AIIMS NOV 2007 subject wise questions & Ans

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by aryan., Nov 5, 2007.

  1. aryan.

    aryan. Guest

    AIIMS NOV 2007 subject wise questions & Ans

     Anatomy
    1. Which is the most superior structure at hilum of left lung?
    a.pulmonary vein
    b.pulmanary artery
    d. Bronchial artery Ans--B
    2. Intrinsic muscles of tongue develops from ?
    a.cervical somite
    b.mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
    c. Occipital somite
    d. Ans--C
    3. Gall bladder epithelium is:
    a. Simple squamous
    b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
    c. Simple columnar
    d. Simple columnar with brush border Ans--D
    4. Which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury in the arm?
    a)claw hand
    b)atrophy of hypothenar eminence
    c)loss of sensation of medial one third of hand
    d)adduction of thumb Ans--D
    5. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through:
    a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
    b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
    c. Subcostal and Umbilical
    d. …
    6. Urothelium lines all except:
    a.minor calyces
    c.urinary bladder
    d.collecting duct Ans--D
    7. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
    a. Peroneus brevis
    b. Peroneus longus
    c. Peroneus tertius
    d. Extensor digitorum brevis Ans--A
    8. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
    a. Brachyury gene
    b. BMPR-4
    c. Nodal gene
    d. FGF-8
    9. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
    a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
    b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
    c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
    d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery Ans--B
    10. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
    a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
    b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
    c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
    d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
    11. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
    a. Right dominance
    b. Left dominance
    c. Balanced dominance
    d. .. Ans--B
    12. Regarding genital development, true is:
    a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
    c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
    d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
    13. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
    a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
    b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
    c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
    d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid Ans--B
    14. The ureter develops from:
    a. Metanephros
    b. Mesonephros
    c. Mesonephric duct
    d. Paramesonephric duct Ans--C
    15. Perforators are not present at the:
    a. Ankle
    b. Distal calf
    c. Mid thigh
    d. Below the inguinal ligament Ans—D
    16. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
    a. Deep cardiac plexus
    b. Superficial cardiac plexus
    c. Phrenic nerve
    d. Subcostal nerve Ans—C
    17. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
    a. Innermost intercostals
    b. Transverses thoracis
    c. External intercostals
    d. Internal intercostals Ans—B
    18. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
    a. Caudate lobe
    b. Quadrate lobe
    c. Left lobe
    d. Right lobe Ans—B
    19. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
    a. The penis and scrotum
    b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
    c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
    d. Shaft of the penis only Ans—D

     Physiology
    20. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
    a. Inverse relation with heart rate
    b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
    c. Constant relation to external work done
    d. Negligible in quiescent heart
    21. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
    a. Increase in anaerobic glycolysis
    b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
    c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
    d. Interference with electron chain transport
    22. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
    a. Seen in the lung of smokers
    b. Increases cAMP levels
    c. Used to treat hypertension
    d. .. Ans—B
    23. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
    a. FSH
    b. LH
    c. Inhibin
    d. .. Ans—A
    24. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
    a. PCT
    b. DCT
    c. Collecting duct
    d. Thick ascending loop of Henle Ans—A
    25. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
    a. Increased peak expiratory flow
    b. Increased total lung capacity
    c. Increased residual volume
    d. Decreased functional residual capacity Ans—C
    26. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
    a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
    b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
    c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
    d. .. Ans—A
    27. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
    a. Atrial contraction
    b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
    c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed Ans--B
    28. Fast axonal transport is by all except:
    a. Dynenin
    b. Kinesin
    c. Microfilaments
    d. Neurofilaments Ans—D
    29. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
    a. Sympathetic innervation
    b. Parasympathetic innervation
    c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
    d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis Ans—D
    30. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
    a. Mineralocortoid excess
    b. Increased excretion of base
    c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
    d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids Ans—A
    31. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
    a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
    b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
    c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
    d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex Ans—B
    32. All of the following occur when the blood flows through systemic capillaries except:
    a. Increase in hematocrit
    b. Hb curve shifts to the left
    c. Increased protein content
    d. Decrease in Ph Ans—B
    33. Exercise causes:
    a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
    b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
    c. Body temperature rise
    d. decreased muscle lymph flow Ans---C
    34. Which of the following is correctly matched:
    a. B cells – Somatostain
    b. D cells – Insulin
    c. G cells – Gastrin
    d. ….. Ans—C
    35. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
    a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
    b. Limitation of maximum inspiration during exercise
    c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
    d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected

     Biochemistry

    36. Peroxidase is used to detect:
    a. Glucose
    b. Ammonia
    c. Hemoglobin
    d. Creatinine Ans—C
    37. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
    a. Hydrochloric acid
    b. Phenol / xylol
    c. Formalin
    d. Fluoride Ans—D
    38. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
    a. Sodium hypochlorite
    b. Iodine
    c. Absolute alcohol
    d. Quarternary ammonium compounds Ans—A
    39. PCR requires:
    a. Li++
    b. Ca++
    c. Na++
    d. Mg++ Ans--D
    40. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
    a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
    b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
    c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
    d. .. Ans—A
    41. Vitamin K is required for:
    a. Carboxylation
    b. Hydroxylation
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans—A
    42. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure in the process of evolution are said to be:
    a. Convergent
    b. Divergent
    c. Opportunistic
    d. Incidental Ans—A
    43. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
    a. Drabkin’s method
    b. Sahli’s method
    c. Spectrometry
    d. Wintrobe’s method Ans—D
    44. Nephelometry is:
    a. Lambert-Beer law
    b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
    c. Defraction of light
    d. Decreased intensity of light Ans--B
     Pathology

    45. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
    a. Dedifferentiation
    b. Redifferentiation
    c. Transdifferentiation
    d. Subdifferentiation Ans—C
    46. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
    a. CD1a
    b. CD57
    c. CD3
    d. CD68 Ans—A
    47. Caspases are involved in:
    a. Apoptosis
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Ans—A
    48. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
    a. Hyalinization of the valve
    b. Fibrinoid necrosis
    c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
    d. .. Ans—C
    49. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. Proteins
    c. Carbohydrate
    d. Lipids Ans—A
    50. PAS does not stain:
    a. Fungal cell wall
    b. Basement membrane of bacteria
    c. Glycogen
    d. Lipids Ans—D
    51. Not used to stain fats:
    a. Oil red O
    b. Congo red
    c. Sudan III
    d. Sudan black Ans—B
    52. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
    a. Factor VIII
    b. Factor IX
    c. Von Willebrand factor
    d. Fibrinogen Ans—B
    53. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
    a. Type 1
    b. Type 2
    c. Type 3
    d. Type 4 Ans—B
    54. FNAC needle gauge size is:
    a. 26 – 28
    b. 22 – 26
    c. 18 – 22
    d. 16 – 18 Ans—B
    55. Basement membrane consists of all except:
    a. Laminin
    b. Nidogenin
    c. Entactin
    d. Rhodopsin Ans—D
    56. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
    a. β2 – microglobulin
    b. Transthyretin
    c. AANF
    d. Pyrin Ans—B
    57. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
    a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
    b. Hemosiderosis
    c. Interstitial pneumonia
    d. Pulmonary oedema Ans—A
    58. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
    a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans--A
    59. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
    a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
    b. Alcoholic hepatitis
    c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
    d. Hemochromatosis Ans—A
    60. Councilman bodies are seen in:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    b. Wilson’s disease
    c. Acute viral hepatitis
    d. .. Ans—C
    61. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
    a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
    b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
    C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
    D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity Ans--A

     Pharmacology
    62. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
    a. Rifampicin
    b. Ethambutol
    c. Streptomycin
    d. Pyrazinamide Ans--A
    63. True about fibrates is all except:
    a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
    b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
    c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
    d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
    64. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
    a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
    b. More sedative than other hypnotics
    c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
    d. .. Ans—C
    65. Thiazides cause all except:
    a. Hyperglycemia
    b. Increased calcium excretion
    c. Increased uric acid excretion
    d. Useful in congestive heart failure Ans—B
    66. Regarding furosemide, true is:
    a. Given by parenteral route only
    b. Used in pulmonary oedema
    c. Acts at the PCT
    d. Causes hypercalcemia Ans—B
    67. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
    a. Ritodrine
    b. MgSO4
    c. Nifedipine
    d. Progesterone Ans—B
    68. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
    a. Hypercalcemia
    b. Osteoporosis
    c. Cancer
    d. Vitamin D intoxication ans—D
    69. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
    a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene
    b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
    c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
    d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
    70. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
    a. Tacrolimus
    b. Metformin
    c. Cyclosporine
    d. Phenytoin Ans—B
    71. Antiemetic with most "affinity" for "5Ht3" is:
    a. Ondansetron
    b. Granisetron
    c. Dolasetron
    d. Pavalosetron Ans—D
    72. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
    a. Induces microsomal enzymes
    b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
    c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
    d. Highly protein bound Ans—B
    73. Hyperglycemia is caused by:
    a. Beta blockers
    b. Glucocorticoids
    c. NSAID
    d. .. Ans—B
    74. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
    a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
    b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
    c. Macrolides,…
    d. .. Ans—B
    75. All but one acts via GABA Aexcept:
    a. Thiopentone
    b. Midazolam
    c. Zolpidem /zopiclone
    d. Promethazine Ans--D
    76. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
    a. Atenolol
    b. Amlodepine
    c. Statins
    d. Metformin Ans—D
    77. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
    a. Loop diuretics
    b. Lithium
    c. Vitamin D intoxication
    d. .. Ans—A
    78. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
    a. Heparin
    b. Aspirin
    c. Warfarin
    d. Antithrombin-III Ans—D
    79. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
    a. 5HT-1A
    b. 5HT-1B
    c. 5HT-1F
    d. 5HT-3 Ans—B

    80. good clinical practices equired in all except
    a. preclinical phase
    b. phase 1
    c. phase 2
    d. phase 4 Ans--A
     F.M.T.
    81. Telefona is:
    a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
    b. Pulling of hair
    c. Beating on both the ears
    d. .. Ans--C
    82. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
    a. Head
    b. Neck
    c. Thorax
    d. Abdomen Ans—B
    83. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
    a. Loss of testis
    b. Loss of eye
    c. Loss of kidney
    d. Abrasion of the face Ans—D
    84. Not a part of informed consent is:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Concealed information….. Ans—D
    85. In tandem [bleep] number of [bleep] fired
    c. 3
    d. 4 Ans—B
     Microbiology
    86. HACEK group includes all except:
    a. Hemophilus aprophillus
    b. Acinetobacter baumanni
    c. Eikenella corrodens
    d. Cardiobacterium hominis Ans—B
    87. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis
    b. H.ducreyi
    c. Treponema pallidum
    d. .. Ans—A
    88. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
    a. M protein
    b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
    c. Group C carbohydrate antigen Ans—C
    89. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
    a. Thayer-martin
    b. TCBS medium
    c. Scirrow’s medium
    d. Loeffer’s Ans—B
    90. Prions consist of:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. DNA, RNA and proteins
    c. RNA and proteins
    d. Only proteins Ans-D
    91. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
    a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
    b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans—B
    92. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
    a. HbsAg
    b. IgM anti-HbcAg
    c. HbeAg
    d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—B
    93. True about polioviruses is:
    a. Most cases are symptomatic
    b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
    c. ..
    d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
    94. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
    a. Immune to diphtheria
    b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
    c. Susceptible to diphtheria
    d. Susceptible & hypersensitive to diphtheria Ans—D
    95. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: A/E
    a. Deep invasion is not seen
    b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
    c. Metachromatic granules are seen
    d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change Ans—D
     SPM
    96. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
    a. Immigration of healthy persons
    b. Increased cure rate of the disease
    c. Longer duration of the disease
    d. .. Ans--C
    97. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
    a. Measles
    b. BCG
    c. DPT
    d. OPV Ans—C
    [snip]. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
    a. School teachers
    b. Medical officers of health centers
    c. Ophthalmologists
    d. Health assistants Ans—A
    99. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
    a. Screening
    b. Surveillance
    c. Case finding
    d. Notification Ans—A
    100. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
    a. Re-start the immunization according to age
    b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT Ans—B
    101. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except:
    a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age Ans—D
    102. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
    a. BOAA
    b. Sanguinarine
    c. Aflatoxin
    d. .. Ans—B
    103. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
    a. Index case
    b. Primary case
    c. Secondary case
    d. Tertiary case Ans—A
    104. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
    a. Maternal deaths/live birth
    b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
    c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
    d. Maternal deaths/100000 population Ans—B
    105. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
    a. Evaluation
    b. Monitoring
    c. Input - output analysis
    d. Network analysis Ans--A
    106. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
    a. Tetanus toxoid
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. BCG
    d. Measles Ans—B
    107. Kala-azar, vector is:
    a. Flea
    b. Tsetse fly
    c. Sand fly
    d. Mite Ans—C
    108. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
    a. Reduvid bug
    b. Trombiculid mite
    c. Enteric pathogens
    d. Cyclops Ans—B
    109. Mirena is:
    a. Used in abortion
    b. Anti-progesterone
    c. Progesterone IUCD
    d. Hormonal implant Ans—C
    110. True about dietary allowance are all except:
    a. Adequate intake
    b. RDA
    c. Dietary intake according to food composition
    d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA Ans—D
    111. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
    a. Multipurpose worker
    b. Laboratory technician
    c. Health educator
    d. Medical officer Ans--A
    112. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
    a. Trachoma
    b. Glaucoma
    c. Diabetic retinopathy
    d. Cataract Ans—A
    113. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
    a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
    b Deposition of flurides in the skeletal system and muscles
    c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
    d. Genu valgum Ans—A
    114. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
    a. Mustard oil
    b. Groundnut oil
    c. Corn oil
    d. Fish oil
    115. Not a measure of dispersion:
    a. Mode
    b. Range
    c. Variable
    d. Standard deviation Ans—A
    116. Primary Health Care is:
    a. Health for all
    d. Ans—A

