Anaesthesia Q.1 Nitrous Oxide can be used in which of the following surgeries? a) Micrlaryngeal surgery b) Vitreo-retinal surgery c) Cochlear Implant d) Exenteration Operation Q.2 Which of the following is not a component of 'Children's Hospital Eastern Ontario Pain Scale' (CHEOPS)? a) Cry b) Torso c) O2 saturation d) Touch Answer : (c) O2 saturation Q.3 Nitrogen Narcosis is due to a) Increased sensitivity of nerves to nitrogen b) Increase in Nitric Oxide synthesis c) Decrease in free radicals of oxygen d) Interference with Dismutases Q.4 Which of the following does not cause Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome? a) Halothane b) Amantadine c) Metocloperamide d) Domperidone Answer : (b) Amantadine Q.5 Maximum Local Anaesthetic absorption is seen in which of the following blocks? a) Epidural b) Caudal c) Brachial d) Intercostal Anatomy Q.6 In a subclavian artery block at the outer border of 1st rib all of the following help in maintaining the circulation to upper limp except ? a) Suprascapular a. b) Superior thoracic a. c) Subscapular a. d) Thyrocervical trunk Q.7 Which of the following structures do not pierce buccinator? a) buccal branch of facial n. b) buccal branch of mandibular n. c) parotid duct d) buccal gland on buccopharyngeal fascia Q.8 Sheath covering neurovascular bundle in axilla is derived from? a) Deep Cervical fascia b) Clavipectoral fascia c) Prevertebral fascia d) Pectoral fascia Q.9 All of the following brainstem nuclei arise from 'alar plate' except? a) Dentate b) Substantia nigra c) Inferior Olivary d) Hypoglossal Q.10 Which of the following arteries do not supply Sternomastoid muscle? a) Sperior Thyroid artery b) Posterior Auricular artery c) Hypocervical trunk d) Occipital artery Q.11 Which of the following is terminal group of LN in coeliac axis? a) Paracolic b) Epicolic ? Lateral Sacral c) Infracolic ? Intermediate group d) Pre-aortic Q.12 Spleen projects into which area? a) Left Subhepatic area b) Greater Omentum c) Left Paracolic gutter d) Infracolic Compartment Q.13 Injury to which of the following is cause of positive "Trendlenberg Test"? a) Superior Gluteal nerve b) Inferior Gluteal nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Femoral nerve Q.14 Which of the following is not the constituent of "Triangle Of Doom"? a) Vas deferens b) Cooper's Ligament c) Retroperitoneal fold d) Spermatic vessels Answer : (b) Cooper's Ligament Q.15 Which of these do not form boundary of "Triangle Of Auscultation"? a) Scapula b) Latissimus Dorsi c) Trapezius d) Serratus anterior Answer:- Serratus Anterior Biochemistry Q.16 Which of the following is true about prions? a) DNA or RNA virus coded b) cleave proteins c) cause misfolding of proteins d) defect in folding of proteins Q.17 Alpha subunit of G-protein is involved in one of the following activities? a) GTPase activity b) c) d) Q.18 Which of the following is not a non-functional plasma enzyme? a) Hormone Sensitive LIpase b) Lipoprotein Lipase c) Alkaline Phosphatase d) Prostate Specific Phosphatase Q.19 Biomolecule structure can be studied by all except? a) Xray Crystallography b) High Pressure Liquid Chromatography c) Mass Spectrometry d) NMR Spectrometry Q.20 Which of the following aa when replace Alanine cause increased absorbance of proteins ? a) Proline b) Tryptophan c) Leucine d) Arginine Q.21 Fireflies glow due to which of the following? a)GTP b) ATP c) Phosphocreatine d) NADH Q.22 Which of the following is essential in carboxylation reaction? a) biotin b) TPP c) d) Q.23 In Refsum disease defect lies in a) Phytanic acid oxidase b) Succinate Thiokinase c) Malonate Dehydrogenase d) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Q.24 All are misfolded proteins except? a) Prions b) Creutzfeldt-jacob disease c) Multiple Sclerosis d) Amyloidosis Answer : (c) Multiple Sclerosis Q.25 Which of the following enzymes is present in ribosomes? a) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase b) Peptidyl transferase c) Peptidase d) Q.26 Deficiency