AIIMS NOV 2007 Exam Recalls

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by Guest, Nov 5, 2007.

  1. nisanth

    nisanth Guest

    Q..In case of posterior interventricular artery arising from circumflex artery -what is true of coronary circulation,
    a.it is right dominant circulation
    b.it is left dominant circulation
    c.codominant circulation
    d.
    ans.
    ref:Clinically oriented Anatomy 5/E,Keith.l.Moore;pg.159.
    Variations of the Coronary Arteries
    -Variations in the branching patterns and distribution of the coronary arteries are common. In the most common right dominant pattern, present in approximately 67% of people, the RCA and LCA share about equally in the blood supply of the heart.
    -In approximately 15% of hearts, the LCA is dominant in that the posterior IV branch is a branch of the circumflex artery,this' LEFT DOMONANCE'.
    -There is codominance in approximately 18% of people, in which branches of both the right and left coronary arteries reach the crux and give rise to branches that course in or near the posterior IV groove.

    -A few people have only a single coronary artery.
    -In other people, the circumflex branch arises from the right aortic sinus.
    - Approximately 4% of people have an accessory coronary artery.
    -so i guess the right ans shud be choice B.
  2. DR. TRIPTA

    DR. TRIPTA Guest

    SONE CORRECTIONS INOUES ASKED

    13 A man presented with tacypnea to rule out PE you would do following investigation
    a. D-dimer levels
    b. Multicentric CT angiography??? not sure is it multicentric written there
    c. Colour Doppler USG
    d. Intracatheter angiography ??? only angiography was written i think

    17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is seen in:
    a. Alexander’s disease
    b. Krabbe’s ds.
    c. Canavan’s ds
    d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy

    its MRI not NCCT

    17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in:
    a. Alexander’s disease
    b. Krabbe’s ds.
    c. Canavan’s ds
    d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy

    60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. B/L renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism

    I M SURE IT WAS NOT B/L renal artery stenosis


    60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism


    78. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol

    BEST AGENT WAS ASKED

    78. The BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol


    102. In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except:
    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude


    102. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT
    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude


    113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
    a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
    b. Wide separated collagen bands
    c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
    d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers

    it was like this

    113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
    a. Hydration
    b. Wide separated collagen bands
    c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
    d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers




    135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated:
    a. Misoprostol
    b. Methyl ergometrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. ..

    IT WAS rheumatic heart disease


    135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an rheumatic heart disease, which is contraindicated:
    a. Misoprostol
    b. Methyl ergometrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. ..


    138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
    a. Administer Dinoprostone
    b. Administer Progesterone
    c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
    d. Apply McDonald’s stitch


    it was

    138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
    a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
    b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
    c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
    d. Apply McDonald’s stitch


    166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
    a. Re-start the immunization according to age
    b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT
    c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT


    it was

    166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
    a.Re-start the immunization according to age
    b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT


    169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
    a. Medullary sponge kidney
    b. Bladder extrophy
    c. Unilateral renal agenesis
    d. Double ureter

    it was specifically written UROTHELIAL CARCINOMA


    169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial CARCINOMA are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
    a. Medullary sponge kidney
    b. Bladder extrophy
    c. Unilateral renal agenesis
    d. Double ureter




    170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
    a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
    b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
    c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity
    d. ..
    ADD ONE MORE


    170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
    a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
    b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
    C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
    D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity



    191. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
    a. MRI of the brain
    b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
    c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
    d. Inferior meatus puncture

    IT WAS FACIAL MRI


    191. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
    a. FACIAL MRI
    b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
    c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
    d. Inferior meatus puncture


    196. A 40 year old man, smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations suggesting an inferior wall infarction. Next step in the management would be:
    a. Aspirin
    b. Thrombolytic therapy
    c. Pantoprazole
    d. Beta-blockers

    HE WAS HEAVY SMOKER AND IMMEDIATE AXN WAS ASKED



    196. A 40 year old man, HEAVY smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations IN INFERIOR LEADS. WHAT THERAPY HE SHOULD RECIEVE IMMEDIEATELY
    a. Aspirin
    b. ThrombolyticS
    c. Pantoprazole
    d. Beta-blockers
  3. Dr. Manisha

    Dr. Manisha Guest

    FOURTH LOBE OF LIVER BY CONIYADS CLASSIFICATION
    ...........LEFT LOBE...........RIGHT LOBE.......CAUDATE LOBE........QUADRATE LOBE...

    ACOORDING TO
    Diseases of the Gallbladder And Bile Ducts: Diagnosis And Treatment
    By Pierre-Alain Clavien, John Baillie

    PAGE 3
    THE FOURTH LOBE(CAUDATE) IS POSTERIOR AND SURROUNDS THE INFERIOR VENACAVA
  4. Dr. Manisha

    Dr. Manisha Guest

    Q
    C WAVE IN JVP
    ........ATRIAL CONTACTION...........bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium
    ANS -BULGING OF TRICUSPID
    The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections and two downward deflections have been described. the upward deflections are the "a" (atrial contraction), "c" (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumic systole) and "v"= atrial venous filling. and the downward deflections of the wave are the "x"(tricuspid opens and ventricular filling occurs) and the "y" descent reflects filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening.

    Certain wave form abnormalities, include "Cannon a-waves", which result when the atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve, due to complete heart block (3rd degree heart block), or even in ventricular tachycardia. Another abnormality, "c-v waves", can be a sign of tricuspid regurgitation.

