AIIMS NOV 2007 Exam Recalls

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by Guest, Nov 5, 2007.

  1. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Hello Dear friends,
    :)
    What do u feel about NOV 4th exam ? How was the exam for u ? Has anybody answered 100% questions ?
  2. S.  Rao

    S. Rao Guest

    WE all know that this paper was a real solid one..concerning the importance given to embroyology,nephro and cns with a very less repeated q,lets have a discussion of these q..cooperation from all is needed.
  3. Shaloo1984

    Shaloo1984 Guest

    superficial to deep venous drainage not occur at?
    1.ankle
    2.mid calf
    3.below inguinal ligament
    4.mid thigh

    which is the most superior structure at hilum of root lung?
    1.pulmonary vein
    2.pulmanary artery
    3.bronchi
    4.

    .2 days following appendicectomy operation a lady suffered nose injury due to fall on a table.there was swelling of nose.m/n plan?
    1.give antibiotic
    2.surgical I/D
    3. observation n admited
    4.


    Q.there was a swelling in the neck below hyoid . and thyroid was normal bp low , hb 10% , ......what is the best m/n?
    1.surgical excision
    2. I n d
    3. advice x ray
    4.



    Q.tongue muscle develop from ?
    1.cervical somite
    2.pharyngeal arch
    #. Occi[ital somite
    4.

    which vaccine does not given to a child suffering from a convulsion?
    1.measles
    2.dpt
    3.bcg
    4.opv

    a boy suffering from knee swelling, .....?
    1.IgA depositon
    2.MPGN
    3.

    pancytopenia with cellular marrow not seen in?
    1.PNH
    2.megaloblastic anemia
    3.CAD
    4. myelodysplastic syndrome

    on operation day which drug is stopped?
    1.metformin
    2.beta blocker
    3.amlopidine

    cation for PCR
    1. li
    2. mg
    3. ca

    Thiopentone sodium


    which doesnt occur on giving high dose of mivacurium

    MVP -- whats seen ,
    myxomatous degeneration
    fibrinoid necrosis

    Severe MS, whats the lung function abnormality


    Cardiac amyloidosis, what material is collected
    ( Resembling alpha 2 microglobulin or
    transthyritin )


    spinal tumours . MC site,
    extra dural,,,,,,
    inradural
    intrdural extrameningeal


    Laryngel Ca .. igrowth involving left arytenoid cartilage , left false vocl cord , true vocal cords are mobile tt
    Vertical laryngectomy
    Horizontal laryngectomy
    Total laryngectomy
    Radio n chemotherapy


    Complications during emergency tracheostomy


    a patient operated for oesophageo gastric ulcer thru hiatus diaphragmatic hernia approach is
    abdomen –neck
    acest neck
    chest abdomen neck
    abdomen chest


    polio 2-3 questions which is true for polio?
    acute spastic paralysis
    no need to repert cases of < s 5 yrs wid paralusis



    Hbs Ag -2 quests, one about
    " active Chronic hepatitis B " and other '

    acute hepatitis B "

    Operation for bleeding DU where endoscopic therapy has failed... type of surgery

    primary impact is seen in ..leg..head..abdomen..thorax

    cushings syndrome all seen except... episodic HTN

    One of the following cause hyperglycemia -- Corticosteroid

    Match the cells --- A - insulin, B - somatostatin , G - gastrin .....D - glucogon

    type of epithelium seen in Gall Bladder
    columnar
    columnar with brush border
    cuboidal
    ciliated?

    which of the following does not have cicatricial alopecia?
    a)lupus vulgaris
    b)DLE
    c)alopecia areata
    d)lichen planus

    MMR is number of maternal deaths per 1000.10000,,100000,....

    Egg on side appearance
    Truncus arteriosus

    floating lilly sign on X ray chest
    hydatis dis of liver

    retroceacal appendicitis, which maneuver causes pain ..flexion of hip, ext of hip. Medial rotation lateral rotation

    Next investigation in a child who has not passed meconium for 48 hrs and has vomitted and has abdominal distension....
    manometry,,,
    Barium images of lower GIT..
    Ph


    which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury?
    a)claw hand
    b)atrophy of hypothenar eminence
    c)loss of sensation of medial one third of hand
    d)adduction of thumb[/b]


    excessive inversion of foot wityh 5th metatarsal # is associated with which tendon injury,
    peronius longus,
    brevis..
    .tertius
    Extensor digitorum brevis

    block in the 2nd part of axillary artery , which provide s the collateral
    supra scapular
    circumplex humeral

    In coarctation beyond ductus ,,which arteries supplies the lower body

    Critical point of consideration in colon between
    superior and inferior mesentric artery,,, hepatic flexure.. splenic flexure,, sigmoid colon ,, descending colon

    in penile # if tunica albuginea is damaged and Bucks fascia is intact where does the blood gets collected...
    1. shaft of the penis
    2. scrotum and penis

    which of the following does not maintain transparency of cornea?
    a)hydartion
    b)widely spaced collagen fibre

    something about goniometer


    which part of body is exposed first in asphyxia?
    1.head
    2.neck
    3.thorax
    4.abdomen


    good clinical practices equired in all except
    a. preclinical phase
    b. phase 1
    c. phase 2
    d. phase 4

    telefona???

    1.misinterpretaion of the stimulus as other thing is called as....
    a.illusion
    b.hallucination
    c.delusion
    d.delirium


    2.not indicate the dispersion around central value......
    a.mode
    b.standard deviation
    c.range
    d.standard error of mean
    ans.....mode

    1.kanava's sign seen in...........
    a.tenosynovitis.
    2.
    3.
    4.dupetreans contracture

    SAFE Strategy
    Trachoma

    2) Screening

    3) Epidemic Dropsy
    Sanguinarine
    Boaa
    Aflatoxin

    4) Kala azar transmit by?
    Sanfly
    Tse tse fly

    5) Scrub Typhus
    Cyclopes

    6) Telephona

    7) Grevious Hurt


    9) Ogilve syndrome


    11) couinad IV Segment corresponds to
    Caudate
    Quadrate
    Left
    Right

    12) FNAC needle size ?
    22 27
    18 22

    13) caspases
    Apoptosis

    14 ) pheo , nuroma ,
    MEN 2b
    Men 1
    Men 2 a


    15) Irreversible injury
    Apomorphous densities in …

    male urethritis ,
    h influ
    h ducrei
    Chlamydia

    the first case reported by dr.
    index case,
    primary case
    2dry case
    3ry case

    mirena,
    progesterone antagonist
    hormonal contraceptive

    vaccination of 18 month child,


    structures pierced during pleurocentesis,

    last examined part in death due to asphyxia,

    trans hiatal operation for esophageal adeno carcinoma,

    intra epithelial neoplasia common in? ,


    which is not caused by flurosis?
    1.dental caries is common cause in children fluorosis
    2.genu valgum
    3.

    micronodular cirrhosis does not occur in?
    1.alcoholic hepatitis
    2.viral hepatitis
    3.wilsons disease
    4.hemocromatosis

    which of the following is not the adverse effect of clomiphene citrate?
    1.multiple pregnancy
    2.ovarian cyst
    3.ovarian cancer
    4.

    acridine orange stain dye is used in?
    1.dna/rna
    2.protein
    3.lipid
    4

    which dye is not used for staining lipid?
    1.sudan black
    2.congo red
    3.sudan 3

    severe inversion injury cause damage to?
    1.peroneus tertius
    2.extensor digitorum brevis
    3.peroneus longus
    4.peroneus brevis

    hypercalcemia is not found in?
    1.lithium
    2.diuretics
    3.vitamin D intoxication
    4.flurosis

    not seen in SIADH..
    hyponatremia
    volume depletion
    hypourecemia

    a child presented with respiratory distress after birth, was given surfactant but could not improve . his female sibling died at one month of age due to respiratory distress in the same hospital.what is the diagnosis?
    1.transposition of great vessels



    mycosis fungoides marker?
    1.cd3
    2.cd1
    3.cd56a
    4.