     ENT

    117. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
    a. Isthmus of the thyroid
    b. Inferior thyroid artery
    c. Thyroidea ima
    d. Inferior thyroid vein Ans—A
    118. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
    a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    b. Observation in hospital
    c. Surgical drainage
    d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks Ans—C
    119. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
    a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
    b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
    c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
    d. Total laryngectomy Ans--B
    120. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flacida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
    a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
    b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
    c. Tympanoplasty
    d. Tympano-mastoid exploration Ans—D
    121. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
    a. MRI of the brain
    b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
    c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
    d. Inferior meatus puncture Ans--B
     Ophthalmology
    122. Dangerous area of the eye is:
    a. Ciliary body
    b. Sclera
    c. Optic nerve
    d. Retina Ans—A
    123. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
    a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
    b. Wide separated collagen bands
    c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
    d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers

    124. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
    a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
    b. Raised calcitonin levels
    c. Increased phosphate levels
    d. Increase in levels of 24,2% Hydroxylase in liver Ans—A
    125. Not seen in SIADH is:
    a. Hyponatremia
    b. Hypouricemia
    c. Volume depletion causing hypotension
    d. .. Ans—C
    126. A 40 year old man, heavy smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations in inferior leads. What is the immediate therapy.
    a. Aspirin
    b. Thrombolytics
    c. Pantoprazole
    d. Beta-blockers Ans—B
    127. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
    a. Foramen of Monro
    b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
    c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
    d. Fourth ventricle Ans—B
    128. In HIV window period indicates:
    a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
    b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
    c. .
    d. . Ans—B
    129. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
    a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
    b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
    c. Tuft necrosis
    d. Mesangiolysis Ans—A
    130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
    a. Congenital renal defect
    b. Obstructive uropathy
    c. Intrauterine infections and scar
    d. Is a normal variety ans—D
    131. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
    a. MEN 1
    b. MEN 2A
    c. MEN 2B
    d. MEN 2C

    132. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
    a. PNH
    b. Megaloblastic anaemia
    c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
    d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia Ans--D
    133. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
    a. Astrocytoma
    b. Optic tract glioma
    c. Glioblastoma multiforme Ans—B
    134. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen in:
    a. Pre-renal azotemia
    b. ATN
    c. Intrinsic renal failure
    d. Renal artery stenosis Ans—A
    135. With CSF all are true except:
    a. Persistent leakage causes headache
    b. Neutrophils are normally not present
    c. pH is less than that of blood
    d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi Ans—D
    136. Not a feature of DKA is:
    a. Tachypnoea
    b. Bradycardia
    c. Abdominal pain
    d. Dehydration Ans—B
    137. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT
    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude Ans—A
    138. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
    a. Central obesity
    b. Episodic hypertension
    c. Easy bruisability
    d. Glucose intolerance Ans—B
    139. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism Ans—B
    140. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
    a. Astereognosis
    b. Hemiparesis
    c. Hemisensoriloss
    d. No neurological deficit Ans—A
    141. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
    a. HBV-DNA polymerase
    b. IgG anti-HBc
    c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
    d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—A
    142. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
    a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    b. Depletion of glycogen
    c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
    d. Perinuclear staining Ans—A
    143. VHL syndrome includes all except:
    a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
    b. Pheochromocytoma
    c. Hemangioendotheliomas
    d. Islet cell tumours Ans—A
    144. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
    a. Pregnancy..
    b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
    c. DM with acute MI
    d. Post kidney transplant
    145. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in:
    a. Alexander’s disease
    b. Krabbe’s ds.
    c. Canavan’s ds
    d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy Ans--A
    146. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
    a. Intradural extramedullary
    b. Extradural
    c. Intramedullary
    d. All have equal distribution Ans—B
    147. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
    a. D-dimer levels
    b. Multidetector CT angiography
    c. Colour Doppler USG
    d. Catheter angiography Ans—B
    148. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no previous significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Vasovagal shock
    b. Pulmonary embolism
    c. Complete heart block
    d. Temporal lobe epilepsy Ans--C
    149. All are essential components of TOF except:
    a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
    b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    c. Infundibular stenosis
    d. Aorta overriding Ans—A
    150. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Medial rotation
    d. Lateral rotation Ans—B
    151. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
    a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
    b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
    c. It occurs after previous surgery
    d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use Ans—A
    152. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
    a. Subphrenic abscess
    b. CO2 narcosis
    c. Positioning of the patient
    d. Compression of the lung Ans—A
    153. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
    a. Percutaneous aspiration
    b. I.V. antibiotics
    c. Surgical removal
    d. Observation Ans—C
    154. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
    a. Proton pump inhibitors
    b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
    c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
    d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
    155. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
    a. Abdomen – Neck
    b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
    c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
    d. Right chest – Neck Ans—D
    156. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Glomerulonephritis
    b. Ca-Urinary bladder
    c. Ureteral calculus
    d. .. Ans—C
     O&G
    157. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with rheumatic heart disease , which is contraindicated:
    a. Misoprostol
    b. Methyl ergometrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. Carboprost Ans—B
    158. The BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol Ans--A
    159. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
    a. Deep myometrial invasion
    b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
    c. Enlarged uterine cavity
    d. Poor tumour differentiation Ans—C
    160. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. Bilateral renal agenesis
    d. .. Ans—C
    161. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
    a. Holoprosencephaly
    b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
    c. Ureteral agenesis
    d. Medullary sponge kidney Ans—B
    162. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
    a. Coarcatation of aorta
    b. Eisenmenger’s complex
    c. Aortic stenosis
    d. Mitral stenosis Ans—B
    163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
    a. Polycystic ovarian disease
    b. Multiple pregnancies
    c. Ovarian cancer
    d. Teratogenecity Ans—D
    164. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
    a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
    d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV Ans--C
    165. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
    a. Sperm count > 20 million
    b. Volume > 1 ml
    c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
    d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % Ans—D
    166. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
    a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
    b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
    c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
    d. Apply McDonald’s stitch Ans—D
    167. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transverse lie is associated with the following complication:
    a. Uterine rupture
    b. Vaginal laceration
    c. Uterine atony
    d. Cervical laceration Ans—A
    168. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
    a. Down’s syndrome
    b. Molar pregnancy
    c. Over estimated gestational age
    d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome Ans—D
    169. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Anorexia nervosa
    b. Occult carcinoma
    c. Hypothyroidism
    d. HIV Ans—A
    170. Goniometry is measurement of:
    a. Number of gonococci
    b. Length of the genital hiatus
    c. Urethrovesical angle
    d. Genital secretion Ans—C
    171. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
    a. HSG
    b. Hysteroscopy
    c. Endometrial culture
    d. Saline infusion USG Ans—C
    172. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
    a. Clonic
    b. Tonic
    c. Subtle
    d. Myoclonic Ans—C
    173. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
    a. Increased PAPP-A
    b. Increased β-HCG
    c. Absent nasal bone
    d. Increased ductus venous blood flow Ans—A
    174. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
    b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
    c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
    d. Disseminated HSV infection Ans—C
    175. In a survey, many children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
    a. Medullary sponge kidney
    b. Bladder extrophy
    c. Unilateral renal agenesis
    d. Double ureter Ans—B
    176. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Post viral syndrome
    b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
    c. Follicular bronchitis
    d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis Ans—B
    177. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
    a. Bronchoscopy
    b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
    c. CT scan of the chest
    d. Allergen sensitivity test
    178. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
    a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
    b. Nasal electrode potential difference
    c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
    d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation Ans—B
    179. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
    a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
    b. Manometry
    c. Lower bowel contrast enema
    d. Oesophagoscopy Ans—B
    180. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
    a. Fusion of podocytes
    b. Acute tubular necrosis
    c. Deposition of IgA
    d. Thickened basement membrane Ans—C
    181. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
    a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
    b. Put a nasogastric tube
    c. Surgery
    d. Tube thoracostomy Ans—B
     SKIN & VD
    182. 22 year female taken medicine for typhoid fever 3 months back. She developed generalized loss of hair,
    a. Telogen effluvium
    b. Anagen effluvium
    c. Alopecia areata Ans—A
    183. Vitligo not true…….
    a. Occcurs in genetically predisposed individual
    b. UV B therapy given
    c. Local steroid
    d. Leucotrychia is a good prognosis Ans—D
    184. Cicatrical alopecia A/E
    a. Alopecia areata
    b. Pseudpalady
    c. Lichen planus
    d. DLE Ans—A
    185. Floating water- lilly sign on X ray chest
    a. hydatis dis of liver
    b. asperigilosis
    c. tubercular cavity Ans—A
    186. Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot
    b. Uncorrected TGA
    c. Tricuspid atresia
    d. Ebstein’s anomaly Ans—B
    187. Hamptun’s hump is seen in:
    a. Pulmonary embolism
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Broncogenic CA Ans--A
    188. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
    a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
    b. Bronchospasm
    c. Flushing
    d. Hypertension Ans--D
    189. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
    a. Propofol
    b. Ketamine
    c. Atracurium
    d. Fentanyl Ans--B
    190. All are true about Thiopentone except:
    a. NaCO3 is a preservative
    b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
    c. Agent of choice in shock
    d. Cerebroprotective Ans—C
     Psychiatry
    191. Regarding type A personality, false is:
    a. Hostility
    b. Time pressure
    c. Competitiveness
    d. Mood fluctuations Ans—D
    192. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
    a. Third person auditory hallucinations
    b. Inappropriate emotions
    c. Long stretches of mood changes
    d. Formal thought disorder Ans—D
    193. Altered perception of real objects is:
    a. Illusion
    b. Delusion
    c. Hallucination
    d. Delirium Ans—A
    194. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
    a. Unconscious conflict
    b. Maladjusted reinforcement
    c. Organic neurological problem
    d. ..
    195. Learning does not include:
    a. Modeling
    b. Catharsis
    c. Exposure
    d. Sensitization
     orthopaedics
    196. Canaval sign…….
    a. Tenosynovitis
    b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
    c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    d. Trigger finger Ans—A
    197. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
    a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    b. Increased serum calcium
    c. Looser’s zones
    d. Proximal myopathy Ans—B
    198. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
    a. Enneking
    b. Manchester
    c. Edmonton
    d. TNM Ans—A
    199. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
    a. Head
    b. Chest
    c. Legs
    d. Abdomen
    200. Indication of surgery in Pectus excavetum:
    a. Fev1/Fvc <0.6
    b. TLC <80%
    c. Decreased residual olume
    d. Exercise intolerance Ans--C

  2. anjali85

    anjali85 Guest

    Thanx for a job well done, cheers.
  3. siri1881

    siri1881 Guest

    Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to

    Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to
    answer:nodal gene
    The primitive streak itself is initiated and maintained by expression of Nodal, a member of the transforming growth factor ß (TGF-ß) family. Once the streak is formed, a number of genes regulate
    formation of dorsal and ventral mesoderm and head and tail structures.
    -Another member of the TGF-ß family, bone morphogenetic protein-4 (BMP- 4) is secreted throughout the embryonic disc
    Reference 1. : Langman's Embryology -10 Ed. Pg.57

    Fibroblast growth factors (FGFs) have been implicated in diverse cellular processes including apoptosis, cell survival, chemotaxis, cell adhesion, migration, differentiation, and proliferation. This review presents our current understanding on the roles of FGF signaling, the pathways employed, and its regulation. We focus on FGF signaling during early embryonic processes in vertebrates, such as induction and patterning of the three germ layers as well as its function in the control of morphogenetic movements.