of Thiamine decreases energy generation due to a) decreased acivity of alpha-ketogluterate and pyruvate dehydrogenases b) cofactor in oxidativ reaction c)required for transamination d) inhibit transketolase activity Q.27 Which of the following inhibits Phosphorylase 'b'? a) cAMP b) ATP c)Calcium d)Glucose Q.28 Vitamin K causes carboxylation of which of the following clotting factors? a) Histidine b) Histamine c) Glutamate d) Aspartate Q.29 Which of the following is not a second messenger? a) cAMP b) Guanyl Cyclase c) DAG d) IP3 Answer : (b) Guanyl Cyclase Q.30 Gene for Folate transport carrier protein is present on chromosome number.. a) 10 b) 5 c) 21 d) X Q.31 Which of the following lacks introns? a) Z-DNA b) B-DNA c) nuclear DNA d) mitochondrial DNA Q.32 Which of the following is not true regarding Glutathione? a) convert hemoglobin to methemoglobin b) cofactor of some enzymes c) sulphur conjugation d) detoxification ENT Q.33 Medicated wick and microcatheters are used in a) Frei's syndrome b) Epistaxis c) Drooling of saliva d) antibiotic delivery to round window membrane Q.34 Which of the following is false about nasolabial cyst? a) arises from odontoid epithelium b) bilateral usually c) usually in adulthood d) present submucosally in anterior nasal floor Forensic Medicine Q.35 Which of the following is not constituent of embalming fluid? a) formalin b) glycerine c) ethanol d) phenol Q.36 A worker from pest control agency reports to hospital emergency with complaints of headache, nausea, abdominal pain. He has garlicky odour in breath and white streaks on nails. Most likely poisoning is... a) cadmium b) phosphorous c) lead d) arsenic Q.37 Hydrocution refers to a) electrocution in water b) drowning in cold water c) immersion in boiling water d) post mortem drowning in water Q.38 Falanga refers to a) slapping on ears b) beating on soles of foot with blunt object c) giving electric shocks d) Q.39 Thanatology is a) Study of death b) c) d) Medicine Q.40 Which of the following syptoms of uraemia do not improve with dialysis? a) Metbolic Acidosis b) Seizures c) Peripheral Neuropathy d) Pericarditis Q.41 Which of the following is not involved in spontaneous CSF leak? a) increaded ICT b) Total or partial empty sella syndrome c) pseudotumor cerebri d) low risk encephalocoele Q.42 SLE can be differentiated from RA by one of the following a) bony erosions b) juxta-articular osteoporosis c) subluxation of MCP joint d) swelling of PIP joint Q.43 Which of the following is marker of myositis? a) anti-jo 1 Ab b) anti-scl70 c) anti-dsDNA d) anti-ku Answer : (a) anti-jo 1 Ab Q.44 Most common cause of intestinal ischemia is a) Arterial thrombosis b) Venous thrombosis c) Embolism d) Non-occlussive mesenteric ischemia Q.45 A 55yr old smoker presents with fever, hemoptysis, weight loss in last six months, fleeting opacities in the lungs on serial skiagrams. Diagnosis is ? a) ABPA b) Wegener's granulomatosis c) TB d) Ca. lung Q.46 Zinc deficiency is not seen in a) Pulmonary fibrosis b) c) d) Q.47 Which of the following is incorrect about Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome? a) Autosomal Recessive b) Thrombocytopenia c) eczema d) failure of aggregation of platelets in response to agonists Q.48 Which of the followig is incorrect regarding Progressive Multifocal Leucoencephalopathy? a) visual disturbance and speech defect b) involves deep cortical neurons c) indolent course and slow to progress d) tissue biopsy is diagnostic Q.49 A 29yr old unmarried female presents with dyspnea. Her FVC=92, Fev1/FVC=89, Diffusion capacity =59% O2 saturation decreased from 92% to 86% on exercise. Chest X-ray is normal. Most likely diagnosis is? a) Interstitial lung Disease b) Primary Pulmonary Hypertension c) Anxiety d) Pulmonary Hypoventilation Q.50 Biosafety level-3 is not required for? a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Hiv c) Coxiella burnetti d) St. Louis Encephalitis Q.51 Most common cause of mononeuritis multiplex in India is? a) TB