Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by micro.Shweta, Nov 19, 2008.

  1. micro.Shweta

    micro.Shweta Guest

    1. Regarding acrodermatitis enteropathica all of the following are true except
    a. It is a triad of dermatitis , diarrhoea and dementia
    b. Autosomal recessive inheritance
    c. Caused by enzyme ............
    d. Treated by giving large dose of zinc

    2. Which of the following pair is incorrect
    a. Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
    b. Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
    c. Increased calcium intake cause iron deficiency
    d. Vit A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vit A diet
    3. A female with raynaud’s phenomenon is more prone to develop
    a. Scleroderma
    b. Leukemia
    c. SLE
    d. Systemic onset RA

    4. Transmission of HIV from mother to child is prevented by all the following except
    a. Oral Zidovudine to mother at 3rd trimester along with oral zidovudine to infant fo 6 weeks
    b. vit A prophylaxis to mother
    c. vaginal delivery
    d. Stopping breast feeding
    5. All are included in the Framingham major criteria for ccf except
    a. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
    b. Cardiomegaly
    c. Hepatomegay
    d. S3 gallop
    6. A middle aged female presents with polyarthritis with elevated rheumatoid factor and ANA levels, which among the following will help you to differentiate RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS from SLE?
    a. Soft tissue swelling at the proximal inter phalangial joint
    b. Juxta articular osteoporosis on x ray
    c. Articular erosions on xray
    d. Elevated ESR
    7. A patient is having conjunctivitis, utethritis and arthritis, which among the following may be the causative agent?
    a. Borrelia burgdoferi
    b. Ureaplasma urealyticum
    c. Beta hemolytic streptococci
    d. Streptococcus bovis
    8. Reiter’s syndrome is associated with which of the following except
    a. Circinate balanitis
    b. Oral ulcers
    c. Subcutaneous nodules
    d. Keratoderma blenorrhagica

    9. Which of the following antibodies involved in myositis?
    a. Anti scl70
    b. Anti jo1
    c. Anti ku
    d. Anti sm
    10. Which of the following joint not involved in rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Ankle
    b. Elbow
    c. Tarso metatarsal joints
    d. Interphalangeal joints
    11. Spontaneous csf leak is caused by all of the following except
    a. Increased ICT
    b. Pseudo tumor cerebri
    c. Partial or total empty sella syndrome
    d. Low is of encephalomyelocele
    12. In a patient with uraemia all the following conditions will improve after hemodialysis except
    a. Peripheral neuropathy
    b. Pericarditis
    c. Seizures
    d. Metabolic acidosis
    13. In a patient with cirrhosis spider naevi is due to which of the following
    a. Aldosterone
    b. Androgen
    c. Estrogen
    d. Hepato toxins
    14. In progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy which among the following is not true
    a. Deep cortico cerebellar degeneration
    b. Brain bipsy is needed to confirm the diagnosis
    c. Visual impairement
    d. Chronic indolent course
    15. Regarding thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura all the following are true except
    a. Low complement levels
    b. Coombs negative haemolytic anaemia
    c. Minimal activation of coagulation system
    d. Hyaline fibrin thrombi

    16. Most common cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis
    b. Sle
    c. Hansen’s disease
    d. PAN

    17. 54 years male smoker on and off came with the complaints of recurrent episodes of cough, fever, hemoptysis, weight loss with oligo arthritis for 6 months duration., chest xray reveals fleeting opacities in the lung fields, which among the following is most probable diagnosis?
    a. Ca lung
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. ABPA
    d. Wegener’s granulomatosis
    18. In multiple myeloma which of the following is not a minor criteria?
    a. Multiple lytic lesions on skull xray
    b. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
    c. Plamacytosis >20% in plasma
    d. Serum IgG >3.5g and IgM>1.5g
    19. In acute replicative phase of hepatitis B infection which of the following will not be elevated?
    a. HBV DNA
    b. HBV DNA polymerase
    c. Anti-HBc
    d. Elevated liver enzymes
    20. Pertussis toxin does not lead to
    a. ADA ribosylation of Gs alpha subunit
    b. Blocks adenylyl cyclase
    c. Increased calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
    d. Persistent activation of G alpha subunit
    21. A patint with [bleep] emphysema with obstructive pattern in pulmonary function studies which among the following will be more useful in measuring lung volumes?
    a. DLCO
    b. Helium dilution method
    c. Body plethysmography
    d. Transdiaphragmatic pressure
    22. 25 years female with 4 months duration of progressive dyspnoea, with FVC 90%, FEV1/FVC92%, DLCO59%, and oxygen saturation after exercise reduced from 92% to 86%. what is the most probable diagnosis
    a. Anxiety disorder
    b. Primary pulmonary hypertension
    c. Pulmonary hypoventilation
    d. Interstitial lung disease
    23. Anti TNF alpha therapy is contraindicated in
    a. SLE
    b. Sero negative spondyloarthritis
    c. Psoriatic arthritis
    d. Behcet’s syndrome

