a- Lumbrical muscles to the Index finger b- Lumberical muscles to the middle finger c- Muscles of the thenar eminence d- Adductor pollicis Ans: d- Adductor pollicis 102. In standing position, Venous return to heart from lower limbs is affected by all of the following except: a- Competant valves b- Deep fascia c- Arterial pressure d- Contraction of calf muscles Ans: c- Arterial pressure 103. Movements taking place during abduction of shoulder joint are all except- a- Medial rotation of scapula b- Axial rotation of humerus at acromioclavicular joint c- Elevation of humerus d- Movements at clavicular end of sternoclavicular joint Ans: a- Medial rotation of scapula 104. Lhermitte dulcos disease true is â€“ a- Thickened cerebeller folli b- Atrophic cerebeller folli c- Vermian hypoplasia d- Septum pelluidumagenesis Ans: a- Thickened cerebeller folli 105. A man with chest pain, ST segment depression in lead v1-v4, after one hour will not be given: a- Beta blocker b- Thrombolytic c- Morphine d- Aspirin Ans: b- Thrombolytic 106. The thoracic duct receives tributaries from all of the following except a- Bilateral ascending lumber trunk b- Bilateral descending thoracic trunk c- Left upper intercostals trunk d- Right bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunk Ans: d- Right bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunk 107. True valves in portal venous system a- Present at the junction of superior mesenteric artery with the splenic artery b- Within the portal vein only c- The whole system vein only d- In the intrahepatic portion of portal vein Ans: c- The whole system vein only 108. All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except: a- Bulbourethral glands b- Internal urethral sphincter c- Dorsal nerve of penis d- Bulb of penis Ans: d- Bulb of penis 109. Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery? a- Cavernous branch b- Inferior hypophyseal c- Meningeal artery d- Ophthalmic artery Ans: d- Ophthalmic artery 110. Equilibrium potential for an ion is calculated using a- Gibbs Donnan equation b- Goldman equation c- Nernst equation d- Henderson Hesselbach equation Ans: c- Nernst equation 111. Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally differentiated adult do not divide a- There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult b- Phosphatase absent in fetal cells c- Proteinase is absent in fetus d- Absence of CD kinase Ans: a- There are many cyclin inhibitors which prevent cell to enter into S phase in adult 112. Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except a- Blood pressure b- Arterial PCO2 c- Potassium ions d- Cerebral Metabolic rate Ans: c- Potassium ions 113. CSF pressure is mainly regulated by a- Rate of CSF formation b- Rate of CSF absorption c- Cerebral blood flow d- Venous pressure Ans: b- Rate of CSF absorption 114. Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation a- Pulmonary vasodilation in hypoxia b- Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia c- Decreased blood volume during systole d- Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone Ans: b- Pulmonary vasoconstriction in hypoxia 115. Regarding Golgi tendon organ true is a- Senses dynamic length of muscle b- Involved in reciprocal innervation c- Alpha-motor neuron stimulation d- Senses muscle tension Ans: d- Senses muscle tension 116. Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is k/a a- Adaptation b- Accomodation c- Refractoriness d- Electrotonus Ans: b- Accomodation 117. Regarding transport of substances through the cell membrane, all are true except: a- Glucose is transported via facilitated diffusion b- Active transport is an energy driven process c- Facilitated diffusion requires energy d- Facilitated diffusion requires carrier protein Ans: c- Facilitated diffusion requires energy 118. In a seriously ill patient, addition of amino acids in diet results in a positive nitrogen balance. The mechanism for this is: a- Increased Growth hormones secretion b- Enhanced rate of gluconegenesis c- Increased absorption of amino acids from diet d- Increased secretion of Insulin Ans: d- Increased secretion of Insulin 119. Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except: a- Steroid hormone b- Transcription repressors c- Hormone responsive element d- Transcription activators Ans: b- Transcription repressors 120. Phosphatidyl choline in a lipid monolayer, at pH of 3.5 leads to: a- Decreased surface potential b- Increased surface potential c- Decreased dipole moment d- Zero dipole moment Ans: ??? 121. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except: a- Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity b- Increases the transport of glucose into the cells c- Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase d- Decreases intracellular cAMP level Ans: c- Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase 122. True about G protein coupled receptors is: a- G proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface b- All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind each other G protein to act c- G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit d- G protein is bound to GTP in resting state Ans: c- G proteins act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit 123. Poly(A) tail translate into: a- Polyproline b- Polylysine c- Polyalanine d- Polyglycine Ans: b- Polylysine 124. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because a- It is required for the process of transamination b- It is co-factor in oxidative reduction c- It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway d- It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase Ans: d- It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase 125. All are true about glutathione except: a- It is a tripeptide b- It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin c- It conjugates xenobiotics d- It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions Ans: b- It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin 126. In molecular cloning, Blue-white screening is used for: a- To screen for recombinant vectors b- To detect gene mutations c- To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors d- To detect host DNA in situ Ans: c- To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors 127. Sweating in Not present in a- Heat syncope b- Heat cramps c- Heat stroke d- Heat fatigue Ans: c- Heat stroke 128. Finger print bureau was first established in a- India b- England c- USA d- France Ans: a- India 129. Corpus delicti means a- Essence of crime b- Inquest into death c- Postmortem examination d- Death by asphyxia Ans: a- Essence of crime 130. Lat organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxial death is a- Neck b- Head c- Abdomen d- Thorax Ans: a- Neck 131. Nocardia is stained by all except: a- Acid fast stain b- Kiramâ€™s stain c- Alcain blue d- Mucin stain Ans: b- Kiramâ€™s stain 132. Selective media for vibrio: a- TCBS b- Stuart c- Skirrows d- MYPA Ans: a- TCBS 133. Mark true in following: a- Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces b- Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal c- Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks d- ??? Ans: a- Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is used by inhalation of rodent urine and feces 134. True about mycoplasma are all except: a- They are L forms b- Sterol enhances growth c- Can grow in cell free media d- When growth in liquid medium do not produces turbidity Ans: a- They are L forms 135. About HUS all are except: a- Not commonly caused by verocytogenic E-coli b- Causes mild to severe Coombs positive hemolytic anemia c- Recurrences rare d- Transient thrombocytopenia Ans: a- Not commonly caused by verocytogenic E-coli b- Causes mild to severe Coombs positive hemolytic anemia 136. True about mycobacterium other than tuberculosis: a- Causes disseminated infection b- Occurs in persons with normal immunity c- Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity d- Person to person transmission is seen Ans: c- Causes decreased efficacy of BCG due to cross immunity 137. Malta fever is caused by : a- Treponema pallidum b- Borrelia burgdorferi c- Brucella melitensis d- Pseudomonas aeruginosa Ans: c- Brucella melitensis 138. Acute Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis true is â€“ a- Meningitis caused by acanthamoeba species is acute