b) RA c) Hansen's disease d) PAN Q.52 All of the following re minor diagnostic criteria in Multiple Myeloma except a) Lytic bone lesions b) M Spike (Ig G=3%, Ig A=1.5%) c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy d) Plasmacytosis 20% in bone marrow Answer : (c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy Q.53 25yr. old female presented with pain in abdomen. USG detects enhancing lesion on renal hilum (left side) and multifocal necrotic mass. Diagnosis? a) Lymphoma b) Enlarged LN c) Metastatic germ cell tumor d) Metastatic Malignant Melanoma Q.54 Treatment of refractory histiocytoma is a) high dose methotrexate b) high dose cytosine arabinoside c) cladarabine d) fludarbine Q.55 An 8-year-old boy presented with complaints of pain in abdomen with fever and yellow discoloration of urine for 15 days. There was no history of long medical illness. On physical examination, he was afebrile and had mild pallor, icterus and conjunctival xerosis. CT scan showed central dot sign. Most likely diagnosis is a) Sclerosing Cholangitis b) Caroli's Disease c) Hemangioma d) Biliary Hamartoma Answer : (b) Caroli's Disease Q.56 Lung volumes for a lung with bullae can be measured by a) Body Plethysmography b) Transdiaphragmatic pressure c) DLco d) Helium Dilution Q.57 Which of the following is not a major Framingham criteria for CCF? a) Cardiomegaly b) Hepatomegaly c) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea d) S3 gallop Answer : (b) Hepatomegaly Q.58 Which of the following organisms cause Reactive Arthritis? a) Ureaplasma urealyticum b) Gr.A beta hemolytic Streptococci c) Borrelia bugdorfi d) Microbiology Q.59 Which of the following explains mechanism of action of Pertussis toxin? a) ADP Ribosylation b) acts through G-alpha subunit c) d) Q.60 Which of the following is most sensitive diagnostic test for Dengue? a) IgM Elisa b) Tissue Culture c) Electron Microscopy d) CFT Answer : (a) IgM Elisa Q.61 Which of the following is incorrect about hybridoma technique? a) normal activated B-cell and myeloma cell b) myeloma cells - selective mutation in salvage pathway, vigorous proliferation in HAT medium c) Aminopterin, a folic blocker, inhib. denovo nucleotide synthesis d) Thymidine Kinase and HGPRT catalyse salvage pathway Q.62 Which of the following mechanisms decide whether protein would be secreted ar be membrane bound? a) Allelic expression b) Class switching c) Differential RNA processing d) One turn two turn joining rule Q.63 All are true about carbohydrate antigen except a) less antigenic b) memory response seen c) does no stim. T-cell d) causes polyclonal B-cell stimulation Q.64 Which of the following organisms cause Reactive Arthritis? a) Ureaplasma urealyticum b) Gr.A beta hemolytic Streptococci c) Borrelia bugdorfi d) Q.65 Lady from Shimla has fever, malaise, axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy. Culture shows stalacite growth. Likely organism is ? a) Yersinia pestis b) Francisella c) Pseudomonas d) Q.66 40yr old gardner gets trauma to his hand while gardening. He has multiple vesicles on hand and eruptions along lymphatic. Most likely organism is a) Sporothrix shenkii b) Cladosporium c) Histoplasma d) Candida Q.67 Which of the following is not a RNA virus? a) Rabies b) Rubella c) Simian40 d) Ebola Q.68 True about bacteriophage is a) imparts toxigenicity to bacteria b) transfers chromosome to bacteria c) helps in transduction of bacteria d) Q.69 Which of the following Pseudomonas is responsible for infections through intravenous catheter ? a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Pseudomonas cepacia c) Pseudomonas maltiphilia d) Pseudomonas mallei Q.70 Which of the following is responsible for isotyping in immunoglobulins? a) changes in aminoacid heavy and light chain in variable region b) changes in aminoacid heavy and light chain in constant region responsible for class and subtype c) these are areas in antigen that bind to antibody d) subtle aminoacid changes due to allelic differences