    24. All the following diseases are caused by protein folding defects except?
    a. Amyloidosis
    b. Prion diseases
    c. Multiple sclerosis
    d. CJD
    25. Regarding prion protein which of the following is true
    a. It is a protein product coded in viral DNA
    b. catalyses abnormal folding of other proteins
    c. Protect disulfide bonds from oxidation
    d. Cleaves normal proteins
    26. In a patient with renal failure which of the following cephalosporin can be given
    a. Cefuroxime
    b. Cefeperazone
    c. Cefepime
    d. Cefoxitin
    27. 10 years old female treated for upper respiratory tract infection with cefaclor for 10 days following with she developed fever, lymphadenopathy, rashes, what is the propable cause
    a. Type iii hypersensitivity reaction
    b. Infectious mononucleosis
    c. .
    d. .
    28. Digoxin toxicity increased by all except
    a. Renal failure
    b. Hyperkalaemia
    c. Hypomagnesemia
    d. Hypercalcemia
    29. Which of the following is an alkylating agent
    a. Methotrexate
    b. Ifosfamide
    c. .
    d. .
    30. All of the following are alkylating agents except
    a. 5 FU
    b. Melphalan
    c. Cyclophosphamide
    d. Chlorampheicol
    31. Which of the following not an immunosuppressant
    a. Cyclosporine
    b. Azathiprine
    c. Steroids
    d. Cephalosporins
    32. In cirrhosis patints, dose reduction is needed for all the following drugs except
    a. Lorazepam
    b. Paracetamol
    c. Metranidazole
    d. Theophylline
    33. All the following drugs produce neuroleptic malignant syndrome except
    a. Domperidone
    b. Metaclopramide
    c. Haloperidol
    d. Amantadine
    34. Which of the following anticancer is excreted by lung
    a. Doxorubicin
    b. Cyclophosphamide
    c. Cisplatin
    d. 5FU
    35. In detrusor overactivity all the following drugs are indicated except
    a. Flevaxate
    b. Tolterodine
    c. Solifenazine
    d. Duloxitine
    36. Sustained release catheter is indicated in which of the following conditions
    a. Delivery of drug to round window
    b. Frey’s syndrome
    c. Drooling of saliva
    d. Epistaxis
    37. Regarding acarbose all the following are true except
    a. Decreases both fasting and postprandial blood sugar
    b. Inhibits alpha glucosidase
    c. Decreases fibrinogen
    d. Prevents progression of impaired glucose tolerance to type ii DM
    38. Thalidomide is indicated in all the following conditions except
    a. HIV neuropathy
    b. HIV oral ulcers
    c. ENL
    d. Behcet’s disease
    39. Regarding ACE inhibitors which of the following in true
    a. T1/2 of enalapril is more than lisinopril
    b. ACE converts angiotensinogen to AT I
    c. Pre treatment stoppage of diuretics decreases first dose hypotension
    d. It should be used only in decompensated left ventricular dysfunction

    40. In osteoporosis which of the following drug causes both increased bone formation and decreased bone resorption
    a. Edindronate
    b. Calcitonin
    c. Teriperatide
    d. strontium
    41. Regarding herceptin which is true
    a. Injection of herceptin Ag increases antibody response
    b. Her2neu positivity in most of the breast cancers so it can be used as a good target
    c. Development of mouse Ab
    d. ...
    42. Vasopressin of choice in obstetrics patients
    a. Ephedrine
    b. Phenylephrine
    c. Methoxamine
    d. Mephentermine
    43. All the following are phase I reactions except
    a. Conjugation
    b. Oxidation
    c. Reduction
    d. Hydroxylation

    44. SAFE strategy includes all except
    a. facial Hygiene
    b. Vit A supplementation
    c. Environmental sanitation
    d. Oral azithromycin
    45. Kaplan mayer test is used for
    a. Survival
    b. Incidence
    c. Prevelance
    d. Frequency
    46. Incidence is calculated by
    a. Cross sectional
    b. Prospective
    c. Retrospective
    d. Case control

    47. Cyclodevelopmental method in
    a. Filaria
    b. Malaria
    c. Yellow fever
    d. Plague
    48. Regarding vaccine all of the following are true except
    a. Thiomersal is used as preservative in DPT
    b. kanamycin in BCG
    c. neomycin in measles vaccine
    d. MgSO4 in OPV
    49. Regarding BCG vaccine which is true
    a. Normal saline or distilled water is used for reconstituition
    b. Who recommends danish1331 strain for vaccine production
    c. Injection site is cleaned by spirit
    d. BCG scar is formed definitely after 6 months
    50. Disposable plastic syringe cover is disposed by which colour code
    a. Blue
    b. Yellow
    c. Red
    d. Black
    51. Incineration done in all except
    a. Sharp waste
    b. Solid waste
    c. Cytotoxic waste
    d. Anatomical waste
    52. Minimal incubation period is for
    a. Rubella
    b. Influenza
    c. Hepatitis A
    d. Hepatitis B
    53. Which is not an antilarvicidal
    a. Paris green
    b. DDT
    c. Gambushia
    d. Intermittent irrigation
    54. DDT all are true except
    a. It is a contact poison
    b. Produces immediate death
    c. Residual effect present for 18 months
    d. Synergistic action with permithrin
    55. according to PDA 1995 – Which is added as 7th disability in indian parliment
    a. RTA
    b. Mental illness
    c. Neurological illness
    d. Substance use
    56. In a screening test in community level, if false positive levels are more it indicates
    a. High sensitivity
    b. High specificity
    c. Prevelance is low
    d. Prevelance is high
    57. In RCT all are true except
    a. Investigator bias decrease by double blinding
    b. Control and test group compares with simple baseline characters
    c. Sample size varies depend on hypothesis
    d. Drop out exclude from the diagnosis
    58. Regarding cluster sample which is true
    a. Fast
    b. Sample size equal to simple random sampling
    c. Clusters are selected from the clusters in the community
    d. Sampling frame is necessary
    59. Lepromin test used for
    a. Diagnosis
    b. Prognosis
    c. Treatment
    d. Epidemiological investigation
    60. Net protein utilisation
    a. Nitrogen retained in body /nitrogen intake
    b. Good quality of protein
    c. Amount of total energy intake
    d. ……
    61. Regarding human milk all are true except
    a. Maximum secretion at 12 months
    b. 70% iron absorption coefficient
    c. Human milk is a reference protein
    d. .
    62. Fish contains all except
    a. Iodine
    b. Iron
    c. Calcium
    d. Phosphate
    63. Bio safety level 3 in included for all diseases except
    a. Coxiella burnetti
    b. TB
    c. Influenza
    d. St Louis encephalitis
    64. Salmonella isolation is recommendes for
    a. Upto 3 days of starting chloramphenical treatment
    b. Upto widal becomes negative
    c. Till fever subsides
    d. 3 stool and urine cultures negativeon separate days
    65. Standard reference females all are true except
    a. 20 -49 yrs age
    b. 55 kg weight
    c. 8 hours sleep
    d. 2 hours activities
    66. Post pasteurized milk’s quality is tested by
    a. Phosphatise test
    b. Methylene blue test
    c. Catalase test
    d. Oxidase test

