AIIMS NOV 2007 RECALLS

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by sujee, Nov 6, 2007.

  1. sujee

    sujee Guest

    Que.1 Tryptans act through
    1)5HT1a
    2)5HT1b
    3)5HT1c
    4)5HTf

    Que.2 Therapeutic monitoring is required for all except
    1) Phenytoin
    2) Cyclosporine
    3) Tacrolimus
    4) Metformin


    Que.3 Kanavel’s sign present in
    1) Tenosynovitis
    2) Carpal tunnel syndrome
    3) Trigger finger
    4) Duputreyans contractures

    Que.4 Acridine dye used to stain
    1) DNA-RNA
    2) Protein
    3) Lipid
    4) Carbohydrate


    Que.5 Stains for lipid are all except
    1) Oil red O
    2) Congo red
    3) Sudan III
    4) Sudan black


    Que.6 True about protease inhibitors are A/E
    1) MDR-1 gene
    2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes
    3) Drug interaction
    4) Saquinavir most potent action on CYP3A4


    Que.7 Shoulder pain in laparoscopy is due to
    1) Subphrenic abscess
    2) CO2 narcosis
    3) Positioning of patient
    4) Compression of lungs
    Que.8 PAS positive a/e
    1) Glycogen
    2) lipid
    3) fungal Cell wall
    4) basement membrane


    Que.9 for Vibrio cholera, medium used
    1) Thayer martin
    2) TCBS
    3) Scirrow
    4) ..


    Que.10 Primary impact injury is most common in
    1) head
    2) chest
    3) abdomen
    4) leg


    Que.11 Telefona
    1) Pulling of hair
    2) Beating on soles
    3) Beating on ears
    4) …


    Que.12 In tandem gun, number of [bleep] fired
    1) 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4


    Que.13 Vitreous humor is sent in
    1) Phenol
    2) HCl
    3) Acetone
    4) Xylene
    5) alcohol

    Que.14 Fixing of cervical smear is done by
    1) Ethanol
    2) Acetone
    3) Xylene
    4) ..


    Que.15 Blood spills on floor are cleaned by
    1) Sodium hypochlorite
    2) Iodine
    3)
    4)


    Que.16 true about dietery allowance are all except
    1) RDA
    2) adequate intake
    3) dietary intake according to the food composition
    4) food intake according to the upper limit of RDA


    Que.17which of the following person is present in a sub centre
    1) multi purpose worker
    2) doctor
    3) lab technician
    4) health educator


    Que.18 Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. In which of the following Ionic exchange is blocked
    1) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition
    2) Aerobic glycolysis
    3) Phosphodiesterease inhibitors
    4)


    Que.19 Gall bladder epithelium is
    1) simple columnar
    2) simple columnar with brush border
    3) squamous
    4) cuboidal with stercocilia


    Que.20 3 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, found to have midline cystic swelling which is painless below the hyoid. What should be done next
    1) Surgery
    2) X-ray chest
    3) antibiotics
    4) Aspiration

    Que.21 After laparoscopic appendicectomy, patient had fall from bed on her nose, after whish she had swelling in the nose and slight difficulty in breathing. What should be done next
    1) Antibiotics for 7 to 14 days and discharge
    2) Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    3) Surgical drainage
    4) Observation in hospital for 2wks


    Que.22 Goniometry is measurement of
    1) urethrovesical angle
    2) number of gonococci
    3) length of genital hiatus
    4)


    Que.23 Metabolic alkalosis is seen in
    1) excess mineralocorticoid
    2) decreased mineralocorticoids
    3) increased base excretion
    4) decreased H+ ion secretion


    Que.24 Following drugs act on GABA-A except
    1) thiopentone
    2) midazolam
    3) zopiclone
    4) promethazine


    Que.25 Nephelometry depends on following law
    1) Lambert Beer law
    2) Scattering of light from particles
    3) refraction of light
    4) decread intensity of light


    Que.26 Thiopentone true are A/E
    1) induction agent of choice in shock
    2) cerebroprotective
    3) contraindicated in porphyria
    4) mixed with ….


    Que.27 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is
    1) OCCULT Cancer
    2) Anorexia nervosa ( may be they are asking abt prolactinoma)
    3) Hypothyroidism
    4)

    Que.28 True about vitiligo are all except
    1) Genetic predisposition
    2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
    3) PUVA-B is used for treatment
    4) Topical steroids give good results.