    Langerhans cell marker
    Cd 68
    Cd3
    Cd

    a third gravida lady with a history of two second trimester abortion presented with funneling of cervix os ...?m/n
    1.mc Donald stricture
  4. Dr.NC

    Dr.NC Guest

    Langerhans cell marker
    Cd 68
    Cd3
    Cd 1a

    telefona

    pathogenesis of collapsing glomerulonephritis

    what is seen in mitral valve prolapse
    hyaline degeneration
    myxoid degenaration

    urothelium lines all except
    calyces
    ureter
    urinary bladder
    collecting duct

    hampton sign
    pul embolus

    about thiazide which is false
    hypercalcemia
    hyperglycemia
    used in CHF

    furosemide which is true

    used in mild diuresis
  5. aryan.

    aryan. Guest

    hope all of u have done well few more questions

    1.foll causes penetrating ca cx a.cacx hpv b.cacx hiv

    2.4yr old girl fever rx done antibiotics now also dense white rt lower lobe inv of choice a.bronchoscopy b.patch testing

    3.foll vaccine not part of national immunisation schedule a.measles b.polio c.hepatitisb
  6. nayar.

    nayar. Guest

    what to do in a smoker 40 yr with st elevation in inferior leads and chest pain
    aspirin
    thrombolysis
    beta blocker


    vitrous can be preserved in ?
    alcohol phenol etc

    dangerous area of eye
    retina optic nerve ?

    nose hematoma question lady who just had a lap appendectomy pod 2 falls and bumps her nose with resulting anterior septal hematoma causeing resp distress
    shoul d it be
    observed
    evacuated
    antibiotics parentral or oral


    a young girl with hearing difficulty and ear perforation which tratment to do
    antibiotics
    tympanoplasty
    mastiod exploratin ?


    neurofibromatosis most cns tumor
    astrocytoma
    gbm


    neurofibromatosis most common cns tumor
    astrocytoma
    gbm


    spinal tumor most common location
    intramedullary
    extramedullary but intradural
    extradural
    all are same


    foransic asphyxia autopsy last to do
    neck
    stomach
    chest


    approatch for transhiatal oesophagectomy



    bleeding duodenal ulcer not responding to laproscopic manipulation bp after transfusion 100/60 pulse 100 presented with hematemesis
    hemigastrectomy with removal of proximal duodenum till the ulcer
    give PPI's
    duodenal exploration control of breathing and then pyloroplasty (phew)


    benzodiazepine is different from other hypnotics
    all have active metabolites
    disrupt the sleep patern least
    overdosage not as fatal as others


    which is used for some other thing but as drowsiness as side effect
    antihistaminics/antidepressants


    hco3 absorption max at
    pct


    location of vessels at lung hilum

    location of left renla vein wrt sup mesenteric artery


    22 yr g3 a2 with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks gestation
    mc donald stich
    F
    mesoprost ?
    carboprost ?


    to control pph in female with rhd
    oxytocin
    methergin
    mesoprost
    carboprost


    best uterine relaxant in ____
    ritodrine
    mg so4


    down syndrome
    MSAFP

    lining of gall bladder
    squamous
    cuboidal
    clumner

    part of large gut most predisposed to ischaemia
    hepatic flexure
    splenic fleure
    ascending
    descending


    coarctation post ductal circulation through



    blockage of 2 nd part of brachial artery collateral through


    egg on side appearence on x ray


    water lily sign


    a child with consolidation on rt base on cxr trated with antibiotics cough becomes ok but consolicdation worsens



    tongue develops from


    laryngeal cancer on left cord left arytenoids false cords ok what to do
    vertical laryngectomy
    horizontal
    complete
    rad + chemo


    endometrial cancer when to do post op rt
    when it is large
    when deep myometrium is involved




    mirena is
    implantable
    IUCD


    which oil is saturated
    palm
    groundnut


    peroxisome


    fibrates act by
    PPAR Alpha
    inc absorption on empty stomach and less on full


    which to stop for surgery
    metformoin
    amlodipine



    pcr requires
    Mg


    child having not passed meconium even after 2 days what to do now
    contrast enema
    operate


    oligohyramnios
    renal agenesis
  7. nayar.

    nayar. Guest

    inversion of foot and avulsion at little toe what tendon is involved
    peronius longus, brevis, extensor digitorum minima



    perforators not present at
    ankle
    calf
    inguinal ligament


    penile fracture with intact bells fascia bleeding will be
    limited to shaft
    will o to scrotum
    will form butterfly in perinium



    internal podalic version rish=k is
    cervical tea
    labial tear




    sex differentiation
    starts at 5 weeks
    male is before female
    complete by 10 weeks



    stain for lipids
    sudan black sudan III orange



    _____ stain for
    rna dna
    protein
    lipids
    carbs



    liver lobe iv corresponds to



    in tumors of bone
    TNM




    pancytopenia with hyperplastic marrow AE
    erythrocyte dysmorphic disorder
    mpd's
    pnh



    men question pit adenoma


    18 yr old girl wit amenorrhoea galactorrhoea
    Anorexia nervosa
    some cancer



    chest pain in 60 yr old lady diagnosed to be due to pericarditis .Which nerver transmit the pain
    internal cardiac plexus
    external cardiac plexus
    intercostal
    phrenic



    after lap chole pain in shoulder due to
    position
    subphrenic abscess
    co2 narcosis



    emergency tracheostomy which is not injured
    thyroid isthmus
    thyroidema artery
    inf th art
    inf thy vein



    corpus callosum is cut
    asterognosia
    no neurological deficit




    white matter involvement plus thalamic ?
    metachromatic leukodystrophy
    krabbe diseasse




    Child with diaphragmatic hernia
    ng tube
    operative




    asherman syndroma false is
    cant be detacted by HSG
    cant be detected by retrograde saline USG
    Mycobacterium can be cultured from endometrial scrapings
  8. rck

    rck Guest

    questions we r rememebring but its also important we analyse the tends of AIIMS and all india.
    how did u feel the paper was with just 2 as it is repeats from last recent three papers ....expected was 50...what do u think all india pre pg will be like ?
  9. tanirudh

    tanirudh Guest

    sudden hairloss in female with h/o typhoid fever 4 months back....???
    ans is
    Tellogen effluvium

    hair loss.......telogen aff......ref:neena gupta
    senile cargiac anyloidosis.....atrial n.peptide..ref:harrison...{table}
  10. tanirudh

    tanirudh Guest

    corpus callosum is absent
    asterognosia
    no neurological deficit
    hemiparesis
    hemiplegia

    one question about linkage analysis(genetics)is used in


    most common tumour seen in pts wid neurofibromatosis type 1
    1.optic glioma
    2.astrocytoma
    3.glioblastoma

    hamptons hump on chest xray is seen in
    pulmonary embolism(ans) Hampton's Hump

    In pulmonary embolism, one can encounter a density in the costophrenic angle with convexity towards hilum.
    Wedge shaped consolidation
    Lung periphery
    Pleural based
    Rounded convex apex towards hilum

    this is hamptons hump


    floating water lilly sign on xray chest is seen in
    1.aspergillosis
    2.hydatid disease(ans)


    misinterpretaion of the stimulus as other thing is called as....
    a.illusion
    b.hallucination
    c.delusion
    d.delirium
    ans is.a illusion.....

    .not indicate the dispersion around central value......
    a.mode
    b.standard deviation
    c.range
    d.standard error of mean
    ans.....mode
  11. tanirudh

    tanirudh Guest

    ) SAFE Strategy
    2) Screening
    3) Epidemic Dropsy
    4) Kala azar
    5) Scrub Typhus
    6) Telephona
    7) Grevious Hurt
    8) Ulnar nerve
    9) Ogilve syndrome
    10) Kanavel sign
    11) couinad IV Segment corresponds to
    12) FNAC needle size ?
    13) caspases
    14 ) MEN
    15) Irreversible injury
  12. pankaj.

    pankaj. Guest

    on operation day which drug is stopped?
    1.metformin
    2.beta blocker
    3.amlopidine

    pancytopenia with cellular marrow not seen in?
    1.PNH
    2.megaloblastic anemia

    which vaccine does not given to a child suffering from a convulsion?
    1.measles
    2.dpt
    3.bcg
    4.opv

    boy suffering from knee swelling,.....?
    1.IgA depositon
    2.MPGN


    .2 days following appendicectomy operation a lady suffered nose injury due to fall on a table.there was swelling of nose.m/n plan?
    1.give antibiotic
    2.surgical I/D


    Q.there was a swelling in the neck below hyoid .......what is the best m/n?
    1.surgical excision



    Q.tongue muscle develop from ?
    1.cervical somite
    2.pharyngeal arch

    which is the most superior structure at hilum of root lung?
    1.pulmonary vein
    2.pulmanary artery
    3.bronchi
    4.


    superficial to deep venous drainage not occur at?
    1.ankle
    2.mid calf
    3.below inguinal ligament
    4.mid thigh

    cation for PCR
    Thiopentone sodium
    which doesnt occur on giving high dose of mivacurium
    MVP -- whats seen , myxomatous degeneration?
    Severe MS, whats the lung function abnormality
    Cardiac amyloidosis, what material is collected ( Resembling alpha 2
    microglobulin or transthyritin


    spinal tumours . MC site, extra dural,,,,,,
    Laryngel Ca
    Complications during emergency tracheostomy
    diaphragmatic hernia
    polio 2-3 questions
    Hbs Ag -2 quests, one about " active Chronic hepatitis B " and other ' acute hepatitis B "
    Operation for bleeding DU where endoscopic therapy has failed... type of surgery
    primary impact is seen in ..leg..head..abdomen..thorax
    cushings syndrome all seen except... episodic HTN
    One of the following cause hyperglycemia -- Corticosteroid
    Match the cells --- A - insulin, B - somatostatin , G - gastrin .....D - glucogon
    type of epithelium seen in Gall Bladder

    which of the following does not have cicatricial alopecia?
    a)lupus vulgaris
    b)DLE
    c)alopecia areata