    An elevated JVP is the classic sign of venous hypertension (e.g. right-sided heart failure). The paradoxical increase of the JVP with inspiration (instead of the expected decrease) is referred to as the Kussmaul sign, and indicates impaired filling of the right ventricle. The differential diagnosis of Kussmaul's sign includes constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathy, pericardial effusion, and severe right-sided heart failure.
    Contents
    [hide]

    * 1 Method
    o 1.1 Visualization
    o 1.2 Differentiation from the carotid pulse
    o 1.3 JVP waveform
    o 1.4 Hepato- or abdominojugular reflux
    * 2 Interpretation
    * 3 References
    * 4 External links

    [edit] Method

    A classical method for quantifying the JVP was described by Borst & Molhuysen in 1952.[1] It has since been modified in various ways.

    The patient is positioned under 45°, and the filling level of the jugular vein determined. In healthy people, it is maximum several (3-4) centimetres above the sternal angle. Some doctors employ a venous arc, an instrument to measure the JVP more accurately. A pen-light can aid in discerning the jugular filling level.

    [edit] Visualization

    The JVP is easiest to observe if one looks along the surface of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, as it is easier to appreciate the movement relative the neck when looking from the side (as opposed to looking at the surface at a 90 degree angle). Like judging the movement of an automobile from a distance, it is easier to see the movement of an automobile when it is crossing one's path at 90 degrees (i.e. moving left to right or right to left), as opposed to coming toward one. Remember, tangential light is critical.

    [edit] Differentiation from the carotid pulse

    Pulses in the JVP are rather hard to observe, but trained cardiologists do try to discern these as signs of the state of the right atrium.

    The JVP and carotid pulse can be differentiated several ways:

    * multiphasic - the JVP "beats" twice (in quick succession) in the cardiac cycle. In other words, there are two waves in the JVP for each contraction-relaxation cycle by the heart. The first beat represents that atrial contraction (termed a) and second beat the VENOUS FILLING against a closed tricuspid valve (termed v) and not the commonly mistaken 'ventricular contraction'. The carotid artery only has one beat in the cardiac cycle.
    * non-palpable - the JVP cannot be palpated. If one feels a pulse in the neck, it is generally the common carotid artery.
    * occludable - the JVP can be stopped by occluding the internal jugular vein by lightly pressing against the neck.
    * varies with head-up-tilt (HUT) - the JVP varies with the angle of neck. If a person is standing their JVP appears to be lower on the neck (or may not be seen at all because it below the sternal angle). The carotid pulse's location does not vary with HUT.
    * varies with respiration - the JVP usually descreases with deep inspiration. Physiologically, this is a consequence of the Frank-Starling mechanism as inspiration decreases the thoracic pressure and increases blood movement into the heart (venous return), which a healthy heart moves into the pulmonary circulation.

    [edit] JVP waveform

    The jugular venous pulsation has a double waveform. The ‘a’ wave corresponds to atrial contraction and ends synchronously with the carotid artery pulse. The ‘c’ wave occurs when the ventricles begin to contract and is caused by bulging of the atrioventricular (AV) valves backwards towards the atria. The 'x' descent follows the 'c' wave and represents atrial relaxation and rapid filling due to low pressure. The ‘v’ wave is seen when the tricuspid valve is closed and is caused by a pressure increase in the atrium as the venous return fills the atria – with and just after the carotid pulse. The 'y' descent represents the rapid emptying of the atrium into the ventricle following the opening of the tricuspid valve. The absence of ‘a’ waves is a feature of atrial fibrillation.[citation needed] "Cannon a waves" or increased amplitude 'a' waves, are associated with AV dissociation (third degree heart block), when the atrium is contracting against a closed tricuspid valve.

    [edit] Hepato- or abdominojugular reflux

    Main article: Abdominojugular test

    Hepatojugular reflux, sometimes incorrectly referenced as a "reflex",[2] is an expanded form of the JVP measurement. By pressing on the liver (hepato-) for 15-30 seconds, venous blood is advanced into the circulation. The JVP increases in a normal person, and distention should appear more pronounced. However, a slow decrease of the JVP after checking for hepatojugular reflux can indicate right ventricular failure.

    [edit] Interpretation

    Causes of elevation:

    * Bradycardia
    * Constrictive pericarditis
    * Fluid overload (intravenous fluid)
    * Right heart failure
    * Hyperdynamic circulation (e.g. in extreme anemia)
    * Obstruction of the superior vena cava
    * Pericardial effusion
    * Tricuspid valve disease (stenosis or regurgitation)
    * Cardiac tamponade

    An important use of the jugular venous pressure is to assess the central venous pressure in the absence of invasive measurements (e.g. with a central venous catheter, which is a tube inserted in the neck veins). A 1996 systematic review concluded that a high jugular venous pressure makes a high central venous pressure more likely, bu does not significantly help confirm a low central venous pressure. The study also found that agreement between doctors on the jugular venous pressure can be poor.[3]

    [edit] References

    1. ^ Borst J, Molhuysen J (1952). "Exact determination of the central venous pressure by a simple clinical method.". Lancet 2 (7): 304-9. PMID 14955978.
    2. ^ Aronson J (1999). "Hepatojugular reflux". BMJ 318 (7192): 1172. PMID 10221938. Free Full Text.
    3. ^ Cook DJ, Simel DL (1996). "The Rational Clinical Examination. Does this patient have abnormal central venous pressure?". JAMA 275 (8): 630–4. PMID 8594245.
  5. Dr.  Aaseri