    Que.29 Down’s syndrome, true is A/E
    1) PAPP- A increased
    2) Increased b-HCG
    3) Absence of nasal bone
    4)


    Que.30 In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be
    1) D-dimer
    2) CT angiography
    3) Catheter angiography
    4)


    Que.31 70 year old hypertensive with unconsiousness with normal ECG cause is
    1) pulmonary thromboembolism
    2) vasovagal attack
    3) temporal lobe epilepsi
    4)


    Que.32 Thrombo prophylaxis are all except
    1) aspirin
    2) warfarin
    3) heparin
    4) AT 3


    Que.33 pt of myocardial ischemia
    1)thrombolytic therapy
    2)pantoprapazole
    3)asprin
    4)


    Que.34 in a pt with retro caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will produce pain
    1) flection at hip
    2) extension at hip
    3) medial rotation
    4) lateral rotation


    Que.35 cryoprecipitate not seen
    1)factor 8
    2) factor 9
    3) vWF
    4) fibrinogen


    Que.36 in a caase due to asphyxia last to be opened during dissections
    1) neck
    2) thorax
    3) abdomen
    4) brain


    Que.37 what is seen in normal person on lying down
    1) increase in venous return
    2)
    3)
    4)


    Que.38 exercise causes which of the following
    1) increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min
    2) increase in body tempeture
    3)
    4)


    Que.39 most common type of seizure in neonates
    1) tonic
    2) clonic
    3) subtle
    4) myoclonic


    Que.40 block in the 2 nd part of axilary nearve what will searve as collateral
    1) subscapular and poster circumflex humeral
    2) circumflex scapular and ant circumflex scapular
    3)
    4)


    Que.44 post ductal compression of aorta collateral to serve are
    1) inteercostal and inferior epigastric
    2)
    3)
    4)

    Que.45 a child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show proteinurea 1 + and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
    1) fusion of podocytes
    2) ATN
    3) depositions of Ig A
    4)thickening of membrane


    Que.46 collapsing glomarulopathy following is seen
    1) proliferation of parietal cells
    2) tuft necrosis
    3)
    4)


    Que.47 Peristalsis of ureter depends on
    1) sympathetic flow
    2) parasympathetic flow
    3) both
    4) pacemaker in smooth muscle of ureter


    Que.48 In MVP, valve degeneration is
    1) hyaline degeneration
    2) myxomatous degeneration
    3) .. ..
    4) .. ..


    Que.49 In rheumatic carditis with MR, following finding will be seen
    1) Increased residual volume
    2) Increased PEFR
    3) decreased TLC
    4) Increased ventilatory capacity


    Que.50 FRACTURE 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful contraction of following muscle.
    1) peroneus longus
    2) peroneus brevius
    3) peroneus tertius
    4) extensor digitorum brevis

    Que.51 In emergrncy tracheostomy following structures are damaged except
    1) Isthmus of thyroid
    2) inferior thyroid vein
    3) inferior thyroid artery
    4) thyoidea ima


    Que.52 Whats the uppermost structure in left lung hilus
    1) pulmonary artery
    2) pulmo. vein
    3) bronchial artery
    4) broncus


    Que.53 In systemic capillary blood flow, all are seen except
    1) Increased protein content
    2) decreased pH
    3) shift of oxygen dissociation curve to left
    4) increased hematocrit.


    Que.54 Cardiac O2 consumption is Directly proportional to
    1) mean arterial pressure
    2) external cardiac work done
    3) heart rate
    4)


    Que.55 micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except
    1) active hepatitis B
    2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
    3) Haemachromatosis
    4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis


    Que.56 Phenytoin, all are true except
    1) Induces enzymes
    2) Zero order kinetics at low dose
    3) Half life increases with increasing dose
    4) Highly protein bound


    Que.57 which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3
    1) granisetron
    2) ondansetron
    3) dolasetron
    4)


    Que.58 marker of acute hepatitis B
    1) HBV DNA
    2) IgG HBc
    3) HBs Ag
    4) HBe Ag


    Que.59 A 30 year old man, presents with 6 month history of facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurilent discharge in middle meatus. Next best step
    1) Non contrast CT nose
    2) X ray maxillary sinus
    3) MRI
    4) Inferior meatus puncture


    Que.60 Tongue muscle develop from
    1) mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
    2) Occipital SOMITES
    3) CERVICAL SOMITES
    4) ..


    Que.61 A 3 year old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8 weeks revealed increased consolidation. Next step in investigation
    1) bronchoscopy
    2) nasopharyngeal culture
    3) CT
    4)


    Que.62 meiosis in spermatogenesis occurs in which step
    1) Iry spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia
    2) SPERMATID TO ROUND SPERMATID
    3)
    4)


    Que. 63 surfactant action
    1) Breaks structure of water
    2) lubricates CO2
    3) make capilariay surface hydrophilic
    4)


    Que.64 increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in
    1) downs
    2) molar pregnancy
    3) overestimation of gestation age
    4) renal agenasis


    Que.65 which Is not essential feature of TOF
    1) pulmonary valvular stenosis
    2) infundibular stenosis
    3) overriding of aorta
    4)


    Que.66 linkage studies uses the principal of
    1) DNa polymorfism
    2) PEDIGREE SHOWING WHO IS AFFECTED AND WHO IS NOT
    3)
    4)


    Que.67 methode of hb estimation except
    1) drabkins
    2) sahl’s
    3) spectrophotometry
    4) wintrobes


    Que.68 in PCR following is used
    1) Ca++
    2) Mg++
    3) Li+
    4) Na+

    Que.69 pulmonary hypertension is a\W all except
    1) hyperventelation
    2) obesity
    3) phenfluramin
    4) high altitude


    Que.70 clomiphen citrate is a\W all except
    1) polycystic overy
    2) foetal anamoly
    3) multiple pregnency
    4) ovarian cancer