    MMR is number of maternal deaths per 1000.10000,,100000,....
    Egg on side appearance
    floating lilly sign on X ray chest
    retroceacal appendicitis, which maneuver causes pain ..flexion of hip, ext of hip.
    Next investigation in a child who has not passed meconium for 48 hrs and has vomitted and has abdominal distension.... manometry,,, Barium images of lower GIT..


    which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury?
    a)claw hand
    b)atrophy of hypothenar eminence
    c)loss of sensation of medial one third of hand
    d)adduction of thumb[/b]


    cicatrical alopecis all except.. alopecia areata,,,discoid lupus,,, lichen planus..
    excessive inversion of foot wityh 5th metatarsal # is associated with which tendon injury, peronius longus, brevis...tertius
    block in the 2nd part of axillary artery , which provide s the collateral
    In coarctation beyond ductus ,,which arteries supplies the lower body
    Critical point of consideration in colon between superior and inferior mesentric artery,,, hepatic flexure.. splenic flexure,, sigmoid colon ,, descending colon


    in penile # if tunica albuginea is damaged and Bucks fascia is intact where does the blood gets collected...
    1. shaft of the penis
    2. scrotum and penis


    which of the following does not maintain transparency of cornea?
    a)hydartion
    b)widely spaced collagen fibre


    .kanava's sign seen in...........
    a.tenosynovitis.
    2.
    3.
    4.dupetreans contracture
    ans a.....kanava's sign.
  13. pankaj.

    pankaj. Guest

    Kanaval's sign Passive extension of the digits produces pain on the dorsum of the hand Tenosynovitis .


    Change in Function (Decreased Range of Motion)
    Decreased Finger Range of Motion
    Decreased range of motion of the fingers suggests arthritides, fracture, and collateral ligament sprain (look for medial or lateral PIP swelling). Flexion tenosynovitis can present with intermittent "locking" (trigger finger), tenderness over the palmar tendons, and a snap or click on flexion and extension. For diffuse tenosynovitis, check Kanavel's sign. (As a reminder of this and other unique hand findings, see Table 2.)

    Table 2. Hand Findings: Alphabetic Listing of Unique Signs
    Name of the Sign or Test Description Positive Finding Interpretation
    Dubois' sign Very short pinky Suggests congenital syphilis
    Eichhoff-Finkelstein's sign Have the patient make a fist over his opposed thumb and then flex and ulnarly deviate the fist Pain over the anatomic snuffbox or production of a painful click Thumb dysfunction from De Quervain's tenosynovitis
    Froment's sign Have the patient pinch a piece of paper between the thumb and the radial aspect of the forefinger If you can pull out the paper, Froment's sign is present Ulnar nerve weakness
    Fuller Albright's sign Have the patient make a fist Dimpled fourth knuckle Foreshortened fourth metacarpal bone, which suggests pseudohypoparathyroidism
    Grind test Grasp the patient's thumb and (gently) grind it like a peppermill Pain Osteoarthritis of the thumb
    Gubler's sign Fusiform swelling of the dorsal wrist Suggests chronic lead poisoning
    Kanaval's sign Passive extension of the digits produces pain on the dorsum of the hand Tenosynovitis
    Maisonneuve's sign Extreme hyperextension of the hand Suggests a Colle's fracture
    Millan's sign Lilac discoloration along the free edge of the fingernail Possible syphilis
    "OK" sign Have the patient make an "OK" sign by opposing the thumb and forefinger to make a ring. Check the strength of the "O" by trying to open it with your fingers. Tests integrity of the median nerve Weakness indicates median nerve abnormality
    Pastia's sign Pink or red transverse lines along the wrists, antecubital fossa, or groin that remain hyperpigmented Suggests scarlet fever
    Plotz's sign Lack of ability to fold hands in prayer position Possible rheumatoid arthritis of the carpal joints
    Schamroth's sign Have the patient place both forefinger nails together and look between them If you can see a small diamond space between them, then the nails are not clubbed. No diamond space, then clubbing is present. Many pulmonary, cardiac, and gastric conditions can cause clubbing. See text. Hyperthyroidism can also cause clubbing.
    Steinert's sign Have the patient make a fist over his or her opposed thumb If the thumb extends beyond the base of the little finger, the test is positive Possible Marfan's syndrome
    Wartenberg's finger sign Abduction of the fifth finger Suggests ulnar nerve palsy
    Watson's stress test Pinch the patient's hand between your thumb at the anatomic snuffbox and your forefinger at the palmar base of the thumb, and as you radially deviate the wrist, release your forefinger If you feel a click with your thumb, the test is positive Scapholunate sprain or dislocation
    Wrist sign Significant overlap of the thumb and pinky when grasping the opposite wrist Possible Marfan's syndrome


    male urethritis ,
    index case,
    mirena,
    vaccination of 18 month child,
    structures pierced during pleurocentesis,
    last examined part in death due to asphyxia,
    trans hiatal operation for esophageal adeno carcinoma,
    intra epithelial neoplasia common in? ,



    .tongue muscle develop from ?
    1.cervical somite
    2.pharyngeal arch


    Langman Embryology 9th edition page:203

    All voluntary muscles of the head region are derived from paraxial mesoderm
    (somitomeres and somites), including musculature of the tongue, eye (except
    that of the iris, which is derived from optic cup ectoderm), and that associated
    with the pharyngeal (visceral) arches. Patterns of muscle formation
    in the head are directed by connective tissue elements derived from neural
    crest cells.

    Somites 2–5a - Tongue - Hypoglossal (XII)
    aSomites 2–5 constitute the occipital group (somite 1 degenerates for the most part).

    so i m not very clear about the answer can u please try to remember other choices...

    acridine dye is used in?
    1.dna/rna
    2.protein
    3.lipid
    which of the following is not the adverse effect of clomiphene citrate?
    1.multiple pregnancy
    2.ovarian cyst
    3.ovarian cancer


    micronodular cirrhosis does not occur in?
    1.alcoholic hepatitis
    2.viral hepatitis
    3.wilsons disease
    4.hemocromatosis

    which is not caused by flurosis?
    1.dental caries
    2.genu valgum

    which dye is not used for staining lipid?
    1.sudan black
    2.congo red



    severe inversion injury cause damage to?
    1.peroneus tertius
    2.extensor digitorum brevis
    3.peroneus longus
    4.peroneus brevis


    hypercalcemia is not found in?
    1.lithium
    2.diuretics
    3.vitamin D intoxication
    4.flurosis


    not seen in SIADH..
    hyponatremia
    volume depletion


    child presented with respiratory distress after birth, was given surfactant but could not improve . his female sibling died at one month of age due to respiratory distress in the same hospital.what is the diagnosis?
    1.transposition of great vessels



    alkalosis occurs in?
    1.mineralocorticoids excess
    2.minerralocorticoid deficiency


    ureter develops from?
    1.mesonephros
    2.pronephros


    informed consent..
    grevious hurt
    shizophrenia...formal thought disorder,3 rd person hallucinations ,persistant mood changes,inaproriate emotions
    type a personalites...hostile,time pressure,competitiveness,


    patient presented with foul smelling discharge,a hole in pars flaccida was found.m/n
    1.give antibiotics and follow up after 1 month
    2.tympanoplasty
    3.exploration of tymanic membrane and mastoid
  14. INSHA

    INSHA Guest

    1. HACEK group excludes
    2. Schizophrenia excludes
    3. Type A personality excludes
    4. WORSE OUTCOME IN PREGNANCY WITH WHICH CARDIAC LESION
    5. DOWN SYNDROME INCLUDES ALL EXCEPT
    6. ALL DRUG INHIBITS GABA A EXCEPT
    7. NOT ASSOCIATED WITH LEARNING
    8. LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DISEASE IS DUE TO
    9. DRUD HAVING MOST AFFINITY FOR 5HT3
    10.DANGEROUS ZONE OF EYE
    11. PAS STAIN STAIN ALL PURPLE EXCEPT
    12. PUL EMBOLISM BEST DIAGNOSED BY
    13. INFANT TYPE LOBATION OF KIDNEY IS DUE TO
    14. URETERIC PERISTALSIS IS DUE TO
    15. TENDAM BULLET
    16. CONSENT EXCLUDES
    17. SEMAN ANALYSIS TRUE ALL EXCEPT
    18. THROMBOPROPHYLEXIS EXCLUDES
    19. CRYOPRECIPITATE IS DEFICIENT IN FACTOR 9
    20. VITILIGO ALL TRUE EXCEPT
    21. MC SEIZURES IN CHILDREN
    22. STANDING TO LYING CHANGES IN BLOOD CIRCULATION
    23. WHEN BLOOD IN CAPILLERIES WAT CHANGES NOT OCCUR
    24. INDUCTION CHOICE IN SCHOKE KETAMINE
  15. Guest

    Guest Guest

    HASEK GROUP
  16. siraj

    siraj Guest

    View previous topic :: View next topic
    Author Message
    DR.VIJAY
    Guest






    Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 12:45 am Post subject: AIIMS NOV 2007