    67. All the following are true regarding NPP except
    a. To bring TFR to replacement level by 2015
    b. IMR to 30/1000
    c. MMR to 100/100000
    d. 100% registration of birth, death , marriages and pregnancies
    68. Spleen projects into
    a. Greater sac
    b. Left paracolic gutter
    c. Left subhepatic space
    d. Infra colic gutter
    69. Terminal group o fColic lymph nodes
    a. Para aortic
    b. Pre aortic
    c. Paracolic
    d. Intermediate
    70. Renal medulla contains all except
    a. JG apparatus
    b. Loop of henle
    c. Vasa recta
    d. Collecting duct
    71. Boundaries of triangle of DOOM are all except
    a. Ductus deferens
    b. Testicular vessels
    c. Cooper’s ligameng
    d. Reflected fold of peritoneum
    72. Permanent folds are all except
    a. Gastric regae
    b. Spiral valve
    c. Plica circularis
    d. Transverse rectal fold

    73. Derivates of alar plate are all except
    a. Inferior olivary nucleus
    b. Hypoglossal nucleus
    c. Dentate nucleus
    d. Substantia nigra
    74. Thrombosis of subclavian artery at the outer border of first rib, flow in axillary artery is maintained by all except
    a. Subscapular artery
    b. Superior thoracic artery
    c. Suprascapular artery
    d. Transverse cervical artery
    75. Blood supply of sternocleidomastois muscle are all except
    a. Superior thyroid artery
    b. Thyrocervical trunk
    c. Occipital artery
    d. Posterior auriculartery
    76. Buccinators muscele is pierced by all except
    a. Parotid duct
    b. Buccal branch of facial nerve
    c. Buccal branch of mandibular nerve
    d. Molar mucosal glands of buccopharyngeal fascia
    77. Boundaries of triangle of auscultation all except
    a. Scapula
    b. Lattissimus dorsi
    c. Serratus anterior
    d. Trapezius
    78. Axillary sheath is derived from
    a. Prevertebral fascia
    b. Clavipectoral fascia
    c. Axillary fascia
    d. Pectoral fascia
    79. Hunterian ligature is used for
    a. Aneurysm
    b. AV malformation
    c. Varicose veins
    d. Dissection
    80. Most common site of peripheral aneurysm
    a. Femoral
    b. Popliteal
    c. carotid
    d. iliac

    81. in deep posterior compartmental syndrome pain is produced on
    a. toe flexion
    b. toe extension
    c. foot dorsiflexion
    d. ankle inversion
    82. 30 years female admitted for abdominal pain, who was on sulpha drugs for recent infection, developed seizues what is the diagnosis?
    a. AIP
    b. CEP
    c. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
    d. HGPRTase deficiency
    83. Most common cause of mesenteric ischemia
    a. Arterial embolism
    b. Venous thrombosis
    c. Non occlusive mesenteric ischemia
    d. Arterial thrombosis
    84. In a multiple injuries patient developed fever, tachycardia, tachypnoea, rash around umblicus on 2nd day, what is the cause
    a. Fat embolism
    b. Pulmonary embolism
    c. Meningitis
    d. Drug hypersensitivity
    85. Penetrating injury on right flank, patient is stable, next step is
    a. DPL
    b. Exploratory celiotomy
    c. CECT
    d. Celiac angiography
    86. 24 years male, CT shows necrotic mass in left hilum of kidney with heterogenous contrast enhancement what is the diagnosis
    a. Malignant melanoma
    b. Metastatic transitional ca
    c. Metastatic germ cell tumor
    d. Lymphoma
    87. Breast ca with left supraclavicular lymph node what is the stage
    a. IIIb
    b. IV
    c. IIIa
    d. IIb
    88. For recurrent GIST what is best for diagnosis
    a. CECT
    b. PET
    c. MIBG
    d. MRI