    Dr. Aaseri Guest

    Pulmonary hypertension is not seen in
    high altitude
    fenfluramine
    obesity
    pulmonary embolism

    Q
    tongue is developed from
    cervical somite,occipital somite,thoracic somite ,myotomes

    Q CIRCUMFLEX A GIVES A BRANCH POSTR INTERVENTRICULAR A. WHAT IS THIS PATTERN
    normal pattern
    rt dominance
    lt dominance
  6. kavish

    kavish Guest

    all act on GABAa recepter except
    a zopiclone
    b barbitirate
    c benzodiaapine
    d promethazine

    subependymal giant cell astrocytoma most common site is
    a 4th ventricle
    b foramen of monro
    c posterior fossa
    d laterral ventricle

    most common spinal cord tumor
    a extradural
    b intradural
    c extradmedullary
    intra dural extramedullary
  7. anirudh.

    anirudh. Guest

    ketamine is the ans it is given i katzung clearly it increases o2 consumption,blood flow and pressure


    think in the question on pap smear fixator the 4th option was ethyl alcohol and thats the answer



    it is palosetron given in katzung 10th edition..it has highest affinity and half life 40 hrs

    about transperancy -it was given as mitosis of corneal endothelium which is the ans
  8. anirudh.

    anirudh. Guest

    HYPERGLYCAEMIA BY GLUCOCORTICOIDS... B BLOCKER CONTRAINDICATED IN DM AS MASKS HYPOGLYC SYMPTOMS . IT ITSELF CAUSES HYPOGLY.
  9. anirudh.

    anirudh. Guest

    thio sulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar is one op and also the correct one
  10. anirudh.

    anirudh. Guest

    Mitral stenosis PFT findings




    To correlate the degree of severity in patients with rheumatic mitral stenosis to pulmonary function data and to their respiratory symptoms. Methods: Pulmonary function and the MCR questionnaire on respiratory symptoms were made in 43 patients with simple mitral stenosis (SMS), and 79 patients with advanced mitral stenosis scheduled for valve replacement surgery (MVR). Results: All the patients in the two groups had restrictive and obstructive patterns. They had reduced forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), peak expiratory flow rate, maximal flow after exhalation of 75, 50 and 25% of FVC and single-breath carbon monoxide diffusing capacity (DLCO) and increased total airway resistance, resistance during expiration, and residual volume (RV). The SMS group tended toward more normal values. The MVR group had lower values for all the parameters, specially FVC, FEV1, DLCO and higher RV. The MVR group had a significantly higher prevalence of cough, phlegm and acute chest illness than the SMS group. Conclusion: The study confirmed the restrictive and obstructive pattern of pulmonary dysfunction in patients with rheumatic mitral stenosis which related with the severity of mitral stenosis and with respiratory symptoms.
  11. anirudh.

    anirudh. Guest

    claw hand is seen in low ulnar nerve palsy,due to sparing of flexors of wrist . in high ulnar palsy both flexors and lumbricals are involved
  12. Drtshree

    Drtshree Guest

    senile cardiac amyloidosis- TTR
    *shoulder pain in laparoscopy- most approp is CO2 narcosis even though not exact: co2 causes drying and cold injury to peritoneum, peritoneal cell death, and thus phrenic nerve irritation
    *vaccination of 18m old child taken only 1 dose DPT and OPV- bcg not to be given after 1 yr after 1 yr: acc. to new schedule
    *test utilizing peroxidase is- glucose estimation
  13. anks

    anks Guest

    frnds let me tel u this time in all india dre would b abt 20 to 30 repeats(word to word) frm nov 2007 AIIMS n 20 to 30 same topics bt wid dif optns.
    abt 50 q vil b gog to b taken from last 5 to 7 yrs al n AIIMS .
    rest vil b nwer ones
    so al d bst
    prepare hard
    happy diwali
  14. sujee

    sujee Guest

    A blockade of second part of axillary artery will result in which of the following collaterals opening up,
    a.ant. and post circumflex humeral arteries
    b.subsscapular and posterior circumflex humeral artery
    c.suprascapular and circumflexscapular artey
    d.suprascapular and dorsal scapular artery.
    ans.a


    in the above question there was an option
    deep branch of transverse cervical and circumflex scapular artery
  15. sujee

    sujee Guest

    i think it goes this way that trans cervical art being a branch of subclavian artery open up during the obstruction of 2nd part of axill artery.
  16. Manish.

    Manish. Guest

    FAST AXONAL TRANSPORT IS BY ALL EXCEPT
    .....DYNENIN.....KINESIN......MICROFILAMENTS......NEUROFILAMENTS....?


    he cytoskeleton and the cytomatrix proteins move in the two components of slow transport. While the mechanisms underlying slow transport are unknown, it has been hypothesized that the movement of microtubules in slow transport is generated by sliding. To determine whether dynein, a motor protein that causes microtubule sliding in flagella, may play a role in slow axonal transport, we identified the transport rate components with which cytoplasmic dynein is associated in rat optic nerve. Nearly 80% of the anterogradely moving dynein was associated with slow transport,


    FROM PNAS.ORG
    SO ANS IS DYNENIN
  17. Manish.