Obs. and Gynae. Q.71 Investigation of choice in Cholestosis of pregnancy? a) Bilirubin b) Bile Acid c) Alkaline Phosphatase d) ALT, AST Q.72 Primi with obstructed labour and exhaustion has fetal demise. Appropriate step would be to do a) Caesarean section b) Craniotomy c) Decapitation d) Forceps Delivery Q.73 Which of the following is not used in FIGO staging of Ca.Cervix ? a) IVP b) Sigmoidoscopy c) CT scan d) Cystoscopy Q.74 25yr Primi diagosed for Ovarian cyst. Histopathology shows Cystadenocarcinoma. Next step is a) Salpingoophorectomy with staging b) Hysterectomy with BSO c) Chemotherapy d) CA-125 follow up Q.75 Which of the following is not found in PCOD? a) increased DHEA b) increased Prolactin c) increased LH d) increased LH:FSH ratio Q.76 45yr old female with DUB has 8mm thick endometrium. Next step is a) Hysterectomy b) Histopathology of endometrium c) Progesterone d) Follow up with USG Q.77 Vasopressor used in pregnancy? a) Phenylephrine b) Ephedrine c0 Methoxamine d) Mephenteramine Q.78 Female with history of amenorrhoea for 6 weeks, USG shows empty sac, serum beta HCG-1000 IU. Next step would be ? a) Medical management b) Repeat HCG after 1 week c) Repeat HCG after 48hrs d) Q.79 Primi 37wk with Cervix 1cm after 10hrs and having mild uterine contractions. Next step would be a) Syntocinon drip and augment b) Amniotomy c) Caesarean section d) Sedation and wait Q.80 Earliest to be diagnosed on USG ? a) Spina bifida b) Anencephaly c) Meningocoele d) Cystic Hygroma Q.81 Pregnant lady got infected with chickenpox in last three days of delivery. Appropriate step would be a) Both baby and mother are safe b) Give antiviral treatment to mother before delivery c) Give antiviral treatment to baby after delivery d) Baby will develop congenital varicella syndrome Q.82 Which of the following measures are not done to prevent materno-fetal transmission of Hiv from mother to child? a) AZT to mother b) Vaginal delivery c) No breast feeding by mother d) Vitamin 'A' to mother Q.83 Which of the following structures is most likely to get damaged if Robert's maneuvre (flexing hip against mother's abdomen) is performed? a) Lumbosacral plexus b) Femoral n. c) Obturator n. d) Lat. cut. n. of thigh Q.84 In which of the following disorders is tube motility affected? a) Marfan Syndrome b) Turner Syndrome c) Noonan Syndrome d) Kartagner Syndrome Q.85 Which of the following is an Ovarian reserve indicator? a) LH b) FSH c) LH:FSH ratio d) Estradiol Q.86 Cue cells are found in ? a) Candidiasis (vaginal) b) Bacterial Vaginosis c) Trichomoniasis d) Q.87 Which of the following is not done in shoulder dystocia? a) Suprapubic pressure b) Fundal Pressure c) Robert's Maneuvre d) Wood's procedure Opthalmology Q.88 Adult with proptosis and abucent nerve palsy. Homogeneous mass with high contrast enhancement. Most likely diagnosis is ? a) Cavernous Hemangioma b) Glioma c) Astrocytoma d) Meningioma Q.89 Which of the following is not part of SAFE strategy? a) Safe excreta disposal b) Oral Azithromycin c) Vitamin 'A' supplementation d) Frequent face wash Q.90 Which of the following is not a component of Horner's Syndrome? a) Miosis b) Apparent Exopthalmos c) Ptosis d) Heterochromia Iridis Q.91 Which of the following is present in left abducent nerve palsy? a) Ptosis of left eye b) Accomodative paresis of left eye c) Diplopia in left gaze d) Weakness of left adduction Q.92 Maximum refractive index a) Cornea b) Anterior surface of lens c) Posterior surface of lens d) Centrum of Lens Q.93 Which of the following cause Inclusion Conjunctivitis? a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Chlamydia Psittaci c) d) Orthopaedics. Q.94 Glomus tumor is found in a) Fingers b) Liver c) Adrenal d) Pituitary Q.95 Which of the following drugs used in Osteoporosis has both bone forming and bone resorption property? a) Calcitonin b) Strontium ranelate c) Bisphosphonate d) Terapeptide Q.96 A patient with multiple injuries develops tachycardia, tachypnoea, fever, increased TLC