AIIMS NOV 2007 subject wise questions & Ans

AIIMS NOV 2007 subject wise questions & Ans


 Anatomy
1. Which is the most superior structure at hilum of left lung?
a.pulmonary vein
b.pulmanary artery
c.bronchius
d. Bronchial artery Ans--B
2. Intrinsic muscles of tongue develops from ?
a.cervical somite
b.mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
c. Occipital somite
d. Ans--C
3. Gall bladder epithelium is:
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border Ans--D
4. Which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury in the arm?
a)claw hand
b)atrophy of hypothenar eminence
c)loss of sensation of medial one third of hand
d)adduction of thumb Ans--D
5. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through:
a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
c. Subcostal and Umbilical
d. …
6. Urothelium lines all except:
a.minor calyces
b.ureter
c.urinary bladder
d.collecting duct Ans--D
7. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
a. Peroneus brevis
b. Peroneus longus
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum brevis Ans--A
8. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
a. Brachyury gene
b. BMPR-4
c. Nodal gene
d. FGF-8
9. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery Ans--B
10. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
11. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
a. Right dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance
d. .. Ans--B
12. Regarding genital development, true is:
a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
13. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid Ans--B
14. The ureter develops from:
a. Metanephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct Ans--C
15. Perforators are not present at the:
a. Ankle
b. Distal calf
c. Mid thigh
d. Below the inguinal ligament Ans—D
16. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
a. Deep cardiac plexus
b. Superficial cardiac plexus
c. Phrenic nerve
d. Subcostal nerve Ans—C
17. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
a. Innermost intercostals
b. Transverses thoracis
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals Ans—B
18. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
a. Caudate lobe
b. Quadrate lobe
c. Left lobe
d. Right lobe Ans—B
19. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
a. The penis and scrotum
b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
d. Shaft of the penis only Ans—D

 Physiology
20. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
a. Inverse relation with heart rate
b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
c. Constant relation to external work done
d. Negligible in quiescent heart
21. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
a. Increase in anaerobic glycolysis
b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
d. Interference with electron chain transport
22. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
a. Seen in the lung of smokers
b. Increases cAMP levels
c. Used to treat hypertension
d. .. Ans—B
23. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Inhibin
d. .. Ans—A
24. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Collecting duct
d. Thick ascending loop of Henle Ans—A
25. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
a. Increased peak expiratory flow
b. Increased total lung capacity
c. Increased residual volume
d. Decreased functional residual capacity Ans—C
26. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
d. .. Ans—A
27. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed Ans--B
28. Fast axonal transport is by all except:
a. Dynenin
b. Kinesin
c. Microfilaments
d. Neurofilaments Ans—D
29. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
a. Sympathetic innervation
b. Parasympathetic innervation
c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis Ans—D
30. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
a. Mineralocortoid excess
b. Increased excretion of base
c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids Ans—A
31. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex Ans—B
32. All of the following occur when the blood flows through systemic capillaries except:
a. Increase in hematocrit
b. Hb curve shifts to the left
c. Increased protein content
d. Decrease in Ph Ans—B
33. Exercise causes:
a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
c. Body temperature rise
d. decreased muscle lymph flow Ans---C
34. Which of the following is correctly matched:
a. B cells – Somatostain
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin
d. ….. Ans—C
35. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
b. Limitation of maximum inspiration during exercise
c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected



 Biochemistry

36. Peroxidase is used to detect:
a. Glucose
b. Ammonia
c. Hemoglobin
d. Creatinine Ans—C
37. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Phenol / xylol
c. Formalin
d. Fluoride Ans—D
38. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine
c. Absolute alcohol
d. Quarternary ammonium compounds Ans—A
39. PCR requires:
a. Li++
b. Ca++
c. Na++
d. Mg++ Ans--D
40. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
d. .. Ans—A
41. Vitamin K is required for:
a. Carboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. ..
d. .. Ans—A
42. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure in the process of evolution are said to be:
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Opportunistic
d. Incidental Ans—A
43. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
a. Drabkin’s method
b. Sahli’s method
c. Spectrometry
d. Wintrobe’s method Ans—D
44. Nephelometry is:
a. Lambert-Beer law
b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
c. Defraction of light
d. Decreased intensity of light Ans--B
 Pathology

45. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Subdifferentiation Ans—C
46. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
a. CD1a
b. CD57
c. CD3
d. CD68 Ans—A
47. Caspases are involved in:
a. Apoptosis
b. ..
c. ..
d. Ans—A
48. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
a. Hyalinization of the valve
b. Fibrinoid necrosis
c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
d. .. Ans—C
49. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
a. DNA and RNA
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Lipids Ans—A
50. PAS does not stain:
a. Fungal cell wall
b. Basement membrane of bacteria
c. Glycogen
d. Lipids Ans—D
51. Not used to stain fats:
a. Oil red O
b. Congo red
c. Sudan III
d. Sudan black Ans—B
52. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen Ans—B
53. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4 Ans—B
54. FNAC needle gauge size is:
a. 26 – 28
b. 22 – 26
c. 18 – 22
d. 16 – 18 Ans—B
55. Basement membrane consists of all except:
a. Laminin
b. Nidogenin
c. Entactin
d. Rhodopsin Ans—D
56. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
a. β2 – microglobulin
b. Transthyretin
c. AANF
d. Pyrin Ans—B
57. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Interstitial pneumonia
d. Pulmonary oedema Ans—A
58. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
b. ..
c. ..
d. .. Ans--A
59. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
d. Hemochromatosis Ans—A
60. Councilman bodies are seen in:
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Acute viral hepatitis
d. .. Ans—C
61. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity Ans--A






 Pharmacology
62. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide Ans--A
63. True about fibrates is all except:
a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
Ans—B
64. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
b. More sedative than other hypnotics
c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
d. .. Ans—C
65. Thiazides cause all except:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Increased uric acid excretion
d. Useful in congestive heart failure Ans—B
66. Regarding furosemide, true is:
a. Given by parenteral route only
b. Used in pulmonary oedema
c. Acts at the PCT
d. Causes hypercalcemia Ans—B
67. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
a. Ritodrine
b. MgSO4
c. Nifedipine
d. Progesterone Ans—B
68. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Cancer
d. Vitamin D intoxication ans—D
69. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene
b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
70. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
a. Tacrolimus
b. Metformin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin Ans—B
71. Antiemetic with most "affinity" for "5Ht3" is:
a. Ondansetron
b. Granisetron
c. Dolasetron
d. Pavalosetron Ans—D
72. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
a. Induces microsomal enzymes
b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
d. Highly protein bound Ans—B
73. Hyperglycemia is caused by:
a. Beta blockers
b. Glucocorticoids
c. NSAID
d. .. Ans—B
74. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
c. Macrolides,…
d. .. Ans—B
75. All but one acts via GABA Aexcept:
a. Thiopentone
b. Midazolam
c. Zolpidem /zopiclone
d. Promethazine Ans--D
76. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
a. Atenolol
b. Amlodepine
c. Statins
d. Metformin Ans—D
77. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
a. Loop diuretics
b. Lithium
c. Vitamin D intoxication
d. .. Ans—A
78. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Warfarin
d. Antithrombin-III Ans—D
79. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
a. 5HT-1A
b. 5HT-1B
c. 5HT-1F
d. 5HT-3 Ans—B

80. good clinical practices equired in all except
a. preclinical phase
b. phase 1
c. phase 2
d. phase 4 Ans--A
 F.M.T.
81. Telefona is:
a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
b. Pulling of hair
c. Beating on both the ears
d. .. Ans--C
82. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Thorax
d. Abdomen Ans—B
83. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
a. Loss of testis
b. Loss of eye
c. Loss of kidney
d. Abrasion of the face Ans—D
84. Not a part of informed consent is:
a. ..
b. ..
c. ..
d. Concealed information….. Ans—D
85. In tandem [bleep] number of [bleep] fired
a.1
b.2
c. 3
d. 4 Ans—B
 Microbiology
86. HACEK group includes all except:
a. Hemophilus aprophillus
b. Acinetobacter baumanni
c. Eikenella corrodens
d. Cardiobacterium hominis Ans—B
87. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. H.ducreyi
c. Treponema pallidum
d. .. Ans—A
88. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
a. M protein
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
c. Group C carbohydrate antigen Ans—C
89. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
a. Thayer-martin
b. TCBS medium
c. Scirrow’s medium
d. Loeffer’s Ans—B
90. Prions consist of:
a. DNA and RNA
b. DNA, RNA and proteins
c. RNA and proteins
d. Only proteins Ans-D
91. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
c. ..
d. .. Ans—B
92. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
a. HbsAg
b. IgM anti-HbcAg
c. HbeAg
d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—B
93. True about polioviruses is:
a. Most cases are symptomatic
b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
c. ..
d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
94. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
a. Immune to diphtheria
b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c. Susceptible to diphtheria
d. Susceptible & hypersensitive to diphtheria Ans—D
95. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: A/E
a. Deep invasion is not seen
b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
c. Metachromatic granules are seen
d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change Ans—D
 SPM
96. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
a. Immigration of healthy persons
b. Increased cure rate of the disease
c. Longer duration of the disease
d. .. Ans--C
97. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
a. Measles
b. BCG
c. DPT
d. OPV Ans—C
[snip]. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
a. School teachers
b. Medical officers of health centers
c. Ophthalmologists
d. Health assistants Ans—A
99. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
a. Screening
b. Surveillance
c. Case finding
d. Notification Ans—A
100. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
a. Re-start the immunization according to age
b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT Ans—B
101. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except:
a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
b. ..
c. ..
d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age Ans—D
102. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
a. BOAA
b. Sanguinarine
c. Aflatoxin
d. .. Ans—B
103. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Secondary case
d. Tertiary case Ans—A
104. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
a. Maternal deaths/live birth
b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
d. Maternal deaths/100000 population Ans—B
105. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Input - output analysis
d. Network analysis Ans--A
106. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
a. Tetanus toxoid
b. Hepatitis B
c. BCG
d. Measles Ans—B
107. Kala-azar, vector is:
a. Flea
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sand fly
d. Mite Ans—C
108. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
a. Reduvid bug
b. Trombiculid mite
c. Enteric pathogens
d. Cyclops Ans—B
109. Mirena is:
a. Used in abortion
b. Anti-progesterone
c. Progesterone IUCD
d. Hormonal implant Ans—C
110. True about dietary allowance are all except:
a. Adequate intake
b. RDA
c. Dietary intake according to food composition
d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA Ans—D
111. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
a. Multipurpose worker
b. Laboratory technician
c. Health educator
d. Medical officer Ans--A
112. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
a. Trachoma
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Cataract Ans—A
113. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
b Deposition of flurides in the skeletal system and muscles
c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
d. Genu valgum Ans—A
114. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
a. Mustard oil
b. Groundnut oil
c. Corn oil
d. Fish oil
115. Not a measure of dispersion:
a. Mode
b. Range
c. Variable
d. Standard deviation Ans—A
116. Primary Health Care is:
a. Health for all
b.
c.
d. Ans—A

 ENT

117. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
a. Isthmus of the thyroid
b. Inferior thyroid artery
c. Thyroidea ima
d. Inferior thyroid vein Ans—A
118. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
b. Observation in hospital
c. Surgical drainage
d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks Ans—C
119. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
d. Total laryngectomy Ans--B
120. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flacida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Tympano-mastoid exploration Ans—D
121. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
a. MRI of the brain
b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
d. Inferior meatus puncture Ans--B
 Ophthalmology
122. Dangerous area of the eye is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Sclera
c. Optic nerve
d. Retina Ans—A
123. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
 MEDICINE

124. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
b. Raised calcitonin levels
c. Increased phosphate levels
d. Increase in levels of 24,2% Hydroxylase in liver Ans—A
125. Not seen in SIADH is:
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypouricemia
c. Volume depletion causing hypotension
d. .. Ans—C
126. A 40 year old man, heavy smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations in inferior leads. What is the immediate therapy.
a. Aspirin
b. Thrombolytics
c. Pantoprazole
d. Beta-blockers Ans—B
127. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
a. Foramen of Monro
b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
d. Fourth ventricle Ans—B
128. In HIV window period indicates:
a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
c. .
d. . Ans—B
129. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
c. Tuft necrosis
d. Mesangiolysis Ans—A
130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
a. Congenital renal defect
b. Obstructive uropathy
c. Intrauterine infections and scar
d. Is a normal variety ans—D
131. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
a. MEN 1
b. MEN 2A
c. MEN 2B
d. MEN 2C

132. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
a. PNH
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia Ans--D
133. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Optic tract glioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme Ans—B
134. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen in:
a. Pre-renal azotemia
b. ATN
c. Intrinsic renal failure
d. Renal artery stenosis Ans—A
135. With CSF all are true except:
a. Persistent leakage causes headache
b. Neutrophils are normally not present
c. pH is less than that of blood
d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi Ans—D
136. Not a feature of DKA is:
a. Tachypnoea
b. Bradycardia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Dehydration Ans—B
137. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT
a. Hyperventilation
b. Morbid obesity
c. Fenfluramine
d. High altitude Ans—A
138. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
a. Central obesity
b. Episodic hypertension
c. Easy bruisability
d. Glucose intolerance Ans—B
139. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
a. renal artery stenosis
b. End stage renal disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Primary hyperaldosteronism Ans—B
140. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
a. Astereognosis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Hemisensoriloss
d. No neurological deficit Ans—A
141. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
a. HBV-DNA polymerase
b. IgG anti-HBc
c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—A
142. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
b. Depletion of glycogen
c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. Perinuclear staining Ans—A
143. VHL syndrome includes all except:
a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Hemangioendotheliomas
d. Islet cell tumours Ans—A
144. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
a. Pregnancy..
b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
c. DM with acute MI
d. Post kidney transplant
145. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in:
a. Alexander’s disease
b. Krabbe’s ds.
c. Canavan’s ds
d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy Ans--A
146. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
a. Intradural extramedullary
b. Extradural
c. Intramedullary
d. All have equal distribution Ans—B
147. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
a. D-dimer levels
b. Multidetector CT angiography
c. Colour Doppler USG
d. Catheter angiography Ans—B
148. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no previous significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Vasovagal shock
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Complete heart block
d. Temporal lobe epilepsy Ans--C
149. All are essential components of TOF except:
a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Infundibular stenosis
d. Aorta overriding Ans—A
 SURGERY
150. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation Ans—B
151. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
c. It occurs after previous surgery
d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use Ans—A
152. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
a. Subphrenic abscess
b. CO2 narcosis
c. Positioning of the patient
d. Compression of the lung Ans—A
153. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
a. Percutaneous aspiration
b. I.V. antibiotics
c. Surgical removal
d. Observation Ans—C
154. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
155. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
a. Abdomen – Neck
b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
d. Right chest – Neck Ans—D
156. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Ca-Urinary bladder
c. Ureteral calculus
d. .. Ans—C
 O&G
157. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with rheumatic heart disease , which is contraindicated:
a. Misoprostol
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Oxytocin
d. Carboprost Ans—B
158. The BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Acetone
c. Formalin
d. Xylol Ans--A
159. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
a. Deep myometrial invasion
b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
c. Enlarged uterine cavity
d. Poor tumour differentiation Ans—C
160. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
a. ..
b. ..
c. Bilateral renal agenesis
d. .. Ans—C
161. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
c. Ureteral agenesis
d. Medullary sponge kidney Ans—B
162. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
a. Coarcatation of aorta
b. Eisenmenger’s complex
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Mitral stenosis Ans—B
163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
a. Polycystic ovarian disease
b. Multiple pregnancies
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Teratogenecity Ans—D
164. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV Ans--C
165. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
a. Sperm count > 20 million
b. Volume > 1 ml
c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % Ans—D
166. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
d. Apply McDonald’s stitch Ans—D
167. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transverse lie is associated with the following complication:
a. Uterine rupture
b. Vaginal laceration
c. Uterine atony
d. Cervical laceration Ans—A
168. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Over estimated gestational age
d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome Ans—D
169. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Occult carcinoma
c. Hypothyroidism
d. HIV Ans—A
170. Goniometry is measurement of:
a. Number of gonococci
b. Length of the genital hiatus
c. Urethrovesical angle
d. Genital secretion Ans—C
171. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
a. HSG
b. Hysteroscopy
c. Endometrial culture
d. Saline infusion USG Ans—C
 PEDIATRICS
172. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
a. Clonic
b. Tonic
c. Subtle
d. Myoclonic Ans—C
173. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
a. Increased PAPP-A
b. Increased β-HCG
c. Absent nasal bone
d. Increased ductus venous blood flow Ans—A
174. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
d. Disseminated HSV infection Ans—C
175. In a survey, many children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
a. Medullary sponge kidney
b. Bladder extrophy
c. Unilateral renal agenesis
d. Double ureter Ans—B
176. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Post viral syndrome
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
c. Follicular bronchitis
d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis Ans—B
177. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
c. CT scan of the chest
d. Allergen sensitivity test
178. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
b. Nasal electrode potential difference
c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation Ans—B
179. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
b. Manometry
c. Lower bowel contrast enema
d. Oesophagoscopy Ans—B
180. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
a. Fusion of podocytes
b. Acute tubular necrosis
c. Deposition of IgA
d. Thickened basement membrane Ans—C
181. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
b. Put a nasogastric tube
c. Surgery
d. Tube thoracostomy Ans—B
 SKIN & VD
182. 22 year female taken medicine for typhoid fever 3 months back. She developed generalized loss of hair,
a. Telogen effluvium
b. Anagen effluvium
c. Alopecia areata Ans—A
183. Vitligo not true…….
a. Occcurs in genetically predisposed individual
b. UV B therapy given
c. Local steroid
d. Leucotrychia is a good prognosis Ans—D
184. Cicatrical alopecia A/E
a. Alopecia areata
b. Pseudpalady
c. Lichen planus
d. DLE Ans—A
 RADIOLOGY
185. Floating water- lilly sign on X ray chest
a. hydatis dis of liver
b. asperigilosis
c. tubercular cavity Ans—A
186. Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Uncorrected TGA
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Ebstein’s anomaly Ans—B
187. Hamptun’s hump is seen in:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Tuberculosis
c. Broncogenic CA Ans--A
 ANASTHESIA
188. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
b. Bronchospasm
c. Flushing
d. Hypertension Ans--D
189. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Atracurium
d. Fentanyl Ans--B
190. All are true about Thiopentone except:
a. NaCO3 is a preservative
b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
c. Agent of choice in shock
d. Cerebroprotective Ans—C
 Psychiatry
191. Regarding type A personality, false is:
a. Hostility
b. Time pressure
c. Competitiveness
d. Mood fluctuations Ans—D
192. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
a. Third person auditory hallucinations
b. Inappropriate emotions
c. Long stretches of mood changes
d. Formal thought disorder Ans—D
193. Altered perception of real objects is:
a. Illusion
b. Delusion
c. Hallucination
d. Delirium Ans—A
194. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
a. Unconscious conflict
b. Maladjusted reinforcement
c. Organic neurological problem
d. ..
195. Learning does not include:
a. Modeling
b. Catharsis
c. Exposure
d. Sensitization
 orthopaedics
196. Canaval sign…….
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger Ans—A
197. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b. Increased serum calcium
c. Looser’s zones
d. Proximal myopathy Ans—B
198. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
a. Enneking
b. Manchester
c. Edmonton
d. TNM Ans—A
199. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
a. Head
b. Chest
c. Legs
d. Abdomen
200. Indication of surgery in Pectus excavetum:
a. Fev1/Fvc <0.6
b. TLC <80%
c. Decreased residual olume
d. Exercise intolerance Ans--C

Thanx for a job well done, cheers.

Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to

Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to
answer:nodal gene
The primitive streak itself is initiated and maintained by expression of Nodal, a member of the transforming growth factor ß (TGF-ß) family. Once the streak is formed, a number of genes regulate
formation of dorsal and ventral mesoderm and head and tail structures.
-Another member of the TGF-ß family, bone morphogenetic protein-4 (BMP- 4) is secreted throughout the embryonic disc
Reference 1. : Langman's Embryology -10 Ed. Pg.57

Fibroblast growth factors (FGFs) have been implicated in diverse cellular processes including apoptosis, cell survival, chemotaxis, cell adhesion, migration, differentiation, and proliferation. This review presents our current understanding on the roles of FGF signaling, the pathways employed, and its regulation. We focus on FGF signaling during early embryonic processes in vertebrates, such as induction and patterning of the three germ layers as well as its function in the control of morphogenetic movements.

Reference 2 . Endocr Rev. 2005 Feb;26(1):63-77.
Fibroblast growth factor signaling during early vertebrate development.
Böttcher RT, Niehrs C.

PMID: 15689573 [PubMed - indexed for MEDLINE]
**************************************************************

The primitive streak itself is initiated and maintained by expression of Nodal, a member of the transforming growth factor ß (TGF-ß) family BMP4 in the presence of FGF ventralizes mesoderm during gastrulation.
Brachyury (small tail) regulate structures in the caudal region.It is equired for mesoderm formation and cellular differentiation.

Cell to cell signaling by paracrine method is carried by GDFs (growth & differentiation factors)
4 groups:1. FGF,2. WNT,3. HEDGEHOG and 4. TGFs.
***********************************************
FGFs (fibroblast growth factors): fibroblast growth factors are associated with many developmental processes including mesoderm induction, antero-posterior patterning, neural induction, angiogenesis, axon extension and limb formation.
-These signal proteins are involved in formation of sutures and bones of the skull.

****************************************************
-TGF_beta include BMP and MIF (mullerian inhibiting factor).
TGF_beta are important for extracellular matrix formation and epithelilial branching.
BMP induces bone formation and is involved in regulating cell division, apotosis and cell migration.
TGF-beta, T-box transcription factor and the Wnt signalling pathways are involved in endoderm specification.

*******************************
-BMP(bone morphogenetic proteins) are members of transforming growth factors-beta family , wwhich serve as signal molecules for a number of morphogenetic events, including dorsalizing the CNS, participating in bone formation etc.
-Hedgehog proteins like sonic HH is involved in neural tube induction & patterning, somite differentiation,limb patterning

**************************************
WNT proteins-endoderm specification, mid-brain development, urogenital differentiation.
Transforming growth factor -beta (nodal) induce formation of mesoderm.
the concerted action of molecules like FGFs participate in germ cell layer fates in the primitive streak.
TGF-beta, T-box transcription factor and the Wnt signalling pathways are involved in endoderm specification.
******************************

In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the l

In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through
answer:Intercostal and Superior epigastric
Coarctation (stenosis/narrowing) of aorta is due to defect in the tunica media, which forms a shelf like projection into the lumen, most commonly in the region of the ductus arteriosus.
-A collateral circulation develops distal to the obstruction between subclavian artery (internal thoracic artery) & descending aorta (posterior intercostal arteries).
-This anastomosis produces characteristic notching of the ribs on X-RAY
* Superior epigastric is a branch of internal thoracic artery and gives the anterior intercostal arteries in the lower intercostal spaces.