    Manish. Guest

    well there is confusion regarding, abscence of corpus callosum. When it is absent from beginning, there wont be symptoms, but if dstroyed later, there can be astereognosis, so keeping in mind wordings of the question, answer should be no symptoms as suggested earlier. I asked this from a post graduate
  18. adi.

    adi. Guest

    Que. Most common type of seizure in neonates :
    1) tonic
    2) clonic
    3) subtle
    4) myoclonic

    ans:ref;NELSON:-
    most common cause of neonatal seizures is HYPOXIC ISCHEMIC ENCEPHALOPATHY-that most likely presents as clinical seizures with inconsistent EEG findings-----observed with all generalized tonic seizures and subtle seizures and with some myoclonic seizures

    "NEONATAL SEIZURES ARE DIFFERENT FROM THOSE IN CHILDHOOD BECAUSE GENERALIZED TONIC-CLONIC CONVULSIONS TEND NOT TO OCCUR DURING 1ST MONTH OF LIFE..."
  19. adi.

    adi. Guest

    LEARNING DOES NOT INCLUDE
    .........MODELLING........CATHARSIS.....EXPOSURE.....RESPONSE PREVENTION....




    LOCUS OF LEARNING IN BEHAVIOURIST ORIENTATION OF LEARNING IS
    STIMULI IN EXTERNAL ENVIORNMENT(EXPOSURE)
    SEE TABLE
    http://www.infed.org/biblio/b-learn.htm
    earning is the acquisition and development of memories and behaviors, including skills, knowledge, understanding, values, and wisdom. It is the product of experience and the goal of education. Learning ranges from simple associative learning (e.g., habituation) seen in many animal species, to more complex activities such as play, seen only in relatively intelligent animals.[1][2]
    Contents
    [hide]

    * 1 Physiology of learning
    * 2 Types of learning
    o 2.1 Simple non-associative learning
    + 2.1.1 Habituation
    + 2.1.2 Sensitization
    o 2.2 Associative learning
    + 2.2.1 Operant conditioning
    + 2.2.2 Classical conditioning
    o 2.3 Imprinting
    o 2.4 Observational learning
    o 2.5 Play
    o 2.6 Electronic learning
    * 3 Machine learning
    * 4 Approaches to learning
    o 4.1 Rote learning
    o 4.2 Informal learning
    o 4.3 Formal learning
    o 4.4 Non-formal learning and combined approaches
    * 5 See also
    * 6 References
    * 7 External links

    [edit] Physiology of learning

    "Thought," in a general sense, is commonly conceived as something arising from the stimulation of neurons in the brain. Current understanding of neurons and the central nervous system implies that the process of learning corresponds to changes in the relationship between certain neurons in the brain. Research is ongoing in this area.[citation needed]

    It is generally recognized that memory is more easily retained when multiple parts of the brain are stimulated, such as through combinations of hearing, seeing, smelling, motor skills, touch sense, and logical thinking.[citation needed]

    Repeating thoughts and actions is an essential part of learning. Thinking about a specific memory will make it easy to recall. This is the reason why reviews are such an integral part of education. On first performing a task, it is difficult as there is no path from axon to dendrite. After several repetitions a pathway begins to form and the task becomes easier. When the task becomes so easy that you can perform it at any time, the pathway is fully formed. The speed at which a pathway is formed depends on the individual, but is usually localised resulting in talents.[citation needed]



    ANOTHER OPTION CATHARSIS

    refers to the sensation, or literary effect, that would ideally overcome an audience upon finishing watching a tragedy


    ABOUT MODELLING OPTION

    Student modelling is a special type of user modelling which is relevant to the adaptability of intelligent tutoring systems. This paper reviews the basic techniques which have been used in student modelling and discusses issues and approaches of current interest. The role of a student model in a tutoring system and methods for representing information about students are discussed. The paper concludes with an overview of some unresolved issues and problems in student modelling.
    REF-ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE REVIEW JOURNAL


    RESPONSE PREVENTION

    The method is predicated on the idea that a therapeutic effect is achieved as subjects confront their fears and discontinue their escape response.



    learning is a part of behaviour therapy.
    neeraj ahuja pg 220,221.
    all are mentioned except catharsis.
    further in pg 159 in rx of grief reaction he says: ventilation of feelings(catharsis.)

    so answer must be catharsis.
  20. sanna

    sanna Guest

    some corrections

    Major one in Q 179 dont remember the exact words but it goes like

    Q179.Which of following is not required as part of informed consent before experimental studies for a new treatment suggested for a disease
    1.Explaining procedure to be followed
    2.likely side effects expected
    3.Expected outcome in the form of improvement /cure
    4.Concealing information about other treatment options.

    Though i marked (4) but (3) seamed uncorrect too as Option 3 amount to bias in a clinical study.

    Q 187 option(a)CT chest
    Q159 Option C Chelation
    Q144 option a .Due to mutions in genes coding for lysosomal hydrolases
    Q131 a.Anencephaly b.TEF
    Q128 d.Ventricular filling
  21. asj1236900

    asj1236900 Guest

    all are indication of intensive care of diabets mallitus except?

    a.patient who have had kidney translant for diabetic nephropathy
    b.autonomic neuropathy
    c.pregnancy
    d.myocardical infarction patient with diabetes mallitus

    answer d.myocardial infarction patient with diabetis mallitus
    refrence harrison 16th edition page 2172 2173