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    1 Hyaline cart. have collagen type--
    type 1
    ty2
    ty3
    ty4
    2 MI IN 2 HR WHICH DRUG GIVEN 1ST
    ASPIRIN
    THROMBOLYITIC DRUG
    3 CLASSIFICTION OF STREPTOCOCCUS ACCORDING CELL WALL-----
    4 DEFFINATION OF PHC---
    5 AT SUB SENTER LAVEL POST OF-
    M.O
    M.P.W
    H.E.
  17. sujee

    sujee Guest

    Vitreous humor is sent in
    1) Phenol
    2) HCl
    3) Acetone
    4FLUORIDE
    5) alcohol

    all are included in learning except
    1. response
    2.catharsis
    3.exposure

    worst outcome in pregnancy is eissenmeinger syndrome

    the dangerous area of the eyeball

    a. ciliary body
    b. retina
    c. optic nerve
    d. sclera

    staging of bone tumor is done by
    TNM staging

    FRACTIONAL EXCRETION OF Na

    FENa is an accurate screening test for differentiating prerenal failure versus acute tubular necrosis. A value below 1 percent suggests prerenal disease, as the physiologic response to a decrease in renal perfusion is an increase in sodium reabsorption to control hypovolemia. Values above 2 percent usually indicate acute tubular necrosis: either excess sodium is lost due to tubular damage, or the damaged glomeruli result in hypervolemia resulting in the normal response of sodium wasting. Values between 1 and 2 may be seen in either disorder. In renal tract obstruction, values may be either higher or lower than 1%

    Renal Vein is anterior to & below origin of SMA.
    Reference- Netter's plate 256,257.
  18. sujee

    sujee Guest

    Que.1 Tryptans act through
    1)5HT1a
    2)5HT1b
    3)5HT1c
    4)5HTf

    Que.2 Therapeutic monitoring is required for all except
    1) Phenytoin
    2) Cyclosporine
    3) Tacrolimus
    4) Metformin


    Que.3 Kanavel’s sign present in
    1) Tenosynovitis
    2) Carpal tunnel syndrome
    3) Trigger finger
    4) Duputreyans contractures

    Que.4 Acridine dye used to stain
    1) DNA-RNA
    2) Protein
    3) Lipid
    4) Carbohydrate


    Que.5 Stains for lipid are all except
    1) Oil red O
    2) Congo red
    3) Sudan III
    4) Sudan black


    Que.6 True about protease inhibitors are A/E
    1) MDR-1 gene
    2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes
    3) Drug interaction
    4) Saquinavir most potent action on CYP3A4


    Que.7 Shoulder pain in laparoscopy is due to
    1) Subphrenic abscess
    2) CO2 narcosis
    3) Positioning of patient
    4) Compression of lungs
    Que.8 PAS positive a/e
    1) Glycogen
    2) lipid
    3) fungal Cell wall
    4) basement membrane


    Que.9 for Vibrio cholera, medium used
    1) Thayer martin
    2) TCBS
    3) Scirrow
    4) ..


    Que.10 Primary impact injury is most common in
    1) head
    2) chest
    3) abdomen
    4) leg


    Que.11 Telefona
    1) Pulling of hair
    2) Beating on soles
    3) Beating on ears
    4) …


    Que.12 In tandem gun, number of [bleep] fired
    1) 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4


    Que.13 Vitreous humor is sent in
    1) Phenol
    2) HCl
    3) Acetone
    4) Xylene
    5) alcohol

    Que.14 Fixing of cervical smear is done by
    1) Ethanol
    2) Acetone
    3) Xylene
    4) ..


    Que.15 Blood spills on floor are cleaned by
    1) Sodium hypochlorite
    2) Iodine
    3)
    4)


    Que.16 true about dietery allowance are all except
    1) RDA
    2) adequate intake
    3) dietary intake according to the food composition
    4) food intake according to the upper limit of RDA


    Que.17which of the following person is present in a sub centre
    1) multi purpose worker
    2) doctor
    3) lab technician
    4) health educator


    Que.18 Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. In which of the following Ionic exchange is blocked
    1) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition
    2) Aerobic glycolysis
    3) Phosphodiesterease inhibitors
    4)


    Que.19 Gall bladder epithelium is
    1) simple columnar
    2) simple columnar with brush border
    3) squamous
    4) cuboidal with stercocilia


    Que.20 3 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, found to have midline cystic swelling which is painless below the hyoid. What should be done next
    1) Surgery
    2) X-ray chest
    3) antibiotics
    4) Aspiration

    Que.21 After laparoscopic appendicectomy, patient had fall from bed on her nose, after whish she had swelling in the nose and slight difficulty in breathing. What should be done next
    1) Antibiotics for 7 to 14 days and discharge
    2) Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    3) Surgical drainage
    4) Observation in hospital for 2wks


    Que.22 Goniometry is measurement of
    1) urethrovesical angle
    2) number of gonococci
    3) length of genital hiatus
    4)


    Que.23 Metabolic alkalosis is seen in
    1) excess mineralocorticoid
    2) decreased mineralocorticoids
    3) increased base excretion
    4) decreased H+ ion secretion


    Que.24 Following drugs act on GABA-A except
    1) thiopentone
    2) midazolam
    3) zopiclone
    4) promethazine


    Que.25 Nephelometry depends on following law
    1) Lambert Beer law
    2) Scattering of light from particles
    3) refraction of light
    4) decread intensity of light


    Que.26 Thiopentone true are A/E
    1) induction agent of choice in shock
    2) cerebroprotective
    3) contraindicated in porphyria
    4) mixed with ….


    Que.27 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is
    1) OCCULT Cancer
    2) Anorexia nervosa ( may be they are asking abt prolactinoma)
    3) Hypothyroidism
    4)

    Que.28 True about vitiligo are all except
    1) Genetic predisposition
    2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
    3) PUVA-B is used for treatment
    4) Topical steroids give good results.


    Que.29 Down’s syndrome, true is A/E
    1) PAPP- A increased
    2) Increased b-HCG
    3) Absence of nasal bone
    4)


    Que.30 In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be
    1) D-dimer
    2) CT angiography
    3) Catheter angiography
    4)


    Que.31 70 year old hypertensive with unconsiousness with normal ECG cause is
    1) pulmonary thromboembolism
    2) vasovagal attack
    3) temporal lobe epilepsi
    4)


    Que.32 Thrombo prophylaxis are all except
    1) aspirin
    2) warfarin
    3) heparin
    4) AT 3


    Que.33 pt of myocardial ischemia
    1)thrombolytic therapy
    2)pantoprapazole
    3)asprin
    4)


    Que.34 in a pt with retro caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will produce pain
    1) flection at hip
    2) extension at hip
    3) medial rotation
    4) lateral rotation


    Que.35 cryoprecipitate not seen
    1)factor 8
    2) factor 9
    3) vWF
    4) fibrinogen


    Que.36 in a caase due to asphyxia last to be opened during dissections
    1) neck
    2) thorax
    3) abdomen
    4) brain


    Que.37 what is seen in normal person on lying down
    1) increase in venous return
    2)
    3)
    4)


    Que.38 exercise causes which of the following
    1) increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min
    2) increase in body tempeture
    3)
    4)


    Que.39 most common type of seizure in neonates
    1) tonic
    2) clonic
    3) subtle
    4) myoclonic


    Que.40 block in the 2 nd part of axilary nearve what will searve as collateral
    1) subscapular and poster circumflex humeral
    2) circumflex scapular and ant circumflex scapular
    3)
    4)


    Que.44 post ductal compression of aorta collateral to serve are
    1) inteercostal and inferior epigastric
    2)
    3)
    4)

    Que.45 a child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show proteinurea 1 + and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
    1) fusion of podocytes
    2) ATN
    3) depositions of Ig A
    4)thickening of membrane


    Que.46 collapsing glomarulopathy following is seen
    1) proliferation of parietal cells
    2) tuft necrosis
    3)
    4)


    Que.47 Peristalsis of ureter depends on
    1) sympathetic flow
    2) parasympathetic flow
    3) both
    4) pacemaker in smooth muscle of ureter


    Que.48 In MVP, valve degeneration is
    1) hyaline degeneration
    2) myxomatous degeneration
    3) .. ..
    4) .. ..


    Que.49 In rheumatic carditis with MR, following finding will be seen
    1) Increased residual volume
    2) Increased PEFR
    3) decreased TLC
    4) Increased ventilatory capacity


    Que.50 FRACTURE 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful contraction of following muscle.
    1) peroneus longus
    2) peroneus brevius
    3) peroneus tertius
    4) extensor digitorum brevis

    Que.51 In emergrncy tracheostomy following structures are damaged except
    1) Isthmus of thyroid
    2) inferior thyroid vein
    3) inferior thyroid artery
    4) thyoidea ima


    Que.52 Whats the uppermost structure in left lung hilus
    1) pulmonary artery
    2) pulmo. vein
    3) bronchial artery
    4) broncus


    Que.53 In systemic capillary blood flow, all are seen except
    1) Increased protein content
    2) decreased pH
    3) shift of oxygen dissociation curve to left
    4) increased hematocrit.