-Coarctation of the aorta is of three types:
1. Pre-ductal coarctation: The narrowing is proximal to the ductus arteriosus. If severe, blood flow to the aorta distal (to lower body) to the narrowing is dependent on a patent ductus arteriosus, and hence its closure can be life-threatening.
2. Ductal coarctation: The narrowing occurs at the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. This kind usually appears when the ductus arteriosus closes.
3. Post-ductal coarctation: The narrowing is distal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. Even with an open ductus arteriosus blood flow to the lower body can be impaired. Newborns with this type of coarctation may be critically sick from the birth.

Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood f

Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between
answereep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
The scapular anastomosis is a system connecting each subclavian artery and the corresponding axillary artery, forming an anastomosis around the scapula.
-It allows blood to flow past the shoulder joint regardless of the position of the arm.
-It also provides a collateral circulation towards the limb in case of blockage at the subclavian or axillary artery.
-The dorsal scapular (deep branch of transverse cervical artery) and suprascapular arteries arise from the first part of subclavian artery.
-Subscapular artery arises from the third part of the axillary artery and gives a circumflex branch to scapula.
-The scapular anastomosis is between the first part of subclavian and third part of axillary artery.

-Dorsal scapular (Deep branch of transverse scapular) anastomoses mainly with subscapular artery.
And suprascapular artery mainly anastomoses with Circumflex scapular artery.
NOTE: There is an additional (minor) anastomosis present between acromial branch of suprascapular & acromial branch of posterior circumflex humeral artery. This anastomosis lies on acromion process

correction required

size of FNAC needle .........18-22guage....ref-practical pathology by p.chakraborthy n gargi chakraborty........
ref from any std text....welcome

nice job

very nice job

que....

5. Gall bladder epithelium is: ( Ref : Schwartz chap. 31, introduction )
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border

the ans wud be c.
I checked with schwarz and sabiston, none of them hav ref to the brush border..its only simple columnar

ALL INDIA POST GRADUATE MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2007

ALL INDIA POST GRADUATE MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2007

ANATOMY

1. Posterior communicating artery is the branch of –
a- External carotid
b- Internal carotid
c- Ophthalmic
d- Middle cerebra
Ans: b- Internal carotid
Ref: Student Gray’s anatomy different pages

2. Which of the following is not true about trigone of bladder?
a- Smooth mucosa
b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa
c- Transitional epithelium lines it
d- It is remnant of mesonephric duct opening into post uro-genital sinus
Ans: b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa
Ref: Gray’s Anat. pg-399

3. Which of the following characteristic are helpful in differentiating between cervical and lumbar vertebra?
a- Foramina transverserium
b- Articulas fact in the body
c- Triangular vertebral cannal
d- Heavy vertebral body
Ans: a- Foramina transverserium
Ref: Gray’s student’s ed/page-31

4. Pronation and supination does not take place at which of the following joint –
a- Superior radio ulnar
b- Middle radio ulnar
c- Inferior radio ulnar
d- Radio carpal joint
Ans: d- Radio carpal joint

5. Which of these part of vertebral canal will show concavity back-wards in secondary curves -
a- Cervical
b- Thoracic
c- Sacral
d- Coccyx
Ans: a- Cervical
Ref: Gray’s students edn. Pg-15

6. The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except -
a- Left brachiocephalic vein
b- Hemiazygous vein
c- Left gonadal vein
d- Left renal vein
Ans: c- Left gonadal vein
Ref: pg-110 Student’s Gray’s anatomy

7. All of the following structure crosses posterior to diaphragm from thorax to abdomen except -
a- Thoracic duct
b- Azygous vein
c- Aorta
d- Greater splanchinic nerve
Ans: d- Greater splanchinic nerve
Ref: BDC/3rd vol.1 / pg-161
Student’s Gray’s / 135, 134

8. Which one of the following is not a site of portasystemic anastomosis?
a- Spleen
b- Liver
c- Gastroesophageal junction
d- Anorectal junction
Ans: a- Spleen

9. Which of the following is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery -
a- Cavernous branch of trigeminal ganglia
b- Hypophyseal
c- Opthalmic artery
d- Chiasmal branches]
Ans: c- Opthalmic artery
Ref: BDC/3rd/81

10. Primordial germ cell is derived from -
a- Ectoderm
b- Mesoderm
c- Endoderm
d- Mesodermal sinus
Ans: c- Endoderm
Ref: IB Singh Embryology pg-283

ANAESTHESIA
11. Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in -
a- Platelets < 80,000
b- Patient on aspirin
c- Patient on oral anticoagulants
d- Patient on I.V. UFH.
Ans: b- Patient on aspirin
Ref: Ajay Yadav 3rd p-123

12. Which one of the following is not a amide -
a- Lignocaine
b- Procaine
c- Bupivacaine
d- Dibucaine
Ans: b- Procaine
Ref: Ajay Yadav 2nd pg-105

13. Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) -
a- Capnography
b- Impedence pulmonometry
c- Chest movements
d- Infrared End Tidal CO2
Ans: b- Impedence pulmonometry
Ref: Senior Resident, Dept. of Anaesthesia/SGPGI/Lukhnow

14. An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is -
a- Accumulation of landonosine
b- Allergy to drug
c- Due to prolong infusion
Ans: a- Accumulation of landonosine
Ref: Ajay Yadav anaesthesia 2nd pg-90

15. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively?
a- Propanolol/Metoprolol
b- Verapamil
c- Esmolol
d- Procainamide
Ans: a- Propanolol/Metoprolol
Ref: Antiarrythmics used intraoperatively
24.05.2007
RADIOLOGY
16. Isotope used in RIA
a- I131
b- I123
c- I125
d- I127
Ans: c- I125
Ref: Internet references.

17. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except -
a- Hypoparathyroidism
b- Wilson’s disease
c- Perinatal hypoxia
d- Fahr’s syndrome
Ans: c- Perinatal hypoxia
Ref: Chappman radiological differential diagnosis 3rd p-408.

18. Radio contrast is contraindicated in all except:
a- Renal failure
b- Patient on metformin
c- Dehydration
d- Obesity
Ans: d- Obesity
Ref: Harrison 16th p-1704, 1646, Katjung 9th p-708, Chapmann Radiology D/D 3rd p-160

19. Which is not a deep heat therapy?
a- Short wave diathermy
b- Infra Red
c- USG
d- Microwave
Ans: c- USG
Ref: Internet

20. A patient presents with loss of consciousness, Ct shows multiple spotty hemorrhage and full basal cistern. The most probable diagnosis is-
a- Brain contusion
b- Diffuse axonal injury
c- Subdural hemorrhage
d- Multiple infarct
Ans: b- Diffuse axonal injury
Ref: CDST 11th p-900, Harrison 16th p-2448

21. A 25 yrs old female presented with lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy and mid dorsal intradural enhancing mass in MRL. What is the diagnosis?
a- Intradural Lipoma
b- Meningioma
c- Dermoid cyst
d- Neuroepithelial cyst
Ans: b- Meningioma

BIOCHEMITERY

22. Transport of ascorbic acid to lens is done by -
a- Choline
b- Taurine
c- Myoinositol
d- Na+, K+ ATpase
Ans: d- Na+, K+ ATpase
Ref: Internet

23. All of the following act through nuclear receptor except -
a- Vitamin D
b- Insulin
c- Thyroid
d- Steroid
Ans: b- Insulin
Ref: Harper p-445

24. The urine analysis of a person showed green colour on Ferric chloride test, the person is suffering from -
a- Alkaptonuria
b- Phenyl Iketonuria
c- Methyl malonic aciduria
Ans: b- Phenyl Iketonuria
Ref: Ghai 6th p-609

25. Mucopolysaccharide Hyaluronic acid is present in -
a- Acquous humor
b- Vitreous humor
c- Lens
d- Cornea
Ans: b- Vitreous humor
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-553

26. All of the following are true about Proteoglycans except -
a- Contains amino sugar
b- Forms structural element of connective tissue
c- Contains small amount of water
d- Chodritin sulphate in an example
Ans: c- Contains small amount of water
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-118

27. Northern blot is used for diagnosis of -
a- mRNA expression
b- DNA
c- Protein
Ans: a- mRNA expression
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-409

28. All of the following is true about HMP pathway except -
a- Occurs in cytosole
b- Produces NADPH
c- H+ acceptor is NADP
d- End product is pyruvate
Ans: d- End product is pyruvate
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-179

29. Which one of the following is not a method of protein penification?
a- Electrophoresis
b- Centrifugation
c- Densitometry
d- Chromatography
Ans: c- Densitometry> b- Centrifugation
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-21

30. Which one of the following is responsible for oxygen dependent killing?
a- Superoxide dismutase
b- Catalase
c- Glutathione peroxidase
d- NADPH oxidase
Ans: d- NADPH oxidase
Ref: Robbin’s Pathology 7th p-16

31. Biotin is used in -
a- Beta ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency
b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Ans: b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-502

32. Study of protein elaborated by cell under different conditions -
a- Genomics
b- Proteinomics
Ans: b- Proteinomics
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-28

33. Regarding Triacylglycerol metabolism in adiposite all are true except -
a- Storage from of lipid of body
b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
c- Glycerol kinase is enzyme involved
d- Dihydoxyacetone
Ans: b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-209

34. About oxygenase all are true except -
a- Incorporate 1 atom of O2 molecule
b- Incorporate both atom of O2 molecule
c- Required for reactions like hydroxylation of steroid
d- Required for carboxylation of drugs
Ans: d- Required for carboxylation of drugs
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-96, 97

35. All are true for mRNA except -
a- capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 405 ribosome.
b- In eukaryote is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation.
c- The 1st aminoacid is methionine
d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.
Ans: d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.
Ref: Lippincott Biochemistry p-429, 435, 401

36. The ‘C’ terminal of Adrogen receptor is essential for -
a- Ligand binding site
b- Target binding site
c- Transcription efficacy.
Ans: a- Ligand binding site
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-477

37. The function of 2,4 DNP is -
a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain
b- Inhibits transport of ADP
Ans: a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain
Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-107

38. Blackening of urine occurs in -
a- Maple syrup urine disease
b- Alkaptonuria
c- Phenyl ketonuria
d- Isovalanic academia
Ans: b- Alkaptonuria
Ref: Ghai 6th p-610

PHYSIOLOGY
39. Clotting factor present in both plasma and serum is-
a- Factor VIII
b- Thrombin
c- Factor V
d- Factor VII
Ans: d- Factor VII
Ref: Ganong/22nd/539

40. True about cardiac muscle re all except -
a- Have multiple nuclei
b- Have gap junctions
c- Syncytium
d- Branched
Ans: a- Have multiple nuclei
Ref: Ganong/22nd/78

41. In EEG, Delta wave is seen in -
a- Deep sleep
b- 1st stage sleep
c- Arousal
Ans: a- Deep sleep
Ref: Ganong/23rd/194, 195