    89. Female 25 years,with abducens palsy, seizures with with Cavernous sinus mass hyperlucency on T2W image and slow gradual filling on CECT, what is the diagnosis
    a. Meningioma
    b. Cavernous hemangioma
    c. Astrocytoma
    d. schwannoma
    90. Glomus tumor common site is
    a. Finger
    b. Adrenal
    c. Liver
    d. pituitary
    91. Medullary ca of thyroid treatment is
    a. Surgery only
    b. Surgey + RAI
    c. CT+RT
    d. Radiotherarpy alone
    92. Cholangiocarcinoma common site is
    a. Hilum
    b. Intrahepatic
    c. Distal bile duct
    d. Multifocal
    93. 24 years female came with right hypochondrial pain, cholecystectomy done, HPE shows stage IA carcinoma, next line of management
    a. Follow up
    b. Radical cholecystectomy
    c. CT
    d. CT+RT
    94. Surgery done is morbid obesity except
    a. Sleeve gastrectomy
    b. Gastric byepass
    c. Biliary and pancreatic diversion
    d. Ileal transposition
    95. Curling’s ulcer in burns present at
    a. Esophagus
    b. Stomach
    c. Colon
    d. Duodenum
    96. Glesson’s score true except
    a. Staging from 1-10
    b. Higher the stage poor prognosis
    c. Used for grading the disease
    d. Used for treatment purpose

    97. Post neck dissection shoulder syndrome all are present except
    a. Shoulder pain
    b. Normal electromyography
    c. Limitation of movement
    d. Shoulder drop
    [snip]. Complication of parenteral nutrition are all except
    a. Essential fatty acid deficiency
    b. Metabolic bone disease
    c. Hyperphosphatemia
    d. Cardiopulmonary failure
    99. 25 years female nipple discharge duct ectasia with normal mammogram treatment is
    a. Microdochotomy
    b. Radical neck dissection
    c. Simple mastectomy
    d. Central quadrentectomy
    100. Gold standard investigation for GERD
    a. 24 hours ph monitoring
    b. Endoscopy
    c. Manometry
    Obstetrics & Gynaecology
    101. Tubal motility lost in
    a. Karatagener’s syndrome
    b. Turner’s
    c. Noonan’s
    d. Down’s
    102. Ovarian reserve best indicated by
    a. FSH
    b. LH
    c. LH/FSH Ratio
    d. Estradiol
    103. PCOS all are true except
    a. Increases DHEAS
    b. Increased LH Sectretion
    c. Increased LH/FSH Ratio
    d. Marked hyperprolactinemia
    104. Para 3 with obstructed labor, patient is dehydrated, with tachycardia, with fetal demise what will you do
    a. Craniotomy
    b. Decapitation
    c. C.S
    d. Wait and watch

    105. Patient wit h/o infertility treatment with 6 wks amenorrohea serum beta hcg 1000IU, in ultrasound no intrauterine gestational sac what is the next step in management
    a. Expectant management
    b. Medical management
    c. Repeat beta hcg after 48 hours
    d. Repeat beta hcg after 7 days
    106. 25 years old female undergone laparoscopic ovariancystectomy, HPE shows serous cystadenocarcinoma , what is the next step
    a. Regular CA125 & Follow up
    b. Staging salphingo oophorectomy
    d. Chemotherapy
    107. CLUE cells are present in
    a. Trichomonas vaginalis
    b. Bacterial vaginosis
    c. Candida
    d. Gonorrhoea
    108. Cholestasis of pregnancy which is most pathognomonic
    a. Serum bilirubin
    b. Serum bile acid
    c. Serum ALP
    d. Liver enzymes
    109. Primi with 37 weeks of amenorrhoea, mild uterine contractions, cervix 1 cm even after 10 hours, uneffaced cervix, what is the next step
    a. Sedation & watch
    b. Syntocinon infusion
    c. Amniotomy
    d. Caesarean section
    110. 45 years female with DUB endometrial thickness 8 mm on USG, next step is
    a. Hysterectomy
    b. Endometrial HPE
    c. Progesterone therapy
    d. Estrogen therapy
    111. Shoulder dystocia, which procedure is contraindiacated
    a. Mcrobert’s procedure
    b. Fundal pressure
    c. Suprapubic pressure
    d. Wood’s manoeuvre
    112. FIGO staging of ca cx does not include
    a. IVP
    b. CECT
    c. Cystoscopy
    d. Proctosigmoidoscopy

    113. Sudden hyperflexion of thigh over abdomen (mcrobert’s procedure), which of the following nerve is commonly involved
    a. Common peroneal nerve
    b. Obturator nerve
    c. Lumbosacral trunk
    d. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    114. Contraceptive failure is measured by
    a. PEARL index
    b. .
    c. .
    d. .
    115. In ALL all are good prognosis except
    a. Hypertriploidy
    b. 2 to 8 years
    c. t(9;22), (8,14)
    d. total leukocyte count <50000
    116. A newborn baby present with respiratory distress chest xray shows ground glass appearance and normal cardiac silhouette, what is the diagnosis
    a. TAPVC
    b. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
    c. RDS
    d. Meconium aspiration syndrome
    117. 2 months old baby with fever,dyspnoea,barking cough, stridor on crying RR 36/min, temp 39 degreeC, next step is
    a. Single dose of dexamethasone
    b. Inhalation racemic epinephrine
    c. CBC & Blood culture
    d. Nasal scraping and culture for RSV
    118. Recurrent histiocytosis is treated by
    a. Fludarabine
    b. Cladrabine
    c. High dose cytosine arabinoside
    d. High dose methotrxate
    119. CHEOPS scoring includes all except
    a. Touch
    b. Cry
    c. Oxygen saturation
    d. Torso