    [

    Intensive Management Intensive diabetes management has the goal of
    achieving euglycemia or near-normal glycemia. This approach requires
    multiple resources including thorough and continuing patient
    education, comprehensive recording of plasma glucose measurements
    and nutrition intake by the patient, and a variable insulin regimen thatmatches glucose intake and insulin dose. Insulin regimens usually include
    multiple-component insulin regimens, multiple daily injections
    (MDI), or insulin infusion devices (each discussed below).
    . From a psychological standpoint, the patient experiences
    greater control over his or her diabetes and often notes an
    improved sense of well-being, greater flexibility in the timing and
    content of meals, and the capability to alter insulin dosing with exercise.
    In addition, intensive diabetes management in pregnancy reduces
    the risk of fetal malformations and morbidity. Intensive diabetes management
    because it may prolong the period of C-peptide production,
    which may result in better glycemic control and a reduced risk of
    serious hypoglycemia.
    Although intensive management confers impressive benefits, it is
    also accompanied by significant personal and financial costs and is
    therefore not appropriate for all individuals. Circumstances in which
    intensive diabetes management should be strongly considered arelisted in Table 323-10.
  22. riya.

    riya. Guest

    ) kanavel sign- tenosinovitis...
    ref.manipal manual of surgery... pg.33

    2) trans hiatal total oesophagectomy... also known as ORRINGER PROCEDURE... done without opening thorax..
    REF.manipal manual of surgery... pg.316

    3) bleeding duodenal ulcer, Rx ?
    duodenotomy,ligation of bleeder and converting into pyloroplasty followed by vagotomy.
    REF. manipal manual of surgery... pg.336

    4) couinaud segment 4 corresponds to - QUADRATE LOBE OF LIVER
    ref. manipal manual.. pg 370
  23. PEDIATRIC SURGERY MCQ ANSWERED BY DR MANISH MANDAL



    A 12 yr old boy with pectus excavatum is brought for evaluation. He has no complaints of breathless on exertion however complains of intermittent wheezing. On examination mild pectus excavatum deformity of the chest is noted. which of the following findings on PFTs is an indication for surgery?
    choices:
    A)FEV1/FVC < 0.6
    B)low exercise tolerance at maximal capacity
    C)TLC 80% of predicted
    D)PEFR 60% of predicted

    Indications for surgical repair
    Operative correction should be considered in patients who present with pectus excavatum and cardiopulmonary impairment. The most common goal in operative repair of pectus excavatum is to correct the chest deformity. This is particularly important in teenagers, in whom the appearance of the chest can result in significant problems related to body image and self-esteem. Thus, the desire to improve the appearance of the chest is considered an appropriate medical indication for surgery. Images 1-3 illustrate the dramatic appearance of pectus excavatum in young male and female patients.

    Other indications include exercise and physical activity limitations, evidence of cardiac or pulmonary dysfunction, chest pain, psychological distress, and potential future need for sternotomy (open-heart surgery). Adult patients with pectus excavatum who undergo open-heart surgery typically have significant displacement and rotation of the heart to the left chest. This can make the operative approach to the heart at the time of open-heart surgery difficult and challenging. With this in mind, elective repair of the pectus deformity prior to open-heart surgery may be indicated in selected cases.

    SO ANS PROBABLY IS PES EXCAVATUM

    A prospective study of preoperative and postoperative pulmonary function following corrective surgery for pectus excavatum is currently underway. In 1984, Cahill et al reported that, after operative repair, lung capacity improved little and maximal voluntary ventilation improved significantly in patients with pectus excavatum who had low-to-normal vital capacities prior to surgery.3 Exercise tolerance was also improved, as measured by total exercise time and maximal oxygen uptake.
  24. bv

    bv Guest

    148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
    a. Sperm count > 20 million
    b. Volume > 1 ml
    c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
    d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %

    Answer: B.Volume > 1ml(most probably)


    And also found this table from a search on the WHO site...

    The World Health Organization (7) suggests the
    following for normal semen analysis values:

    • Volume >2 ml
    • Sperm concentration 20 million/ml or more
    • Sperm motility >50% or more with forward progression, or 25% or more with rapid progression within 60 minutes of ejaculation
    • Sperm morphology 15% or more normal forms
    • White blood cells fewer than 1 million/ml
    • Sperm mixed antiglobulin reaction (MAR) test fewer than 10% spermatozoa with adherent particles
  25. docdip

    docdip Guest

    this question is probably a direct pick from harrisn pg.2188:
    about semen analysis,it says,
    "the normal ejaculate volume is 2 to 6 ml,contains sperm count of>20 million/ml,with a motility>50%,and greater than 15%normal morphology.."

    that makes the answer as D. FORWARD MOTILITY>25%..
  26. Guest

    Guest Guest

    148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
    a. Sperm count > 20 million
    b. Volume > 1 ml
    c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
    d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %

    The World Health Organization (7) suggests the
    following for normal semen analysis values:

    • Volume >2 ml
    • Sperm concentration 20 million/ml or more
    • Sperm motility >50% or more with forward progression or 25% or more with rapid progression within 60 minutes of ejaculation.
    • Sperm morphology 15% or more normal forms
    • White blood cells fewer than 1 million/ml
    • Sperm mixed antiglobulin reaction (MAR) test fewer than 10% spermatozoa with adherent particles

    this question is probably a direct pick from harrisn pg.2188
    about semen analysis,it says,
    "the normal ejaculate volume is 2 to 6 ml,contains sperm count of>20 million/ml,with a motility>50%,and greater than 15%normal morphology.."

    WHO clearly states about rapid progressive motility in >25%......whereas harrisson just states about motility..not specifying any thing about speed....so option D is correct...
  27. Guest

    Guest Guest

    140. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
    a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
    b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
    c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
    d. ..