    Reference 2 . Endocr Rev. 2005 Feb;26(1):63-77.
    Fibroblast growth factor signaling during early vertebrate development.
    Böttcher RT, Niehrs C.

    PMID: 15689573 [PubMed - indexed for MEDLINE]

    The primitive streak itself is initiated and maintained by expression of Nodal, a member of the transforming growth factor ß (TGF-ß) family BMP4 in the presence of FGF ventralizes mesoderm during gastrulation.
    Brachyury (small tail) regulate structures in the caudal region.It is equired for mesoderm formation and cellular differentiation.

    Cell to cell signaling by paracrine method is carried by GDFs (growth & differentiation factors)
    4 groups:1. FGF,2. WNT,3. HEDGEHOG and 4. TGFs.
    FGFs (fibroblast growth factors): fibroblast growth factors are associated with many developmental processes including mesoderm induction, antero-posterior patterning, neural induction, angiogenesis, axon extension and limb formation.
    -These signal proteins are involved in formation of sutures and bones of the skull.

    -TGF_beta include BMP and MIF (mullerian inhibiting factor).
    TGF_beta are important for extracellular matrix formation and epithelilial branching.
    BMP induces bone formation and is involved in regulating cell division, apotosis and cell migration.
    TGF-beta, T-box transcription factor and the Wnt signalling pathways are involved in endoderm specification.

    -BMP(bone morphogenetic proteins) are members of transforming growth factors-beta family , wwhich serve as signal molecules for a number of morphogenetic events, including dorsalizing the CNS, participating in bone formation etc.
    -Hedgehog proteins like sonic HH is involved in neural tube induction & patterning, somite differentiation,limb patterning

    WNT proteins-endoderm specification, mid-brain development, urogenital differentiation.
    Transforming growth factor -beta (nodal) induce formation of mesoderm.
    the concerted action of molecules like FGFs participate in germ cell layer fates in the primitive streak.
    TGF-beta, T-box transcription factor and the Wnt signalling pathways are involved in endoderm specification.
  4. siri1881

    siri1881 Guest

    In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the l

    In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through
    answer:Intercostal and Superior epigastric
    Coarctation (stenosis/narrowing) of aorta is due to defect in the tunica media, which forms a shelf like projection into the lumen, most commonly in the region of the ductus arteriosus.
    -A collateral circulation develops distal to the obstruction between subclavian artery (internal thoracic artery) & descending aorta (posterior intercostal arteries).
    -This anastomosis produces characteristic notching of the ribs on X-RAY
    * Superior epigastric is a branch of internal thoracic artery and gives the anterior intercostal arteries in the lower intercostal spaces.

    -Coarctation of the aorta is of three types:
    1. Pre-ductal coarctation: The narrowing is proximal to the ductus arteriosus. If severe, blood flow to the aorta distal (to lower body) to the narrowing is dependent on a patent ductus arteriosus, and hence its closure can be life-threatening.
    2. Ductal coarctation: The narrowing occurs at the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. This kind usually appears when the ductus arteriosus closes.
    3. Post-ductal coarctation: The narrowing is distal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Even with an open ductus arteriosus blood flow to the lower body can be impaired. Newborns with this type of coarctation may be critically sick from the birth.
  5. siri1881

    siri1881 Guest

    Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood f

    Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between
    answer:Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
    The scapular anastomosis is a system connecting each subclavian artery and the corresponding axillary artery, forming an anastomosis around the scapula.
    -It allows blood to flow past the shoulder joint regardless of the position of the arm.
    -It also provides a collateral circulation towards the limb in case of blockage at the subclavian or axillary artery.
    -The dorsal scapular (deep branch of transverse cervical artery) and suprascapular arteries arise from the first part of subclavian artery.
    -Subscapular artery arises from the third part of the axillary artery and gives a circumflex branch to scapula.
    -The scapular anastomosis is between the first part of subclavian and third part of axillary artery.

    -Dorsal scapular (Deep branch of transverse scapular) anastomoses mainly with subscapular artery.
    And suprascapular artery mainly anastomoses with Circumflex scapular artery.
    NOTE: There is an additional (minor) anastomosis present between acromial branch of suprascapular & acromial branch of posterior circumflex humeral artery. This anastomosis lies on acromion process
  6. drrig4u

    drrig4u Guest

    correction required

    size of FNAC needle .........18-22guage....ref-practical pathology by p.chakraborthy n gargi chakraborty........
    ref from any std text....welcome
  7. sunnie

    sunnie Guest

    nice job

    very nice job
  8. dracs

    dracs Guest


    5. Gall bladder epithelium is: ( Ref : Schwartz chap. 31, introduction )
    a. Simple squamous
    b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
    c. Simple columnar
    d. Simple columnar with brush border

    the ans wud be c.
    I checked with schwarz and sabiston, none of them hav ref to the brush border..its only simple columnar
  9. Dr Kapil.

    Dr Kapil. Guest




    1. Posterior communicating artery is the branch of –
    a- External carotid
    b- Internal carotid
    c- Ophthalmic
    d- Middle cerebra
    Ans: b- Internal carotid
    Ref: Student Gray’s anatomy different pages

    2. Which of the following is not true about trigone of bladder?
    a- Smooth mucosa
    b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa
    c- Transitional epithelium lines it
    d- It is remnant of mesonephric duct opening into post uro-genital sinus
    Ans: b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa
    Ref: Gray’s Anat. pg-399

    3. Which of the following characteristic are helpful in differentiating between cervical and lumbar vertebra?
    a- Foramina transverserium
    b- Articulas fact in the body
    c- Triangular vertebral cannal
    d- Heavy vertebral body
    Ans: a- Foramina transverserium
    Ref: Gray’s student’s ed/page-31

    4. Pronation and supination does not take place at which of the following joint –
    a- Superior radio ulnar
    b- Middle radio ulnar
    c- Inferior radio ulnar
    d- Radio carpal joint
    Ans: d- Radio carpal joint

    5. Which of these part of vertebral canal will show concavity back-wards in secondary curves -
    a- Cervical
    b- Thoracic
    c- Sacral
    d- Coccyx
    Ans: a- Cervical
    Ref: Gray’s students edn. Pg-15

    6. The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except -
    a- Left brachiocephalic vein
    b- Hemiazygous vein
    c- Left gonadal vein
    d- Left renal vein
    Ans: c- Left gonadal vein
    Ref: pg-110 Student’s Gray’s anatomy

    7. All of the following structure crosses posterior to diaphragm from thorax to abdomen except -
    a- Thoracic duct
    b- Azygous vein
    c- Aorta
    d- Greater splanchinic nerve
    Ans: d- Greater splanchinic nerve
    Ref: BDC/3rd vol.1 / pg-161
    Student’s Gray’s / 135, 134

    8. Which one of the following is not a site of portasystemic anastomosis?
    a- Spleen
    b- Liver
    c- Gastroesophageal junction
    d- Anorectal junction
    Ans: a- Spleen

    9. Which of the following is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery -
    a- Cavernous branch of trigeminal ganglia
    b- Hypophyseal
    c- Opthalmic artery
    d- Chiasmal branches]
    Ans: c- Opthalmic artery
    Ref: BDC/3rd/81

    10. Primordial germ cell is derived from -
    a- Ectoderm
    b- Mesoderm
    c- Endoderm
    d- Mesodermal sinus
    Ans: c- Endoderm
    Ref: IB Singh Embryology pg-283

    11. Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in -
    a- Platelets < 80,000
    b- Patient on aspirin
    c- Patient on oral anticoagulants
    d- Patient on I.V. UFH.
    Ans: b- Patient on aspirin
    Ref: Ajay Yadav 3rd p-123

    12. Which one of the following is not a amide -
    a- Lignocaine
    b- Procaine
    c- Bupivacaine
    d- Dibucaine
    Ans: b- Procaine
    Ref: Ajay Yadav 2nd pg-105

    13. Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) -
    a- Capnography
    b- Impedence pulmonometry
    c- Chest movements
    d- Infrared End Tidal CO2
    Ans: b- Impedence pulmonometry
    Ref: Senior Resident, Dept. of Anaesthesia/SGPGI/Lukhnow

    14. An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is -
    a- Accumulation of landonosine
    b- Allergy to drug
    c- Due to prolong infusion
    Ans: a- Accumulation of landonosine
    Ref: Ajay Yadav anaesthesia 2nd pg-90

    15. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively?
    a- Propanolol/Metoprolol
    b- Verapamil
    c- Esmolol
    d- Procainamide
    Ans: a- Propanolol/Metoprolol
    Ref: Antiarrythmics used intraoperatively
    16. Isotope used in RIA
    a- I131
    b- I123
    c- I125
    d- I127
    Ans: c- I125
    Ref: Internet references.

    17. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except -
    a- Hypoparathyroidism
    b- Wilson’s disease
    c- Perinatal hypoxia
    d- Fahr’s syndrome
    Ans: c- Perinatal hypoxia
    Ref: Chappman radiological differential diagnosis 3rd p-408.

    18. Radio contrast is contraindicated in all except:
    a- Renal failure
    b- Patient on metformin
    c- Dehydration
    d- Obesity
    Ans: d- Obesity
    Ref: Harrison 16th p-1704, 1646, Katjung 9th p-708, Chapmann Radiology D/D 3rd p-160

    19. Which is not a deep heat therapy?
    a- Short wave diathermy
    b- Infra Red
    c- USG
    d- Microwave
    Ans: c- USG
    Ref: Internet

    20. A patient presents with loss of consciousness, Ct shows multiple spotty hemorrhage and full basal cistern. The most probable diagnosis is-
    a- Brain contusion
    b- Diffuse axonal injury
    c- Subdural hemorrhage
    d- Multiple infarct
    Ans: b- Diffuse axonal injury
    Ref: CDST 11th p-900, Harrison 16th p-2448

    21. A 25 yrs old female presented with lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy and mid dorsal intradural enhancing mass in MRL. What is the diagnosis?
    a- Intradural Lipoma
    b- Meningioma
    c- Dermoid cyst
    d- Neuroepithelial cyst
    Ans: b- Meningioma


    22. Transport of ascorbic acid to lens is done by -
    a- Choline
    b- Taurine
    c- Myoinositol
    d- Na+, K+ ATpase
    Ans: d- Na+, K+ ATpase
    Ref: Internet

    23. All of the following act through nuclear receptor except -
    a- Vitamin D
    b- Insulin
    c- Thyroid
    d- Steroid
    Ans: b- Insulin
    Ref: Harper p-445

    24. The urine analysis of a person showed green colour on Ferric chloride test, the person is suffering from -
    a- Alkaptonuria
    b- Phenyl Iketonuria
    c- Methyl malonic aciduria
    Ans: b- Phenyl Iketonuria
    Ref: Ghai 6th p-609

    25. Mucopolysaccharide Hyaluronic acid is present in -
    a- Acquous humor
    b- Vitreous humor
    c- Lens
    d- Cornea
    Ans: b- Vitreous humor
    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-553

    26. All of the following are true about Proteoglycans except -
    a- Contains amino sugar
    b- Forms structural element of connective tissue
    c- Contains small amount of water
    d- Chodritin sulphate in an example
    Ans: c- Contains small amount of water
    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-118

    27. Northern blot is used for diagnosis of -
    a- mRNA expression
    b- DNA
    c- Protein
    Ans: a- mRNA expression
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-409

    28. All of the following is true about HMP pathway except -
    a- Occurs in cytosole
    b- Produces NADPH
    c- H+ acceptor is NADP
    d- End product is pyruvate
    Ans: d- End product is pyruvate
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-179