    120. Regarding rubella which is false
    a. it affects mother after 17wks produces more damage to fetus
    b. Deafness and cardiac defects
    c. Persisteng IgG for 6 months in baby
    d. IgM antibody in baby

    121. If the mother develops chickenpox within 3 days before (or ?after) delivery which of the following is true
    a. Baby has less risk
    b. High risk of developing neonata varicella syndrome
    c. Intrapartum acyclovir should be given
    d. Baby is immune to chickenpox
    122. 71/2 years old child with fever and difficulty in breathing responds to antibiotics for 1 wk, again developed resp distress, xray shows hyperlucency of the lung fields, what is the diagnosis
    a. Bronchiolitis obliterens
    b. .
    c. .
    d. .
    123. 9 years female child with 1 month duration of difficulty in combing hair , climb upstairs gower’s sign positive, rashes on MCP joints, laboratory investigation will show
    a. Elevated ESR
    b. Elevated CPK
    c. Normal nerve conduction studies
    d. Elevated rheumatoid factors
    124. 10 years old boy with hyperavtiviey, not interested in subjects always playing, which of the following is true
    a. Reassure parents that it is normal behaviour
    b. Mild behavioural disease advise behavioural therapy
    c. Severe disease and give drug treatment
    d. Environmental modification
    125. Nikoladni’s sign other name is
    a. Murray’s
    b. Branham’s sign
    c. darrier’s sign
    d. frey’s sign
    126. Velpeau sling & swathe bandages are used for
    a. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
    b. Scapular fracture
    c. Clavicle fracture
    d. Shoulder dislocation

    127. Risser’s brace is used for
    a. Thoracolumbar scoliosis
    b. Lumbar scoliosis
    c. Kyphosis
    d. Spondylolosthesis grade III
    128. Insertive achillis tendinitis is caused by
    a. Chronic repetitive stress
    b. Wearing ill fit shoes
    c. Common in jumpers
    d. Due to steroid treatment
    129. Watson & jones surgery is done for
    a. Neglectd ctev
    b. Paralytic deformity
    c. Valgus foot
    d. Peroneal tendons
    130. Trendlenberg’s test is positive in injury to
    a. Superior gluteal nerve
    b. Inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Obturator Nerve
    d. Femoral Nerve
    131. Early diagnosis by USG Is done for
    a. Anencephaly
    b. Encephalocele
    c. Cystic hygroma
    d. Spina bifida
    132. Central dot sign is seen in
    a. PSC
    b. CAROLI’s disease
    c. Polycystic liver disease
    d. Biliary hamartoma
    133. USG shows thickened gall bladder mucosa and comet tail artefact what is the diagnosis
    a. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
    b. Adenomatous polyp
    c. Adenomyomatosis
    d. Gall bladder cancer
    134. Regarding ct scan all are true except
    a. . Decrease in millliamperes in tube decreases dose significantly in paediatric ct chest
    c. 50% decrease in KVP reduces 50%radiation dose
    d. .
    135. 30 years female with depigmented round lesion in centre of forehead, due to
    a. Para Butyl catechol
    b. Para Butyl phenol
    c. Hydroquine
    d. ..
    136. Congenital epidermolysis [bleep] is cause d by mutation in
    a. Laminin V
    b. Collgen VII
    c. keratin
    d. . PLET angiten
    137. 2 months baby with linear verrucous lesions on back, skin HPE shows vacuolar degeneration of keratinocytes in stratum granulosum and spinosum what is the diagnosis
    a. Incontinento pigmenti
    b. Linear darrier’s disease
    c. Congenital epidermal naevi
    d. Linear verrucous warts
    138. Nitrogen narcosis is due to
    a. High affinity to nitrogen
    b. Increased NO production
    c. Defect in dismutase
    d. Reducing free radical damage

    139. NO is contraindicated in all except
    a. Laser microlaryngeal surgery
    b. Vitreo retinal surgery
    c. Cochlear implants
    d. Exentration surgery
    140. Maximum absorption of local anaesthetic is
    a. Caudal
    b. Epidural
    c. Brachial plexus block
    d. Intercostal block
    141. Type II Schizophrenia all are true except
    a. Negative symptoms more
    b. Disorganisation
    c. Abnormal CT
    d. Poor prognosis
    142. COGNITIVE triad of Depression is by
    a. Ellis
    b. Beck
    c. Godfrey
    d. . Meicheinbanon

    143. Best marker for ECT
    a. Csf 5HIAA
    b. Increased csf dopamine levels
    c. Brain growth factor
    d. .
    144. All of the following are true about horner’s syndrome except
    a. Ptosis & miosis in ipsilateral eye
    b. Heterochromia of the iris
    c. Anhydrosis of the ipsilateral face
    d. Apparent exophthalmos