    Answer is C. makes the capillary surface hydrophillic

    Reference: Ganong 21st edition page 657-658

    Surfactant

    The low surface tension when the alveoli are small is due to the presence in the fluid lining the alveoli of surfactant, a lipid surface-tension-lowering agent. Surfactant is a mixture of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC), other lipids, and proteins (Table 34-2). If the surface tension is not kept low when the alveoli become smaller during expiration, they collapse in accordance with the law of Laplace (see Chapter 30). In spherical structures like the alveoli, the distending pressure equals 2 times the tension divided by the radius (P = 2T/r); if T is not reduced as r is reduced, the tension overcomes the distending pressure. Surfactant also helps to prevent pulmonary edema. It has been calculated that if it were not present, the unopposed surface tension in the alveoli would produce a 20 mm Hg force favoring transudation of fluid from the blood into the alveoli.

    Phospholipids, which have a hydrophilic "head" and two parallel hydrophobic fatty acids "tails", line up in the alveoli with their tails facing the alveolar lumen (Figure 34-13), and surface tension is inversely proportionate to their concentration per unit area. They move farther apart as the alveoli enlarge during inspiration, and surface tension increases, whereas it decreases when they move closer together during expiration.

    Surfactant is produced by type II alveolar epithelial cells (Figure 34-13). Typical lamellar bodies, membrane-bound organelles containing whorls of phospholipid, are formed in these cells and secreted into the alveolar lumen by exocytosis. Tubes of lipid called tubular myelin form from the extruded bodies, and the tubular myelin in turn forms the phospholipid film. Some of the protein-lipid complexes in surfactant are taken up by endocytosis in type II alveolar cells and recycled.

    Formation of the phospholipid film is greatly facilitated by the proteins in surfactant. This material contains four unique proteins, SP-A, SP-B, SP-C, and SP-D. SP-A is a large glycoprotein and has a collagen-like domain within its structure. It probably has multiple functions, including regulation of the FEEDBACK uptake of surfactant by the type II alveolar epithelial cells that secrete it. SP-B and SP-C are smaller proteins, which facilitate formation of the monomolecular film of phospholipid. Like SP-A, SP-D is a glycoprotein. Its function is uncertain. However, SP-A and SP-D are members of the collectin family of proteins that are involved in innate immunity (see Chapter 27) in other parts of the body.
  28. amish

    amish Guest

    146. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
    a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
    b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
    c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
    d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid

    Answer. B.Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte

    Reference: Ganong 21st edition page 429

    Spermatogenesis

    The spermatogonia, the primitive germ cells next to the basal lamina of the seminiferous tubules, mature into primary spermatocytes (Figure 23-17). This process begins during adolescence. The primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic division, reducing the number of chromosomes. In this two-stage process, they divide into secondary spermatocytes and then into spermatids, which contain the haploid number of 23 chromosomes. The spermatids mature into spermatozoa (sperms). As a single spermatogonium divides and matures, its descendants remain tied together by cytoplasmic bridges until the late spermatid stage. This apparently ensures synchrony of the differentiation of each clone of germ cells. The estimated number of spermatids formed from a single spermatogonium is 512. In humans, it takes an average of 74 days to form a mature sperm from a primitive germ cell by this orderly process of spermatogenesis.
  29. amish

    amish Guest

    ans to Q 193. Regarding type A personality, false is:
    a. Hostility
    b. Time pressure
    c. Competitiveness
    d. Mood fluctuations

    ans is
    d. Mood fluctuations
  30. amish

    amish Guest

    Regarding flourosis all are true except:
    a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
    b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles
    c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
    d. Genu valgu


    a.Fluorosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
    thats false

    poor oral hygiene is.....and fluorides protect against dental caries.

    i dont think this is that important but found it interesting........

    DENTAL FLUOROSIS
    Deans Index Classification
    Criteria – description of enamel

    Normal : Smooth, glossy, pale creamy-white translucent surface

    Questionable : A few white flecks or white spots

    Very Mild : Small opaque, paper white areas covering less than 25% of the tooth surface

    Mild : Opaque white areas covering less than 50% of the tooth surface

    Moderate : All tooth surfaces affected; marked wear on biting surfaces; brown stain may be present

    Severe: All tooth surfaces affected; discrete or confluent pitting; brown stain present

    SKELETAL FLUOROSIS phases

    Osteosclerotic phase Ash concentration (mgF/kg) Symptoms and signs
    Normal Bone 500 to 1,000 Normal

    Preclinical Phase 3,500 to 5,500 Asymptomatic; slight radiographically-detectable increases in bone mass

    Clinical Phase I 6,000 to 7,000 Sporadic pain; stiffness of joints; osteosclerosis of pelvis and vertebral spine

    Clinical Phase II 7,500 to 9,000 Chronic joint pain; arthritic symptoms; slight calcification of ligaments' increased osteosclerosis and cancellous bones; with/without osteoporosis of long bones

    Phase III: Crippling Fluorosis 8,400 Limitation of joint movement; calcification of ligaments of neck vertebral column; crippling deformities of the spine and major joints; muscle wasting; neurological defects/compression of spinal cord
  31. amish

    amish Guest

    Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. B/L renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism

    the answer is b.ESRD
    you get hyperkalemia and hypertension. The only electrolyte that decreases is Ca i think.

    Anyways...........
    The presence of primary mineralocorticoid excess should be suspected in any patient with the triad of hypertension, unexplained hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis.

    However, normokalemia may be more common than hypokalemia in patients diagnosed with primary aldosteronism.