    Que.71 diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except
    1) Endometrial culture
    2) hysteroscopy
    3) Hysterosalpingography
    4) water …


    Que.72 Pancytpenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except
    1) PNH
    2) Megaloblastic anaemia
    3) myelodysplasia
    4) congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia


    Que.73 Uterine relaxant with Least side effects
    1) Ritodrine
    2) Nifedipine
    3) Progesteron
    4) Magnesium sulphate


    Que.74 Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer
    1) HPV 16 with dysplasia
    2) LOW GRADE INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    3) High grade INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    4) HIV associated


    Que.75 Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
    1) uterine rupture
    2) cervical laceration
    3) Uterine inertia
    4) vaginal laceration


    Que.76 Drugs causing Hyperglycemia
    1) corticosteroids
    2) b blockers
    3)
    4)


    Que.77 Not seen in VHL
    1) Pheochromocytoma
    2) Pancreatic tumour
    3) Endolymphatic sac tumour
    4)


    Que. 78 left renal vein crosses aorta at the level of
    1) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric artery
    2) anterior above the level of superior mes. A.
    3) Anterior below the superior mesenteric A
    4) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric A
    5) Anterior at the level of superior M.A.

    Que.79 Who criteria for semen analysis, all are true for normal except
    1) forward propelling motility >15%(strict criteria)
    2) normal morphology >25%
    3) volume of 1ml
    4) Sperm count >20million


    Que.80 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating of aretynoid, involving false cord, treatment is
    1) Transverse hemi laryngectomy
    2) Vertical hemi laryngectomy
    3) radiation and chemotherapy
    4) total laryngectomy

    Que.81 In universal immunization, which is not included
    1) Hepatitis B
    2) BCG
    3) TT
    4) Measles


    Que.82 hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E
    1) Cushings
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) END STAGE RENAL DISEASE
    4) …


    Que.83 Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
    1) Hemiparesis
    2) Hemianaesthesia
    3) AStereognosis
    4) No neurological DEFECT


    Que.84 Transparency of cornea is maintained by A/E
    1) Mitotic figures in the cornea
    2) Wide separated collagen bands
    3) Hydration of corneal epithelium
    4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers


    Que.85 Furesemide, true is
    1) Acts on PCT
    2) Given only by parenteral route
    3) Used in pulmonary oedema
    4) ….


    Que.86 Thiazide causes all except
    1) Hyperglycemia
    2) Increased calcium excretion
    3) Increased blood uric acid levels
    4) Used in CCF


    Que.87 Drug stopped on the day of operation
    1) Metformin
    2) Atenolol
    3) Amlodepin
    4) Statins


    Que.88 Fourth lobe of liver by Couniyad’s classification
    1) Left lobe
    2) Right lobe
    3) Quadrate lobe
    4) Caudate lobe


    Que.89 Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney because of
    1) normal variant
    2) congenital BL…
    3) obstructive uropathy
    4) Intrauterine infections and scars


    Que.90 On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radial cysts. Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition
    1) imperforate anus
    2) hepatic cysts with fibrosis
    3) absent ureters
    4) …


    Que.91 cervical incompetence. G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. What should be done
    1) McDonald’s suturing
    2) Fothergill’s suturing
    3) DINOPROSTONE..
    4) .MISOPROSTOL.


    Que.92 Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial cancers
    1) Extrophy of bladder
    2) Medullary sponge kidney
    3) duplication of ureters
    4)


    Que.93 development of genital development, what is true
    1) Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    2) Genital ridge develops at5th week
    3) male genitals develop earlier than female
    4) EXTERNAL GENITALIA developed at 10th weeks


    Que.94 Patient with heart disease, which drug is not used in patient of haemorrhage to control PPH
    1)
    2) oxytocin
    3) misoprostol
    4) METHERGIN


    Que.95 baby not passed meconium for 48 hours, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen, next investigation is
    1) barium enema
    2) manometry
    3) esophagogram
    4) fecal fat estimation


    Que.96 with CSF all are true except
    1) pH less than blood
    2) No neutrophils present
    3) formed by arachnoid villi
    4) persistant leakage causes headache


    Que.97 Transitional epithelium is seen in all except
    1) collecting duct
    2) calyces
    3) ureter
    4) bladder


    Que.[snip] Gastroesophageal junctional adeno carcinoma is approached by following sequence
    1) abdomen-thorax
    2) thorax -abdomen
    3) thorax – abdo-neck
    4) abdo-mouth


    Que.99 dangerous area of eye
    1) ciliary body
    2) optic nerve
    3) sclera
    4) retina


    Que.100 perforators not present in
    1) ankle
    2) below inguinal ligament
    3) calf
    4) distal to calf

    Que.101 pericardial pain is conducted through
    1) deep CARDIAC plexus
    2) superficial CARDIAC plexux
    3) phrenic
    4) subcostal nerves


    Que.102 which muscle is not punctured during mid-axillary line thorasic puncture
    1) internal intercostal
    2) external intercostal
    3) transverse thorasis
    4) innermost intercostals


    Que.103 FNAC Needle Gauze size
    1) 26-28
    2) 22-26
    3) 18-22
    4) 16-18


    Que.104 # penis with intact Buck’s facia. Blood extravasates in
    1) butterfly shaped
    2) scrotum and penis only
    3) Scrotum, penis, anterior abdominal wall
    4) penile shaft only


    Que.105 duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Haematocrit 10 after transfusion. Pulse 110, BP 100/70. bleeding not controlled by endoscopic procedure. Next line of management
    1) PPI
    2) Distal gastrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum
    3) Subtotal Gastrectomy truncal vagotomy and controlling bleeders
    4) Duodenotomy, with controlling bleeder and Pyloroplasty.