    145. Left abducens nerve palsy true is
    a. Left side adduction weakness
    b. Diplopia on left gaze
    c. Ptosis
    d. Accomodation paralysis
    146. Refractory index is maximum for
    a. Cornea
    b. Anterior surface of lens
    c. Posteriof surface of lens
    d. Centroid of lens
    147. Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis
    b. Chlamydia psittaci
    c. gornorrhoea
    d. .herpes
    148. Nasolabial cyst true except
    a. Usually bilateral
    b. Arises from odontogenic epithelium
    c. Present in submucosal anterior nasal floor
    d. Usually adult onset
    149. Folate transporter gene
    a. Chr 21
    b. Chr X
    c. Chr 22
    d. Chr 13
    150. BRCA 1 gene is located in
    a. Chr 17
    b. Chr 13
    c. Chr 22
    d. Chr 11
    151. MHC Locus is present in
    a. Chr 5
    b. Chr 6
    c. Chr 1
    d. Chr 10
    152. Regarding wiskoth Aldrich syndrome all are true except
    a. Autosomal recessive
    b. Thrombocytopenia
    c. Skin rashes
    d. ..
    153. Hypersensitive vasculitis involves
    a. Arterioles
    b. Post capillary venules
    c. Capillaries
    d. Medium sized arteries
    154. Metastasis is due to
    a. Angiogenesis
    b. Down regulation of tyrosine kinase
    c. Tumerogenensis
    d. .apoptosis
    155. Virchow’s triad includes all except
    a. Hypercoagulable state
    b. Thrombosis
    c. Vein injury
    d. Stasis in veins

    156. Interlinking of antibody dependent and antibody independent complement pathway is by
    a. C8
    b. C3
    c. C5
    d. C1q
    157. All are causes of microangiopathic haemolytic anemia except
    a. TTP
    b. APAS
    c. Metallic valves
    d. Microscopic PAN
    158. Oxidative respirative burst is caused by
    a. Peroxidise
    b. Oxidase
    c. SOD
    d. Catalase
    159. Most potent stimulus for naive T cells
    a. Macrophages
    b. B cells
    c. Follicular dendritic cells
    d. Mature dendritic cells
    160. NBT test is done for
    a. B cell
    b. T cell
    c. Phagocytosis
    d. Complements

    161. 30 years female from Himachal Pradesh with fever, hypotension, lymphadenopathy, glucose broth shows stalactite growth, what is the cause
    a. Yersinia pestis
    b. Franscisella tularensis
    c. Brucella abortus
    d. Coxiella burnetti

    162. Regarding hybridoma technique which is true
    a. Fusion of a single activated B cell and a myeloma cell will create a hybridoma that can grow indefinitely in culture
    b. Aminopterin is aCompetitive inhibitor of tetrahydro folate
    c. Because of preselective mutation hybridoma cells grow in HAT rich medium
    a. HGPRT negative cells grow well in culture...........
    163. Bacteriophages which is true
    a. Toxicity transfer
    b. Transformation of bacteria
    c. Only transfers Chromosomal DNA
    d. It is a bacteris infects virus
    164. Mechanism of production of secretory and membrane bound Ig
    a. RNA editing
    b. Allelic exclusion
    c. Class switching
    d. .. RNA processing

    165. Isotype variation in Ig is in
    a. The changes in the hypervariable domain of both light& heavy chain.
    b.The changes in the constant domain of both heavy chain.
    c.To differentiate the subclass Ig
    d. changes in antigen binding sites of the variable region
    166. Plasmodium falciparum is diagnosed by
    a. HRP 1
    b. LDH
    c. Immuno chromato graphy
    d. Aldolase
    167. Dengue diagnosis best sensitivity by
    a. IgM ELISA
    b. CFT
    d. Electron microscopy
    168. All are RNA viruses except
    a. Ebola
    b. Rabies
    c. Simian virus 40
    d. Vesicular stomatitisvirus
    169. Farmer with forearm lymphocutaneous swelling diagnosis is
    a. Trichophyton
    b. Sporothrix schenkii
    c. . Cladosporium botunea
    d. Philaophora

    170. Pseudomonas organism caused infectin in intravascular devices
    a. Ps.aeruginosa
    b. Ps.cepasia
    c. Ps.putida
    d. Ps. Multocida

    Forensic medicine
    171. Pest control man, came with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, transverse ridges on nails, caused by
    a. Arsenic
    b. Mercury
    c. Lead
    d. Cadmium

    172. Hydrocution is
    a. Electrocution in water
    b. Cold water drowning
    c. Hot water drowning
    d. Post mortem submersion in water
    173. Embalming fluid contains all except
    a. Phenol
    b. Ethanol
    c. Formalin
    d. Glycerine
    174. Falanga is
    a. Sitting in abnormal position
    b. Hitting the feet with stick
    c. Electric current for torture
    d. Pulling of hair
    175. Thanatology is
    a. Study of death
    b. Essence of crime
    c. . Traumatology
    d. Trichology

    176. Minealocorticoid receptors are present in all except
    a. Kidney
    b. Colon
    c. Liver
    d. Hippocampus
    177. Circadian rhythm is maintained by
    a. Suprachiasmatic nuclei
    b. Supra optic nuclei
    c. Paraventriclar nuclei
    d. Median eminence

    178. Not present in cerebellar cortex
    a. Purkinje cells
    b. Golgi cells
    c. Bipolar cells
    d. Granular cells
    179. Second messengers are all except
    a. cAMP
    b. IP3
    c. Guanylyl cyclase
    d. DAG

    180. Vagal stimulation causes
    a. Increased cardiac contractility
    b. Increase heart rate
    c. Increased RR interval
    d. Increased cardiac output
    181. CSF pressure is maintained By
    a. Formation
    b. Absorption
    c. Cerebral blood flow
    d. Choroidal blood pressure