in nature b- Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozite in CSF c- Caused by feco oral transmission d- More common in tropical climate Ans: b- Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozite in CSF 139. Parvovirus B19 does not cause: a- Roseola infantum b- Alplastic anemia in sickle cell disease c- Fetal hydrops d- â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦â€¦. Ans: a- Roseola infantum 140. What is true about Histoplasmosis? a- In early stages it is indistinguishable from T.B. b- Culture is not diagnostic c- Hyphal forms are infectious form d- Person to person spread occurs by dropal infection Ans: a- In early stages it is indistinguishable from T.B. 141. True about polio: a- Paralytic polio is most common b- Spastic paralysis c- Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis d- Polio drop given only in <3 year Ans: c- IM injections and increased muscular activity leads to increases the risk of paralytic polio 142. Which is not a part of HACEK ? a- Hemophilus Aphrophilus b- Acinetobacter Boumani c- Cardiobacterium Hominis d- Kingella Kingae Ans: b- Acinetobacter Boumani 143. A patient presents with mediastinal mass with sheets of epithelial cells giving arborizing pattern of reactivity alongwith interspersed lympoid cells. The apt diagnosis would be: a- Thymoma b- Thymic carcinoid c- Primary mediatinal lymphoma d- Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Ans: a- Thymoma 144. A 30-yrs old female, RBC counts 4.5 million, MCV 55f1, TC 8000, no history of blood transfusion? a- Iron deficiency anemia b- Thalessemia major c- Thalessemia minor d- Megaloblastic anemia Ans: c- Thalessemia minor 145. Ulcerative colitis what is seen? a- Cryptitis b- Crypt loss c- Crypt branching d- Proliferating mucosa Ans: a- Cryptitis 146. The gene responsible for folic acid transport is situated on which chromosome? a- 10 b- 5 c- X d- 21 Ans: d- 21 147. Hematoxylin bodies seen in: a- SLE b- PAN c- Rheumatoid arthritis d- Wegeners granulomatosus Ans: a- SLE 148. CD-99 is for:- a- Ewingâ€™s sarcoma b- SLL c- Sermatofibroma protruberans d- Malignant histiocytic fibroma Ans: a- Ewingâ€™s sarcoma 149. Loss of hetrozygosity associated with: a- Acute myeloid leukemia b- ALL c- Retinoblastoma d- Promyelocitic leukemia Ans: c- Retinoblastoma 150. Most common primary lymphoma of spleen? a- Hodgkinâ€™s lymphoma b- Small lymphocytic lymphoma c- Anaplastic lymphoma d- Burkittâ€™s lymphoma Ans: b- Small lymphocytic lymphoma 151. Rituximab is used in all except a- NHL b- PNH c- RA d- SLE Ans: b- PNH 152. Kasabaach Merrit Syndrome is associated with: a- Giant hemangioma b- Large aneurysm of aorta c- Giant Thrombocytes d- A-V malformation Ans: a- Giant hemangioma 153. All are causes of increased anion gap except â€“ a- DKA b- Starvation c- Ethylene glycol poisoning d- Glue sniffing Ans: d- Glue sniffing 154. Which valve is least affected in Rheumatic fever? a- Pulmonary valve b- Tricuspid valve c- Mitral valve d- Aortic valve Ans: a- Pulmonary valve 155. Drug used to perform stress ECHO? a- Thallium b- Dobutamine c- Adrenaline d- Adenosine Ans: b- Dobutamine 156. Torsades de pointes causes? a- Eide QRS b- Short QRS c- Wide QT d- Short QT Ans: c- Wide QT 157. True about autonomic neuropathy are all except: a- Resting tachycardia b- Silent MI c- Orthostatic hypotension d- Bradyardia Ans: d- Bradyardia 158. In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except: a- 5th cranial nerve b- 6th cranial nerve c- 7th cranial nerve d- Contralateral hemiplegia Ans: a- 5th cranial nerve 159. For differentiating between Insulinoma and Sulfonylurea related hypoglycemia, the test which is useful is? a- Antibody to Insulin b- Plasma C-peptide level c- Plasma Insulin level d- Insulin: Glucose ratio Ans: is none. 160. All are used for treating Pulmonary hypertension except: a- Endothelin receptor antagonists b- Phosphodiesterase inhibitors c- Calcium Channel Blockers d- Beta blockers Ans: d- Beta blockers 161. Goodpastureâ€™s disease is characterized by all except: a- Glomerulonephritis b- Leukocytoclastic vasculitis c- Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage d- Presence of antibodies to BM Ans: b- Leukocytoclastic vasculitis 162. Alzheimerâ€™s disease, which is involved? a- Frontal cortex b- Cortical atrophy of temporoparietal cortex c- Frontal and parietal cortex d- Occipital cortex Ans: b- Cortical atrophy of temporoparietal cortex 163. Rasmussenâ€™s aneurysm involves? a- Bronchial aneurysm b- Pulmonary aneurysm c- Vertebral artery d- Posterior intercostal artery Ans: b- Pulmonary aneurysm 164. Damage to categorical hemisphere usually leads to: a- Normal speech b- Increased speech c- Decreased speech d- Senseless, fluent speech Ans: d- Senseless, fluent speech 165. 