    Que.106 Ogilive syndrome, true is all except
    1) mechanical obstruction
    2) Partial bowel wall obstruction
    3) Ileus after morphine ingestion
    4) AFTER SURGERY


    Que.107 Most common site of sub ependymal giant cell astrocytoma
    1) lateral ventrical
    2) foramen of morgagni
    3) 4th ventricle
    4) …


    Que.108 reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding
    1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    2) Endoplasmic reticulum DILATATION
    3) Glycogen depletion
    4) Perinuclear staining


    Que.109a best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) 72 HR Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4) N NAMED TEST??? DONT REMEMBER

    Que.109b child with H/O respiratory problem. best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4)

    Que.110 Fluorosis, true is all except
    1) most common cause of dental caries in children
    2) genu valgum
    3) nalgonda for defloridation
    4) deposited in bone and muscle


    Que.111 most common site of spinal tumour
    1) extramedullary intradural
    2) extra dural
    3) intra medullary
    4) …


    Que.112 initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is
    1) FGF8
    2) BMPr4
    3) EGRF
    4) branchy…..


    Que.113 Mivacurium when given in high doses, all are true except
    1) bronchospasm
    2) hypertension
    3) flushing
    4) rapid onset of action


    Que.114 All are characteristic of schizophrenia except
    1) third person hallucination
    2) inappropriate emotions
    3) long stretches of mood changes
    4) formal thought disorder


    Que.115 rapid flow in the neurons is by all except
    1) dyenin
    2) kinesin
    3) neuro filaments
    4) microFILAMENTS


    Que.116 type A personality false is
    1) hostile
    2) time pressure
    3) competitiveness
    4) mood fluctuations


    Que.117a senile cardiac amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)

    Que.117b senile amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)


    Que.118 shock lung, histopathological finding is
    1) diffuse alveolar necrosis
    2) pulmonary oedema
    3)
    4)


    Que.119 Most common brain tumor in NF1
    1) Optic glioma
    2) astrocytosis
    3) glioblastoma multiforme
    4)


    Que.120 bisphosphonates are used in all except
    1) hypercalcemia
    2) cancer
    3) osteoporosis
    4) hypervitaminosis D

    Que.121 Osteomalacia, true are all except
    1) increased serum calcium
    2) increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    3) looser’s zones
    4) proximal myopathy


    Que.122 Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in
    1) FEV1/FVC ratio <0.6
    2) 80% of expected
    3) ventilatory capacity
    4) FEV1 60% at max exercise toleration


    Que.123 FE Na <1 is seen in
    1) ATN
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) intrinsic renal failure
    4) pre renal

    Que.124 Good clinical practice not required in
    1) pre clinical testing
    2) Phase 1
    3) phase 2
    4) phase 4


    Que.125 hyaline cartilage collagen present is
    1) type 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4



    Que.126 classification of bone tumors
    1) manchester
    2) TNM
    3) Einkein
    4) ..


    Que.127 white matter lesion with hyperdense image on thalamus. Diagnosis is
    1) Krabbe
    2) Metachromatic leucodystrophy
    3) Kanawell’s disease
    4) Alexander’s dis


    Que.128 ketoacidosis all are true except
    1) hyper ventilation
    2) pain in abdomen
    3) bradycardia
    4)


    Que.129 cerebral metabolic rate is increased in
    1) propofol
    2) ketamine
    3) fluranes
  2. askra

    askra Guest

  3. askra

    askra Guest

    senile cardiac amyloidosisdue to deposition of:
    1.b2 micoglobulin
    2. transthyretin
    3.A N P
    4.pyrin
  4. vineet.

    vineet. Guest

    TRANSHIATAL OESOPHAGECTOMY

    This technique is particularly suitable for lower third oesophageal carcinomas where the tumour can be dissected under direct vision from the abdomen. Reconstruction has conventionally been with a gastric pull-up, although a colonic tube is an alternative conduit. Most commonly, the conduit is pulled from the abdomen through the narrow posterior mediastinum into the neck by tying it to a catheter, swab or length of latex tubing. This can be a difficult stage of the operation, especially when the gastric/colonic conduit is bulky. Consequently, there is the potential to devascularise the conduit at this stage. The incidence of conduit ischaemia has been reported to be 10%.
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Que.1 Tryptans act through
    1)5HT1a
    2)5HT1b
    3)5HT1c
    4)5HTf