    182. Maximum post prandial contractility is on
    a. Ascending colon
    b. Transverse colon
    c. Descending colon
    d. Sigmoid colon
    183. In kidney GFR which is true
    a. Clearance of drug is more than GFR when the drug is also secreted
    b. . If a substance is secreted into the tubules then the clearance must be more than the Glomerular Filtration Rate
    c. Urine is hypertonic is descending limn of LOH
    d. Loop of henle is freely permeable to electrolytes
    184. Presynaptic inhibition which is true
    a. hyperpolarization of terminal synapse
    b. First order afferent neuron
    c. Decreases neurotransmitter release
    d. Causes block of action potential in presynaptic nerurons
    185. Weber Fechner law
    a. Intensity of stimulus is proportional to strength of stimulus
    b. Stimulation is equal to the magnitude
    c. X
    d. Intensity of stimulus is proportional to magnitude of sensation
    186. Mean circulatory filling pressure
    a. Mean of pulmonary and atrial pressure
    b. Mean of venous and arterial pressure
    c. Pressure at which atrial filling occurs
    d. Pressure measured anywhere within circulation when the heart is stopped suddenly
    187. Regarding G proteins which is true
    a. Tyrosine kinase activity
    b. Has intrinsic GTPase activity
    c. . Converts GDP to GTP
    d. GTP donates gamma phosphate to serine residues of intracellular protein

    188. Vit K causes carboxylation of
    a. Glutamic acid
    b. Aspartic acid
    c. . Histidine
    d. Histamine

    189. Cofactor for carboxylation reaction
    a. Biotin
    b. Thiamine
    c. Niacin
    d. . Coenzyme A

    190. Ribosomes contain
    a. Peptidase
    b. Aminiscyl tRNA synthetase
    c. Peptidyl transferase
    d. . GTPase

    191. TPP deficiency cause energy production defect by
    a. Cofactor of transketolase
    b. . Transaminase
    c. Cofactor for PDH & ALPHA KGDH Enzymes
    d. .
    192. Introns are absent in
    a. Mit DNA
    b. Z DNA
    c. B DNA
    d. Nuclear DNA
    193. In muscle, phosphorylse b is kept in inactivated state by
    a. AMP
    b. ATP
    c. Calcium
    d. Glucose
    194. Non functional plasma enzymes are all except
    a. ALP
    b. Prostatic acid phosphatise
    c. Lipoprotein lipase
    d. Hormone sensitive lipase
    195. For absorption at 280nm , alanine is replaced by
    a. Tryptophan
    b. Histidine
    c. Lysine
    d. . Proline

    196. Firefly radiant energy source is
    a. ATP
    b. NADH
    c. Phosphocreatine
    d. CTP
    197. Regarding glutathione all are true except
    a. Haemoglobin to meth haemoglobin
    b. Scavenging free radicals
    c. Acts as a co factor for some enzyme
    d. . Sulfur content helps in detoxification

    198. Biomolecules are measured by all except
    a. Xray crystallography
    b. NMR Spectrometry
    c. HPLC
    d. Mass spectrometry
    199. Refsum disease cause by defect in
    a. Thiophorase
    b. Phytanic acid oxidase
    c. .
    d. .
    200. Regarding CHO Antigen which is true

    Q1:Ans: a...... because it does not not cause dementia, all other options are true Harrison 17th edition chapter 71

    Q2.ans: b.....
    Q3:ans:a:scleroderma Robbins chapter 6
    Q4:Ans; c............ because c.section reduces the risk of transmission to baby than vaginal delivery Harrison 17th edition, Williams obstetrics 22nd edition

    Q5:Ans: c. Hepatomegaly,,,,,,,,,,,,, because it is a minor criteria not major Branwauld’s heart diseases 8th edition
    TABLE 25-4
    Q6.Ans: c........... because erosions are very rare in sle
    Q.7Ans:b) ureaplasma urealyticum.. in grou p A beta haemolytic streptococci there may be migratory polyarthritis but not conjunctivitis and urethritis
    Q8.ans: b)subcutaneous nodules.................. it is not a feature mentioned any where
    Q9.ans: b.ant jo 1 Harrison 17th ed chapter 383

    Q.10:c.. ...... Harrison 17th edition 314 reference
    Q12;ans;c.seizures......... because all others are important indication for hemodialysis Harrison 17th ed chapter274

    Q13:ans:c estrogen Davidson chapter 23 Harrison 17th ed chapter 295

    Q14:ans:d........... because PML is a chronic progressive course not indolent course Harrison 17th ed chapter 376

    Q15:ans:a)............... because low complement levels will be there only with immune mediated hemolyic anemias ROBBINS CHAPTER 13
    Q16:ans.............. no reference available
    Q18:Ans:b....... it is a major criteria Ref: wintrobe’s haematology, Williams haematologychapter 100
    Mudit kanna AI 2006 q no.120
    Q19;ans.b............ Ref Harrison chapter 300

    Q20:ansa) ............. Ganong p43
    Q21 :c…….. ref harrison 17th ed…..see in pulmonary function test chapter
    Q22:ans:d............Harrisons 17rh ed chapter 255
    Q 23:ans:a............ ref Harrison sle chapter
    Q 24: c........
    Pharmacology ref: KDT 6TH EDITION
    Q26:sns:b.......... ref.KDT 6TH EDITION Page 706
    Q27:ans:a.......... Ref:goodman gillman