    Que.54 Cardiac O2 consumption is Directly proportional to
    1) mean arterial pressure
    2) external cardiac work done
    3) heart rate
    4)


    Que.55 micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except
    1) active hepatitis B
    2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
    3) Haemachromatosis
    4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis


    Que.56 Phenytoin, all are true except
    1) Induces enzymes
    2) Zero order kinetics at low dose
    3) Half life increases with increasing dose
    4) Highly protein bound


    Que.57 which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3
    1) granisetron
    2) ondansetron
    3) dolasetron
    4)


    Que.58 marker of acute hepatitis B
    1) HBV DNA
    2) IgG HBc
    3) HBs Ag
    4) HBe Ag


    Que.59 A 30 year old man, presents with 6 month history of facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurilent discharge in middle meatus. Next best step
    1) Non contrast CT nose
    2) X ray maxillary sinus
    3) MRI
    4) Inferior meatus puncture


    Que.60 Tongue muscle develop from
    1) mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
    2) Occipital SOMITES
    3) CERVICAL SOMITES
    4) ..


    Que.61 A 3 year old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8 weeks revealed increased consolidation. Next step in investigation
    1) bronchoscopy
    2) nasopharyngeal culture
    3) CT
    4)


    Que.62 meiosis in spermatogenesis occurs in which step
    1) Iry spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia
    2) SPERMATID TO ROUND SPERMATID
    3)
    4)


    Que. 63 surfactant action
    1) Breaks structure of water
    2) lubricates CO2
    3) make capilariay surface hydrophilic
    4)


    Que.64 increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in
    1) downs
    2) molar pregnancy
    3) overestimation of gestation age
    4) renal agenasis


    Que.65 which Is not essential feature of TOF
    1) pulmonary valvular stenosis
    2) infundibular stenosis
    3) overriding of aorta
    4)


    Que.66 linkage studies uses the principal of
    1) DNa polymorfism
    2) PEDIGREE SHOWING WHO IS AFFECTED AND WHO IS NOT
    3)
    4)


    Que.67 methode of hb estimation except
    1) drabkins
    2) sahl’s
    3) spectrophotometry
    4) wintrobes


    Que.68 in PCR following is used
    1) Ca++
    2) Mg++
    3) Li+
    4) Na+

    Que.69 pulmonary hypertension is a\W all except
    1) hyperventelation
    2) obesity
    3) phenfluramin
    4) high altitude


    Que.70 clomiphen citrate is a\W all except
    1) polycystic overy
    2) foetal anamoly
    3) multiple pregnency
    4) ovarian cancer

    Que.71 diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except
    1) Endometrial culture
    2) hysteroscopy
    3) Hysterosalpingography
    4) water …


    Que.72 Pancytpenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except
    1) PNH
    2) Megaloblastic anaemia
    3) myelodysplasia
    4) congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia


    Que.73 Uterine relaxant with Least side effects
    1) Ritodrine
    2) Nifedipine
    3) Progesteron
    4) Magnesium sulphate


    Que.74 Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer
    1) HPV 16 with dysplasia
    2) LOW GRADE INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    3) High grade INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    4) HIV associated


    Que.75 Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
    1) uterine rupture
    2) cervical laceration
    3) Uterine inertia
    4) vaginal laceration


    Que.76 Drugs causing Hyperglycemia
    1) corticosteroids
    2) b blockers
    3)
    4)


    Que.77 Not seen in VHL
    1) Pheochromocytoma
    2) Pancreatic tumour
    3) Endolymphatic sac tumour
    4)


    Que. 78 left renal vein crosses aorta at the level of
    1) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric artery
    2) anterior above the level of superior mes. A.
    3) Anterior below the superior mesenteric A
    4) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric A
    5) Anterior at the level of superior M.A.

    Que.79 Who criteria for semen analysis, all are true for normal except
    1) forward propelling motility >15%(strict criteria)
    2) normal morphology >25%
    3) volume of 1ml
    4) Sperm count >20million


    Que.80 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating of aretynoid, involving false cord, treatment is
    1) Transverse hemi laryngectomy
    2) Vertical hemi laryngectomy
    3) radiation and chemotherapy
    4) total laryngectomy

    Que.81 In universal immunization, which is not included
    1) Hepatitis B
    2) BCG
    3) TT
    4) Measles


    Que.82 hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E
    1) Cushings
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) END STAGE RENAL DISEASE
    4) …


    Que.83 Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
    1) Hemiparesis
    2) Hemianaesthesia
    3) AStereognosis
    4) No neurological DEFECT


    Que.84 Transparency of cornea is maintained by A/E
    1) Mitotic figures in the cornea
    2) Wide separated collagen bands
    3) Hydration of corneal epithelium
    4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers


    Que.85 Furesemide, true is
    1) Acts on PCT
    2) Given only by parenteral route
    3) Used in pulmonary oedema
    4) ….


    Que.86 Thiazide causes all except
    1) Hyperglycemia
    2) Increased calcium excretion
    3) Increased blood uric acid levels
    4) Used in CCF


    Que.87 Drug stopped on the day of operation
    1) Metformin
    2) Atenolol
    3) Amlodepin
    4) Statins


    Que.88 Fourth lobe of liver by Couniyad’s classification
    1) Left lobe
    2) Right lobe
    3) Quadrate lobe
    4) Caudate lobe


    Que.89 Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney because of
    1) normal variant
    2) congenital BL…
    3) obstructive uropathy
    4) Intrauterine infections and scars


    Que.90 On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radial cysts. Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition
    1) imperforate anus
    2) hepatic cysts with fibrosis
    3) absent ureters
    4) …


    Que.91 cervical incompetence. G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. What should be done
    1) McDonald’s suturing
    2) Fothergill’s suturing
    3) DINOPROSTONE..
    4) .MISOPROSTOL.


    Que.92 Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial cancers
    1) Extrophy of bladder
    2) Medullary sponge kidney
    3) duplication of ureters
    4)


    Que.93 development of genital development, what is true
    1) Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    2) Genital ridge develops at5th week
    3) male genitals develop earlier than female
    4) EXTERNAL GENITALIA developed at 10th weeks


    Que.94 Patient with heart disease, which drug is not used in patient of haemorrhage to control PPH
    1)
    2) oxytocin
    3) misoprostol
    4) METHERGIN


    Que.95 baby not passed meconium for 48 hours, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen, next investigation is
    1) barium enema
    2) manometry
    3) esophagogram
    4) fecal fat estimation


    Que.96 with CSF all are true except
    1) pH less than blood
    2) No neutrophils present
    3) formed by arachnoid villi
    4) persistant leakage causes headache


    Que.97 Transitional epithelium is seen in all except
    1) collecting duct
    2) calyces
    3) ureter
    4) bladder


    Que.[snip] Gastroesophageal junctional adeno carcinoma is approached by following sequence
    1) abdomen-thorax
    2) thorax -abdomen
    3) thorax – abdo-neck
    4) abdo-mouth


    Que.99 dangerous area of eye
    1) ciliary body
    2) optic nerve
    3) sclera
    4) retina


    Que.100 perforators not present in
    1) ankle
    2) below inguinal ligament
    3) calf
    4) distal to calf

    Que.101 pericardial pain is conducted through
    1) deep CARDIAC plexus
    2) superficial CARDIAC plexux
    3) phrenic
    4) subcostal nerves


    Que.102 which muscle is not punctured during mid-axillary line thorasic puncture
    1) internal intercostal
    2) external intercostal
    3) transverse thorasis
    4) innermost intercostals


    Que.103 FNAC Needle Gauze size
    1) 26-28
    2) 22-26
    3) 18-22
    4) 16-18


    Que.104 # penis with intact Buck’s facia. Blood extravasates in
    1) butterfly shaped
    2) scrotum and penis only
    3) Scrotum, penis, anterior abdominal wall
    4) penile shaft only


    Que.105 duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Haematocrit 10 after transfusion. Pulse 110, BP 100/70. bleeding not controlled by endoscopic procedure. Next line of management
    1) PPI
    2) Distal gastrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum
    3) Subtotal Gastrectomy truncal vagotomy and controlling bleeders
    4) Duodenotomy, with controlling bleeder and Pyloroplasty.


    Que.106 Ogilive syndrome, true is all except
    1) mechanical obstruction
    2) Partial bowel wall obstruction
    3) Ileus after morphine ingestion
    4) AFTER SURGERY


    Que.107 Most common site of sub ependymal giant cell astrocytoma
    1) lateral ventrical
    2) foramen of morgagni
    3) 4th ventricle
    4) …


    Que.108 reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding
    1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    2) Endoplasmic reticulum DILATATION
    3) Glycogen depletion
    4) Perinuclear staining


    Que.109a best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) 72 HR Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4) N NAMED TEST??? DONT REMEMBER

    Que.109b child with H/O respiratory problem. best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4)

    Que.110 Fluorosis, true is all except
    1) most common cause of dental caries in children
    2) genu valgum
    3) nalgonda for defloridation
    4) deposited in bone and muscle


    Que.111 most common site of spinal tumour
    1) extramedullary intradural
    2) extra dural
    3) intra medullary
    4) …


    Que.112 initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is
    1) FGF8
    2) BMPr4
    3) EGRF
    4) branchy…..