42. Conversion of short term memory into long term memory occurs in
a- Frontal cortex
b- Hippocampus
c- Amygdala
d- Hypothalmus
Ans: b- Hippocampus
Ref: Internal Medicine 16th/2394

43. Which of the following statement about small intestinal motility is not true?
a- Abdominal distention increases motility
b- Independent of stomach motility
c- Acetylcholine increases small intestinal motility
d- CCK increases small intestinal motility
Ans: b- Independent of stomach motility
Ref: Ganong/22nd/481, 485, 486

45. Enzyme not stable at acidic pH is all except -
a- Trypsin
b- Chymotrypsine
c- Pepsin
d- Carboxypeptidase
Ans: c- Pepsin
Ref: Ganong/22nd/468, 471

46. Which of the following hormone in not secreted by kidney?
a- Renin
b- Angiotensin I
c- 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
d- Erythropoietin
Ans; b- Angiotensin I
Ref: Ganong/22nd/454

47. A granular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of -
a- Vitamin
b- Lipid
c- Protein
d- Carbohydrate
Ans: b- Lipid
Ref: Ganong/22nd/18

48. Botulinum toxin involve all of the following except -
a- Neuro : Muscular Junction
b- Postganglionic parasympathetic ganglia
c- Peripheral ganglia
d- CNS
Ans: d- CNS
Ref: Ganong/22nd/87

49. Site of RBC formation in adult is -
a- Long bones
b- Flat bones
c- Liver
d- Spleen
Ans: b- Flat bones
Ref: Ganong/22nd/515

50. Papez circuit in limbic system involve -
a- Anterior thalamic nuclei
b- Pulvinar nuclei
c- Anterior hypothalamic nuclei
d- Interlaminar nuclei
Ans: a- Anterior thalamic nuclei
Ref: Ganong/22nd/256

51. In the process of learning and memory all of the following are true except -
a- It involves change in the level of nmeurotransmitter at synapse
b- There is proliferation of neurone
Ans: b- There is proliferation of neurone
Ref: Ganong/22nd/270, 269, Harrison 16th/2395

52. Brocas area is involved in -
a- Word formation
b- Word interpretation
Ans: a- Word formation
Ref: Ganong/22nd/273

PATHOLOGY
53. FAB L3 refers to -
a- Pre B ALL
b- T cell ALL
c- B cell ALL
d- Mixed AL
Ans: c- B cell ALL
Ref: Harrison/16th/642

54. Tumor marker for Paget’s disease of the breast is -
a- HMB 45
b- CEA
c- S100
d- 1 Synaptophysine
Ans; b- CEA

55. Autosomal recessive trait seen in child, despite normal parent is due to -
a- Uniparetal Disomy
b- Mosaicism
c- Maternal Inheritence
Ans; a- Uniparetal Disomy
Ref: Nelson /17th/389

56. Basement membrane damage is mediated by -
a- Oxidase
b- Metalloproteinase
c- Hydroxylase
Ans: b- Metalloproteinase
Ref: Internet References, Basis/7th/111

57. Absolute indication for Bone Marrow biopsy -
a- Hairy cell leukemia
b- Acute leukemia
c- Megaloblastic anemia
d- Gaucher’s disease
Ans; b- Acute leukemia
Ref: Clinical diagnosis and management by John Bernard Henry/20th/541

58. For diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis which of the following test is done -
a- kidney biopsy
b- Rectal biopsy
c- Skin biopsy
d- Electrophoresis
Ans: b- Rectal biopsy
Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/264

59. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in -
a- T cell lymphoma
b- B cell lymphoma
c- AML
d- ALL
Ans: b- B cell lymphoma
Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/673, 674

60. The mode inheritance reflected by the given pedigree is -
a- Autosomal dominant
b- Mitochondrial
c- Autosomal recessive
d- X-linked dominant
Ans: b- Mitochondrial
Ref: Harrison/16th/374-375

61. Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury in electron microscopy?
a- Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum
b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria
c- Disaggregation of ribosome
d- Damage to cell membranes
Ans: b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria
Ref; Robbins/6th/9

62. Virus laden cell is specifically killed by -
a- T cell
b- Neutrophil
c- Complement
d- NK cell
Ans: d- NK cell
Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/201, 198

ENT
63. Brown’s sign is seen in -
a- Acoustic Neuroma
b- Otosclerosis
c- Meinier’s disease
d- Glomus juglarae
Ans: d- Glomus juglarae
Ref: Dhingra/3rd/139

64. Which one of the following is the commonest site involved in CSF rhinorrhoea?
a- Ethmoid bone
b- Frontal sinus
c- Petrous part of temporal bone
d- Sphenoidal sinus
Ans: a- Ethmoid bone
Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202, CSDT - 11th p - 983

65. About rhinophyma true statement is -
a- Due to involvement of sweat gland
b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland
Ans: b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland
Ref: Dhingra/3rd/177

66. In trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth cranial nerve. Which is true?
a- Longitudinal fracture
b- Transverse Fracture
c- Always associated with CSF leak
d- The paralysis of VIIth cranial nerve is always complete
Ans; b- Transverse Fracture
Ref: Dhingra ENT - 139

67. Earliest nerve affected in Acoustic neuroma is -
a- CN VII
b- CN X
c- CN V
d- CN IX
Ans: c- CN V

68. Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except-
a- Palatal paralysis
b- Adenoid
c- Allergic rhinitis
d- Nasal polyp
Ans: a- Palatal paralysis
Ref: Dhingra/3rd/380

69. In the case of temporal bone fracture the investigation of choice will be -
a- MRI
b- Ct Scan
c- Plane X-ray lateral view
Ans: b- CT scan
Ref: Dhingra ENT - 3rd, Harrison - 16th p - 2448-9

EYE
70. Cherry red spot is found in all of the following except -
a- Nimen Pick’s disease
b- GMI gangliosidosis
c- Krabbe’s disease
d- Multiple sulfatase deficiency
Ans: c- Krabbe’s disease
Ref: Basak/3rd/242

71. Which one of the following retinal disease is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant trait?
a- Bardet - biedle syndrome
b- Gyrate atrophy
c- Best disease
d- Bassen Kornzweig syndrome
Ans: c- Best disease
Ref: Rudolph’s pediatrics/21st/26, 21, 9

72. Absence of lamina cribrosa occurs in:
a- Optic nerve hypoplasia/agenesis
b- Morning glory syndrome
c- Drusen
d- Non opthalmia
Ans: b- Morning glory syndrome
Ref: Basak/3rd/262

73. Cat eye syndrome is -
a- Partial Trisomy 21
B- Partial Trisomy 18
c- Partial Trisomy 13
d- Partial Trisomy 22
Ans: d- Partial Trisomy 22
Ref: www.webmet.com/hw/vision

74. Childhood blindness is associated with all except:
a- Glaucoma
b- Opthalmia neonatorum
c- Malnutrition
d- Congenital dacryocystitis
Ans: d- Congenital dacryocystitis
Ref: Khurana/3rd/342, 425, CPDT 17th/ch-15

75. SAFE strategy for Trachoma includes all of the following except
a- Screening
b- Antibiotics
c- Face wash
d- Environmental improvement
Ans: a- Screening
Ref: Basak/3rd/370

76. Which of the following does not handle free radicle in lens?
a- Vitamin A
b- Vitamin B
c- Vitamin C
d- Catalase
Ans: d- Catalase
Ref: Internet and Parson/275

77. All statements are true about pailloedema except:
a- Collection of extracellular fluid
b- Disruption of neurofilament
c- Stasis of axoplasmic transport
d- Swelling of the axom
Ans: b- Disruption of neurofilament
Ref: Khurana/3rd/285, Parson 19th/367, Harrison 16th.

78. A child presents with unilateral proptosis which was compressible and increased on bending forward. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows retroorbital mass with enhancement with echogenic shadows. What is the most probable condition?
a- Orbital AV malformation
b- Orbital Varix
c- Orbital encephalocele
d- Neurofibromatosis
Ans: b- Orbital Varix
Ref: Basak/3rd/284-5

SKIN
79. Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is mot true?
a- It is the most common skin lymphoma
b- Pautriers micro abscesses are common
c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis
d- It presents with diffuse erythroderma
Ans: c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis
Ref: Harrison 16th/653, Robbins 6th/1191

80. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is:
a- Air borne contact dermatitis
b- Atopic dermatitis
c- Seborrhic dermatitis
d- Infectious exzematoid dermatitis
Ans: b- Atopic dermatitis
Ref: Harrison 16th/288

81. Pityriasis rosea is a -
a- chronic relapsing disease
b- It is an autoimmune disease
c- Caused by dermatophytes
d- Self resolving
Ans: d- Self resolving
Ref: Harrison 16th/292

FMT
82. Spalding sign is seen in -
a- Putrefaction
b- Saponification
c- Maceration
d- Mummification
Ans: c- Maceration
Ref: Reddy/23rd

83. Mercury causes Nephrotoxicity by involving -
a- DCT
b- PCT
c- Loop of Henle
d- Collecting duct
Ans: b- PCT
Ref: Reddy/23rd/451

84. Burtonian line is seen in -
a- Mercury poisoning
b- Lead poisoning
c- Copper poisoning
d- Arsenic poisoning
Ans: b- Lead poisoning
Ref: Reddy/23rd/473

85. Acrodynia is seen in the poisoning of -
a- Lead poisoning
b- Arsenic poisoning
c- Mercury poisoning
d- Phenol poisoning
Ans: c- Mercury poisoning
Ref: Reddy/23rd/451

86. All of the following are arylsulphate except -
a- Parathione
b- Malathione
c- TIK-20
d- Folidol
Ans: b- Malathione
Ref: Reddy/20th ed./436



ORTHOPAEDICS
87. Epiphyseal tumor is -
a- Osteoclastoma
b- Chondromyxoid fibroma
c- Osteosarcoma
d- Ewing sarcoma
Ans: a- Osteoclastoma
Ref: Maheswary

88. About posterior cruciate ligment true statement is -
a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia
b- Attaches to lateral femoral condyle
c- Intra Synovial
d- Inserted on medial side of medial femoral condyle
Ans: a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia
Ref: Oxford textbook of surgery/2nd /46.