    Q29:ans:b....... p819
    Q30:ans:a..... p819
    Q31:ans:d............ p837
    Q32:ans:a.......... page 450
    Q34: ......... no reference available
    Q35:ans:d........duloxetine is used in stress urinary incontinence not for detrusor overactivity Ref:gooodman gillman- anticholinergics chapter
    Q37:ans:a.......... p270
    Q38:ans: a......... Harrison 17th ed p2659
    Q39:ans: c)....... Ref: goodman and gillman
    Q40: d.............. Internet reference for strontium
    Q41.ans: b..........
    SPM ref: park 18th and 19th ed
    Q44:ans: b........
    Q45:ans:a...... net reference
    Q46:ans:b......... p55
    Q47:ans:a,,,,,,, p90
    Q48.ans. both b and d not true
    Q49:ans: b......... repeat
    Q50:ans:a........... p.599
    Q51:ans:a......... p599
    Q52:ans: b.........
    Q53:ans:b............p 578
    Q54:ans:b............ p637 19th ed
    Q56:ans:c........ repeat
    Q:57 ans:c......... repeat AI 2006
    Q58:ans: b...........
    Q59:ans:d............ ref speed Dermatology notes
    Q60:ans:a......... p459
    Q61:ans: both a and c are not true
    Q62:ans:........... p500 19th ed fish contains all but iron is less amount
    Q63:ans:c............ net reference
    Q64:ans:d........... p102 table
    Q65:ans:b......... p457
    Q66:ans a...... p477
    Q67:ans a......
    Q68:ans: c......
    Q75:ans:d;......... ref,chaurausia
    Q78:ans a..........
    Q79:ans:a............. repeat AI 03
    q80:ans:b............ repeat
    Q82:ans: a...................
    Q84:ans: a............
    q/86 :ans: c............
    Q89:ans:a.......... Harrison 17th ed p2605
    Q92:ans: d........
    Q 94:ans; d.......
    Q95 ans: d........ Ref:Schwartz chapter 25
    Q96:ans: a........... Harrison 17th ed
    Q97. ......... no reference available
    Q98:ans: c...... Ref net:
    Obstetrics & gynaecology
    Q102 : a…….. harrison 17th ed
    Q104:ans: c.......
    Q105:ans:c-.......... dutta p167
    Q106 ans:d........
    Q108>,,,,,,,,,, no reference availabse
    Q109:ans: a.......
    Q110:ans: b.........
    Q111:ans: b..........
    Q113:ans :d........... ref:net
    Operative Obstetrics By Larry C. Gilstrap, F. Gary Cunningham, J. Peter VanDorsten, Gary D. V. Hankins page 217
    Q115: c...........
    Q116:ans: b........... AIIMS MAY08 repeat
    Q117: ......... no reference available
    Q118:ans:b.......... ref op ghai
    Q121:ans:b,............ if before 3 days. Ans:a.......... if after 3 days Nelson chapter 250
    Q122:ans:a..... repeat may 08
    Q126:ans: d............... most probable
    Q127: no reference available
    Q128 ans:d...............Ref:net
    Q131:ans:a......... repeat AI 06
    Q:132:ans:b.......... ref speed notes
    Q133:ans c...............References:
    Fineone J. Radiology. The Gallbladder: Pathology .
    Lippincott, Philadelphia; 1988:4(67)11-13
    Q134;;;;;;;;;; no reference available

    q135: ............. no reference available
    Q136: ans:b.......
    Q137;ans;a.......... net
    Q138: ans:a........ net
    Q139:ans:d........... ref ajay yadav p61
    Q140 : ans: d......... refer manipal surgery
    Q141:and:Niraj ahuja page 66
    Q142:ans:b)beck ref: niraj ahuja page 230
    Q143:c).......... net reference
    Q144:Ans: d) ........... because horner’s causes enophthalmos not exophthalmos

    Q146:ans d......... speed Ophthalmology revision question 2
    Q147:ans:a ..........
    Q148;ans:b............. ref:net:

    Q:149:ans: a.......... repeat may AIIMS 08
    Q150:ans :a........
    Q152:ans: a........... ref robbins p896
    Q153:ans: b......... Harrison 17th p2128
    Q154:ansLa.......... robbins p309
    Q156:ans:b........... panikar p 66
    Q157:ans: d........... Harrison 17rh ed
    Q158:and: b......
    Q159:ans: d........
    Q162:ans: a......... ref harper chapter 49
    Q163:ans:a........... panikar p53
    Q164:ans:d. rna processing...... rer harper chapter 49……. net
    Q165:ans:b...... ref harper chapter49
    Q166:ans:a......... repeat may AIIMS 04
    Q:168:ans: c...........
    Q170: ans:a.............
    Forensic medicine
    Q174:ans: b.........
    Q178:ans:c......... ref ganong p219
    Q180:ansL c.........
    Q181:ans:b......... repeat
    Q182: ans:d....
    Q184:ans:c.......... p92 ganong
    q.185:ans: d........ ganong p126
    q186:ans:b.......... ref:net

    Qq188:ans:a) .............. ref:harper page 495
    Q189:ans:a)........ ref:harper page 502
    Q190:ans:c.............. ref:harper page 374&375
    Q191:ans:c............. ref:harper pae496 & 497
    Q192:ans:a)...... ref:harper page 331
    Q193:ans:b).... ref harper 312
    Q194: c)........... ref:ganong page 57

    a. Less immunogenic
    b. Memory function
    c. T Cell independent
    d. Polyclonal B cell activation

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