    Que.2 Therapeutic monitoring is required for all except
    1) Phenytoin
    2) Cyclosporine
    3) Tacrolimus
    4) Metformin


    Que.3 Kanavel’s sign present in
    1) Tenosynovitis
    2) Carpal tunnel syndrome
    3) Trigger finger
    4) Duputreyans contractures

    Que.4 Acridine dye used to stain
    1) DNA-RNA
    2) Protein
    3) Lipid
    4) Carbohydrate


    Que.5 Stains for lipid are all except
    1) Oil red O
    2) Congo red
    3) Sudan III
    4) Sudan black


    Que.6 True about protease inhibitors are A/E
    1) MDR-1 gene
    2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes
    3) Drug interaction
    4) Saquinavir most potent action on CYP3A4


    Que.7 Shoulder pain in laparoscopy is due to
    1) Subphrenic abscess
    2) CO2 narcosis
    3) Positioning of patient
    4) Compression of lungs
    Que.8 PAS positive a/e
    1) Glycogen
    2) lipid
    3) fungal Cell wall
    4) basement membrane


    Que.9 for Vibrio cholera, medium used
    1) Thayer martin
    2) TCBS
    3) Scirrow
    4) ..


    Que.10 Primary impact injury is most common in
    1) head
    2) chest
    3) abdomen
    4) leg


    Que.11 Telefona
    1) Pulling of hair
    2) Beating on soles
    3) Beating on ears
    4) …


    Que.12 In tandem gun, number of [bleep] fired
    1) 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4


    Que.13 Vitreous humor is sent in
    1) Phenol
    2) HCl
    3) Acetone
    4) Xylene
    5) alcohol

    Que.14 Fixing of cervical smear is done by
    1) Ethanol
    2) Acetone
    3) Xylene
    4) ..


    Que.15 Blood spills on floor are cleaned by
    1) Sodium hypochlorite
    2) Iodine
    3)
    4)


    Que.16 true about dietery allowance are all except
    1) RDA
    2) adequate intake
    3) dietary intake according to the food composition
    4) food intake according to the upper limit of RDA


    Que.17which of the following person is present in a sub centre
    1) multi purpose worker
    2) doctor
    3) lab technician
    4) health educator


    Que.18 Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. In which of the following Ionic exchange is blocked
    1) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition
    2) Aerobic glycolysis
    3) Phosphodiesterease inhibitors
    4)


    Que.19 Gall bladder epithelium is
    1) simple columnar
    2) simple columnar with brush border
    3) squamous
    4) cuboidal with stercocilia


    Que.20 3 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, found to have midline cystic swelling which is painless below the hyoid. What should be done next
    1) Surgery
    2) X-ray chest
    3) antibiotics
    4) Aspiration

    Que.21 After laparoscopic appendicectomy(POD 2), patient had fall from bed on her nose, after whish she had swelling in the nose and slight difficulty in breathing. What should be done next
    1) Antibiotics for 7 to 14 days and discharge
    2) Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    3) Surgical drainage
    4) Observation in hospital for 2wks


    Que.22 Goniometry is measurement of
    1) urethrovesical angle
    2) number of gonococci
    3) length of genital hiatus
    4)


    Que.23 Metabolic alkalosis is seen in
    1) excess mineralocorticoid
    2) decreased mineralocorticoids
    3) increased base excretion
    4) decreased H+ ion secretion


    Que.24 Following drugs act on GABA-A except
    1) thiopentone
    2) midazolam
    3) zopiclone
    4) promethazine


    Que.25 Nephelometry depends on following law
    1) Lambert Beer law
    2) Scattering of light from particles
    3) refraction of light
    4) decread intensity of light


    Que.26 Thiopentone true are A/E
    1) induction agent of choice in shock
    2) cerebroprotective
    3) contraindicated in porphyria
    4) mixed with …. (SODIUM CARBONATE)


    Que.27 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is
    1) OCCULT Cancer (CARCINOMA)
    2) Anorexia nervosa ( may be they are asking abt prolactinoma)
    3) Hypothyroidism
    4)

    Que.28 True about vitiligo are all except
    1) Genetic predisposition
    2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
    3) PUVA-B is used for treatment
    4) Topical steroids give good results.


    Que.29 Down’s syndrome, true is A/E
    1) PAPP- A increased
    2) Increased b-HCG
    3) Absence of nasal bone
    4)


    Que.30 In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be
    1) D-dimer
    2) CT angiography
    3) Catheter angiography
    4) (DOPPLER USG)


    Que.31 70 year old hypertensive with unconsiousness with normal ECG cause is
    1) pulmonary thromboembolism
    2) vasovagal attack
    3) temporal lobe epilepsi
    4)


    Que.32 Thrombo prophylaxis are all except
    1) aspirin
    2) warfarin
    3) heparin
    4) AT 3


    Que.33 pt of myocardial ischemia (40 YR OLD HEAVY SMOKER WITH ST ELEVATION IN INF LEADS AND CHEST PAIN )
    1)thrombolytic therapy
    2)pantoprapazole
    3)asprin
    4) (BETA BLOCKER )