    29. Which one of the following is not a method of protein penification?
    a- Electrophoresis
    b- Centrifugation
    c- Densitometry
    d- Chromatography
    Ans: c- Densitometry> b- Centrifugation
    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-21

    30. Which one of the following is responsible for oxygen dependent killing?
    a- Superoxide dismutase
    b- Catalase
    c- Glutathione peroxidase
    d- NADPH oxidase
    Ans: d- NADPH oxidase
    Ref: Robbin’s Pathology 7th p-16

    31. Biotin is used in -
    a- Beta ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency
    b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency
    Ans: b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-502

    32. Study of protein elaborated by cell under different conditions -
    a- Genomics
    b- Proteinomics
    Ans: b- Proteinomics
    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-28

    33. Regarding Triacylglycerol metabolism in adiposite all are true except -
    a- Storage from of lipid of body
    b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
    c- Glycerol kinase is enzyme involved
    d- Dihydoxyacetone
    Ans: b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-209

    34. About oxygenase all are true except -
    a- Incorporate 1 atom of O2 molecule
    b- Incorporate both atom of O2 molecule
    c- Required for reactions like hydroxylation of steroid
    d- Required for carboxylation of drugs
    Ans: d- Required for carboxylation of drugs
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-96, 97

    35. All are true for mRNA except -
    a- capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 405 ribosome.
    b- In eukaryote is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation.
    c- The 1st aminoacid is methionine
    d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.
    Ans: d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.
    Ref: Lippincott Biochemistry p-429, 435, 401

    36. The ‘C’ terminal of Adrogen receptor is essential for -
    a- Ligand binding site
    b- Target binding site
    c- Transcription efficacy.
    Ans: a- Ligand binding site
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-477

    37. The function of 2,4 DNP is -
    a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain
    b- Inhibits transport of ADP
    Ans: a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain
    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-107

    38. Blackening of urine occurs in -
    a- Maple syrup urine disease
    b- Alkaptonuria
    c- Phenyl ketonuria
    d- Isovalanic academia
    Ans: b- Alkaptonuria
    Ref: Ghai 6th p-610

    39. Clotting factor present in both plasma and serum is-
    a- Factor VIII
    b- Thrombin
    c- Factor V
    d- Factor VII
    Ans: d- Factor VII
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/539

    40. True about cardiac muscle re all except -
    a- Have multiple nuclei
    b- Have gap junctions
    c- Syncytium
    d- Branched
    Ans: a- Have multiple nuclei
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/78

    41. In EEG, Delta wave is seen in -
    a- Deep sleep
    b- 1st stage sleep
    c- Arousal
    Ans: a- Deep sleep
    Ref: Ganong/23rd/194, 195

    42. Conversion of short term memory into long term memory occurs in
    a- Frontal cortex
    b- Hippocampus
    c- Amygdala
    d- Hypothalmus
    Ans: b- Hippocampus
    Ref: Internal Medicine 16th/2394

    43. Which of the following statement about small intestinal motility is not true?
    a- Abdominal distention increases motility
    b- Independent of stomach motility
    c- Acetylcholine increases small intestinal motility
    d- CCK increases small intestinal motility
    Ans: b- Independent of stomach motility
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/481, 485, 486

    45. Enzyme not stable at acidic pH is all except -
    a- Trypsin
    b- Chymotrypsine
    c- Pepsin
    d- Carboxypeptidase
    Ans: c- Pepsin
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/468, 471

    46. Which of the following hormone in not secreted by kidney?
    a- Renin
    b- Angiotensin I
    c- 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
    d- Erythropoietin
    Ans; b- Angiotensin I
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/454

    47. A granular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of -
    a- Vitamin
    b- Lipid
    c- Protein
    d- Carbohydrate
    Ans: b- Lipid
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/18

    48. Botulinum toxin involve all of the following except -
    a- Neuro : Muscular Junction
    b- Postganglionic parasympathetic ganglia
    c- Peripheral ganglia
    d- CNS
    Ans: d- CNS
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/87

    49. Site of RBC formation in adult is -
    a- Long bones
    b- Flat bones
    c- Liver
    d- Spleen
    Ans: b- Flat bones
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/515

    50. Papez circuit in limbic system involve -
    a- Anterior thalamic nuclei
    b- Pulvinar nuclei
    c- Anterior hypothalamic nuclei
    d- Interlaminar nuclei
    Ans: a- Anterior thalamic nuclei
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/256

    51. In the process of learning and memory all of the following are true except -
    a- It involves change in the level of nmeurotransmitter at synapse
    b- There is proliferation of neurone
    Ans: b- There is proliferation of neurone
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/270, 269, Harrison 16th/2395

    52. Brocas area is involved in -
    a- Word formation
    b- Word interpretation
    Ans: a- Word formation
    Ref: Ganong/22nd/273

    53. FAB L3 refers to -
    a- Pre B ALL
    b- T cell ALL
    c- B cell ALL
    d- Mixed AL
    Ans: c- B cell ALL
    Ref: Harrison/16th/642

    54. Tumor marker for Paget’s disease of the breast is -
    a- HMB 45
    b- CEA
    c- S100
    d- 1 Synaptophysine
    Ans; b- CEA

    55. Autosomal recessive trait seen in child, despite normal parent is due to -
    a- Uniparetal Disomy
    b- Mosaicism
    c- Maternal Inheritence
    Ans; a- Uniparetal Disomy
    Ref: Nelson /17th/389

    56. Basement membrane damage is mediated by -
    a- Oxidase
    b- Metalloproteinase
    c- Hydroxylase
    Ans: b- Metalloproteinase
    Ref: Internet References, Basis/7th/111

    57. Absolute indication for Bone Marrow biopsy -
    a- Hairy cell leukemia
    b- Acute leukemia
    c- Megaloblastic anemia
    d- Gaucher’s disease
    Ans; b- Acute leukemia
    Ref: Clinical diagnosis and management by John Bernard Henry/20th/541

    58. For diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis which of the following test is done -
    a- kidney biopsy
    b- Rectal biopsy
    c- Skin biopsy
    d- Electrophoresis
    Ans: b- Rectal biopsy
    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/264

    59. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in -
    a- T cell lymphoma
    b- B cell lymphoma
    c- AML
    d- ALL
    Ans: b- B cell lymphoma
    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/673, 674

    60. The mode inheritance reflected by the given pedigree is -
    a- Autosomal dominant
    b- Mitochondrial
    c- Autosomal recessive
    d- X-linked dominant
    Ans: b- Mitochondrial
    Ref: Harrison/16th/374-375

    61. Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury in electron microscopy?
    a- Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
    b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria
    c- Disaggregation of ribosome
    d- Damage to cell membranes
    Ans: b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria
    Ref; Robbins/6th/9

    62. Virus laden cell is specifically killed by -
    a- T cell
    b- Neutrophil
    c- Complement
    d- NK cell
    Ans: d- NK cell
    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/201, 198

    63. Brown’s sign is seen in -
    a- Acoustic Neuroma
    b- Otosclerosis
    c- Meinier’s disease
    d- Glomus juglarae
    Ans: d- Glomus juglarae
    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/139

    64. Which one of the following is the commonest site involved in CSF rhinorrhoea?
    a- Ethmoid bone
    b- Frontal sinus
    c- Petrous part of temporal bone
    d- Sphenoidal sinus
    Ans: a- Ethmoid bone
    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202, CSDT - 11th p - 983

    65. About rhinophyma true statement is -
    a- Due to involvement of sweat gland
    b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland
    Ans: b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland
    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/177

    66. In trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth cranial nerve. Which is true?
    a- Longitudinal fracture
    b- Transverse Fracture
    c- Always associated with CSF leak
    d- The paralysis of VIIth cranial nerve is always complete
    Ans; b- Transverse Fracture
    Ref: Dhingra ENT - 139

    67. Earliest nerve affected in Acoustic neuroma is -
    a- CN VII
    b- CN X
    c- CN V
    d- CN IX
    Ans: c- CN V

    68. Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except-
    a- Palatal paralysis
    b- Adenoid
    c- Allergic rhinitis
    d- Nasal polyp
    Ans: a- Palatal paralysis
    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/380

    69. In the case of temporal bone fracture the investigation of choice will be -
    a- MRI
    b- Ct Scan
    c- Plane X-ray lateral view
    Ans: b- CT scan
    Ref: Dhingra ENT - 3rd, Harrison - 16th p - 2448-9

    70. Cherry red spot is found in all of the following except -
    a- Nimen Pick’s disease
    b- GMI gangliosidosis
    c- Krabbe’s disease
    d- Multiple sulfatase deficiency
    Ans: c- Krabbe’s disease
    Ref: Basak/3rd/242

    71. Which one of the following retinal disease is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant trait?
    a- Bardet - biedle syndrome
    b- Gyrate atrophy
    c- Best disease
    d- Bassen Kornzweig syndrome
    Ans: c- Best disease
    Ref: Rudolph’s pediatrics/21st/26, 21, 9

    72. Absence of lamina cribrosa occurs in:
    a- Optic nerve hypoplasia/agenesis
    b- Morning glory syndrome
    c- Drusen
    d- Non opthalmia
    Ans: b- Morning glory syndrome
    Ref: Basak/3rd/262

    73. Cat eye syndrome is -
    a- Partial Trisomy 21
    B- Partial Trisomy 18
    c- Partial Trisomy 13
    d- Partial Trisomy 22
    Ans: d- Partial Trisomy 22

    74. Childhood blindness is associated with all except:
    a- Glaucoma
    b- Opthalmia neonatorum
    c- Malnutrition
    d- Congenital dacryocystitis
    Ans: d- Congenital dacryocystitis
    Ref: Khurana/3rd/342, 425, CPDT 17th/ch-15

    75. SAFE strategy for Trachoma includes all of the following except
    a- Screening
    b- Antibiotics
    c- Face wash
    d- Environmental improvement
    Ans: a- Screening
    Ref: Basak/3rd/370

    76. Which of the following does not handle free radicle in lens?
    a- Vitamin A
    b- Vitamin B
    c- Vitamin C
    d- Catalase
    Ans: d- Catalase
    Ref: Internet and Parson/275

    77. All statements are true about pailloedema except:
    a- Collection of extracellular fluid
    b- Disruption of neurofilament
    c- Stasis of axoplasmic transport
    d- Swelling of the axom
    Ans: b- Disruption of neurofilament
    Ref: Khurana/3rd/285, Parson 19th/367, Harrison 16th.

    78. A child presents with unilateral proptosis which was compressible and increased on bending forward. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows retroorbital mass with enhancement with echogenic shadows. What is the most probable condition?
    a- Orbital AV malformation
    b- Orbital Varix
    c- Orbital encephalocele
    d- Neurofibromatosis
    Ans: b- Orbital Varix
    Ref: Basak/3rd/284-5

    79. Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is mot true?
    a- It is the most common skin lymphoma
    b- Pautriers micro abscesses are common
    c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis
    d- It presents with diffuse erythroderma
    Ans: c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis
    Ref: Harrison 16th/653, Robbins 6th/1191

    80. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is:
    a- Air borne contact dermatitis
    b- Atopic dermatitis
    c- Seborrhic dermatitis
    d- Infectious exzematoid dermatitis
    Ans: b- Atopic dermatitis
    Ref: Harrison 16th/288

    81. Pityriasis rosea is a -
    a- chronic relapsing disease
    b- It is an autoimmune disease
    c- Caused by dermatophytes
    d- Self resolving
    Ans: d- Self resolving
    Ref: Harrison 16th/292

    82. Spalding sign is seen in -
    a- Putrefaction
    b- Saponification
    c- Maceration
    d- Mummification
    Ans: c- Maceration
    Ref: Reddy/23rd

    83. Mercury causes Nephrotoxicity by involving -
    a- DCT
    b- PCT
    c- Loop of Henle
    d- Collecting duct
    Ans: b- PCT
    Ref: Reddy/23rd/451

    84. Burtonian line is seen in -
    a- Mercury poisoning
    b- Lead poisoning
    c- Copper poisoning
    d- Arsenic poisoning
    Ans: b- Lead poisoning
    Ref: Reddy/23rd/473

    85. Acrodynia is seen in the poisoning of -
    a- Lead poisoning
    b- Arsenic poisoning
    c- Mercury poisoning
    d- Phenol poisoning
    Ans: c- Mercury poisoning
    Ref: Reddy/23rd/451

    86. All of the following are arylsulphate except -
    a- Parathione
    b- Malathione
    c- TIK-20
    d- Folidol
    Ans: b- Malathione
    Ref: Reddy/20th ed./436

    87. Epiphyseal tumor is -
    a- Osteoclastoma
    b- Chondromyxoid fibroma
    c- Osteosarcoma
    d- Ewing sarcoma
    Ans: a- Osteoclastoma
    Ref: Maheswary

    88. About posterior cruciate ligment true statement is -
    a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia
    b- Attaches to lateral femoral condyle
    c- Intra Synovial
    d- Inserted on medial side of medial femoral condyle
    Ans: a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia
    Ref: Oxford textbook of surgery/2nd /46.