    Causes other than primary aldosteronism — The two other major causes of hypertension and hypokalemia are
    * renovascular disease (in which hypersecretion of renin leads sequentially to increased angiotensin II and then aldosterone secretion) and

    *diuretic therapy, which may be surreptitious.

    Less common causes include
    *Cushing's syndrome
    * licorice ingestion
    * certain forms of congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    * Liddle's syndrome and
    * renin-secreting tumors
  32. amish

    amish Guest

    Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
    a. Maternal deaths/live birth
    b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
    c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
    d. Maternal deaths/100000 population
  33. amish

    amish Guest

    All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except:
    a. Increase in hematocrit
    b. Hb curve shifts to the left
    c. Increased protein content
    d. Decrease in pH
  34. pandey.

    pandey. Guest

    Alexander disease is a disorder of cortical white matter that predominantly affects infants and children and usually results in death within ten years after onset. Most individuals present with nonspecific neurologic signs and symptoms.Leukodystrophy. MRI studies can help distinguish the leukodystrophies.
    it also says..
    MRI studies can help distinguish the leukodystrophiesThe finding of marked frontal predominance of white matter changes with a rostro-caudal progression of myelin loss on serial imaging studies in individuals with Alexander disease contrasts with the MRI findings in individuals with other leukodystrophies and megalencephalies. Affected individuals may have hyperintensity of the basal ganglia with brain stem and cerebellar involvement. The white matter involvement in individuals with X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy is most severe in the parietal and occipital lobes and progresses anteriorly. Centripetal spread of white matter involvement is observed in individuals with arylsulfatase A deficiency (metachromatic leukodystrophy), Krabbe disease , and, commencing at the arcuate fibers, Canavan


    its on geneclinics dot org / profiles / alexander.

    Alexander Disease

    Author: J Rafael Gorospe, MD, PhD
  35. pandey.

    pandey. Guest

    asked my registrar in peds!!
    he says most comon type is multifocal clonic(around 42%).
    and clonic seizures are of 2 types in neonates focal(forms around 6 percent)..
    so i guess the most correct option is clonic!!
    there was a study done by MAMC professor which is on net and it says most common type as multifocal clonic...
    but there is also few studies done abroad which says subtle seizures are common!!
    but i guess i would like to go with clonic as the most approprite response among four options.
  36. pandey.

    pandey. Guest

    guess the the answer for corneal transperancy is mitotic figures in centre of cornea!!
    the corneal transperancy is maintained by hydration..
    78% of corneal mass is by hydration!!!
    and mitotic figures in the centre are sen in case of injury tio the epithelium and and are resposible for staphyloma and other stuff!!
  37. pandey.

    pandey. Guest

    Plz go thru this.should help clear some confusion about alexander ds. being the ans.


    Neural imaging studies. From a multi-institutional retrospective survey of MRI studies of 217 individuals with leukoencephalopathy, van der Knaap et al (2001) suggest that the presence of four of the five following criteria establish an MRI-based diagnosis of Alexander disease:

    Extensive cerebral white matter abnormalities with a frontal preponderance
    A periventricular rim of decreased signal intensity on T2-weighted images and elevated signal intensity on T1-weighted images
    Abnormalities of the basal ganglia and thalami that may include any of the following:
    Elevated signal intensity and swelling
    Atrophy
    Elevated or decreased signal intensity on T2-weighted images
    Brain stem abnormalities, particularly involving the medulla and midbrain
    Contrast enhancement of one or more of the following: ventricular lining, periventricular rim, frontal white matter, optic chiasm, fornix, basal ganglia, thalamus, dentate nucleus, brain stem
    Rodriguez et al (2001) determined that individuals who exhibited these typical findings on MRI were more likely than not to have the diagnosis of Alexander disease confirmed by molecular genetic testing.

    Recent studies of individuals with molecularly confirmed Alexander disease have expanded the MRI findings to include the following [van der Knaap et al 2005 , van der Knaap et al 2006]:

    Predominant or isolated involvement of posterior fossa structures
    Multifocal tumor-like brain stem lesions and brain stem atrophy
    Slight, diffuse signal changes involving the basal ganglia and/or thalamus
    Garland-like feature along the ventricular wall
    Characteristic pattern of contrast enhancement
    Any findings that suggest, but do not meet, the strict criteria
    Note: (1) It has been suggested that signal abnormalities or atrophy of the medulla or spinal cord are sufficient findings to warrant molecular genetic testing of GFAP [Salvi et al 2005 , van der Knaap et al 2006]. (2) Atypical MRI findings were more commonly observed in juvenile- and adult-onset Alexander disease, indicating that these forms have more variable disease manifestations
  38. bisu

    bisu Guest

    reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding
    1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    2) Endoplasmic reticulum/lysosome
    3) Glycogen depletion
    4) Perinuclear staining

    answer 1 mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria

    harrison 16th edition page 1871

    There is mitochondrial dysfunction with decreased activity of hepatic
    mitochondrial enzymes

    schiff diseases of liver 10th edition page 1319 1320

    This disorder shares many features with mitochondrial hepatopathy, and indeed, abnormal mitochondria are an important
    ultrastructural feature.

    electrom microscopy reveals marked microvesicular steatosis (Fig. 47.9) and characteristic
    mitochondrial changes with swelling of matrix, dissolution of cristae and intramatrical granules, and ameboid shapes

    both CMDT and CPDT mentioned about glycogen depletion in histopathological feature.
  39. bisu

    bisu Guest

    wat abt egg on side appearance? q 199

    i looked up
    there was no direct reference to egg on side

    'egg on end' appearance suggestive of transposition of great arteries! “Egg shaped heart” marks uncorrected TGA
  40. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
    a. Induces microsomal enzymes
    b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
    c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
    d. Highly protein bound



    b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
    zero order kinetics is with very high doses.
    other similar drugs are salicylates, theophylline, and thiopentone .
  41. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
    a. HSG
    b. Hysteroscopy
    c. Endometrial culture

    d Saline infusion USG



    .saline infsuion USG

    hsg and hysteroscopy are more or less diagostic.