    Que.113 Mivacurium when given in high doses, all are true except
    1) bronchospasm
    2) hypertension
    3) flushing
    4) rapid onset of action


    Que.114 All are characteristic of schizophrenia except
    1) third person hallucination
    2) inappropriate emotions
    3) long stretches of mood changes
    4) formal thought disorder


    Que.115 rapid flow in the neurons is by all except
    1) dyenin
    2) kinesin
    3) neuro filaments
    4) microFILAMENTS


    Que.116 type A personality false is
    1) hostile
    2) time pressure
    3) competitiveness
    4) mood fluctuations


    Que.117a senile cardiac amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)

    Que.117b senile amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)


    Que.118 shock lung, histopathological finding is
    1) diffuse alveolar necrosis
    2) pulmonary oedema
    3)
    4)


    Que.119 Most common brain tumor in NF1
    1) Optic glioma
    2) astrocytosis
    3) glioblastoma multiforme
    4)


    Que.120 bisphosphonates are used in all except
    1) hypercalcemia
    2) cancer
    3) osteoporosis
    4) hypervitaminosis D

    Que.121 Osteomalacia, true are all except
    1) increased serum calcium
    2) increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    3) looser’s zones
    4) proximal myopathy


    Que.122 Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in
    1) FEV1/FVC ratio <0.6
    2) 80% of expected
    3) ventilatory capacity
    4) FEV1 60% at max exercise toleration


    Que.123 FE Na <1 is seen in
    1) ATN
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) intrinsic renal failure
    4) pre renal

    Que.124 Good clinical practice not required in
    1) pre clinical testing
    2) Phase 1
    3) phase 2
    4) phase 4


    Que.125 hyaline cartilage collagen present is
    1) type 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4



    Que.126 classification of bone tumors
    1) manchester
    2) TNM
    3) Einkein
    4) ..


    Que.127 white matter lesion with hyperdense image on thalamus. Diagnosis is
    1) Krabbe
    2) Metachromatic leucodystrophy
    3) Kanawell’s disease
    4) Alexander’s dis


    Que.128 ketoacidosis all are true except
    1) hyper ventilation
    2) pain in abdomen
    3) bradycardia
    4)


    Que.129 cerebral metabolic rate is increased in
    1) propofol
    2) ketamine
    3) fluranes
  19. dr.shrangi.

    dr.shrangi. Guest

    askra
    Guest






    Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 6:45 am Post subject:

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    staging system for bone sarcomas- ennekings staging better than tnm followed by ajcc.
    check out this link in emedicine.
    http://www.emedicine.com/ped/topic1684.htm




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    askra
    Guest






    Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 6:47 am Post subject:

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    senile cardiac amyloidosisdue to deposition of:
    1.b2 micoglobulin
    2. transthyretin
    3.A N P
    4.pyrin




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    vineet.
    Guest






    Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 6:50 am Post subject:

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    TRANSHIATAL OESOPHAGECTOMY

    This technique is particularly suitable for lower third oesophageal carcinomas where the tumour can be dissected under direct vision from the abdomen. Reconstruction has conventionally been with a gastric pull-up, although a colonic tube is an alternative conduit. Most commonly, the conduit is pulled from the abdomen through the narrow posterior mediastinum into the neck by tying it to a catheter, swab or length of latex tubing. This can be a difficult stage of the operation, especially when the gastric/colonic conduit is bulky. Consequently, there is the potential to devascularise the conduit at this stage. The incidence of conduit ischaemia has been reported to be 10%.




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  20. shraddha.

    shraddha. Guest

    q-which does not contain pufa
    1-mustard oil
    2-soya bean
    3-palm
    4-sunflower oil
  21. shraddha.

    shraddha. Guest

    tongue muscles develop from---occipital somite

    TRUE ABOUT SHICK TEST ....
    -SUSCEPTIBLE TO DIPTHERIA?
    -SENSITIVE TO DIPTHERIA



    URETER PERISTALSIS ....
    1.SYMPETHATIC
    2.PARASYMPETHATIC
    3.BOTH
    4.INTRINSIC PACE MAKER CELLS


    ...pain of pericarditis with pericardial effusion reffered via...
    a]sup cardiac plexus
    b]deep cardiac plexus
    c]phrenic nerve
    d]intercostal nerve

    ANS:phrenic nerve..harrison


    Q.parietal pericardium innervation...
    a]phrenic nerve
    b]intercostal nerve

    ANS;intercostal nerve and phrenic nerve..both
  22. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    pleurocentesis doesnt pierce transversus thoracis, as it lies in the ant aspect (The tranversus thoracis lies internal to the thoracic cage, anteriorly. It is a thin plane of muscular and tendinous fibers, situated upon the inner surface of the front wall of the chest. It is in the same layer as the subcostal muscles.

    It arises on either side from the lower third of the posterior surface of the body of the sternum, from the posterior surface of the xiphoid process, and from the sternal ends of the costal cartilages of the lower three or four true ribs )

    The gallbladder has a simple columnar epithelial lining characterized by recesses called Aschoff's recesses, which are pouches inside the lining .
  23. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    1)renal ca
    extrophy- more prone to carcinoma

    2)coronary circulation
    lt cx branch-post intervent br - lt sided dominance

    3)superior most structure hilum lung
    pulm vein ? lasts Anatomy

    4)kaala azaar
    sandfly

    5)vitreous transport media

    6)18 yr old girl amenorrhea,vomiting , wt loss , nipple discharge
    anorexia nervosa ?/occult ca pituitary cos nipple discharge

    7)primary impact injury
    head
    abd
    lowerlimb
    thorax

    8)surg approach for hiatus hernia

    9)midline neck cyst 1-1.5 cm
    surg removal ,? thyroglossal cyst


    most superior structure at the hilum of lung...???
    a]pulm vein
    b]pulm artery
    c]bronchus
    d]bronchial artery

    ans...lt side pulm artery
    ........rt side eparterial bronchus...???
    was any side specified....in question...??
  24. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    pancytopenia with cellular marrow seen in:
    a]Pnh
    b]megaloblastic anemia
    c]myelodysplastic syndrome
    d].....???
  25. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    drug causing hyperglycemia...
    a]b-blocker
    b]glucocorticoids

    really confused... about their options...more than one answer...in many quest..
    they both cause hyperglycemia...b-blockers are contraindicated in diabetes mellitus patients.. isn't that....??
  26. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    .FNAC Needle size
    a]22-26g
    b]27-29g

    rest i don't remem exactly..!
    ans??
  27. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    in Down's syndrome increase PAPP IS SEEN IN 1ST TRIMESETER
  28. Deepash

    Deepash Guest

    .methode of hb estimation except
    1) drabkins
    2) sahl’s
    3) spectrophotometry
    4) wintrobes


    Q.PCR following is used
    1) Ca++
    2) Mg++
    3) Li+
    4) Na+
  29. Saurabh.

    Saurabh. Guest

    pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in a/e,
    a.PNH
    b.megaloblastic anaemia
    c.myelodysplastic syndrome
    d.congenital dyserythropoetic anemia

    VHL not seen is
    A) endolymphatic sac tumor
    B) islet cell hyperplasia
    C) haemangioendothelioma
    D) phaeochromocytoma

    All can be seen but endolymphatic tumor appears to be ans
  30. Saurabh.

    Saurabh. Guest

    pt wid cutaneous angiomas,tumor of pancreas,parathyroid has
    A) MEN1
    B) MEN2A
    C) MEN 2B
    D)MEN 2 C
    NOW FOR ANS.....MEN 1 AS PANCREAS INVLVMNT IS XCLUSIV TO MEN1 SOME FRNDS TOLD ME BT MEN 2B AS IT HAS CUTANEOUS INVLVMNT BUT DEN DERE IS NO PANCREAS INVLVMT......also in my defence dere is lichen cutaneous amyloidosis in MEN 2b NT ANGIOMAS AS IN QUES..... I MITE BE WRONG AS WELL....PLEASE CORRECT ME
  31. hawk

    hawk Guest

    q

    1) Councilman bodies r found in : a) alcoholic hepatitis b) viral hepatitis c) autoimmune hepatitis
  32. hawk

    hawk Guest

    q

    BASEMENT MEMBRANE contains all Except : a)Rodopsin b) laminin c)missing d) missing
  33. hawk

    hawk Guest

    q

    MIRENA is : ans hormonal IUCD (Progesteronal)
  34. hawk

    hawk Guest

    In which of the following condition is the maternal serum AFP levels elevated and , not except ..