and periumbilical rash on day 2. Diagnosis is? a) Pulmonary Embolism b) Fat Embolism c) d) Q.97 Which of the following leads to Insertional type Achilles Tendinitis? a) Steroid use b) Chronic strain c) Improper shoes d) runners or jumpers Q.98 Which of the following joints is not involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis? a) Elbow b) Ankle c) Tarso-metatarsal d) Metatarso-phalangeal Answer : (c) Tarso-Metatarsal joint Q.99 Post radical neck dissection shoulder syndrome does not have one of the following a) Shoulder pain b) Limited shoulder movements c) normal EMG findings d) Shoulder drooping Q.100 Velpau and Sling-Swathe bandages are used in a) # clavicle b) # scapula c) Acromio-clavicular dislocation d) Shoulder dislocation Q.101 Risser-localizer cast is used in? a) Kyphosis b) Dorsolumbar scoliosis c) Lumbar scoliosis d) Spondylolisthesis Q.102 Watson-Jones operation is performed for a) neglected clubfoot b) muscle paralysis c) valgus deformity d) hip Q.103 In deep posterior compartment syndrome which passive movement causes pain? a) Toe flexion b) Toe extension c) Foot dorsiflexion d) Foot inversion Q.104 Injury to which of the following is cause of positive "Trendlenberg Test"? a) Superior Gluteal nerve b) Inferior Gluteal nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Femoral nerve Paediatrics Q.105 Which of the following is not a component of 'Children's Hospital Eastern Ontario Pain Scale' (CHEOPS)? a) Cry b) Torso c) O2 saturation d) Touch Answer : (c) O2 saturation Q.106 8yr child has been having difficulty in climbing stairs since 6months, rash on metacarpo-phalangeal joint, Gower sign positive. Next Step is ? a) Electromyography b) Rheumatoid factor c) ESR d) detect CPK Q.107 71/2yr old child has non-productive cough, mild stridor since 6months. Patient is improving on oral antibiotics but suddenly devlops wheezing, productive cough and mild fever. Chest X-ray shows hypertranslucency and PFT shows Obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is ? a) Postviral syndrome b) Follicular bronchitis c) Pulmonary Alveolar Microlithiasis d) Bronchiolitis Obliterans Q.108 2yr child brought to emergency at 3am has fever 39.5 degrees with RR of 36/min, barky cough and stridor on lying down No difference has been observed in her drinking behaviour. Next step would be ? a) Dexamethasone high dose b) Blood count-culture c) Send nasal and throat washings for culture for RSV/Influenza d) Nebulised Epinephrine Q.109 A 14yr old female on exposure to cold develops pallor of extremities f/b pain and cyanosis. She is prone to develop which of the following? a) Scleroderma b) Sarcoidosis c) RA d) Systemic Sclerosis Answer : (a) Scleroderma Q.110 Which of the following explains mechanism of action of Pertussis toxin? a) ADP Ribosylation b) acts through G-alpha subunit c) d) Q.111 A newborn female 3.5kg, uncomplicated delivery develops respiratory distress after birth. Chest X-ray shows groundglass appearance. Baby is on mechanical ventilation and is given surfactant but the condition deterorates and hypoxemia increases. A full term sibling dies within one week with similar complaints. Echo. is normal. Most likely diagnosis is? a) TAPVC b) Meconium Aspiration Syndrome c) Neonatal Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis d) Disseminated HSV infection Q.112 Which of the following is not in Acrodermatitis enteropathica? a) Zinc deficiency b) Zinc supplementation improves the condition c) Autosomal Recessive d) triad of diarrhoea, dementia, alopecia Q.113 Which of the following is poor prognostic factor in ALL? a) 2-8yrs age b) WBC < 50,000 c) Hyperdiploidy d) t(4;11) (8;14) (9;22) Q.114 False about Rubella is? a) triad of cataract, hear disease, deafness b) maximum damage if infected after 16weeks of pregnancy. c) IgG persists for more than 6months d) IgM antibody is present at birth Answer : (b) maximum damage if infected after 16 weeks of pregnancy Pathology Q.115 Hypersesitivity vasculitis in a) Post