    Endometrial culture to rule out tuberculosis and other infections which may lead to adhesions.
  42. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
    a. Subphrenic abscess
    b. CO2 narcosis
    c. Positioning of the patient
    d. Compression of the lung



    . carbon dioxide narcosis

    When the C02 gas irritates the diaphragmatic nerves, that pain is then referred upwards through the nerve connections, eventually landing in - and aggravating - the shoulder.

    Also recent work has determined that the actual cause of the nerve irritation is a result of the cellular death caused by the combination of a temperature change from the gas at 21 degree celsius and the drying effect of the gas at .0002%.
  43. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
    a. Hydrochloric acid
    b. Phenol
    c. Formalin
    d. Fluoride

    d.FLUORIDE

    Vitreous Humour should be collected from each eye separately,
    and placed in fluoride preservative. This specimen is particularly
    useful for alcohols, or in diabetes and insulin related deaths.
  44. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are:
    a. 1
    b. 2 ?
    c. 3
    d. 4
  45. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol


    .ethyl alcohol

    95% alcohol is used
  46. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
    a. Ascending colon
    b. Hepatic flexure
    c. Splenic flexure
    d. Descending colon

    c.SPLENIC FLEXURE

    The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is perfused by the middle colic artery, a branch of superior mesenteric artery, while the latter third is supplied by branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. The "watershed" area between these two blood supplies, which represents the embryologic division between the midgut and hindgut, is an area sensitive to ischemia.
  47. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    True about protease inhibitors are all except:
    a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene
    b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
    c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
    d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
  48. Hilda

    Hilda Guest

    All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except:
    a. Increase in hematocrit
    b. Hb curve shifts to the left
    c. Increased protein content
    d. Decrease in pH

    When blood flows through metabolically active tissues it becomes warmer, its pH decreases (the blood becomes more acidic), and the rising partial pressure of CO2 (PCO2) all act to reduce the affinity of Hb for O2.

    With risisng PCO2 the curve shifts to the right , not left
  49. manish.

    manish. Guest

    A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
    a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
    b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
    c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
    d. Total laryngectomy

    The primary treatment indications for vertical partial laryngectomy (VPL) include initial therapy, as well as recurrent or persistent early glottic cancer (T1 and T2 stages) that has been refractive to primary radiotherapy or transoral laser excision. In select cases, T3 lesions may be addressed with this family of operations; however, prudence is warranted because the operation is best suited for T1 or T2 lesions.

    Specifically, for T1 lesions that do not involve the anterior commissure, laser cordectomy can be performed. False vocal cord reconstruction is feasible for T1 lesions, and one excellent option is imbrication laryngoplasty. This operation facilitates false vocal cord reconstruction while maintaining the bulk of the neocord by transferring vascularized innervated false cord to oppose the contralateral true vocal cord. This procedure can also be performed for T2 lesions classified as such by impaired mobility.

    For T2 lesions that involve the supraglottis, the false vocal cord usually cannot be pulled down. If a VPL is selected, a different reconstruction, such as the perichondrial/sternohyoid muscle flap procedure or a muscle/free mucosal flap procedure, should be considered.

    For lesions that involve the anterior commissure, bilateral muscle flaps may be used as an alternative to the epiglottic pulldown described by Kambic et al.


    Contraindications: Note that cancer that involves the anterior commissure is close to the Broyle ligament, an anatomic structure that may make tumor invasion of the thyroid cartilage more accessible. This danger has prompted some authors to question vertical partial laryngectomy (VPL) for such lesions in favor of a different organ preservation technique such as supracricoid partial laryngectomy (SCPL) with cricohyoidoepiglottopexy (CHEP) or cricohyoidopexy (CHP). Although voice results following SCPL are predictably worse than after VPL, the local control rates following SCPL are perhaps better for selected T2 and T3 lesions of the glottis. Each case must be individualized for the patient's particular tumor and preoperative function.

    Absolute contraindications to VPL include arytenoid fixation, thyroid cartilage invasion, interarytenoid invasion, subglottic extension to involve the cricoid cartilage, lesions that extend outside the larynx, and preepiglottic space invasion.

    Because of the relative lack of lymphatics in the glottic division of the larynx, glottic cancers tend to metastasize only in advanced stages, so nodal disease findings indicate more advanced disease and are probably another contraindication to VPL.
  50. manish.

    manish. Guest

    Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
    a. Ritodrine
    b. MgSO4
    c. Nifedipine
    d. Progesterone


    Although books doesnt directly say which drug has least side effect, but the comment made about each of them should be indicative. Here we go (ref. Oxorn and foote 5th ed)-

    Ritodrine - its beta 2 specific hence the SE are less than isoxsuprine. 1st drug 2 b approved by USFDA 4 use in pre term labour

    MgSO4
    There is a whole list of maternal and fetal side effects

    nifedipine
    although no fetal side effects are noted, human experience with it is limited and its still an experimental drug.

    Progesterone - there is NO mention of this drug under managenment of pre term labour

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