    Que.34 in a pt with retro caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will produce pain
    1) flection at hip
    2) extension at hip
    3) medial rotation
    4) lateral rotation


    Que.35 cryoprecipitate not seen (DOES NOT CONTAIN ?)
    1)factor 8
    2) factor 9
    3) vWF
    4) fibrinogen


    Que.36 in a caase due to asphyxia last to be opened during dissections
    1) neck
    2) thorax
    3) abdomen
    4) brain


    Que.37 what is seen in normal person on lying down
    1) increase in venous return
    2) (INCREASE IN HEART RATE )
    3)
    4)


    Que.38 exercise causes which of the following
    1) increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min
    2) increase in body tempeture
    3)
    4)


    Que.39 most common type of seizure in neonates
    1) tonic
    2) clonic
    3) subtle
    4) myoclonic


    Que.40 block in the 2 nd part of axilary nearve what will searve as collateral
    1) subscapular and poster circumflex humeral
    2) circumflex scapular and ant circumflex scapular
    3)
    4)


    Que.44 post ductal compression of aorta collateral to serve are
    1) inteercostal and inferior epigastric
    2)
    3)
    4)

    Que.45 a child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show proteinurea 1 + and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
    1) fusion of podocytes
    2) ATN
    3) depositions of Ig A
    4)thickening of membrane


    Que.46 collapsing glomarulopathy following is seen
    1) proliferation of parietal cells
    2) tuft necrosis
    3)
    4)


    Que.47 Peristalsis of ureter depends on
    1) sympathetic flow
    2) parasympathetic flow
    3) both
    4) pacemaker in smooth muscle of ureter


    Que.48 In MVP, valve degeneration is
    1) hyaline degeneration
    2) myxomatous degeneration
    3) .. ..
    4) .. ..


    Que.49 In rheumatic carditis with MR, following finding will be seen
    1) Increased residual volume
    2) Increased PEFR
    3) decreased TLC
    4) Increased ventilatory capacity


    Que.50 FRACTURE 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful contraction of following muscle.
    1) peroneus longus
    2) peroneus brevius
    3) peroneus tertius
    4) extensor digitorum brevis

    Que.51 In emergrncy tracheostomy following structures are damaged except
    1) Isthmus of thyroid
    2) inferior thyroid vein
    3) inferior thyroid artery
    4) thyoidea ima


    Que.52 Whats the uppermost structure in left lung hilus
    1) pulmonary artery
    2) pulmo. vein
    3) bronchial artery
    4) broncus


    Que.53 In systemic capillary blood flow, all are seen except
    1) Increased protein content
    2) decreased pH
    3) shift of oxygen dissociation curve to left
    4) increased hematocrit.


    Que.54 Cardiac O2 consumption is Directly proportional to
    1) mean arterial pressure
    2) external cardiac work done
    3) heart rate
    4)


    Que.55 micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except
    1) active hepatitis B
    2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
    3) Haemachromatosis
    4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis


    Que.56 Phenytoin, all are true except
    1) Induces enzymes
    2) Zero order kinetics at low dose
    3) Half life increases with increasing dose
    4) Highly protein bound


    Que.57 which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3
    1) granisetron
    2) ondansetron
    3) dolasetron
    4)


    Que.58 marker of acute hepatitis B
    1) HBV DNA
    2) IgG HBc
    3) HBs Ag
    4) HBe Ag


    Que.59 A 30 year old man, presents with 6 month history of facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurilent discharge in middle meatus. Next best step
    1) Non contrast CT nose
    2) X ray maxillary sinus
    3) MRI
    4) Inferior meatus puncture


    Que.60 Tongue muscle develop from
    1) mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
    2) Occipital SOMITES
    3) CERVICAL SOMITES
    4) ..


    Que.61 A 3 year old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8 weeks revealed increased consolidation. Next step in investigation
    1) bronchoscopy
    2) nasopharyngeal culture
    3) CT
    4)


    Que.62 meiosis in spermatogenesis occurs in which step
    1) Iry spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia
    2) SPERMATID TO ROUND SPERMATID
    3)
    4)


    Que. 63 surfactant action
    1) Breaks structure of water
    2) lubricates CO2
    3) make capilariay surface hydrophilic
    4)


    Que.64 increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in
    1) downs
    2) molar pregnancy
    3) overestimation of gestation age
    4) renal agenasis


    Que.65 which Is not essential feature of TOF
    1) pulmonary valvular stenosis
    2) infundibular stenosis
    3) overriding of aorta
    4)


    Que.66 linkage studies uses the principal of
    1) DNa polymorfism
    2) PEDIGREE SHOWING WHO IS AFFECTED AND WHO IS NOT
    3)
    4)


    Que.67 methode of hb estimation except
    1) drabkins
    2) sahl’s
    3) spectrophotometry
    4) wintrobes


    Que.68 in PCR following is used
    1) Ca++
    2) Mg++
    3) Li+
    4) Na+

    Que.69 pulmonary hypertension is a\W all except
    1) hyperventelation
    2) obesity
    3) phenfluramin
    4) high altitude