1st drug to be used absence seizures: a- Phenytoin b- BZD c- Valproate d- Carbamazepine Ans: c- Valproate 166. Most common inherited childhood tumor is; a- Leukemia b- Neuroblastoma c- Retinoblastoma d- Wilmâ€™s tumor Ans: c- Retinoblastoma 167. Absent thumb, radial deviation of wrist, bowling of forearm with thrombocytopenia which investigation need not to be done? a- Echocardiography b- Bone marrow examination c- Platelet count d- Karyotyping Ans: a- Echocardiography 168. Macrocephaly is seen in which of the following syndromes? a- Metachromatic leucodystrophy b- Adrenoleukodystrophy c- Canavanâ€™s disease d- Krabbeâ€™s disease Ans: c- Canavanâ€™s disease 169. Best prognosis after nerve repair: a- Radial b- Median c- Sciatic d- Ulnar Ans: a- Radial 170. Not seen in osteopetrosis: a- Compression of cranial nerve b- Osteomyelitis of mandible c- Pancytopenia d- Delayed healing of bone Ans: none or best option d- Delayed healing of bone 171. Material used in verterbroplasty is: a- Isomethyl methacylate b- Isoethyl methacrylate c- Polyethyl methacrylate d- Polymethyl methacrylate Ans: d- Polymethyl methacrylate 172. The progesterone of choice for emergency contraception is: a- Norethisterone b- Medroxyprogesteronacetate c- Levonorgestral d- Desogestral Ans: c- Levonorgestral 173. Pre-conceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect? a- Vit. A b- Folate c- Vit. E d- Vit. C Ans: b- Folate 174. Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts? a- HPV 16 b- HPV 18 c- HPV 31 d- HPV 6 Ans: d- HPV 6 175. The cause of fetal death in ectopic pregnancy is postulated as: a- Vascular accident b- Nutritional adequancy c- Endocrine insufficiency d- Immune response of mother Ans: a- Vascular accident 176. When in labor, a diagnosis of occipito posterior presentation is made. The most appropriate management in this case would be: a- Emergency CS b- Wait and watch for progress of labour c- Early rupture of membranes d- Start oxytocin drip Ans: b- Wait and watch for progress of labour 177. Most valuable diagnostic test in a case of suspected ectopic pregnancy: a- Serial Beta-hCG levels b- Transvaginal USG c- Progesterone measurement d- Culdocentesis Ans: b- Transvaginal USG 178. Call-Exner bodies are seen in: a- Granulosa cell tumor b- Yolk Sac tumor c- Choriocarcinoma d- Dysgerminoma Ans: a- Granulosa cell tumor 179. A lady with CA ovary in follow up with raised CA 125 level, next step â€“ a- CT b- PET c- MRI d- Clinical exam and serial follow up of CA125 Ans: b- PET 180. Blood in urine in a patient in labour, diagnosis is â€“ a- Impending scar rupture b- Urethral injury c- Obstructed labour d- Cystitis Ans: c- Obstructed labour 181. Androgen insensitivity syndrome true is: a- Phenotype may be completely female b- Predominantly ovarian component in gonads c- Always in female d- Testes formed abnormality and receptors are normal Ans: a- Phenotype may be completely female 182. 10 year old girl with primary amenorrhoea, absent breasts, malformed uterus. The most likely diagnosis: a- MRKH syndrome b- Turnerâ€™s syndrome c- Swyer syndrome d- Mixed gonadal dysgenesis Ans: b- Turnerâ€™s syndrome 183. Regarding Alpha Fetoprotein true statement is: a- Major source of fetal life is yolk sac b- Commonly elevated in Wilmâ€™s tumor c- Max level at 20th week d- Half-life 5-7 days Ans: a- Major source of fetal life is yolk sac 184. AML with gum infiltration, hepatosplenomegaly: a- ALL b- M3 c- M2 d- M4 Ans: d- M4 185. The Electron Microscopy is virtually diagnostic in renal biopsy study of: a- Goodpastureâ€™s syndrome b- Churg-Strauss syndrome c- Alport syndrome d- Wgnerâ€™s