    , it is clear the ans is CONGENITAL NEPHROTIC SYNDROME , b coz the other 3 choices ( molar pregnancy, over estimated gestational age and downs ) are associated with low serum afp levels.
  35. hawk

    hawk Guest

    ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, and palonosetron. The first three agents (ondansetron, granisetron, and dolasetron, Figure 63–6) have a serum half-life of 4–9 hours and may be administered once daily by oral or intravenous routes. All three drugs have comparable efficacy and tolerability when administered at equipotent doses. Palonosetron is a newer intravenous agent that has greater affinity for the 5-HT3 receptor and a long serum half-life of 40 hours.

    its from katzung : and so answer is palonosetron....
  36. James.

    James. Guest

    which of the following is the least toxic tocolytic?

    a.ritroderine
    b.mgso4
    c.nifedepine

    answer b. mgso4


    dutta obstretics 6th edition

    page 508

    they have mentioned toxicites of all the druges

    in mgso4 they have mentioned

    mgso4 is relatively safe.
  37. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Q. Vitreous is stored in which preservative,
    a.xylol
    b.fluride
    c.Hcl
    d.formalin
    ans.
    ref:REF:ESSENTIALS OF Forensic MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY,REDDY,25/E pg.106-107.
    PRESERVATIVES:
    1.fluoride-is used for preserving,
    a.urine
    b.CSF
    c.vitreous
    also know,
    blood------>sod/pottassium fluride+pott.oxalate.
    urine------->thymol/sod.fluride/toluene.
    viscera----->saturated sod.chloride/rectified spirit[formalin is NOT USED in preservation of viscera as extraction of poison becomes difficult.]
    virological exmaination--->80%glycerol in buffered saline.
    ans---->B.


    In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except:
    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude

    Answer: A. Hyperventilation

    Reference: Harrison's 16th edi. Pg. 1407

    Alveolar hypoventilation is a cause of pulmonary hypertension and not hyperventilation


    Councilman bodies are seen in:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    b. Wilson’s disease
    c. Acute viral hepatitis
    d. ..

    Answer: C. Acute viral hepatitis

    Reference: Harrison's 16th edi. Pg.1828


    good clinical practices are not a part of

    a.preclinical studies
    b. phase 1 studies
    c.phase 2 studeis
    d.phase 4 studeis


    answer a.preclinical studeis


    refrence: who handbook of good clinical practice

    (you can download this handbook at http://www.who.int/medicines/areas/quality_safety/safety_efficacy/gcp1.pdf)
    Good Clinical Research Practice (GCP) is a process that incorporates
    established ethical and scientifi c quality standards for the design,
    conduct, recording and reporting of clinical research involving the
    participation of human subjects.


    so good clinical practice usee when participation of human subjects is there.

    so it is not a part of preclinical phase which do not involve human participation.
  38. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
    1) Hemiparesis
    2) Hemianaesthesia
    3) Stereognosis loss
    4) No neurological sequelae

    answer 4. no neurlogical sequelae
    chapter 38

    refrence farnoff neonatology and perinatal medicine 8th edition

    Agenesis of the corpus callosum is a relatively frequent malformation. Its prevalence in the general population is unknown because it might occur in a totally asymptomatic manner. Its prevalence in a population with mental retardation reaches 2% to 3%. Agenesis of the corpus callosum represents approximately 50% of the malformations of the midline.

    Agenesis of the corpus callosum can be partial (affecting in most cases the posterior portion, except when it is associated with holoprosencephaly) or complete. The lateral ventricles are deformed by the fibers of the cerebral hemispheres that were destined to form the corpus callosum and that form the Probst bundles running longitudinally along the lateral ventricles. The Probst bundles are inconsistently present, and their presence has been considered a sign of better prognosis.

    Corpus callosum agenesis can be associated with other brain malformations (such as neuronal migration disorders) or with extracerebral malformations. In the presence of associated malformations, the prognosis of agenesis of the corpus callosum is considered poor in most cases. In contrast, the prognosis of isolated agenesis of the corpus callosum (partial or complete) is much more variable, with some cases having a totally normal or near-normal neurologic outcome,[/b] some cases with moderate or severe neurologic handicap, and some cases evolving toward death within the first days or months after birth. Because of the relatively low number of reported cases and the relatively short follow-up in many of these cases, providing reliable figures for the neurologic outcome of the isolated malformation remains difficult.





    QUE-Absence of Corpus callosum leads to

    1) Hemiparesis
    2) Hemianaesthesia
    3) Astereognosis
    4) No neurological sequelae

    ANS-3) Astereognosis

    Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum-
    Agenesis of the corpus callosum consists of a heterogeneous group of disorders that vary in expression from severe intellectual and neurologic abnormalities to the asymptomatic and normally intelligent individual
    When agenesis of the corpus callosum is an isolated phenomenon, the patient may be normal, whereas individuals with neurologic symptoms, including mental retardation, microcephaly, hemiparesis, diplegia, and seizures.

    Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics 17th edition Pg-1988


    When the entire corpus callosum is destroyed by tumor or surgical section, the language and perception areas of the left hemisphere are isolated from the right hemisphere. Patients with such lesions, if blindfolded, are unable to match an object held in one hand with that in the other. Objects placed in the right hand are named correctly, but not those in the left. Furthermore, if rapid presentation is used to avoid bilateral visual scanning, such patients cannot match an object seen in the right half of the visual field with one in the left half. They are also alexic in the left visual field, since the verbal symbols that are seen there and are projected to regions of the right hemisphere have no access to the language areas of the left hemisphere. If given a verbal command, such patients will execute it correctly with the right hand but not with the left; if asked to write from dictation with the left hand, they will produce only an illegible scrawl.

    The patient with a lesion of the splenium of the corpus callosum or the adjacent white matter cannot read or name colors because the visual information cannot reach the left language areas. There is, however, no difficulty in copying words; presumably the visual information for activating the left motor area crosses the corpus callosum more anteriorly. Spontaneous writing and writing to dictation are also intact because the language areas, including the angular gyrus, Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas, and the left motor cortex, are intact and interconnected, but after a delay, the patient is unable to read what he has previously written (unless it was memorized). This is the syndrome of alexia without agraphia

    A lesion that is limited to the anterior third of the corpus callosum (or a surgical section of this part, as in patients with intractable epilepsy) surprisingly does not result in an apraxia of the left hand. A section of the entire corpus callosum does result in such an apraxia, i.e., a failure of only the left hand to obey spoken
    commands, the right one performing normally, indicating that the fiber systems that connect the left to the right motor areas cross in the corpus callosum posterior to the genu (but anterior to the splenium). Object naming and matching of colors without naming them are also done without error. However, blinded, the patient cannot name a finger touched on the left hand or use it to touch a designated part of the body.

    Ref- Adams and Victor’s Principles of Neurology ,8th Ed (Pg no.409 Disconnection syndromes)

    So friends I've given my ANS Explanation & Refrences NOW U HAVE TO DECIDE THE ANSWER !!!!!!!!
  39. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    -ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:

    a. Vasovagal shock
    b. Pulmonary embolism
    c. Complete heart block
    d. Temporal lobe epilepsy

    ANS-b. Pulmonary embolism

    If u can remember that ECG strip
    -v3 lead ECG was given
    -sinus rhythm( every P wave proceeding normal QRS complex,no PR prolongation)
    -Prominent "T" wave inversion.

    Classic abnormalities include sinus tachycardia; new-onset atrial fibrillation or flutter; and an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III,Often, the QRS axis is greater than 90. T-wave inversion in leads V1 to V4,

    Ref- Harrisons 16th Ed Pg-1562



    The ECG in pulmonary embolism.

    80 consecutive hospitalized CCU patients with acute PE, all underwent pulmonary angiography
    Excluded 12 pts with “a history of cardiopulmonary disease that could have modified the ECG”
    Finding Percentage of patients with EKG finding

    T waves negative V1-V4 68%
    S1 Q3 T3 pattern 50%

    Peripheral low voltage 29%

    Sinus tachycardia 26%

    Complete/incomplete RBBB 22%

    Pulmonary P wave 5%

    Normal 9%

    In massive PE (determined angiographically), anterior ischemic pattern was noted in 85% of patients versus 19% in nonmassive PE; no other parameter correlated with severity

    Anterior T-wave inversions has a sensitivity of 85%, specificity of 81%, PPV of 93%, and a NPV of 65% for massive PE in patients w/ suspected PE.
    ref-http://medicine.ucsf.edu/housestaff/Chiefs_cover_sheets/EKGinPE.pdf
  40. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    .Which of the following does not come under GREIVOUS HURT,
    a.injury to one kidney
    b.injury to one testis
    c.facial abrasions
    d.injury to one eye

    ref:ESSENTIALS OF Forensic MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY,REDDY,25/E pg.252.

    ans. GRIEVOUS INJURY comes under S.320,I.P.Cdefined as "any of the following injuries are grievous,
    -Emasculation.
    -permanent privation of sight of either eye.
    -permanent privation of hearing of either ear.
    -privation of any member or joint
    -destruction or permanent impairing of the power of any joint or member
    -permanent disfiguration of the head or face.
    -fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth
    -any hurt which endangers life or which causes the victim to be in severe bodily pain or unable to follow his ordinarily pursuits for a period of 20 days.
    -so ans-------->c.
  41. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    QUE- In PCR following is used

    a) Ca++
    b) Mg++
    c) Li+
    d) Na+

    ANS-b) Mg++

    MgCl2 used as PCR buffer.