    Que.70 clomiphen citrate is a\W all except
    1) polycystic overy
    2) foetal anamoly
    3) multiple pregnency
    4) ovarian cancer

    Que.71 diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except
    1) Endometrial culture
    2) hysteroscopy
    3) Hysterosalpingography
    4) water … (RETROGRADE SALINE USG)


    Que.72 Pancytpenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except
    1) PNH
    2) Megaloblastic anaemia
    3) myelodysplasia
    4) congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia


    Que.73 Uterine relaxant with Least side effects
    1) Ritodrine
    2) Nifedipine
    3) Progesteron
    4) Magnesium sulphate


    Que.74 Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer
    1) HPV 16 with dysplasia
    2) LOW GRADE INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    3) High grade INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA
    4) HIV associated


    Que.75 Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
    1) uterine rupture
    2) cervical laceration
    3) Uterine inertia
    4) vaginal laceration


    Que.76 Drugs causing Hyperglycemia
    1) corticosteroids
    2) b blockers
    3)
    4)


    Que.77 Not seen in VHL
    1) Pheochromocytoma
    2) Pancreatic tumour
    3) Endolymphatic sac tumour
    4)


    Que. 78 left renal vein crosses aorta at the level of
    1) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric artery
    2) anterior above the level of superior mes. A.
    3) Anterior below the superior mesenteric A
    4) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric A
    5) Anterior at the level of superior M.A.

    Que.79 Who criteria for semen analysis, all are true for normal except
    1) forward propelling motility >15%(strict criteria)
    2) normal morphology >25%
    3) volume of 1ml
    4) Sperm count >20million


    Que.80 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating of aretynoid, involving false cord, treatment is
    1) Transverse hemi laryngectomy
    2) Vertical hemi laryngectomy
    3) radiation and chemotherapy
    4) total laryngectomy

    Que.81 In universal immunization, which is not included
    1) Hepatitis B
    2) BCG
    3) TT
    4) Measles


    Que.82 hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E
    1) Cushings
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) END STAGE RENAL DISEASE
    4) …


    Que.83 Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
    1) Hemiparesis
    2) Hemianaesthesia
    3) AStereognosis
    4) No neurological DEFECT


    Que.84 Transparency of cornea is maintained by A/E
    1) Mitotic figures in the cornea
    2) Wide separated collagen bands
    3) Hydration of corneal epithelium
    4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers


    Que.85 Furesemide, true is
    1) Acts on PCT
    2) Given only by parenteral route
    3) Used in pulmonary oedema
    4) ….


    Que.86 Thiazide causes all except
    1) Hyperglycemia
    2) Increased calcium excretion
    3) Increased blood uric acid levels
    4) Used in CCF


    Que.87 Drug stopped on the day of operation
    1) Metformin
    2) Atenolol
    3) Amlodepin
    4) Statins


    Que.88 Fourth lobe of liver by Couniyad’s classification
    1) Left lobe
    2) Right lobe
    3) Quadrate lobe
    4) Caudate lobe


    Que.89 Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney because of
    1) normal variant
    2) congenital BL…
    3) obstructive uropathy
    4) Intrauterine infections and scars


    Que.90 On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radial cysts. Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition
    1) imperforate anus
    2) hepatic cysts with fibrosis
    3) absent ureters
    4) …


    Que.91 cervical incompetence. G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. What should be done
    1) McDonald’s suturing
    2) Fothergill’s suturing
    3) DINOPROSTONE.. (AND WAIT )
    4) .MISOPROSTOL. (AND WAIT)


    Que.92 Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial cancers
    1) Extrophy of bladder
    2) Medullary sponge kidney
    3) duplication of ureters
    4)


    Que.93 development of genital development, what is true
    1) Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    2) Genital ridge develops at5th week
    3) male genitals develop earlier than female
    4) EXTERNAL GENITALIA developed at 10th weeks


    Que.94 Patient with heart disease, which drug is not used in patient of haemorrhage to control PPH
    1)
    2) oxytocin
    3) misoprostol
    4) METHERGIN


    Que.95 baby not passed meconium for 48 hours, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen, next investigation is
    1) barium enema
    2) manometry
    3) esophagogram
    4) fecal fat estimation


    Que.96 with CSF all are true except
    1) pH less than blood
    2) No neutrophils present
    3) formed by arachnoid villi
    4) persistant leakage causes headache


    Que.97 Transitional epithelium is seen in all except
    1) collecting duct
    2) calyces
    3) ureter
    4) bladder


    Que.[snip] Gastroesophageal junctional adeno carcinoma is approached by following sequence
    1) abdomen-thorax
    2) thorax -abdomen
    3) thorax – abdo-neck
    4) abdo-mouth


    Que.99 dangerous area of eye
    1) ciliary body
    2) optic nerve
    3) sclera
    4) retina


    Que.100 perforators not present in
    1) ankle
    2) below inguinal ligament
    3) calf
    4) distal to calf

    Que.101 pericardial pain is conducted through
    1) deep CARDIAC plexus
    2) superficial CARDIAC plexux
    3) phrenic
    4) subcostal nerves