89. A 15yrs old boy presented with mass in lower femur, which on X-ray was found to have Codman’s triangle and surgery appearance. the diagnosis is:
a- Ewing’s Tumour
b- Osteosarcoma
c- Osteoclastoma
d- Osteomyelitis
Ans: b- Osteosarcoma
Ref: Maheswary 2nd

90. Claw hand is caused by lesion of-
a- Ulner nerve
b- Median nerve
c- Axillary nerve
d- Radial nerve
Ans: a- Ulner nerve

91. Meralgia paraesthetica is due to involvement of which of the following nerve-
a- Femoral nerve
b- Genitofemoral nerve
c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d- Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
Ans: c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

92. Most common type of injury to spinal cord is-
a- Flexon
b- Extension
c- Compression
d- Flexon rotation
Ans: a- Flexon
Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144

93. Tube (Cyllinder) cast is applied for the fracture of -
a- Shoulder
b- Hip
c- Pelvis
d- Knee
Ans: d- Knee
Ref: Maheswary 2nd/13

94. Which of the following is not true case of congenital tortiocollis?
a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery
b- It can disappear spontaneously
c- It is also known as Sternomastoid tumour
d- Untreated, neglected cases can result in plagiocephaly
Ans: a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery
Ref: Maheswary 3rd/272

95. Osteoarthritis of knee involves:
a- Hamstring
b- Quadriceps
c- Both A & B
d- Gestrocneimius
Ans: b- Quadriceps
Ref: Internal References

96. Bohler angle measurement gives the reference for:
a- calcaneum
b- Talus
c- Navicular
d- Cuboid
Ans: a- calcaneum
Ref: Internet

97. Burst Fracture of spine is a -
a- Compression Fracture
b- Extension injury
c- Direct injury
Ans: a- Compression Fracture
Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144

98. All of the following investigations are needed for the diagnosis of osteosarcoma, except:
a- MRI of femur
b- Bone marrow biopsy
c- Bone scan
d- CT chest
Ans: b- Bone marrow biopsy
Ref: Harrison/16th/561

99. Indicators of bone formation includes all of the following except:
a- Osteocalcin
b- Alkaline phosphatase
c- Hydroxyprolin
d- Bone scan
Ans: c- Hydroxyprolin
Ref; Internal Medicine p-2281



PAEDIATRICS
100. CSF picture in tubercular meningitis is -
a- Increased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma
b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
c- Decreased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma
d- Decreased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
Ans: b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma
Ref: Nelson 17th

101. What is pentalogy of Fallot?
a- TOF with PDA
b- TOF with ASD
c- TOF with CoA
Ans: b- TOF with ASD
Ref: Nelson 17th, Stemann Dictionary 26th/1322

102. Commonest childhood malignancy is -
a- Leukemia
b- Lymphoma
c- Neuroblastoma
d- Wilm’s tumor
Ans: a- Leukemia
Ref: Ghai 6th

103. A one year old child with bronchial asthma. The treatment given for prophylaxis:
a- Theophyllin (long acting)
b- Oral ketotifen
c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist
d- Oral leukotrience receptor antagonist
Ans: c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist
Ref: Ghai 6th/356-357

104. Moro reflux disappear at -
a- 5 months
b- 3 months
c- 7 months
d- 6 months
Ans: d- 6 months
Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979

105. Which of the following appears 1st in child?
a- Creeping
b- Crawling
c- Mirror play
d- Pincer grasp
Ans: c- Mirror play
Ref: Ghai 6th/44

106. A 6yrs old child with an IQ50 So, can do which of the following task-
a- Draw a triangle
b- Recognise colours
c- Ride a bicycle
d- Read a sentence
Ans: b- Recognise colours
Ref: Ghai 6th/46-47.

107. All of the following are true about Kawasaki disease except-
a- Purulent conjunctivitis
b- Swelling of limb
c- Rash
d- Fever
Ans: a- Purulent conjunctivitis
Ref: Ghai 6th/586

108. All of the following reflexes are present at birth except-
a- Rooting reflex
b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex
c- Asymmetrical neck reflex
d- Crossed extensor reflex
Ans: b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex
Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979

109. A premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered. The baby had a bullous lesion on the baby and x-ray showed periostitis what will be the next diagnostic procedure-
a- VDRL of mother and baby
b- ELISA for HIV
c- PCR for Herpes
d- HBsAg for mother
Ans: a- VDRL of mother and baby
Ref; CMDT- 17th/ch-38

110. All of the following is associated with good prognosis in childhood leukemia except -
a- Common ALL subtype
b- Precursor B cell ALL
c- Hyperdiploidy
d- Female gender
Ans: b- Precursor B cell ALL
Ref: Ghai 6th/562, Nelson/17th/1696, Basis Pathology 7th/673.

111. The commonest organism responsible for meningitis in 1 year old child is -
a- Listeria
b- E. coli
c- H. Influenza
d- Type B pneumococcus
Ans: d- Type B pneumococcus > c- H. Influenza
Ref: Nelson/17th/2038

112. Tuberculoid is seen in -
a- Lupus vulgaris
b- Lichen secrofulosorum
c- Lupus Serofulocium
d- Lupus
Ans: b- Lichen secrofulosorum
Ref: Nelson/17th/2229.

113. Seizures and Jitteriness can be differentiated by all except -
a- Gaze
b- Autonomic disturbance
c- Sensitivity to stimulus
d- Frequency of movements
Ans: d- Frequency of movements
Ref: Nelson/17th/2021,
Paediatric neurology by Fenichel 4th/p-4

114. A newborn has congestive heart failure, not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit o auscultation on trans fontanelle USG a hypo echoic midline mass in seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is:
a- Vein of galen malformation
b- Medulloblastoma
c- Arachnoid cyst
d- Encephalocele
Ans: a- Vein of galen malformation
Ref: Nelson/17th/2037.

115. The most common cause of short stature is -
a- Constitutional delay
b- Growth hormone deficiency
c- Cretinism
Ans: a- Constitutional delay
Ref: Nelson/17th/1851.

116. A child has started mouthing objects, shows likes and dislikes and not yet developed stanger anxiety. The age of child is -
a- 3 month
b- 5 months
c- 7 months
d- 9 moths
Ans: b- 5 months
Ref: Nelson/17th/36, Ghai- 6th/51

117. A child with one week history of URTI, presents with stridor, which decreases on lying position. What is your diagnosis?
a- Acute epiglottitis
b- Laryngotracheobronchitis
c- Retropharyngeal abscess
d- Foreign body in larynx
Ans: b- Laryngotracheobronchitis
Ref: Nelson/17th/1406, Ghai- 6th/340.




PSM
118. All of the following diseases are spread by louse as a vector except:
a- Relapsing fever
b- Q fever
c- Epidemic typhus
d- Trench fever
Ans: b- Q fever
Ref: Perk- 18th/239

119. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of the chlorine demand of water?
a- Chlorometer
b- Horrock’s apparatus
c- Berkfeld filter
d- Double pot method
Ans: b- Horrock’s apparatus
Ref: Perk- 18th/528, 540

120. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except:
a- Typhoid
b- Measles
c- Hepatitis B
d- Gonorrhoea
Ans: b- Measles
Ref: Perk- 18th/125

121. OCP is useful is all except:
a- Ectopic pregnancy
b- Ca Endometrium
c- Ca breast
d- Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: c- Ca breast
Ref: Perk- 18th/369, Shaw - 13th/226-7

122. Which ICUD lasts for 10 years?
a- Cu-T-380-A
b- Cu-220 c
c- Nava T
d- Progestasert
Ans: a- Cu-T-380-A
Ref: Perk- 18th/363.

123. All of the following indicators are included in physical quality of life index (PQLI) except-
a- Infant mortality rate
b- Literacy rate
c- Per capita income
d- Life expectancy at age one
Ans: c- Per capita income
Ref: Perk- 18th/16.

124. Case finding in RNTCP is based on -
a- Sputum culture
b- Sputum microscopy
c- X-ray chest
d- Mantoux test/PCR
Ans: b- Sputum microscopy
Ref: Perk- 18th/160.

125. The followings statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except:
a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD
b- The pregnancy rate of lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar
c- IUD can be used for emergency contraception with in 5 days
d- Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 year
Ans: a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD
Ref: Perk- 18th/363, Perk- 17th/340.

126. Incineration is not done for -
a- Waste sharps
b- Human waste
c- Cytotoxic waste
d- Solid waste
Ans: a- Waste sharps
Ref: Perk- 18th/596

127. Which of the following is the “Least common†complication of measles?
a- Diarrhoea
b- Pneumonia
c- Otitis media
d- SSPE
Ans: d- SSPE
Ref: Perk- 18th/126, CDMT/2006/1363


128. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know-
a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
b- Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
c- Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d- Relative risk of SLE in this patient
Ans: a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
Ref: Harrison - 15th/500.

129. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in -
a- Cause of death
b- Numerators
c- Age distributions
d- Denominators
Ans: c- Age distributions
Ref: Perk- 18th/53-4

130. Leprosy affects all except-
a- uterus
b- Ovary
c- Eye
d- Nerves
Ans: b- Ovary/a- uterus
Ref: Harrison - 16th/966.

131. For prevention of tetanus neonatorum, all of the following are effective, except:
a- Give 2 doses of TT pregnant woman
b- Immunize all woman of reproductive age group with 2 doses of TT
c- Give penicillin to neonate
d- Practicise 5 cleans
Ans: c- Give penicillin to neonate
Ref: Perk- 18th/25.

132. In comparison to cow milk, which one of the following is more in human milk?
a- Lactose
b- Protein
c- Minerals
d- Iron
Ans: a- Lactose
Ref: Perk- 18th/455

133. Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI, schedule -
a- Tetanus Toxoid
b- DPT
c- MMR
d- DT
Ans: c- MMR
Ref: Perk- 18th/103.

134. For obesity BMI should be -
a- >=20
b- >=50
c- >=40
d- >=30
Ans: d- >=30
Ref: Perk- 18th/317, Ghai- 6th/p-481, Harrison 16th/426.

135. A diagnosed patient with boarder line tuberculoid leprosy presented with severe neuritis. The treatment prescribed to him should be-
a- MDT
b- MDT with corticosteroid
c- Corticosteroid
d- Antibiotic
Ans: b- MDT with corticosteroid
Ref: Perk- 18th/261.

136. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to -
a- Facilitate double binding
b- Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
c- Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
Ans: d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
Ref: Perk- 18th/76.

137. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of-
a- Incidence rate
b- Relative risk
c- Attributable risk
d- Absolute risk
Ans: c- Attributable risk
Ref: Perk- 18th/72.

138. During Rubella vaccination, 1st priority is given to -
a- All child
b- 15-39 year old female
c- Adolescent girl
d- Pregnant woman
Ans: b- 15-39 year old female
Ref: Perk- 18th/129.

139. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated acids are -
a- groundnut oil
b- Soyabean oil
c- Margarine oil
d- Palm oil
Ans: b- Soyabean oil
Ref: Perk- 18th/440.

140. True of BCG vaccination in all except:
a- Uses Danish 1331 strain
b- Distilled water is used as diluent
c- Spirit is used for cleaning the skin
Ans: b- Distilled water is used as diluent
Ref: Perk- 18th/157.

141. Not true about lepromine test is -
a- Helps in classification of leprosy
b- Negative in most of the child in 1st 6 month of line
c- It is a diagnostic test
d- BDG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
Ans: c- It is a diagnostic test
Ref: Perk- 18th/258, 158.

142. Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status in child?
a- Body weight
b- Mid arm circumference
c- Weight for linear height
Ans: c- Weight for linear height
Ref: Perk- 18th/402.

143. About herd immunity, all are true except:
a- Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
b- Influenced by immunization
c- Depends on the presence of alternative host
d- Herd immunity is constant
Ans: d- Herd immunity is constant
Ref: Perk- 18th/95.

144. Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied it represents
a- Nominal scale
b- Ordinal scale
c- Interval scale
d- Ratio scale
Ans: b- Ordinal scale
Ref: High yield Biostatics by Anthony N. Glaser/1st ed. pg-5.

145. Two drugs were given to two subsets of population and the response was noted as cured and not cured. From the data given below:

Drugs Cured Not cured
A 510 100
B 110 50
Total 620 150
Which study design is more suitable?
a- Student T test
b- Paired T test
c- Chi square test
d- Bland and Altman test
Ans: c- Chi square test
Ref: NMS Biostat - p-59, B K Mahajan - 6th/130.