    89. A 15yrs old boy presented with mass in lower femur, which on X-ray was found to have Codman’s triangle and surgery appearance. the diagnosis is:
    a- Ewing’s Tumour
    b- Osteosarcoma
    c- Osteoclastoma
    d- Osteomyelitis
    Ans: b- Osteosarcoma
    Ref: Maheswary 2nd

    90. Claw hand is caused by lesion of-
    a- Ulner nerve
    b- Median nerve
    c- Axillary nerve
    d- Radial nerve
    Ans: a- Ulner nerve

    91. Meralgia paraesthetica is due to involvement of which of the following nerve-
    a- Femoral nerve
    b- Genitofemoral nerve
    c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    d- Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
    Ans: c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

    92. Most common type of injury to spinal cord is-
    a- Flexon
    b- Extension
    c- Compression
    d- Flexon rotation
    Ans: a- Flexon
    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144

    93. Tube (Cyllinder) cast is applied for the fracture of -
    a- Shoulder
    b- Hip
    c- Pelvis
    d- Knee
    Ans: d- Knee
    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/13

    94. Which of the following is not true case of congenital tortiocollis?
    a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery
    b- It can disappear spontaneously
    c- It is also known as Sternomastoid tumour
    d- Untreated, neglected cases can result in plagiocephaly
    Ans: a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery
    Ref: Maheswary 3rd/272

    95. Osteoarthritis of knee involves:
    a- Hamstring
    b- Quadriceps
    c- Both A & B
    d- Gestrocneimius
    Ans: b- Quadriceps
    Ref: Internal References

    96. Bohler angle measurement gives the reference for:
    a- calcaneum
    b- Talus
    c- Navicular
    d- Cuboid
    Ans: a- calcaneum
    Ref: Internet

    97. Burst Fracture of spine is a -
    a- Compression Fracture
    b- Extension injury
    c- Direct injury
    Ans: a- Compression Fracture
    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144

    98. All of the following investigations are needed for the diagnosis of osteosarcoma, except:
    a- MRI of femur
    b- Bone marrow biopsy
    c- Bone scan
    d- CT chest
    Ans: b- Bone marrow biopsy
    Ref: Harrison/16th/561

    99. Indicators of bone formation includes all of the following except:
    a- Osteocalcin
    b- Alkaline phosphatase
    c- Hydroxyprolin
    d- Bone scan
    Ans: c- Hydroxyprolin
    Ref; Internal Medicine p-2281

    100. CSF picture in tubercular meningitis is -
    a- Increased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma
    b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
    c- Decreased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma
    d- Decreased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
    Ans: b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
    Ref: Nelson 17th

    101. What is pentalogy of Fallot?
    a- TOF with PDA
    b- TOF with ASD
    c- TOF with CoA
    Ans: b- TOF with ASD
    Ref: Nelson 17th, Stemann Dictionary 26th/1322

    102. Commonest childhood malignancy is -
    a- Leukemia
    b- Lymphoma
    c- Neuroblastoma
    d- Wilm’s tumor
    Ans: a- Leukemia
    Ref: Ghai 6th

    103. A one year old child with bronchial asthma. The treatment given for prophylaxis:
    a- Theophyllin (long acting)
    b- Oral ketotifen
    c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist
    d- Oral leukotrience receptor antagonist
    Ans: c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist
    Ref: Ghai 6th/356-357

    104. Moro reflux disappear at -
    a- 5 months
    b- 3 months
    c- 7 months
    d- 6 months
    Ans: d- 6 months
    Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979

    105. Which of the following appears 1st in child?
    a- Creeping
    b- Crawling
    c- Mirror play
    d- Pincer grasp
    Ans: c- Mirror play
    Ref: Ghai 6th/44

    106. A 6yrs old child with an IQ50 So, can do which of the following task-
    a- Draw a triangle
    b- Recognise colours
    c- Ride a bicycle
    d- Read a sentence
    Ans: b- Recognise colours
    Ref: Ghai 6th/46-47.

    107. All of the following are true about Kawasaki disease except-
    a- Purulent conjunctivitis
    b- Swelling of limb
    c- Rash
    d- Fever
    Ans: a- Purulent conjunctivitis
    Ref: Ghai 6th/586

    108. All of the following reflexes are present at birth except-
    a- Rooting reflex
    b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex
    c- Asymmetrical neck reflex
    d- Crossed extensor reflex
    Ans: b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex
    Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979

    109. A premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered. The baby had a bullous lesion on the baby and x-ray showed periostitis what will be the next diagnostic procedure-
    a- VDRL of mother and baby
    b- ELISA for HIV
    c- PCR for Herpes
    d- HBsAg for mother
    Ans: a- VDRL of mother and baby
    Ref; CMDT- 17th/ch-38

    110. All of the following is associated with good prognosis in childhood leukemia except -
    a- Common ALL subtype
    b- Precursor B cell ALL
    c- Hyperdiploidy
    d- Female gender
    Ans: b- Precursor B cell ALL
    Ref: Ghai 6th/562, Nelson/17th/1696, Basis Pathology 7th/673.

    111. The commonest organism responsible for meningitis in 1 year old child is -
    a- Listeria
    b- E. coli
    c- H. Influenza
    d- Type B pneumococcus
    Ans: d- Type B pneumococcus > c- H. Influenza
    Ref: Nelson/17th/2038

    112. Tuberculoid is seen in -
    a- Lupus vulgaris
    b- Lichen secrofulosorum
    c- Lupus Serofulocium
    d- Lupus
    Ans: b- Lichen secrofulosorum
    Ref: Nelson/17th/2229.

    113. Seizures and Jitteriness can be differentiated by all except -
    a- Gaze
    b- Autonomic disturbance
    c- Sensitivity to stimulus
    d- Frequency of movements
    Ans: d- Frequency of movements
    Ref: Nelson/17th/2021,
    Paediatric neurology by Fenichel 4th/p-4

    114. A newborn has congestive heart failure, not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit o auscultation on trans fontanelle USG a hypo echoic midline mass in seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a- Vein of galen malformation
    b- Medulloblastoma
    c- Arachnoid cyst
    d- Encephalocele
    Ans: a- Vein of galen malformation
    Ref: Nelson/17th/2037.

    115. The most common cause of short stature is -
    a- Constitutional delay
    b- Growth hormone deficiency
    c- Cretinism
    Ans: a- Constitutional delay
    Ref: Nelson/17th/1851.

    116. A child has started mouthing objects, shows likes and dislikes and not yet developed stanger anxiety. The age of child is -
    a- 3 month
    b- 5 months
    c- 7 months
    d- 9 moths
    Ans: b- 5 months
    Ref: Nelson/17th/36, Ghai- 6th/51

    117. A child with one week history of URTI, presents with stridor, which decreases on lying position. What is your diagnosis?
    a- Acute epiglottitis
    b- Laryngotracheobronchitis
    c- Retropharyngeal abscess
    d- Foreign body in larynx
    Ans: b- Laryngotracheobronchitis
    Ref: Nelson/17th/1406, Ghai- 6th/340.

    118. All of the following diseases are spread by louse as a vector except:
    a- Relapsing fever
    b- Q fever
    c- Epidemic typhus
    d- Trench fever
    Ans: b- Q fever
    Ref: Perk- 18th/239

    119. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of the chlorine demand of water?
    a- Chlorometer
    b- Horrock’s apparatus
    c- Berkfeld filter
    d- Double pot method
    Ans: b- Horrock’s apparatus
    Ref: Perk- 18th/528, 540

    120. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except:
    a- Typhoid
    b- Measles
    c- Hepatitis B
    d- Gonorrhoea
    Ans: b- Measles
    Ref: Perk- 18th/125

    121. OCP is useful is all except:
    a- Ectopic pregnancy
    b- Ca Endometrium
    c- Ca breast
    d- Rheumatoid arthritis
    Ans: c- Ca breast
    Ref: Perk- 18th/369, Shaw - 13th/226-7

    122. Which ICUD lasts for 10 years?
    a- Cu-T-380-A
    b- Cu-220 c
    c- Nava T
    d- Progestasert
    Ans: a- Cu-T-380-A
    Ref: Perk- 18th/363.

    123. All of the following indicators are included in physical quality of life index (PQLI) except-
    a- Infant mortality rate
    b- Literacy rate
    c- Per capita income
    d- Life expectancy at age one
    Ans: c- Per capita income
    Ref: Perk- 18th/16.

    124. Case finding in RNTCP is based on -
    a- Sputum culture
    b- Sputum microscopy
    c- X-ray chest
    d- Mantoux test/PCR
    Ans: b- Sputum microscopy
    Ref: Perk- 18th/160.

    125. The followings statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except:
    a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD
    b- The pregnancy rate of lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar
    c- IUD can be used for emergency contraception with in 5 days
    d- Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 year
    Ans: a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD
    Ref: Perk- 18th/363, Perk- 17th/340.

    126. Incineration is not done for -
    a- Waste sharps
    b- Human waste
    c- Cytotoxic waste
    d- Solid waste
    Ans: a- Waste sharps
    Ref: Perk- 18th/596

    127. Which of the following is the “Least common†complication of measles?
    a- Diarrhoea
    b- Pneumonia
    c- Otitis media
    d- SSPE
    Ans: d- SSPE
    Ref: Perk- 18th/126, CDMT/2006/1363

    128. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know-
    a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
    b- Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
    c- Incidence and prevalence of SLE
    d- Relative risk of SLE in this patient
    Ans: a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
    Ref: Harrison - 15th/500.

    129. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in -
    a- Cause of death
    b- Numerators
    c- Age distributions
    d- Denominators
    Ans: c- Age distributions
    Ref: Perk- 18th/53-4

    130. Leprosy affects all except-
    a- uterus
    b- Ovary
    c- Eye
    d- Nerves
    Ans: b- Ovary/a- uterus
    Ref: Harrison - 16th/966.

    131. For prevention of tetanus neonatorum, all of the following are effective, except:
    a- Give 2 doses of TT pregnant woman
    b- Immunize all woman of reproductive age group with 2 doses of TT
    c- Give penicillin to neonate
    d- Practicise 5 cleans
    Ans: c- Give penicillin to neonate
    Ref: Perk- 18th/25.

    132. In comparison to cow milk, which one of the following is more in human milk?
    a- Lactose
    b- Protein
    c- Minerals
    d- Iron
    Ans: a- Lactose
    Ref: Perk- 18th/455

    133. Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI, schedule -
    a- Tetanus Toxoid
    b- DPT
    c- MMR
    d- DT
    Ans: c- MMR
    Ref: Perk- 18th/103.

    134. For obesity BMI should be -
    a- >=20
    b- >=50
    c- >=40
    d- >=30
    Ans: d- >=30
    Ref: Perk- 18th/317, Ghai- 6th/p-481, Harrison 16th/426.

    135. A diagnosed patient with boarder line tuberculoid leprosy presented with severe neuritis. The treatment prescribed to him should be-
    a- MDT
    b- MDT with corticosteroid
    c- Corticosteroid
    d- Antibiotic
    Ans: b- MDT with corticosteroid
    Ref: Perk- 18th/261.

    136. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to -
    a- Facilitate double binding
    b- Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
    c- Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
    d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
    Ans: d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
    Ref: Perk- 18th/76.

    137. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of-
    a- Incidence rate
    b- Relative risk
    c- Attributable risk
    d- Absolute risk
    Ans: c- Attributable risk
    Ref: Perk- 18th/72.

    138. During Rubella vaccination, 1st priority is given to -
    a- All child
    b- 15-39 year old female
    c- Adolescent girl
    d- Pregnant woman
    Ans: b- 15-39 year old female
    Ref: Perk- 18th/129.