capillary venules b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Arterioles Q.116 Respiratory burst involves which of the following? a) peroxidase b) oxidase c) dehydrogenase d) catalase Q.117 Which of the following is not a kind of microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia? a) Anti Phospholipid Antibody Syndrome b) Metallic cardiac valves c) TTP d) Microscopic Polyangitis Q.118 Which of the following is not found in Thrombotic Thrombocytopenia a) decreased coagulation b) decreased complement c) microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia d) thrombocytopenia Q.119 Nitroblue tetrazolium test is used for a) Phagocytic cell b) Complement c) T cell d) B cell Q.120 Which of the following is responsible for isotyping in immunoglobulins? a) changes in aminoacid heavy and light chain in variable region b) changes in aminoacid heavy and light chain in constant region responsible for class and subtype c) these are areas in antigen that bind to antibody d) subtle aminoacid changes due to allelic differences Q.121 Which of the following is not seen in active replicative phase of chronic hepatitis B? a) HBV DNA b) HBV DNA polymerase c) anti-HBc d) increased ALT and AST Q.122 Which of the following is most essential in the metastasis of a tumor? a) Tumorigenesis b) Angiogenesis c) Apoptosis d) Inhibition of Tyrosine Kinase activity Q.123 Which of the following stimulates naive T cell, the maximum? a) Macrophage b) Follicular dendritic cell c) Mature dendritic cell d) B cell Q.124 Gene for BRCA-1 is present on chromosome number a) 13 b) 11 c) 15 d) 17 Q.125 Gene for major histocompatibility complex is present on chromosome number a) 6 b) 3 c) 10 d) X Q.126 Which of the following is the complement in the antibody mediated as well as antibody independent pathways? a) C3 b) C5 c) C7 d) C1q Pharmacology Q.127 Which of the following drugs used in Osteoporosis has both bone forming and bone resorption property? a) Calcitonin b) Strontium ranelate c) Bisphosphonate d) Terapeptide Q.128 Herceptin ? a) b) c) d) Q.129 A girl was given sulphonamides. She developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizures. Most likely is a) Acute Intermittent Porphyria b) Infectious Mononucleosis c) Congenital Erythropoietic Porphyria d) Kawasaki disease Q.130 Incorrect about Acarbose is a) decreases both pre and post prandial glucose b) decreases fibrinogen level c) alpha-glucosidase inhibitor d) delays progression of diabetes Q.131 Which of the following drugs may be used in severe liver failure? a) Metronidazole b) Lorazepam c) Theophylline d) Acetaminophen Q.132 Digoxin toxicity is increased by all of the following except? a) Hypercalcemia b) Hypomagnesemia c) Hyperkalemia d) Renal failure Q.133 Which of the following is not involved in phase-I metabolism of xenobiotics? a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Hydrolysis d) Conjugation Q.134 Which of the following drug causes vasodilation in spider naevi patient? a) DHEAS b) Testosterone c) Estrogen d) Hepatotoxin Q.135 TNF-alpha are contraindicated in which of the following conditions? a) Seronegative arthritis b) Psoriatic arthritis c) SLE d) Behcet's disease Q.136 A young female on on of the following medications developed a circular depigmented lesion in center of forehead. Offending drug is? a) Hydroxyquinone b) Para tertiary butyl phenol c) Mono benzyl ester of hydroxyquinone d) Para tertiary butyl catechol Q.137 Which of the following drugs is not used in detrussor instability? a) Duloxetin b) Flavoxate c) Toleradine d) Solafenacin Q.138 Which of the following is not an alkylating agent? a) 5FU b) Cyclophosphamide c) Busulphan d) Melphalan Q.139 Which of the following is true about ACEinhibitor? a) inhibit conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin-I b) t1/2 of Enalapril > Lisinopril c) 1st dose hypotension not seen if previous treatment with diuretics is stopped. d) Q.140 Man on 10day course of Cefaclor develops on 8th day fever and