    Que.102 which muscle is not punctured during mid-axillary line thorasic puncture
    1) internal intercostal
    2) external intercostal
    3) transverse thorasis
    4) innermost intercostals


    Que.103 FNAC Needle Gauze size
    1) 26-28
    2) 22-26
    3) 18-22
    4) 16-18


    Que.104 # penis with intact Buck’s facia. Blood extravasates in
    1) butterfly shaped
    2) scrotum and penis only
    3) Scrotum, penis, anterior abdominal wall
    4) penile shaft only


    Que.105 duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Haematocrit 10 after transfusion. Pulse 110, BP 100/70. bleeding not controlled by endoscopic procedure. Next line of management
    1) PPI
    2) Distal gastrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum
    3) Subtotal Gastrectomy truncal vagotomy and controlling bleeders
    4) Duodenotomy, with controlling bleeder and Pyloroplasty.


    Que.106 Ogilive syndrome, true is all except
    1) mechanical obstruction
    2) Partial bowel wall obstruction
    3) Ileus after morphine ingestion
    4) AFTER SURGERY


    Que.107 Most common site of sub ependymal giant cell astrocytoma
    1) lateral ventrical
    2) foramen of morgagni
    3) 4th ventricle
    4) …


    Que.108 reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding
    1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    2) Endoplasmic reticulum DILATATION
    3) Glycogen depletion
    4) Perinuclear staining


    Que.109a best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) 72 HR Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4) N NAMED TEST??? DONT REMEMBER (delta 508 muation test )

    Que.109b child with H/O respiratory problem. best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
    1) DNA test
    2) Foecal fat estimation
    3) CT chest
    4)

    Que.110 Fluorosis, true is all except
    1) most common cause of dental caries in children
    2) genu valgum
    3) nalgonda for defloridation
    4) deposited in bone and muscle


    Que.111 most common site of spinal tumour
    1) extramedullary intradural
    2) extra dural
    3) intra medullary
    4) … (EQUAL AT ALL SITES )


    Que.112 initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is
    1) FGF8
    2) BMPr4
    3) EGRF
    4) branchy….. (NODAL)


    Que.113 Mivacurium when given in high doses, all are true except
    1) bronchospasm
    2) hypertension
    3) flushing
    4) rapid onset of action


    Que.114 All are characteristic of schizophrenia except
    1) third person hallucination
    2) inappropriate emotions
    3) long stretches of mood changes
    4) formal thought disorder


    Que.115 rapid flow in the neurons is by all except
    1) dyenin
    2) kinesin
    3) neuro filaments
    4) microFILAMENTS


    Que.116 type A personality false is
    1) hostile
    2) time pressure
    3) competitiveness
    4) mood fluctuations


    Que.117a senile cardiac amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)

    Que.117b senile amyloidosis
    1) transthyretin
    2) ANP
    3) beta 2 microglobin
    4)


    Que.118 shock lung, histopathological finding is
    1) diffuse alveolar necrosis
    2) pulmonary oedema
    3)
    4)


    Que.119 Most common brain tumor in NF1
    1) Optic glioma
    2) astrocytosis
    3) glioblastoma multiforme
    4)


    Que.120 bisphosphonates are used in all except
    1) hypercalcemia
    2) cancer
    3) osteoporosis
    4) hypervitaminosis D

    Que.121 Osteomalacia, true are all except
    1) increased serum calcium
    2) increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    3) looser’s zones
    4) proximal myopathy


    Que.122 Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in
    1) FEV1/FVC ratio <0.6
    2) 80% of expected
    3) ventilatory capacity
    4) FEV1 60% at max exercise toleration


    Que.123 FE Na <1 is seen in
    1) ATN
    2) Renal artery stenosis
    3) intrinsic renal failure
    4) pre renal

    Que.124 Good clinical practice not required in
    1) pre clinical testing
    2) Phase 1
    3) phase 2
    4) phase 4


    Que.125 hyaline cartilage collagen present is
    1) type 1
    2) 2
    3) 3
    4) 4



    Que.126 classification of bone tumors
    1) manchester
    2) TNM
    3) Einkein
    4) ..


    Que.127 white matter lesion with hyperdense image on thalamus. Diagnosis is
    1) Krabbe
    2) Metachromatic leucodystrophy
    3) Kanawell’s disease
    4) Alexander’s dis


    Que.128 ketoacidosis all are true except
    1) hyper ventilation
    2) pain in abdomen
    3) bradycardia
    4)


    Que.129 cerebral metabolic rate is increased in
    1) propofol
    2) ketamine
    3) fluranes
    4)
  6. AIIMS RECALLED QUESTIONS

    FOURTH LOBE OF LIVER BY CONIYADS CLASSIFICATION
    ...........LEFT LOBE...........RIGHT LOBE.......CAUDATE LOBE........QUADRATE LOBE...

    ACOORDING TO
    Diseases of the Gallbladder And Bile Ducts: Diagnosis And Treatment
    By Pierre-Alain Clavien, John Baillie

    PAGE 3
    THE FOURTH LOBE(CAUDATE) IS POSTERIOR AND SURROUNDS THE INFERIOR VENACAVA

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