    Real-Time PCR Analysis.

    Real-time PCR was carried out with AmpliTaq polymerase (0.5 ml; 5 units/ml), by using 1 ml of cDNA, 10´ PCR buffer (2.5 ml), MgCl2 (1.5 ml; 25 mM), dNTPs (0.5 ml; 10 mM), 0.8 ml of SYBR Green (1:1,000; Invitrogen), 0.5 ml of 10 mM of each primer, H2O to 25 ml of final volume.

    Single-Cell RT-PCR.

    After aspirating the cell into the tip of the micropipette, the tip was broken off and the contents expelled into an Eppendorf tube containing RNasin (0.5 ml). Single-stranded cDNA was generated by reverse transcription SuperScript II RNase H-reverse transcriptase (Invitrogen) with oligo(dT) primer (Invitrogen) following the manufacturer's protocol. The PCR was carried out by using 5 ml of cDNA template, 10´ PCR buffer (5 ml), MgCl2 (3 ml; 25 mM), dNTPs (1 ml; 10 mM), primers (1 ml each; 25 mM), AmpliTaq polymerase (0.5 ml; 5 units/ml; Applied Biosystems), and DEPC-treated water for a final volume of 50 ml. To observe siRNA-mediated reduction of TRPM7 expression, 35 cycles were run at the optimal annealing temperature for each primer set (57°C for TRPM7), and then the annealing temperature was decreased by 0.5°C each cycle for a total of 45 cycles.

    Ref-http://www.pnas.org/cgi/content/full/0701149104/DC1
  42. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    all are indication of intensive care of diabets mallitus except?

    a.patient who have had kidney translant for diabetic nephropathy
    b.autonomic neuropathy
    c.pregnancy
    d.myocardical infarction patient with diabetes mallitus

    answer d.myocardial infarction patient with diabetis mallitus
    refrence harrison 16th edition page 2172 2173

    here autonomic neuropathy is microvascular complication






    Intensive Management Intensive diabetes management has the goal of
    achieving euglycemia or near-normal glycemia. This approach requires
    multiple resources including thorough and continuing patient
    education, comprehensive recording of plasma glucose measurements
    and nutrition intake by the patient, and a variable insulin regimen thatmatches glucose intake and insulin dose. Insulin regimens usually include
    multiple-component insulin regimens, multiple daily injections
    (MDI), or insulin infusion devices (each discussed below).
    because it may prolong the period of C-peptide production,
    which may result in better glycemic control and a reduced risk of
    serious hypoglycemia.
    Although intensive management confers impressive benefits, it is
    also accompanied by significant personal and financial costs and is
    therefore not appropriate for all individuals. Circumstances in which
    intensive diabetes management should be strongly considered arelisted in Table 323-10.


    as i remember the question was which does not need intensive insulin therapy and not intensive care.
  43. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Que.In a pt with retro-caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will produce pain,

    a) flection at hip
    b) extension at hip
    c) medial rotation
    d) lateral rotation

    ANS-b) extension at hip

    The psoas sign indicates an irritative focus in proximity to that muscle. The test is performed by having patients lay on their left side as the examiner slowly extends the right thigh, thus stretching the iliopsoas muscle. The test is positive if extension produces pain. Similarly, a positive obturator sign of hypogastric pain on stretching the obturator internus indicates irritation in the pelvis. The test is performed by passive internal rotation of the flexed right thigh with the patient supine.

    Ref-Schwartz's Principles of Surgery 8th Ed >Part II. Specific Considerations > The Appendix
  44. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    ureteral peristalsis depends upon

    1. in trinsic pacemaker located at the proximal ureter
    2.sympathetic stimulation3
    3.parasympathetic
    4 both

    answer 1. intrinsic pacemaker located at the prximal ureter

    well i coud not find anything in books.

    so i had to go to the net but i found 13 page paper by yal department of urology so quite reliable i think

    http://www.jstage.jst.go.jp/article/jsmr/42/4/103/_pdf
  45. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    the anser to bisphosphonates question is definitely hypervitaminosisd. bisphosfonates are used in breast cancer to decrease skeletal metastasis.
  46. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Q-receptor for action in migrain.

    a) 5 HT 1A
    b) 5HT 1B
    c) 5 HT 2
    d) 5 HT3.

    ANS- b)5HT 1B

    5-HT1D/1B Agonists & Migraine Headache
    The 5-HT1D/1B agonists (triptans) are used almost exclusively in migraine headache.
    Propranolol, amitriptyline, and some calcium channel blockers have been found to be effective for the prophylaxis of migraine in some patients. They are of no value in the treatment of acute migraine. The anticonvulsants valproic acid and topiramate have recently been found to have good prophylactic efficacy in many migraine patients. Flunarizine, a calcium channel blocker used in Europe, has been reported in clinical trials to effectively reduce the severity of the acute attack and to prevent recurrences. Verapamil appears to have modest efficacy as prophylaxis against migraine.


    Ref- Katzung Basic & Clinical Pharmacolog,10th Ed
  47. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Q.acridine orange stain dye is used in?

    1.DNA/RNA
    2.protein
    3.lipid

    ANS-1.DNA/RNA

    Acridine orange is a nucleic acid selective fluorescent cationic dye useful for cell cycle determination. It is cell-permeable, and interacts with DNA and RNA by intercalation or electrostatic attractions. When bound to DNA, it is very similar spectrally to fluorescein, with an excitation maximum at 502 nm and an emission maximum at 525 nm (green). When it associates with RNA, the excitation maximum shifts to 460 nm (blue) and the emission maximum shifts to 650 nm (red). The dye is often used in epifluorescence microscopy.

    Acridine orange is prepared from coal tar and creosote oil.
    Acridine orange can be used in conjunction with ethidium bromide to differentiate between live and apoptotic cells.

    Ref- Molecular Medicine—An Introductory Text 3ed 2005
  48. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    what gene maintains the primitive streak?
    a) FGF b)Nodal gene c) BMRP-4
    Ans: (b) Nodal gene
    Langman 8th edition..dont exactly remember the page..dont have book with me now, but a clear cut line in it tels..Nodal gene maintains the primitive streak.
  49. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    asphyxia structure to be open last is?

    a.head
    b.neck
    c.abdomen
    d.thorax

    answer b.neck

    reddy 19th edition page 297(sorry guys i have old edition but you can look in mechanical aspyxia chapter after throttleing there is a topic on dissection of neck)

    the neck structure should be dissected in situ and in a bloodless feild.th block removal of neck structures may produce artefacts in the neck tissues which resemble bruises.when the tongue and neck structures are firmly grasped and pulled upon, the hyod bone may be fractured.Bruising invariably occurs in throttling and is very important in the absence of external marks and fracture of the neck structures.to obtain bloodless field in the neck, the head should be opend and the brain removed as in routine autopsy. The abdominal and throacic organs should be removed as in routine autopsy.then an incision should be made from the chin to the manubrrium sterni and the platysma dissected laterally on both sides.

    so you can see that to obtain bloodless field neck is opened last.



    REF:ESSENTIALS OF Forensic MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY,REDDY,25/E;pg.
    DISSECTION OF THE NECK IN ASPHYXIA.
    -The neck structures shud be dissected insitu and in a 'bloodless field'.
    -The block removal of neck structures as in "routine" autopsies may produce artefacts in the neck tissues which resemble bruises.also when the tongue and neck structures are firmly grasped and pulled upon,the hyoid bone maybe fractured.so these maybe confused with bruising and fracture of hyoid bone which occurs d/t throttling.
    -To obtain a BLOODLESS field in the neck ,the head should be opened and the brain removed as in routine autopsy-so HEAD is opened FIRST.
    -Next the abdominal and thoracic organs shud be removed as also in routine autopsy.
    -Then the head is slowly moved up aand down and allowed to drain of blood.
    -Then an incision is made from the chin to the manubrium sterni or a V-shaped incision made on the neck and the platysma dissected laterally on both sides.
    -If the veins are damaged they shud be ligated to prevent bleeding ,as otherwise the blood will infiltrate into the tissues and maybe mistaken for contusions.
    -The sternomastoid muscles are cut from their attachments.
    -The CCA is cut longitudinally looking for any bruising around the bifurcation.Tears around the intima of the carotid artery are usually seen 1/2 to 1 cm below the bifurcation of the vessels.
    -hyoid bone is identified and the suprahyoid an infrahyoid muscles are reflected noting for any contusion
    -Also the thyroid cartilage,larynx,trachea are all examined for any fractures.
    -finally the spinal cord is exposed and examined
  50. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Q what is seen in normal person on lying down

    A increase in venous return immediaetly
    B heart rate increases to level above that of standing
    C increase in cerebral blood flow
    D decrease in blood flow in lung apex

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