    139. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated acids are -
    a- groundnut oil
    b- Soyabean oil
    c- Margarine oil
    d- Palm oil
    Ans: b- Soyabean oil
    Ref: Perk- 18th/440.

    140. True of BCG vaccination in all except:
    a- Uses Danish 1331 strain
    b- Distilled water is used as diluent
    c- Spirit is used for cleaning the skin
    Ans: b- Distilled water is used as diluent
    Ref: Perk- 18th/157.

    141. Not true about lepromine test is -
    a- Helps in classification of leprosy
    b- Negative in most of the child in 1st 6 month of line
    c- It is a diagnostic test
    d- BDG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
    Ans: c- It is a diagnostic test
    Ref: Perk- 18th/258, 158.

    142. Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status in child?
    a- Body weight
    b- Mid arm circumference
    c- Weight for linear height
    Ans: c- Weight for linear height
    Ref: Perk- 18th/402.

    143. About herd immunity, all are true except:
    a- Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
    b- Influenced by immunization
    c- Depends on the presence of alternative host
    d- Herd immunity is constant
    Ans: d- Herd immunity is constant
    Ref: Perk- 18th/95.

    144. Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied it represents
    a- Nominal scale
    b- Ordinal scale
    c- Interval scale
    d- Ratio scale
    Ans: b- Ordinal scale
    Ref: High yield Biostatics by Anthony N. Glaser/1st ed. pg-5.

    145. Two drugs were given to two subsets of population and the response was noted as cured and not cured. From the data given below:

    Drugs Cured Not cured
    A 510 100
    B 110 50
    Total 620 150
    Which study design is more suitable?
    a- Student T test
    b- Paired T test
    c- Chi square test
    d- Bland and Altman test
    Ans: c- Chi square test
    Ref: NMS Biostat - p-59, B K Mahajan - 6th/130.

    146. True about cluster sampling is all except;
    a- Sample size is same as SRS
    b- Rapid method
    c- It is independent of the result
    d- It is done for evaluating the immunization status
    Ans: a- Sample size is same as SRS
    Ref: B K Mahajan - 6th/100, 101.

    147. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for at least one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he developed spikes of fever, and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism is-
    a- Stap. Aureus
    b- Viridans streptococci
    c- Enterococcus faecalis
    d- Coagulase negative staph
    Ans: c- Enterococcus faecalis
    Ref: H/16th/815, 830 & Panikar/7th/216

    148. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of beta hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
    a- Bacitracin
    b- Novobiocin
    c- Optochin
    d- Oxacillin
    Ans: a- Bacitracin
    Ref: Panikar/7th/216

    149. Which one of the following statement is true?
    a- Solid media are enrichment media
    b- Nutrient broth is a basal media
    c- Agar add nutrient to the media
    d- Chocolate agar is a selective media
    Ans: b- Nutrient broth is a basal media
    Ref: Panikar/7th/34 to 38.

    150. With reference to bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:
    a- B. fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
    b- B. fragilis is not uniformally sensitive to Metronidazole
    c- The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
    d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia
    Ans: d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia
    Ref: Harrison 16th/944, 940

    151. A person working in a abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which later turned into ulcer. Which stain will help to demonstrate the organism smear made from the pustule?
    a- Polychrome Methylene blue
    b- Carbol Fuschin
    c- PAS
    d- Modified kinyoun stain
    Ans: a- Polychrome Methylene blue
    Ref: Harrison 16th, Panikar/7th/226

    152. Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia?
    a- Has biphasic life
    b- Elementary body is metabolically active
    c- Reticulate body undergo binary fission
    d- Once it invades into the cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
    Ans: b- Elementary body is metabolically active
    Ref: Jawetz Microbiology

    153. Negri body is seen in -
    a- CMV
    b- Rabies
    c- Inclusion of herpes simplex
    d- EBV
    Ans: b- Rabies
    Ref: Jawetz 22nd/495

    154. About vibryo cholera all statements are true except:
    a- Non-halophilic
    b- Can grow in ordinary media
    c- Can survive outside the intestine
    d- Man is the only reservoir of cholera infection
    Ans: b- Can grow in ordinary media
    Ref: Harrison 16th/909

    155. Not true about vibryo O139 is-
    a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo
    b- Was 1st isolated in Chennai?
    c- Has ‘O’ polysaccharide capsule
    d- Antibody to Vibrio cholera is not protective against O139
    Ans: a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo
    Ref: Harrison 16th /910, Panikar/6th/285

    156. About Chlamydia Psittaci, all are true except:
    a- Caused by Parrot
    b- Causes Pneumonitis
    c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)
    d- Tetracyclin is drug of choice
    Ans: c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)
    Ref: Harrison 16th /763, Panikar/6th/395

    157. True about Endemic typhus is -
    a- Man is the only reservoir
    b- Flea is a vector
    c- Rash develops into eschar
    d- Culture is a diagnostic modality
    Ans: b- Flea is a vector
    Ref: Perk- 18th/240, Panikar/6th/383

    158. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive shows growth of a hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
    a- Bacitracin
    b- Novobiocin
    c- Optochin
    d- Oxacillin
    Ans: c- Optochin
    Ref: Panikar/7th/216

    159. BCYC is used for separation of -
    a- Streptococcus
    b- Listeria
    c- Legionella
    d- Leptospira
    Ans: c- Legionella
    Ref: Jawetz 22nd/270

    160. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by-
    a- Microaerophilic streptococcus
    b- Streptococcus viridans
    c- Streptococcus pyogenes
    d- Peptostreptococcus
    Ans: a- Microaerophilic streptococcus
    Ref: Internet

    161. When urine is heated to 45 centigrade, a precipitate is formed, when further heated to 80 centigrade, the precipitate starts dissolving again. The precipitate reforms on cooling is -
    a- albumin
    b- Bence-Jones protein
    c- Presence of phosphate in urine
    Ans: b- Bence-Jones protein
    Ref: Panikar/6th/85

    162. Which complement is involved in common pathway of complement activation?
    a- C4
    b- C3
    c- C5
    d- Properdin B
    Ans: b- C3
    Ref: Harrison 16th /1915, Panikar/6th/104
    163. The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder is -
    a- Olanzepin
    b- Fluoxetin
    c- Haloperidol
    d- Thioridazine
    Ans: b- Fluoxetin
    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 100, Kaplan - 7th p-209

    164. Delusion is a disorder of -
    a- Thought
    b- Perception
    c- Insight
    d- Cognition
    Ans: a- Thought
    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-86

    165. Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawl is -
    a- Bodyache
    b- Tremor
    c- Diarrhoea
    d- Rhinorrhoea
    Ans: b- Tremor
    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 40, Kaplan - 7th p-84

    166. All of the following are included in diagnosis of Bipolar disorder-
    a- Mania alone
    b- Depression alone
    c- Mania and depression
    d- Mania and anxiety
    Ans: b- Depression alone
    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-74, Harrison /16th/2556

    167. Most common substance of abuse in India -
    a- cannabis
    b- Tobacco
    c- Alcohol
    Ans: a- cannabis
    Ref: Perk 18th/635

    168. Naltraxone is used in a case of opoid dependence to
    a- Prevent respiratory depression
    b- To treat withdrawl symptom
    c- To prevent relapse
    d- To treat overdose of opoid
    Ans: c- To prevent relapse
    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-46, KDT-4th/448


    169. All of the following antiepileptic drug act via Na+ channel, except
    a- Vigabatrin
    b- Topiramate
    c- Valporoate
    d- Phenetoin
    Ans: a- Vigabatrin
    Ref: Katjung 9th/387

    170. All of the following are Alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy-
    a- Chlorambucil
    b- Melphalan
    c- 5 FU
    d- Cyclophosphamide
    Ans: c- 5 FU
    Ref: Harrison /16th/471

    171. Neseritide is -
    a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)
    b- ANP
    c- has long half life
    Ans: a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)
    Ref: Katjung 9th/209

    172. A child is on b2 agonist for treatment of asthma. He may have all of the following side effect, except:
    a- Tremor
    b- Tachycardia
    c- Hyperkalemia
    d- Hypokalemia
    Ans: c- Hyperkalemia
    Ref: Katjung 9th/325.

    173. All of the following insulin preparation are short acting except
    a- Insulin lispro
    b- Insulin aspart
    c- Insulin glargine
    d- Lente insulin
    Ans: c- Insulin glargine
    Ref: Katjung 9th/699

    174. Which of the following is a side effect of b2 agonist?
    a- Hypoglycemia
    b- Hypomagnesemia
    c- Hypophosphatemia
    d- Hypokalemia
    Ans: d- Hypokalemia
    Ref: Katjung 9th/325, Harrison /16th/476, 561

    175. High dose Methotrexate is given in -
    a- Osteosarcoma
    b- Chondrosarcoma
    c- Ewing’s sarcoma
    d- Retinoblastoma
    Ans: a- Osteosarcoma
    Ref: Katjung 9th/907, Harrison /16th/476, 561

    176. Which of the following drug is not used in erectile dysfunction -
    a- PGE 1
    b- Apomorphine
    c- Phenylephrine
    d- Valadalafil
    Ans: c- Phenylephrine
    Ref: Katjung 9th/189

    178. Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH is -
    a- Cyclophosphamide
    b- Vincristine
    c- Visblastine
    d- D-carbazine
    Ans: b- Vincristine
    Ref: Harrison /16th/2102

    179. Which one of the following anticancer drugs causes hypercoagulability syndrome?
    a- Carbomustine
    b- 5FU
    c- L-asparaginase
    d- Melphalan
    Ans: c- L-asparaginase
    Ref: Katjung 9th/905

    180. Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is -
    a- Zidovudine
    b- Lamivudine
    c- Stavudine
    d- Didanosine
    Ans: d- Didanosine
    Ref: Katjung 9th, Harrison /16th/2505, 1128

    181. Which one of the following antiplatelet is a prodrug -
    a- Aspirin
    b- Dipyridamol
    c- Ticlopidine
    d- Clopidogrel
    Ans: c- Ticlopidine
    Ref: KDT 4th pg-21, Goodman-Gillman 10th p-1535

    182. Filgrastim is used in -
    a- Neutropenia
    b- Malaria
    c- Anemia
    d- Filaria
    Ans: a- Neutropenia
    Ref: Katjung 9th /539

    183. Finasteride acts by -
    a- Alpha blockade
    b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition
    c- Selective alpha blockade
    d- Acts by blocking androgen receptor
    Ans: b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition
    Ref: Katjung Pharmacology 9th/1030, 146

    184. True about Heparin is all except -
    a- Causes Alopecia
    b- Acts through AT III
    c- Increased Lipoprotein lipase
    d- Causes Hypokalemia
    Ans: d- Causes Hypokalemia
    Ref: Katjung 9th/545-548, Harrison /16th/261

    185. Which antitubercular drug is responsible for imparting orange colour to urine =
    a- Rifampicin
    b- Pyrazinamide
    c- Ethambutol
    d- Isoniazid
    Ans: a- Rifampicin
    Ref: Perk 18th/152

    186. All are non-selective b blockers without any additional action except-
    a- Carvedilol
    b- Betaxolol
    c- Carteolol
    d- Labetalol
    Ans: b- Betaxolol
    Ref: Katjung 9th/150

    187. Which one of the following is not an antiepileptic -
    a- Phenobarbitone
    b- Carbamazepine
    c- Phenytoin
    d- Flunarizine
    Ans: d- Flunarizine
    Ref: Katjung 9th/277

    188. True about octreotide -
    a- Is active orally
    b- Is a growth hormone agonist
    c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea
    Ans: c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea
    Ref: Katjung 9th/1048

    189. Which of the following acts by hypomethylation -
    a- Gemcitabine
    b- 5 FU
    c- Decitabine
    Ans: c- Decitabine
    Ref: Harrison /16th/641

    190. Antidote for mushroom poisoning is -
    a- Neostigmine
    b- Physostigmine
    c- Amyl Nitrae
    d- Atropine
    Ans: d- Atropine
    Ref: Katjung 9th/117

    191. Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal mucosa is-
    a- PGE2
    b- PGE1
    c- PGD2
    d- PGI2
    Ans: b- PGE1
    Ref: Katjung 9th/299

    192. A patient presented with pain abdomen, constipation, and blue line on gums. The treatment of choice will be -
    a- Desferroxamine
    b- Penicillamine
    c- BAL
    d- Ca EDTA
    Ans: d- Ca EDTA
    Ref: Katjung 9th/973, Harrison /16th/2578