rashes all over body. Which of the following is the diagnosis? a) Type III Hypersensitivity b) Kawasaki disease c) Partially treated Meningitis d) Q.141 Which of the following cephalosporin does not require dose reduction in renal damage? a) Cefazolin b) Cefoperazone c) Cefipime d) Cefixime Q.142 Which of the following is not an immunosuppressant? a) Cyclosporin b) Cephalosporins c) Steroids d) Q.143 Thalidomide is not given in which of the following conditions? a) Multiple Myeloma b) Hiv associated with Peripheral neuropathy c) ENL d) Hiv related oral ulcers Q.144 Anticancer drug secreted by the lungs a) 5FU b) Cyclophosphamide c) Cisplatin d) Daunorubicin Q.145 Ifosfamide is a a) antitumor metabolite b) alkylating agent c) taxanes d) antibiotics Physiology Q.146 Which of the following is correct? a) Clearance can be greater than GFR if only the substance is secreted in the tubules b) If substance is secreted in the tubules, its clearance must be greater than GFR c) Descending Loop Of Henle has hypotonic urine d) Descending Loop Of Henle is permeable to solutes Q.147 Which of the following correctly describes Mean Capillary Filling Pressure? a) pressure in the arterial system when heart is stopped suddenly b) difference between Central Venous Pressure and Central Arterial Pressure. c) mean Atrial Pressure d) difference between pulmonary and systemic arterial pressures Q.148 Which of the following control circadian rhythm? a) Supra-optic nuclues b) Supra-chiasmatic nucleus c) Infra-optic nucleus d) Median eminence Q.149 Which of the following is not present in cerebellar cortex? a) Purkinje b) Golgi c) Granular d) Bipolar Q.150 Which of the following is true about Pre-Synaptic Inhibition? a) occurs due to Hyperpolarisation of presynaptic membrane b) produces action potential c) occurs due to inhibition of release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic membrane. d) Q.151 According to Weber Fechner law, magnitude of the sensation felt is related to a) intensity of the stimulus b) c) d) Q.152 Which of the following show maximum post-prandial motility? a) ascending colon b) descending colon c) transverse colon d) sigmoid colon Q.153 Vagus stimulation produces which of the following effects? a) increased heart rate b) increased stroke volume c) increased R-R interval d) increased cardiac output Q.154 CSF Pressure depends on which of the following? a) Choroid pressure b) Rate of CSF absorption c) Rate of CSF Production d) Cerebral Blood Flow Q.155 Which of the following structures is not found in renal medulla? a) Juxtaglomerular apparatus b) Vasa Recta c) Loop Of Henle d) Collecting Duct Q.156 Mineralocorticoid receptors are absent in ? a) Colon b) Nephron c) Liver d) Hippocampus PSM Q.157 Plastic cover of the syringe is discarded in which coloured bag? a) Yellow b) Red c) Black d) Blue Answer : (c) Black Q.158 Kaplan Meiere method is used for? a) Incidence b) Prevalence c) Survival d) Surveillance Answer : (c) Survival Q.159 Which of the following is used to estimate efficacy of the contraceptives? a) Pearl Index b) Chandeler's Index c) d) Answer : (a) Pearl's Index Q.160 Which of the following is false about randomised controlled trial? a) sample size depends on hypothesis b) dropouts are excluded from analysis c) groups are comparable on baseline characteristics d) double binding eliminates interviewer's bias Answer : (a) Sample size depends on hypothesis Q.161 Which of the following is not managed by incineration? a) waste sharps b) cytotoxic drugs c) human anatomical waste d) Answer : (a) Waste Sharps Q.162 True about fluorescent Ab detection test in malaria are all except ? a) LDH Ag b) Aldolase Ag c) Hrp-1 (Histidine rich protein) d) It is an immunochromatic test Answer : (c) Hrp-1 (Histidine rich protein) Q.163 Which of the following is the test for pasteurization? a) Phosphatase test b) Methylene Blue test c) d) Answer : (a) Phosphatase test Q.164 All are true about DDT except a) Contact poison b) kills immediately