146. True about cluster sampling is all except;
a- Sample size is same as SRS
b- Rapid method
c- It is independent of the result
d- It is done for evaluating the immunization status
Ans: a- Sample size is same as SRS
Ref: B K Mahajan - 6th/100, 101.

MICROBIOLOGY
147. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for at least one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he developed spikes of fever, and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism is-
a- Stap. Aureus
b- Viridans streptococci
c- Enterococcus faecalis
d- Coagulase negative staph
Ans: c- Enterococcus faecalis
Ref: H/16th/815, 830 & Panikar/7th/216

148. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of beta hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
a- Bacitracin
b- Novobiocin
c- Optochin
d- Oxacillin
Ans: a- Bacitracin
Ref: Panikar/7th/216

149. Which one of the following statement is true?
a- Solid media are enrichment media
b- Nutrient broth is a basal media
c- Agar add nutrient to the media
d- Chocolate agar is a selective media
Ans: b- Nutrient broth is a basal media
Ref: Panikar/7th/34 to 38.

150. With reference to bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:
a- B. fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
b- B. fragilis is not uniformally sensitive to Metronidazole
c- The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia
Ans: d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia
Ref: Harrison 16th/944, 940

151. A person working in a abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which later turned into ulcer. Which stain will help to demonstrate the organism smear made from the pustule?
a- Polychrome Methylene blue
b- Carbol Fuschin
c- PAS
d- Modified kinyoun stain
Ans: a- Polychrome Methylene blue
Ref: Harrison 16th, Panikar/7th/226

152. Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia?
a- Has biphasic life
b- Elementary body is metabolically active
c- Reticulate body undergo binary fission
d- Once it invades into the cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
Ans: b- Elementary body is metabolically active
Ref: Jawetz Microbiology

153. Negri body is seen in -
a- CMV
b- Rabies
c- Inclusion of herpes simplex
d- EBV
Ans: b- Rabies
Ref: Jawetz 22nd/495

154. About vibryo cholera all statements are true except:
a- Non-halophilic
b- Can grow in ordinary media
c- Can survive outside the intestine
d- Man is the only reservoir of cholera infection
Ans: b- Can grow in ordinary media
Ref: Harrison 16th/909

155. Not true about vibryo O139 is-
a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo
b- Was 1st isolated in Chennai?
c- Has ‘O’ polysaccharide capsule
d- Antibody to Vibrio cholera is not protective against O139
Ans: a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo
Ref: Harrison 16th /910, Panikar/6th/285

156. About Chlamydia Psittaci, all are true except:
a- Caused by Parrot
b- Causes Pneumonitis
c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)
d- Tetracyclin is drug of choice
Ans: c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)
Ref: Harrison 16th /763, Panikar/6th/395

157. True about Endemic typhus is -
a- Man is the only reservoir
b- Flea is a vector
c- Rash develops into eschar
d- Culture is a diagnostic modality
Ans: b- Flea is a vector
Ref: Perk- 18th/240, Panikar/6th/383

158. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive shows growth of a hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
a- Bacitracin
b- Novobiocin
c- Optochin
d- Oxacillin
Ans: c- Optochin
Ref: Panikar/7th/216

159. BCYC is used for separation of -
a- Streptococcus
b- Listeria
c- Legionella
d- Leptospira
Ans: c- Legionella
Ref: Jawetz 22nd/270

160. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by-
a- Microaerophilic streptococcus
b- Streptococcus viridans
c- Streptococcus pyogenes
d- Peptostreptococcus
Ans: a- Microaerophilic streptococcus
Ref: Internet

161. When urine is heated to 45 centigrade, a precipitate is formed, when further heated to 80 centigrade, the precipitate starts dissolving again. The precipitate reforms on cooling is -
a- albumin
b- Bence-Jones protein
c- Presence of phosphate in urine
Ans: b- Bence-Jones protein
Ref: Panikar/6th/85

162. Which complement is involved in common pathway of complement activation?
a- C4
b- C3
c- C5
d- Properdin B
Ans: b- C3
Ref: Harrison 16th /1915, Panikar/6th/104
25.05.2007
PSYCHIATRY
163. The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder is -
a- Olanzepin
b- Fluoxetin
c- Haloperidol
d- Thioridazine
Ans: b- Fluoxetin
Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 100, Kaplan - 7th p-209

164. Delusion is a disorder of -
a- Thought
b- Perception
c- Insight
d- Cognition
Ans: a- Thought
Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-86

165. Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawl is -
a- Bodyache
b- Tremor
c- Diarrhoea
d- Rhinorrhoea
Ans: b- Tremor
Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 40, Kaplan - 7th p-84


166. All of the following are included in diagnosis of Bipolar disorder-
a- Mania alone
b- Depression alone
c- Mania and depression
d- Mania and anxiety
Ans: b- Depression alone
Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-74, Harrison /16th/2556

167. Most common substance of abuse in India -
a- cannabis
b- Tobacco
c- Alcohol
Ans: a- cannabis
Ref: Perk 18th/635

168. Naltraxone is used in a case of opoid dependence to
a- Prevent respiratory depression
b- To treat withdrawl symptom
c- To prevent relapse
d- To treat overdose of opoid
Ans: c- To prevent relapse
Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-46, KDT-4th/448

PHARMACOLOGY

169. All of the following antiepileptic drug act via Na+ channel, except
a- Vigabatrin
b- Topiramate
c- Valporoate
d- Phenetoin
Ans: a- Vigabatrin
Ref: Katjung 9th/387

170. All of the following are Alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy-
a- Chlorambucil
b- Melphalan
c- 5 FU
d- Cyclophosphamide
Ans: c- 5 FU
Ref: Harrison /16th/471

171. Neseritide is -
a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)
b- ANP
c- has long half life
Ans: a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)
Ref: Katjung 9th/209

172. A child is on b2 agonist for treatment of asthma. He may have all of the following side effect, except:
a- Tremor
b- Tachycardia
c- Hyperkalemia
d- Hypokalemia
Ans: c- Hyperkalemia
Ref: Katjung 9th/325.

173. All of the following insulin preparation are short acting except
a- Insulin lispro
b- Insulin aspart
c- Insulin glargine
d- Lente insulin
Ans: c- Insulin glargine
Ref: Katjung 9th/699

174. Which of the following is a side effect of b2 agonist?
a- Hypoglycemia
b- Hypomagnesemia
c- Hypophosphatemia
d- Hypokalemia
Ans: d- Hypokalemia
Ref: Katjung 9th/325, Harrison /16th/476, 561

175. High dose Methotrexate is given in -
a- Osteosarcoma
b- Chondrosarcoma
c- Ewing’s sarcoma
d- Retinoblastoma
Ans: a- Osteosarcoma
Ref: Katjung 9th/907, Harrison /16th/476, 561

176. Which of the following drug is not used in erectile dysfunction -
a- PGE 1
b- Apomorphine
c- Phenylephrine
d- Valadalafil
Ans: c- Phenylephrine
Ref: Katjung 9th/189

178. Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH is -
a- Cyclophosphamide
b- Vincristine
c- Visblastine
d- D-carbazine
Ans: b- Vincristine
Ref: Harrison /16th/2102

179. Which one of the following anticancer drugs causes hypercoagulability syndrome?
a- Carbomustine
b- 5FU
c- L-asparaginase
d- Melphalan
Ans: c- L-asparaginase
Ref: Katjung 9th/905

180. Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is -
a- Zidovudine
b- Lamivudine
c- Stavudine
d- Didanosine
Ans: d- Didanosine
Ref: Katjung 9th, Harrison /16th/2505, 1128

181. Which one of the following antiplatelet is a prodrug -
a- Aspirin
b- Dipyridamol
c- Ticlopidine
d- Clopidogrel
Ans: c- Ticlopidine
Ref: KDT 4th pg-21, Goodman-Gillman 10th p-1535

182. Filgrastim is used in -
a- Neutropenia
b- Malaria
c- Anemia
d- Filaria
Ans: a- Neutropenia
Ref: Katjung 9th /539

183. Finasteride acts by -
a- Alpha blockade
b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition
c- Selective alpha blockade
d- Acts by blocking androgen receptor
Ans: b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition
Ref: Katjung Pharmacology 9th/1030, 146

184. True about Heparin is all except -
a- Causes Alopecia
b- Acts through AT III
c- Increased Lipoprotein lipase
d- Causes Hypokalemia
Ans: d- Causes Hypokalemia
Ref: Katjung 9th/545-548, Harrison /16th/261

185. Which antitubercular drug is responsible for imparting orange colour to urine =
a- Rifampicin
b- Pyrazinamide
c- Ethambutol
d- Isoniazid
Ans: a- Rifampicin
Ref: Perk 18th/152

186. All are non-selective b blockers without any additional action except-
a- Carvedilol
b- Betaxolol
c- Carteolol
d- Labetalol
Ans: b- Betaxolol
Ref: Katjung 9th/150

187. Which one of the following is not an antiepileptic -
a- Phenobarbitone
b- Carbamazepine
c- Phenytoin
d- Flunarizine
Ans: d- Flunarizine
Ref: Katjung 9th/277

188. True about octreotide -
a- Is active orally
b- Is a growth hormone agonist
c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea
Ans: c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea
Ref: Katjung 9th/1048

189. Which of the following acts by hypomethylation -
a- Gemcitabine
b- 5 FU
c- Decitabine
Ans: c- Decitabine
Ref: Harrison /16th/641

190. Antidote for mushroom poisoning is -
a- Neostigmine
b- Physostigmine
c- Amyl Nitrae
d- Atropine
Ans: d- Atropine
Ref: Katjung 9th/117

191. Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal mucosa is-
a- PGE2
b- PGE1
c- PGD2
d- PGI2
Ans: b- PGE1
Ref: Katjung 9th/299

192. A patient presented with pain abdomen, constipation, and blue line on gums. The treatment of choice will be -
a- Desferroxamine
b- Penicillamine
c- BAL
d- Ca EDTA
Ans: d- Ca EDTA
Ref: Katjung 9th/973, Harrison /16th/2578

193. Antipseudomonal antibiotic is -
A- Cipofloxacin
b- Cefaclor
c- Vancomycin
Ans: A- Cipofloxacin
Ref: Katjung 9th/884, Harrison /16th/838


194. A patient on aspirin will have -
a- Increased PT
b- Increased aPTT
c- Increased BT
d- Increased Thrombine time
Ans: c- Increased BT
c- Coronary heart disease

195. All are true about clonidine, except -
a- Causes dry mouth
b- Prazosine antagonizes it action
c- Stimulates parasympathetic outflows
d- Alpha adrenergic agonist
Ans: b- Prazosine antagonizes it action
Ref: Katjung Pharma 9th/166

196. All are true for immunosuppressant except -
a- Tacrolimus inhibits calcinemin pathway
b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase
c- Prednisolone is used inregimen of transplant rejection
d- Sirolimus acts through T cell modification
Ans: b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase
Ref: Katjung 9th/941, 942, 589, 590

197. A child was given leukotrience receptor antagonist for prophylaxis of asthma. The drug is:
a- Monteleukast
b- Zileuton
c- Nedocromil
Ans: a- Monteleukast
Ref: Katjung 9th/330,331

198. All of the following antiplatelet drug acts as GP IIb-IIIa antagonist except -
a- Clopidogrel
b- Abciximab
c- Eptifibatide
d- Trilofiban
Ans: a- Clopidogrel
Ref: Katjung 9th/554, 555




GYNAE AND OBS.

199. Commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding is -
a- Ca cervix
b- Ca endometrium
c- Ca fallopian tube
d- Estrogen use
Ans: b- Ca endometrium
Ref: COGDT- page-920

200. Most common Serotype of HPV associated with invasive cervical carcinoma is -
a- HPV 16
b- HPV 18
c- HPV 32
d- HPV 36
Ans: a- HPV 16
Ref: Harrison /16th/1056, 1057

201. In pregnancy, with hypothyroidism not seen in
a- PIH
b- Preterm
c- Poly hydramnios
d- Recurrent abortions
Ans: c- Poly hydramnios
Ref: DUTTA 6th/290

202. Fibroid causes all of the following except-
a- Menstrual irregularities
b- Amenorrhoea
c- Abdominal lump
d- Infertility
Ans: b- Amenorrhoea
Ref: page - 342 Shaw’s Gynae.

203. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all except -
a- Utero Sacal ligament
b- Broad ligment
c- Pubocervical ligament
d- Mackenrodt ligament
Ans: b- Broad ligment
Ref: BDC 3rd/320

204. Ovarian tumor which most commonly undergoes torsion is -
a- Benign cystic teratoma
b- Dysgerminoma
c- Endomentriod cyst
Ans: a- Benign cystic teratoma
Ref: DUTTA 6th/310

205. Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in -
a- 32 weeks
b- 36 weeks
c- During labour
d- Just after delivery
Ans: d- Just after delivery
Ref: DUTTA 6th/53

206. In Bishop scoring all are included except -
a- Effacement of cervix
b- Dilatation of cervix
c- Descent of head
d- Interspinous diameter
Ans: d- Interspinous diameter
Ref: DUTTA 6th/522

207. Perinatal transmission of hepatitis B in maximum, when infection in mother occurs in -
a- At implantation
b- 1st trimester
c- 2nd trimester
d- 3rd trimester
Ans: d- 3rd trimester
Ref: Dutta OBS. p-292

208. A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for-
a- Maternal PIH
b- Gestational diabetes
c- Thyroid disorder
d- Hypertension
Ans: b- Gestational diabetes
Ref: DUTTA 6th/287, CMDT 2005- p-753.

209. The shape of Nulliparous cervics is -
a- Circular
b- Transverse
c- Longitudanal
d- Fimbriated
Ans: a- Circular
Ref: Shaw’s Gynae. 13th/8

210. Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma is-
a- Lung
b- Liver
c- Vagina
d- Bone
Ans: a- Lung
Ref: Novak’s gyn.

211. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except -
a- Always associated with breech
b- Spontaenous resolution in most cases
c- Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth
d- Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly
Ans: a- Always associated with breech
Ref: DUTTA 6th/486, Nelson/17th/2288.

212. An ovarian cyst was identified in immediate postpartum period, the timing of surgery will be -
a- 2 weeks
b- 6 weeks
c- 8 weeks
d- Immediately
Ans: d- Immediately
Ref: DUTTA 6th/310

213. In sterilization operation (Tubectomy), the site which is commonly preferred is -
a- Ampulla
b- Infundibulum
c- Isthmus
d- Cornua
Ans: c- Isthmus
Ref: DUTTA 6th/553

214. Which of the following the most common cause of persistant trophoblastic disease, after H. Mole is -
a- Invasive mole
b- Choriocarcinoma
c- Placental site trophoblastic tumor
Ans: a- Invasive mole
Ref: Novak’s/13th/1361, 1359

215. In which of the following conditions external cephalic verson is not done -
a- Primigravida
b- PIH
c- Flexed breech
d- Prematurity
Ans: b- PIH
Ref: COGDT-9th page-379

216. In a IUGR baby the Doppler finding which will most significantly predict the intra uterine deaths of the foetus -
a- Reverse diastolic flow
b- Absence of diastolic flow
c- Presence of diastolic flow
d- Decreased diastolic flow
Ans: a- Reverse diastolic flow
Ref: DUTTA 6th/464, 110, 32

217. Caudal regression syndrome is associated with -
a- NIDDM
b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus
Ans: b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus
Ref: COGDT

218. The shape of cervical canal suggesting preterm delivery is -
a- T shaped
b- Y shaped
c- U shaped
d- O shaped
Ans: c- U shaped
Ref: Williams and internet.

219. Technique of aspiration of sperm for invitro fertilization -
a- MESA
b- TESA
c- GIFT
d- ZIFT
Ans: a- MESA
Ref: Internet.


220. Increased fetal Nuchal transluscency at 14 weeks is seen in -
a- Down’s syndrome
b- Esophageal atresia
c- Turner’s syndrome
Ans: a- Down’s syndrome
Ref: DUTTA 6th/645.

MEDICINE

221. Which of the following syndrome is not associated with AML -
a- Tuner’s syndrome
b- Patau’s syndrome
c- Klinfelter’s syndrome
d- Down’s syndrome
Ans: a- Tuner’s syndrome

222. Nevirapine is-
a- NRTI
b- NNRTI
c- Protease inhibitor
d- Fusion inhibitor
Ans: a- NRTI
Ref: Harrison 16th

223. Which amyloid is found in the kidney of patient who have been on long term dialysis-
a- A β2 M
b- AL
c- β2 microglobulin
d- Transthyretin
Ans: c- β2 microglobulin
Ref: H/16th/2024, 2025.

224. All of the following disease have Autosomal dominant mode of inheritance except:
a- Marfan’s syndrome
b- ADPKD
c- Fabry’s disease
d- Huntington’s disease
Ans: c- Fabry’s disease
Ref: H/15th/386

225. HRT is helpful in all except:
a- Vaginal atrophy
b- Flushing
c- Coronary heart disease
d- Carbamazipine
Ans: c- Coronary heart disease
Ref: Harrison’s 16th/30

226. Which Anti-epileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy -
a- Phenobarbitone
b- Phenytoin
c- Valproate
d- Carbamazipine
Ans: a- Phenobarbitone
Ref: CGODT/9th/431

227. Which one of the following is a Leukotrience receptor antagonist-?
a- Zileuton
b- Zafirlukast
c- Fluticasone
Ans: b- Zafirlukast
Ref: Katjung 9th/330-331

228. Erythropoietin is increased in all except-
a- Hepatocellular carcinoma
b- Renal cell carcinoma
c- Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
d- Pancreatic carcinoma
Ans: d- Pancreatic carcinoma
Ref: Harrison 16th/627, H/15th/635.

229. An adult man has an urethral discharge. The gram stain of the discharge does not reveal any organism. Which one of the following culture methods may isolate the organism-?
a- Mc Coy culture
b- Blood agar
c- Chocolate agar
d- Cetrimide agar
Ans: a- Mc Coy culture
Ref: Harrison 16th/764, 1012

230. Reflux Nephropathy with nephritic range proteinuria commonly occurs in a patient with
a- Nodular glomerulosclerosis
b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
c- Membranous glomerulosclerosis
d- Minimum change disease
Ans: b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Ref: Harrison 16th/1686.

231. Which of the following drugs is not useful for MRSA-?
a- Cefaclor
b- Ciprofloxacin
c- Cotrimoxazole
d- Vancomycin
Ans: a- Cefaclor
Ref: Harrison 16th/821, KDT/5th/659.

232. Which bacteria acts by the mechanism of cyclical AMP Activation-
a- CI.Difficile
b- V.Cholerae
c- B.Cereus
d- B.Fragilis
Ans: b- V.Cholerae
Ref: H/16th/755

233. A 45 yrs old male presented with a history of vomiting of 500ml of blood 24 hours back, BP 90/60, Pulse 110bpm, and splenomegaly 5cms below the costal margin. Most probable diagnosis is-
a- Duodenal ulcer
b- Portal hypertension
c- Gastric ulcer
d- Erosive gastritis
Ans: b- Portal hypertension
Ref: Harrison 16th/235 and 1863

234. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes except
a- Contact with infected placenta
b- Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms
c- Person to person transmission
d- Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol
Ans: c- Person to person transmission
Ref: Harrison 16th/914

235. All of the following drugs are used to treat H.Pylori infection except
a- Omeprazole
b- Amoxycillin
c- Oxytetracyclin
d- Bismuth compound
Ans: c- Oxytetracyclin
Ref: Harrison 16th/1754

236. A patient presented with cough and expectroration. The sputum culture shows gram negative organism which grows only on charcoal extract agar. The organism is-
a- Listeria Monocytogenes
b- Legionella
c- M. Catarrhalis
d- B. Psudomallei
Ans: b- Legionella
Ref: Harrison 16th

237. In hereditary spherocytosis, membrane defect occurs due to all except-
a- Glycophorin C
b- Ankyin
c- Band 3 ion exchanged protein
d- Pallidin
Ans: a- Glycophorin C
Ref: Harrison 16th/608, 609.

238. CANCA is directed against -
a- Myeloperoxidase
b- Proteinase 3
c- Lactoferrin
d- Elastase
Ans: b- Proteinase 3
Ref: Harrison 16th/1959

239. Which of the following disease causes decrease in both VC and TLC?
a- Sarcoidosis
b- Cystic fibrosis
c- Bronchial asthma
d- Bronchiactasis
Ans: a- Sarcoidosis
Ref: Internal medicine pg-2023

240. All of the following investigations are done for diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Except-
a- ESR
b- X-ray
c- Bone marrow biopsy
d- Bone scan
Ans: d- Bone scan
Ref: H/16th/

241. Pancytopenia with hypercellular bone marrow is seen in -
a- Thalassemia
b- PNH
c- G-6 PD deficiency
d- Myelodysplasia
Ans: b- PNH
Ref: Harrison 16th/617

242. Which lab. Test is used for Dubin Johnson Syndrome-
a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein
b- Transaminase
c- Gamma glutamyl transferase test
d- Alkaline phosphatase
Ans: a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein
Ref: Internal medicine II pg-1820.

243. Not seen in raised ICT -
a- Headache
b- Visual blurring
c- Abducent nerve palsy
d- Paraparesis
Ans: d- Paraparesis
Ref: Internal medicine pg-1632/1633

244. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adult is -
a- SLE
b- Wegner’s granulomatosis
c- Amyloidosis
d- Diabetes mellitus
Ans: d- Diabetes mellitus
Ref: Internal medicine pg-1684.

245. The following electrolyte abnormality will be found in a patient of chronic renal failure except -
a- Hypocalcemia
b- Hypophosphatemia
c- Increased BUN
d- Hyperkalemia
Ans: b- Hypophosphatemia
Ref: Harrison 16th/1655/1656.

246. Drug used in obesity are all except:
a- Sibutramine
b- Oralistat
c- Neuropeptide Y analog
d- Olestra
Ans: c- Neuropeptide Y analog
Ref: H/16th /249, Katjung /238.

247. All are true about Raynaund’s disease except:
a- Good Prognosis
b- More in female
c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive
d- Raynound’s phenomenon test is positive
Ans: c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive
Ref: Harrison 16th/1489.

248. Non specific esterase is seen in all except:
a- AML M3
b- AML M4
b- AML M5
d- AML M6
Ans: d- AML M6
Ref: Internal references, www.Pubmed.com , Wintrobes hematology/2064.