    193. Antipseudomonal antibiotic is -
    A- Cipofloxacin
    b- Cefaclor
    c- Vancomycin
    Ans: A- Cipofloxacin
    Ref: Katjung 9th/884, Harrison /16th/838

    194. A patient on aspirin will have -
    a- Increased PT
    b- Increased aPTT
    c- Increased BT
    d- Increased Thrombine time
    Ans: c- Increased BT
    c- Coronary heart disease

    195. All are true about clonidine, except -
    a- Causes dry mouth
    b- Prazosine antagonizes it action
    c- Stimulates parasympathetic outflows
    d- Alpha adrenergic agonist
    Ans: b- Prazosine antagonizes it action
    Ref: Katjung Pharma 9th/166

    196. All are true for immunosuppressant except -
    a- Tacrolimus inhibits calcinemin pathway
    b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase
    c- Prednisolone is used inregimen of transplant rejection
    d- Sirolimus acts through T cell modification
    Ans: b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase
    Ref: Katjung 9th/941, 942, 589, 590

    197. A child was given leukotrience receptor antagonist for prophylaxis of asthma. The drug is:
    a- Monteleukast
    b- Zileuton
    c- Nedocromil
    Ans: a- Monteleukast
    Ref: Katjung 9th/330,331

    198. All of the following antiplatelet drug acts as GP IIb-IIIa antagonist except -
    a- Clopidogrel
    b- Abciximab
    c- Eptifibatide
    d- Trilofiban
    Ans: a- Clopidogrel
    Ref: Katjung 9th/554, 555


    199. Commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding is -
    a- Ca cervix
    b- Ca endometrium
    c- Ca fallopian tube
    d- Estrogen use
    Ans: b- Ca endometrium
    Ref: COGDT- page-920

    200. Most common Serotype of HPV associated with invasive cervical carcinoma is -
    a- HPV 16
    b- HPV 18
    c- HPV 32
    d- HPV 36
    Ans: a- HPV 16
    Ref: Harrison /16th/1056, 1057

    201. In pregnancy, with hypothyroidism not seen in
    a- PIH
    b- Preterm
    c- Poly hydramnios
    d- Recurrent abortions
    Ans: c- Poly hydramnios
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/290

    202. Fibroid causes all of the following except-
    a- Menstrual irregularities
    b- Amenorrhoea
    c- Abdominal lump
    d- Infertility
    Ans: b- Amenorrhoea
    Ref: page - 342 Shaw’s Gynae.

    203. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all except -
    a- Utero Sacal ligament
    b- Broad ligment
    c- Pubocervical ligament
    d- Mackenrodt ligament
    Ans: b- Broad ligment
    Ref: BDC 3rd/320

    204. Ovarian tumor which most commonly undergoes torsion is -
    a- Benign cystic teratoma
    b- Dysgerminoma
    c- Endomentriod cyst
    Ans: a- Benign cystic teratoma
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/310

    205. Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in -
    a- 32 weeks
    b- 36 weeks
    c- During labour
    d- Just after delivery
    Ans: d- Just after delivery
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/53

    206. In Bishop scoring all are included except -
    a- Effacement of cervix
    b- Dilatation of cervix
    c- Descent of head
    d- Interspinous diameter
    Ans: d- Interspinous diameter
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/522

    207. Perinatal transmission of hepatitis B in maximum, when infection in mother occurs in -
    a- At implantation
    b- 1st trimester
    c- 2nd trimester
    d- 3rd trimester
    Ans: d- 3rd trimester
    Ref: Dutta OBS. p-292

    208. A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for-
    a- Maternal PIH
    b- Gestational diabetes
    c- Thyroid disorder
    d- Hypertension
    Ans: b- Gestational diabetes
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/287, CMDT 2005- p-753.

    209. The shape of Nulliparous cervics is -
    a- Circular
    b- Transverse
    c- Longitudanal
    d- Fimbriated
    Ans: a- Circular
    Ref: Shaw’s Gynae. 13th/8

    210. Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma is-
    a- Lung
    b- Liver
    c- Vagina
    d- Bone
    Ans: a- Lung
    Ref: Novak’s gyn.

    211. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except -
    a- Always associated with breech
    b- Spontaenous resolution in most cases
    c- Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth
    d- Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly
    Ans: a- Always associated with breech
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/486, Nelson/17th/2288.

    212. An ovarian cyst was identified in immediate postpartum period, the timing of surgery will be -
    a- 2 weeks
    b- 6 weeks
    c- 8 weeks
    d- Immediately
    Ans: d- Immediately
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/310

    213. In sterilization operation (Tubectomy), the site which is commonly preferred is -
    a- Ampulla
    b- Infundibulum
    c- Isthmus
    d- Cornua
    Ans: c- Isthmus
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/553

    214. Which of the following the most common cause of persistant trophoblastic disease, after H. Mole is -
    a- Invasive mole
    b- Choriocarcinoma
    c- Placental site trophoblastic tumor
    Ans: a- Invasive mole
    Ref: Novak’s/13th/1361, 1359

    215. In which of the following conditions external cephalic verson is not done -
    a- Primigravida
    b- PIH
    c- Flexed breech
    d- Prematurity
    Ans: b- PIH
    Ref: COGDT-9th page-379

    216. In a IUGR baby the Doppler finding which will most significantly predict the intra uterine deaths of the foetus -
    a- Reverse diastolic flow
    b- Absence of diastolic flow
    c- Presence of diastolic flow
    d- Decreased diastolic flow
    Ans: a- Reverse diastolic flow
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/464, 110, 32

    217. Caudal regression syndrome is associated with -
    a- NIDDM
    b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus
    Ans: b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus
    Ref: COGDT

    218. The shape of cervical canal suggesting preterm delivery is -
    a- T shaped
    b- Y shaped
    c- U shaped
    d- O shaped
    Ans: c- U shaped
    Ref: Williams and internet.

    219. Technique of aspiration of sperm for invitro fertilization -
    a- MESA
    b- TESA
    c- GIFT
    d- ZIFT
    Ans: a- MESA
    Ref: Internet.

    220. Increased fetal Nuchal transluscency at 14 weeks is seen in -
    a- Down’s syndrome
    b- Esophageal atresia
    c- Turner’s syndrome
    Ans: a- Down’s syndrome
    Ref: DUTTA 6th/645.


    221. Which of the following syndrome is not associated with AML -
    a- Tuner’s syndrome
    b- Patau’s syndrome
    c- Klinfelter’s syndrome
    d- Down’s syndrome
    Ans: a- Tuner’s syndrome

    222. Nevirapine is-
    a- NRTI
    b- NNRTI
    c- Protease inhibitor
    d- Fusion inhibitor
    Ans: a- NRTI
    Ref: Harrison 16th

    223. Which amyloid is found in the kidney of patient who have been on long term dialysis-
    a- A β2 M
    b- AL
    c- β2 microglobulin
    d- Transthyretin
    Ans: c- β2 microglobulin
    Ref: H/16th/2024, 2025.

    224. All of the following disease have Autosomal dominant mode of inheritance except:
    a- Marfan’s syndrome
    b- ADPKD
    c- Fabry’s disease
    d- Huntington’s disease
    Ans: c- Fabry’s disease
    Ref: H/15th/386

    225. HRT is helpful in all except:
    a- Vaginal atrophy
    b- Flushing
    c- Coronary heart disease
    d- Carbamazipine
    Ans: c- Coronary heart disease
    Ref: Harrison’s 16th/30

    226. Which Anti-epileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy -
    a- Phenobarbitone
    b- Phenytoin
    c- Valproate
    d- Carbamazipine
    Ans: a- Phenobarbitone
    Ref: CGODT/9th/431

    227. Which one of the following is a Leukotrience receptor antagonist-?
    a- Zileuton
    b- Zafirlukast
    c- Fluticasone
    Ans: b- Zafirlukast
    Ref: Katjung 9th/330-331

    228. Erythropoietin is increased in all except-
    a- Hepatocellular carcinoma
    b- Renal cell carcinoma
    c- Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
    d- Pancreatic carcinoma
    Ans: d- Pancreatic carcinoma
    Ref: Harrison 16th/627, H/15th/635.

    229. An adult man has an urethral discharge. The gram stain of the discharge does not reveal any organism. Which one of the following culture methods may isolate the organism-?
    a- Mc Coy culture
    b- Blood agar
    c- Chocolate agar
    d- Cetrimide agar
    Ans: a- Mc Coy culture
    Ref: Harrison 16th/764, 1012

    230. Reflux Nephropathy with nephritic range proteinuria commonly occurs in a patient with
    a- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
    b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
    c- Membranous glomerulosclerosis
    d- Minimum change disease
    Ans: b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1686.

    231. Which of the following drugs is not useful for MRSA-?
    a- Cefaclor
    b- Ciprofloxacin
    c- Cotrimoxazole
    d- Vancomycin
    Ans: a- Cefaclor
    Ref: Harrison 16th/821, KDT/5th/659.

    232. Which bacteria acts by the mechanism of cyclical AMP Activation-
    a- CI.Difficile
    b- V.Cholerae
    c- B.Cereus
    d- B.Fragilis
    Ans: b- V.Cholerae
    Ref: H/16th/755

    233. A 45 yrs old male presented with a history of vomiting of 500ml of blood 24 hours back, BP 90/60, Pulse 110bpm, and splenomegaly 5cms below the costal margin. Most probable diagnosis is-
    a- Duodenal ulcer
    b- Portal hypertension
    c- Gastric ulcer
    d- Erosive gastritis
    Ans: b- Portal hypertension
    Ref: Harrison 16th/235 and 1863

    234. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes except
    a- Contact with infected placenta
    b- Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms
    c- Person to person transmission
    d- Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol
    Ans: c- Person to person transmission
    Ref: Harrison 16th/914

    235. All of the following drugs are used to treat H.Pylori infection except
    a- Omeprazole
    b- Amoxycillin
    c- Oxytetracyclin
    d- Bismuth compound
    Ans: c- Oxytetracyclin
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1754

    236. A patient presented with cough and expectroration. The sputum culture shows gram negative organism which grows only on charcoal extract agar. The organism is-
    a- Listeria Monocytogenes
    b- Legionella
    c- M. Catarrhalis
    d- B. Psudomallei
    Ans: b- Legionella
    Ref: Harrison 16th

    237. In hereditary spherocytosis, membrane defect occurs due to all except-
    a- Glycophorin C
    b- Ankyin
    c- Band 3 ion exchanged protein
    d- Pallidin
    Ans: a- Glycophorin C
    Ref: Harrison 16th/608, 609.

    238. CANCA is directed against -
    a- Myeloperoxidase
    b- Proteinase 3
    c- Lactoferrin
    d- Elastase
    Ans: b- Proteinase 3
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1959

    239. Which of the following disease causes decrease in both VC and TLC?
    a- Sarcoidosis
    b- Cystic fibrosis
    c- Bronchial asthma
    d- Bronchiactasis
    Ans: a- Sarcoidosis
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-2023

    240. All of the following investigations are done for diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Except-
    a- ESR
    b- X-ray
    c- Bone marrow biopsy
    d- Bone scan
    Ans: d- Bone scan
    Ref: H/16th/

    241. Pancytopenia with hypercellular bone marrow is seen in -
    a- Thalassemia
    b- PNH
    c- G-6 PD deficiency
    d- Myelodysplasia
    Ans: b- PNH
    Ref: Harrison 16th/617

    242. Which lab. Test is used for Dubin Johnson Syndrome-
    a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein
    b- Transaminase
    c- Gamma glutamyl transferase test
    d- Alkaline phosphatase
    Ans: a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein
    Ref: Internal medicine II pg-1820.

    243. Not seen in raised ICT -
    a- Headache
    b- Visual blurring
    c- Abducent nerve palsy
    d- Paraparesis
    Ans: d- Paraparesis
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-1632/1633

    244. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adult is -
    a- SLE
    b- Wegner’s granulomatosis
    c- Amyloidosis
    d- Diabetes mellitus
    Ans: d- Diabetes mellitus
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-1684.

    245. The following electrolyte abnormality will be found in a patient of chronic renal failure except -
    a- Hypocalcemia
    b- Hypophosphatemia
    c- Increased BUN
    d- Hyperkalemia
    Ans: b- Hypophosphatemia
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1655/1656.