granulomatosis Ans: c- Alport syndrome 186. Bone resorption markers are except: a- Tartarate resistant alk. phosphatase (TRAP) b- Osteocalcin c- Cross linked-N-telopeptides d- Urine total free deoxypyridinoline Ans: b- Osteocalcin 187. Marker for granulocytic sarcoma: a- CD33 b- CD38 c- CD117 d- CD137 Ans: c- CD117 188. Which type of FSGS has worst prognosis? a- Tip variant b- Collapsing c- NOS d- Perihilar Ans: b- Collapsing 189. Shock lung is characterized by ? a- Alveolar proteinosis b- Bronchiolitis obliterans c- Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage d- Diffuse alveolar damage Ans: d- Diffuse alveolar damage 190. Ultrasound finding in case of paraganglioma? a- Deposition of glycogen b- Enlarged mitochondria c- Shrunken mitochondria d- Dense core granules Ans: d- Dense core granules 191. Steroid resistant nephritic syndrome â€“ a- Nephrin b- Alpha-acthin-4 c- Podocin d- Transient Receptor Potential 6 Ans: c- Podocin 192. A patients with HB-6 gm, TLC 12000, PLATELET-60,000, MCV 12FL, what is the diagnosis? a- Aplastic anemia b- Megaloblastic anemia c- PNH d- Myelofibrosis Ans: b- Megaloblastic anemia 193. Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis is: a- Staphylococcus b- Shigella c- Chlamydia d- Yersinia Ans: c- Chlamydia 194. Nerve compressed by aneurysm of posterior communicating artery is â€“ a- Occulomotor nerve b- Optic nerve c- Hypophysis cerebri d- Trochlear nerve Ans: a- Occulomotor nerve 195. Which is a feature of high altitude pulmonary edema? a- Associated with low cardiac output b- Associated with pulmonary hypertension c- Occurs only in unacclamatized persons d- Exercise has no effect Ans: b- Associated with pulmonary hypertension 196. Non-noxious stimulus is perceived as pain in: a- Allodynia b- Hyperalgesia c- Paraesthesia d- Hyperpathia Ans: a- Allodynia 197. All are seen in cystinosis except: a- Photophobia and blond hair b- Renal calculi c- Presence of cystine within leukocytes d- Fanconi syndrome Ans: b- Renal calculi 198. Which of the following is not true? a- William syndrome consists of precocious puberty, mental retardation and obesity b- In absence of sunlight daily requirement of vitamin D is 400-600 IU c- 1 alpha hydroxylation occurs in kidney d- 25 alpha hydroxylation occurs in liver Ans: a- William syndrome consists of precocious puberty, mental retardation and obesity 199. Secondary structure of prion proteins in prion disease like Creutz feldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is â€“ a- Beta sheets b- Beta bend c- Beta turus d- Alfa helix Ans: a- Beta sheets 200. Post transplant lymphoma is â€“ a- T cell b- B cell c- Null cell d- NK cell Ans: b- B cell AIIMS MAY 2008 Q & A With Explanations Q. Marker for granulocytic sarcoma? a)CD33 b)CD38 c)CD117 d)CD153 ans is c)CD117 A chloroma, or granulocytic sarcoma, or most appropriately, extramedullary myeloid tumor, is a solid tumor composed of immature malignant white blood cells called myeloblasts. A chloroma is an extramedullary manifestion of acute myeloid leukemia; in other words, it is a solid collection of leukemic cells occurring outside of the bone marrow. Diagnosis Definitive diagnosis of a chloroma usually requires a biopsy of the lesion in question. Historically, even with a tissue biopsy, pathologic misdiagnosis was an important problem, particularly in patients without a clear pre-existing diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia to guide the pathologist. In one published series on chloroma, the authors stated that 47% of the patients were initially misdiagnosed, most often as having a malignant lymphoma. However, with advances in diagnostic techniques, the diagnosis of chloromas can be made more reliable. Traweek et al. described the use of a commercially available panel of monoclonal antibodies, against myeloperoxidase, CD68, CD43, and CD20, to accurately diagnose chloroma via immunohistochemistry and differentiate it from lymphoma. Nowadays, immunohistochemical staining using monoclonal antibodies against CD34 and CD117 would be the mainstay of diagnosis. The increasingly refined use of flow cytometry has also facilitated more accurate diagnosis of these lesions.