249. Anaphylactic reaction or immediated hypersensitivity is mediated by-
a- IgG
b- IgE
c- IgM
d- IgA
Ans: b- IgE

250. About Arthus reaction true is -
a- A delayed type hypersensitivity
b- A systemic immune complex
c- A localized immune complex deposition disease
d- Mediated by antibody
Ans: c- A localized immune complex deposition disease

251. Not involved in entrapment neuropathy as -
a- Ulnar
b- Median
c- Femoral
d- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Ans: c- Femoral
Ref: Harrison 16th/2499, Maheswari/2nd/257.

252. About S4 (4th heart sound), true statement is -
a- Can be heard by unaided ear
b- More than 20 Hz
c- Heard during ventricular filling phase
d- Heard during ventricular ejection phase
Ans: c- Heard during ventricular filling phase
Ref: Joules constant /5th/198, H/16th/1308.

253. A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA antihuman tissue transglutaminase, and IgA antiendomysial antibody. What should be the next step?
a- Rectal biopsy
b- A trial of guiten free diet
c- Colonoscopy
d- Trial of proton pump inhibitors
Ans: b- A trial of guiten free diet
Ref: Harrison 16th/1770/1771.

254. Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome is -
a- Octreotide
b- Gastrectomy
c- H2 blocker
d- Protein pump inhibitor
Ans: d- Protein pump inhibitor
Ref: Harrisons

255. Cardiomyopathy is seen in all except
a- Fredrich’s ataxia
b- Duchene muscular dystrophy
c- Lowe syndrome
d- Type II glycogen storage disease
Ans: c- Lowe syndrome
Ref: Harrison 16th/1408.

256. All of the following are features of pontine hemorrhage except
a- Quadriparesis
b- Pinpoint pupil
c- Hyperpyrexia
d- Involvement of vagus nerve
Ans: d- Involvement of vagus nerve
Ref: Harrison 16th/1630.

257. Which of the following statements is true about high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)?
a- Not exacerbated by exercise
b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction
c- Occurs only in unacclimatized person
d- Leads to low cardiac output
Ans: b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction
Ref: Harrison 16th

258. In acute hemorrhage not seen is -
a- Increased reticulocyte count
b- Increased PCV
c- Increased MCV
d- Thrombocytosis
Ans: c- Increased MCV
Ref: Basis/7th/624.

259. Changes seen in CCF is all except:
a- Increased right atrial pressure
b- Edema
c- Increased serum sodium level
Ans: c- Increased serum sodium level
Ref: Internal medicine pg-256.

260. Finding in DIC, includes all except -
a- Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombine III, increased Thrombine-antithrombine complex
b- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Increased Thrombine-Antithrombine complex
c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III
d- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Decreased platelet
Ans: c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III
Ref: Internal medicine pg-684.

261. About Benedict’s syndrome, all are true except:
a- Causes 3rd CN palsy
b- Involve penetrating branches of basilar artery
c- Involve pons
d- Contralateral athetosis and chorea
Ans: c- Involve pons
Ref: Internal medicine pg-174.

262. A patient with antibodies to DNA is suffering from manifestations of Kidney, liver, skin problems. The probable diagnosis is:
a- Systemic sclerosis
b- Wegner’s granulomatosis
c- SLE
d- Rheumatoid arthritis
Ans: c- SLE
Ref: Harrison 16th/1962, 1963.

263. Regarding Brawn-Sequard syndrome, which is not true -
a- Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
b- Ipsilateral loss of motor power
c- Contralateral posterior column with all except
Ans: c- Contralateral posterior column with all except
Ref: Harrison 16th/144/2440.

264. Bernard solulier syndrome is associated with all except -
a- Increased platelet size
b- Decreased platelet count
c- Normal Ristocetin test
d- Normal ADP, test
Ans: c- Normal Ristocetin test
Ref: Harrison 16th/677-678.

265. Which of the following are a minor Jone’s criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever-?
a- fever
b- Increased ASO titre
c- Throat culture
d- Rheumatic fever
Ans: a- fever
Ref: Harrison 16th/1978.

266. ECG changes in hypokalemia is reflected by -
a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression
b- QT prolongation with T wave inversion
c- ST elevation with T wave inversion
d- QT prolongation with ST depression
Ans: a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression

267. About Millard-Gubler syndrome, all are true except:
a- Vth CN palsy
b- VIth CN palsy
c- VIIth CN palsy
d- Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans: a- Vth CN palsy
Ref: Harrison 16th/175.

268. Iron deficiency anemia is associated with:
a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
b- Decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin
c- Normal TIBC, decreased ferritin
d- Normal TIBC, Increased Ferritin
Ans: a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
Ref: Harrison 16th/588, 590.

269. Drug induced lupus is associated with:
a- Anti RO antibody
b- Anti centromere antibody
c- Anti Mitochondrial antibody
d- Antihistone antibody
Ans: d- Antihistone antibody
Ref: Harrison 16th/1961.

270. The most common type of pancreatic tumor in MEN I patient-
a- Insulinoma
b- Gastrinoma
c- Glucagonoma
Ans: b- Gastrinoma
Ref: Harrison 16th/2231/2232, CMDT - 2005/1154.

271. The test used to confirm H.Pylori eradication after treatment is-
a- Rapid urase test
b- Urea breath test
c- Endoscopic biopsy
d- Stool antigen test/serological test
Ans: b- Urea breath test
Ref: Harrison 16th/1755

272. Which of the following indicates CSF leak?
a- β2 transferrin
b- β protein
c- Dyte test
d- A β transferrine
Ans: a- β2 transferrin
Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202.

273. Which one of the following investigations is done for hyperostosing of bone and joints-?
a- Alkaline phosphatase
b- Calcium
c- Acid phosphatase
d- Phosphorus
Ans: a- Alkaline phosphatase
Ref: Harrison 16th/2283.

274. A 55 yrs old man presents with TLC-1 lakh, lymphocyte - 80%, Prolymphocyte - 20%. Diagnosis is -
a- CLL
b- HIV
c- Tuberculosis
d- Prolymphocytic leukemia
Ans: a- CLL
Ref: CMDT - 44th/492, 1286.

275. In a patient with cardiogenic shock and Anterior wall infarct. The best treatment of choice will be -
a- Angiography with angioplasty
b- Intraaortic Ballon Pumb
c- Dopamine drip
d- Streptokinase
Ans: a- Angiography with angioplasty
Ref: Harrison 16th/1615.

276. A 30yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension, and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased, positive for hepatitis C antibodies. Diagnosis is-
a- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia
c- Lupus Nephritis
d- MPGN
Ans: b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia
Ref: Harrison 16th/2011.

277. All are associated with hypophosphatemia except:
a- Diabetic ketoacidosis
b- Acute renal failure
c- Hyperalimentation
d- Respiratory alkalosis
Ans: b- Acute renal failure
Ref: Harrison 16th/2242, 1652.

278. How will you calculate INR, when the patients PT, controls PT and ISI (1.4) is given?
a- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1.4
b- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1/1.4
c- Patients PT/Calculated means normal PT
Ans: a- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1.4
Ref: Goodman And Gillman 10th/1530.

279. A 30 yrs old man having MR and AF comes with history of syncope and regular pulse of 55 bpm. Most probable cause is-
a- Digoxin toxicity
b- Cerebral infarct
Ans: a- Digoxin toxicity
Ref: Harrison 16th/1394.


SURGERY

280. All of the following statements are true regarding thyroid lymphoma except-
a- Most common in females
b- Slow growing
c- It is difficult to differentiate it from anaplastic carcinoma
d- If it involves the isthamus it may present with respiratory insufficiency
Ans: b- Slow growing
Ref: Bally and Love 24th/802

281. A 50yrs old man with family history of prostate carcinoma wants to undergo screening. The most sensitive test -
a- Digital rectal examination
b- PSA
c- Both a and b
d- Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weiged image
Ans: c- Both a and b
Ref: internal Medicine vol. 1 p-544

282. Prognosis in head injury is best given by -
a- Glasgow coma scale
b- CT head
c- Age of patient
d- Mode of injury
Ans: a- Glasgow coma scale

283. Morgagnian hernia is seen at which site?
a- Left anterior portion of the diaphragm
b- Right anterior portion of the diaphragm
c- Left posterior portion of the diaphragm
d- Right posterior surface of the diaphragm
Ans: b- Right anterior portion of the diaphragm
Ref: CMDT 12th/20

284. Which one of the following statements related to gastric injury is untrue-
a- mostly related to penetratic trauma
b- Treatment is simple debridment and suturing
c- Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury
d- Heals well and fast
Ans: c- Blood in stomach is always related to gastric injury
Ref: Bally and Love 24th/287

285. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal vein, superior mensenteric artery, and abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which side of visceral rotation is preferred?
a- Left medial visceral rotation
b- Right medial visceral rotation
c- Cranial visceral rotation
d- Caudal visceral rotation
Ans: a- Left medial visceral rotation
Ref: ACS surgery Principle and practice 2006

286. Which of the following is a benign polyp -
a- Juvenile polyp
b- FAP
c- Juvenile Polyposis
d- Peutz Jegher’s syndrome
Ans: a- Juvenile polyp
Ref: Harrison/16th/528

287. Which one of the following is not a type of thyroid carcinoma -
a- Follicular
b- Anaplastic
c- Insular
d- Merkel
Ans: d- Merkel
Ref: Harrison/16th/2122

288. A 60 year old smoker came with the history of one episode of painless and gross hematuria. The investigation of choice will be-
a- Urine routine and microscopy
b- Plain x-ray KUB
c- USG KUB
d- Urine microscopy for malignant cell
Ans: d- Urine microscopy for malignant cell
Ref: Hollarofrei Cancer medicine 6th/110

289. True statements about pilonidal sinus is -
a- Common in female
b- Congenital
c- Treatment of choice is excison
d- Conservative treatment is done
Ans: c- Treatment of choice is excison
Ref: CSDT 11th/774

290. Regarding gynecomastia false statement is -
a- May regress spontaneously
b- May regress after stopping the offending drug
c- Subcutaneous mastectomy is always indicated
d- Associated with liver failure
Ans: c- Subcutaneous mastectomy is always indicated
Ref: Harrison/16th/2192, CMDT 44th/1070

291. In urethral rupture below peroneal membrane urine collects in-
a- Perivesical space
b- Deep peroneal pouch
c- Superficial peroneal pouch
d- Space of Ritzus
Ans: c- Superficial peroneal pouch
Ref: student’s edition, Gray’s anatomy/BDC/243

292. A patient presented after RTA with Fracture pelvic, few drops of blood passed per urethral, not passed urine, palpable bladder, and likely cause is-
a- Ureteral injury
b- Bladder rupture
c- Urethral injury
d- Urine extravasation to peritoneum
Ans: c- Urethral injury
Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258

293. An old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presented with a history of dribbling of urine, urge incontinence, hesitancy, incomplete voiding. The most probable diagnosis is:
a- BPH
Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258
Ans: Ref: Bally and Love 23rd/1258
Ref: Harrison/16th/2165, 2166.

294. In a abdominal trauma, the type of abdominal incison used to exclude the major organ damage is-
a- Paramedian incison
b- Median incison
c- Transverse abdominal incision according to suspected organ damage
Ans: b- Median incison
Ref: Bally and Love 24th/288.

295. In acute tissue injury, there is transient:
a- Neutropenia
b- Neutrophilia
c- Lymphopenia
d- Lymphocytosis
Ans: a- N