    246. Drug used in obesity are all except:
    a- Sibutramine
    b- Oralistat
    c- Neuropeptide Y analog
    d- Olestra
    Ans: c- Neuropeptide Y analog
    Ref: H/16th /249, Katjung /238.

    247. All are true about Raynaund’s disease except:
    a- Good Prognosis
    b- More in female
    c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive
    d- Raynound’s phenomenon test is positive
    Ans: c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1489.

    248. Non specific esterase is seen in all except:
    a- AML M3
    b- AML M4
    b- AML M5
    d- AML M6
    Ans: d- AML M6
    Ref: Internal references, , Wintrobes hematology/2064.

    249. Anaphylactic reaction or immediated hypersensitivity is mediated by-
    a- IgG
    b- IgE
    c- IgM
    d- IgA
    Ans: b- IgE

    250. About Arthus reaction true is -
    a- A delayed type hypersensitivity
    b- A systemic immune complex
    c- A localized immune complex deposition disease
    d- Mediated by antibody
    Ans: c- A localized immune complex deposition disease

    251. Not involved in entrapment neuropathy as -
    a- Ulnar
    b- Median
    c- Femoral
    d- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    Ans: c- Femoral
    Ref: Harrison 16th/2499, Maheswari/2nd/257.

    252. About S4 (4th heart sound), true statement is -
    a- Can be heard by unaided ear
    b- More than 20 Hz
    c- Heard during ventricular filling phase
    d- Heard during ventricular ejection phase
    Ans: c- Heard during ventricular filling phase
    Ref: Joules constant /5th/198, H/16th/1308.

    253. A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA antihuman tissue transglutaminase, and IgA antiendomysial antibody. What should be the next step?
    a- Rectal biopsy
    b- A trial of guiten free diet
    c- Colonoscopy
    d- Trial of proton pump inhibitors
    Ans: b- A trial of guiten free diet
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1770/1771.

    254. Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome is -
    a- Octreotide
    b- Gastrectomy
    c- H2 blocker
    d- Protein pump inhibitor
    Ans: d- Protein pump inhibitor
    Ref: Harrisons

    255. Cardiomyopathy is seen in all except
    a- Fredrich’s ataxia
    b- Duchene muscular dystrophy
    c- Lowe syndrome
    d- Type II glycogen storage disease
    Ans: c- Lowe syndrome
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1408.

    256. All of the following are features of pontine hemorrhage except
    a- Quadriparesis
    b- Pinpoint pupil
    c- Hyperpyrexia
    d- Involvement of vagus nerve
    Ans: d- Involvement of vagus nerve
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1630.

    257. Which of the following statements is true about high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)?
    a- Not exacerbated by exercise
    b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction
    c- Occurs only in unacclimatized person
    d- Leads to low cardiac output
    Ans: b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction
    Ref: Harrison 16th

    258. In acute hemorrhage not seen is -
    a- Increased reticulocyte count
    b- Increased PCV
    c- Increased MCV
    d- Thrombocytosis
    Ans: c- Increased MCV
    Ref: Basis/7th/624.

    259. Changes seen in CCF is all except:
    a- Increased right atrial pressure
    b- Edema
    c- Increased serum sodium level
    Ans: c- Increased serum sodium level
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-256.

    260. Finding in DIC, includes all except -
    a- Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombine III, increased Thrombine-antithrombine complex
    b- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Increased Thrombine-Antithrombine complex
    c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III
    d- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Decreased platelet
    Ans: c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-684.

    261. About Benedict’s syndrome, all are true except:
    a- Causes 3rd CN palsy
    b- Involve penetrating branches of basilar artery
    c- Involve pons
    d- Contralateral athetosis and chorea
    Ans: c- Involve pons
    Ref: Internal medicine pg-174.

    262. A patient with antibodies to DNA is suffering from manifestations of Kidney, liver, skin problems. The probable diagnosis is:
    a- Systemic sclerosis
    b- Wegner’s granulomatosis
    c- SLE
    d- Rheumatoid arthritis
    Ans: c- SLE
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1962, 1963.

    263. Regarding Brawn-Sequard syndrome, which is not true -
    a- Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
    b- Ipsilateral loss of motor power
    c- Contralateral posterior column with all except
    Ans: c- Contralateral posterior column with all except
    Ref: Harrison 16th/144/2440.

    264. Bernard solulier syndrome is associated with all except -
    a- Increased platelet size
    b- Decreased platelet count
    c- Normal Ristocetin test
    d- Normal ADP, test
    Ans: c- Normal Ristocetin test
    Ref: Harrison 16th/677-678.

    265. Which of the following are a minor Jone’s criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever-?
    a- fever
    b- Increased ASO titre
    c- Throat culture
    d- Rheumatic fever
    Ans: a- fever
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1978.

    266. ECG changes in hypokalemia is reflected by -
    a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression
    b- QT prolongation with T wave inversion
    c- ST elevation with T wave inversion
    d- QT prolongation with ST depression
    Ans: a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression

    267. About Millard-Gubler syndrome, all are true except:
    a- Vth CN palsy
    b- VIth CN palsy
    c- VIIth CN palsy
    d- Contralateral hemiplegia
    Ans: a- Vth CN palsy
    Ref: Harrison 16th/175.

    268. Iron deficiency anemia is associated with:
    a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
    b- Decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin
    c- Normal TIBC, decreased ferritin
    d- Normal TIBC, Increased Ferritin
    Ans: a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
    Ref: Harrison 16th/588, 590.

    269. Drug induced lupus is associated with:
    a- Anti RO antibody
    b- Anti centromere antibody
    c- Anti Mitochondrial antibody
    d- Antihistone antibody
    Ans: d- Antihistone antibody
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1961.

    270. The most common type of pancreatic tumor in MEN I patient-
    a- Insulinoma
    b- Gastrinoma
    c- Glucagonoma
    Ans: b- Gastrinoma
    Ref: Harrison 16th/2231/2232, CMDT - 2005/1154.

    271. The test used to confirm H.Pylori eradication after treatment is-
    a- Rapid urase test
    b- Urea breath test
    c- Endoscopic biopsy
    d- Stool antigen test/serological test
    Ans: b- Urea breath test
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1755

    272. Which of the following indicates CSF leak?
    a- β2 transferrin
    b- β protein
    c- Dyte test
    d- A β transferrine
    Ans: a- β2 transferrin
    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202.

    273. Which one of the following investigations is done for hyperostosing of bone and joints-?
    a- Alkaline phosphatase
    b- Calcium
    c- Acid phosphatase
    d- Phosphorus
    Ans: a- Alkaline phosphatase
    Ref: Harrison 16th/2283.

    274. A 55 yrs old man presents with TLC-1 lakh, lymphocyte - 80%, Prolymphocyte - 20%. Diagnosis is -
    a- CLL
    b- HIV
    c- Tuberculosis
    d- Prolymphocytic leukemia
    Ans: a- CLL
    Ref: CMDT - 44th/492, 1286.

    275. In a patient with cardiogenic shock and Anterior wall infarct. The best treatment of choice will be -
    a- Angiography with angioplasty
    b- Intraaortic Ballon Pumb
    c- Dopamine drip
    d- Streptokinase
    Ans: a- Angiography with angioplasty
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1615.

    276. A 30yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension, and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased, positive for hepatitis C antibodies. Diagnosis is-
    a- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
    b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia
    c- Lupus Nephritis
    d- MPGN
    Ans: b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia
    Ref: Harrison 16th/2011.

    277. All are associated with hypophosphatemia except:
    a- Diabetic ketoacidosis
    b- Acute renal failure
    c- Hyperalimentation
    d- Respiratory alkalosis
    Ans: b- Acute renal failure
    Ref: Harrison 16th/2242, 1652.

    278. How will you calculate INR, when the patients PT, controls PT and ISI (1.4) is given?
    a- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1.4
    b- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1/1.4
    c- Patients PT/Calculated means normal PT
    Ans: a- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1.4
    Ref: Goodman And Gillman 10th/1530.

    279. A 30 yrs old man having MR and AF comes with history of syncope and regular pulse of 55 bpm. Most probable cause is-
    a- Digoxin toxicity
    b- Cerebral infarct
    Ans: a- Digoxin toxicity
    Ref: Harrison 16th/1394.


    280. All of the following statements are true regarding thyroid lymphoma except-
    a- Most common in females
    b- Slow growing
    c- It is difficult to differentiate it from anaplastic carcinoma
    d- If it involves the isthamus it may present with respiratory insufficiency
    Ans: b- Slow growing
    Ref: Bally and Love 24th/802

    281. A 50yrs old man with family history of prostate carcinoma wants to undergo screening. The most sensitive test -
    a- Digital rectal examination
    b- PSA
    c- Both a and b
    d- Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weiged image
    Ans: c- Both a and b
    Ref: internal Medicine vol. 1 p-544

    282. Prognosis in head injury is best given by -
    a- Glasgow coma scale
    b- CT head
    c- Age of patient
    d- Mode of injury
    Ans: a- Glasgow coma scale

    283. Morgagnian hernia is seen at which site?
    a- Left anterior portion of the diaphragm
    b- Right anterior portion of the diaphragm
    c- Left posterior portion of the diaphragm
    d- Right posterior surface of the diaphragm
    Ans: b- Right anterior portion of the diaphragm
    Ref: CMDT 12th/20

    284. Which one of the following statements related to gastric injury is untrue-
    a- mostly related to penetratic trauma
    b- Treatment is simple debridment and suturing
    c- Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury
    d- Heals well and fast
    Ans: c- Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury
    Ref: Bally and Love 24th/287

    285. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal vein, superior mensenteric artery, and abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which side of visceral rotation is preferred?
    a- Left medial visceral rotation
    b- Right medial visceral rotation
    c- Cranial visceral rotation
    d- Caudal visceral rotation
    Ans: a- Left medial visceral rotation
    Ref: ACS surgery Principle and practice 2006

    286. Which of the following is a benign polyp -
    a- Juvenile polyp
    b- FAP
    c- Juvenile Polyposis
    d- Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
    Ans: a- Juvenile polyp
    Ref: Harrison/16th/528

    287. Which one of the following is not a type of thyroid carcinoma -
    a- Follicular
    b- Anaplastic
    c- Insular
    d- Merkel
    Ans: d- Merkel
    Ref: Harrison/16th/2122

    288. A 60 year old smoker came with the history of one episode of painless and gross hematuria. The investigation of choice will be-
    a- Urine routine and microscopy
    b- Plain x-ray KUB
    c- USG KUB
    d- Urine microscopy for malignant cell
    Ans: d- Urine microscopy for malignant cell
    Ref: Hollarofrei Cancer medicine 6th/110

    289. True statements about pilonidal sinus is -
    a- Common in female
    b- Congenital
    c- Treatment of choice is excison
    d- Conservative treatment is done
    Ans: c- Treatment of choice is excison
    Ref: CSDT 11th/774

    290. Regarding gynecomastia false statement is -
    a- May regress spontaneously
    b- May regress after stopping the offending drug
    c- Subcutaneous mastectomy is always indicated
    d- Associated with liver failure
    Ans: c- Subcutaneous mastectomy is always indicated
    Ref: Harrison/16th/2192, CMDT 44th/1070

    291. In urethral rupture below peroneal membrane urine collects in-
    a- Perivesical space
    b- Deep peroneal pouch
    c- Superficial peroneal pouch
    d- Space of Ritzus
    Ans: c- Superficial peroneal pouch
    Ref: student’s edition, Gray’s anatomy/BDC/243

    292. A patient presented after RTA with Fracture pelvic, few drops of blood passed per urethral, not passed urine, palpable bladder, and likely cause is-
    a- Ureteral injury
    b- Bladder rupture
    c- Urethral injury
    d- Urine extravasation to peritoneum
    Ans: c- Urethral injury
    Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258

    293. An old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with a history of dribbling of urine, urge incontinence, hesitancy, incomplete voiding. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a- BPH
    Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258
    Ans: Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258
    Ref: Harrison/16th/2165, 2166.

    294. In a abdominal trauma, the type of abdominal incison used to exclude the major organ damage is-
    a- Paramedian incison
    b- Median incison
    c- Transverse abdominal incision according to suspected organ damage
    Ans: b- Median incison
    Ref: Bally and Love 24th/288.

    295. In acute tissue injury, there is transient:
    a- Neutropenia
    b- Neutrophilia
    c- Lymphopenia
    d- Lymphocytosis
    Ans: a- N

Share This Page