c) action lasts for 4-18months d) synergistic effect with permethrin Answer : (b) Kills immediately Q.165 Which of the following is false about breast milk? a) maximum output at 12months b) breast milk protein is a reference protein c) Calcium utilization from breast milk > cow's milk d) Coeffecient of absorption of iron is 70% Answer : (a) maximum output at 12months Q.166 Which of the following has cyclodevelopmental lifecycle? a) Malaria b) Filaria c) Yellow Fever d) Plague Answer : (b) Filaria Q.167 Which of the following is not anti-larval? a) Paris Green b) Gambusia c) DDT d) Intermittent Irrigation Answer : (c) DDT Q.168 What is the ideal isolation period for a patient infected with salmonellosis (Typhoid fever)? a) upto 3days after starting Chloramphenicol b) untill fever subsides c) untill 3 negative stool and urine investigations d) Answer : (c) untill 3 negative stool and urine investigations Q.169 Smallest incubation period is for? a) Rubella b) Influenza c) Hepatitis A d) Hepatitis B Answer : (b) Influenza Q.170 False about Rubella is? a) triad of cataract, hear disease, deafness b) maximum damage if infected after 16weeks of pregnancy. c) IgG persists for more than 6months d) IgM antibody is present at birth Answer : (b) maximum damage if infected after 16 weeks of pregnancy Q.171 Vaccines stabilised in all except a) BCG in Kanamycin b) DPT in Thiomersal c) OPV in MgCl2 d) Measles in Kanamycin Answer : (a) BCG in Kanamycin Q.172 Which of the following is true about BCG vaccine? a) Massage the site of injection b) Use normal saline or distilled water for reconstituing vaccine c) Use spirit to clean the injection site d) Danish1331 stain has been approved by WHO for use in vaccines Answer : (d) Danish1331 stain has been approved by WHO for use in vaccines Q.173 Which of the following is most sensitive diagnostic test for Dengue? a) IgM Elisa b) Tissue Culture c) Electron Microscopy d) CFT Answer : (a) IgM Elisa Q.174 Which of the following is seventh disability in 'Persons with Disability Act,1995' ? a) Substance abuse b) Road Traffic Accidents c) Occupational d) Mental Illness Answer : (d) Mental Illness Q.175 Fish is poor source of a) Iodine b) Iron c) Phosphorous d) Vitamin 'A' Answer : (b) Iron Q.176 Which of the following is not true of cluster sampling? a) Sample size is same as that of Simple Random Sampling b) c) d) Answer : (a) Sample size is same as that of Simple Random Sampling Psychiatry Q.177 Cognitive model of depression was given by a) Ellis b) Goldmann c) Beck d) Godfrey Q.178 Which of the following is the latest biomarker for ECT? a) CSF Dopamine b) CSF Histamine c) Brain Derived Growth Factor d) CSF 5HIAA Q.179 8yr boy can not concentrate on his studies, is hyperactive. Parents are distressed. Your explanation to the parents would be a) normal behaviour b) behavioural problem, needs behavioural therapy c) serious disease, needs medication d) needs change in environment Q.180 Which of the following is NOT true of Type II Schizophrenia (Crow) ? a) negative symptoms b) disorganised c) chronic course d) poor prognosis Radiology Q.181 USG of a patient shows GB thickening, hyper-echoing shadow and comet tail sign of GB. Most likely diagnosis is? a) Adenomyomatosis b) Cholecystitis c) Ca.GB d) Xanthogranulomatous GB Q.182 Cavernous sinus lesion, hyperintense on T2w, enhance post contrast. Diagnosis is a) Astrocytoma b) Schwannoma c) Cavernous Hemangioma d) Medulloblastoma Q.183 False about 'mAs' is? a) By reducing kvp by 50% Radiation dose required is reduced to half b) c) d) Q.184 Investigation Of Choice for recurrent gastrointestinal stromal tumors ? a) PET scan b) CT scan c) MIBG d) MRI Q.185 Adult with proptosis and abucent nerve palsy. Homogeneous mass with high contrast enhancement. Most likely diagnosis is ? a) Cavernous Hemangioma b) Glioma c) Astrocytoma d) Meningioma Skin Q.186 Which of the following is not found in Reiter's Syndrome? a) Circinate Balanitis b) Keratoderma Blenorrhagicum c) Oral Ulcers d) Subcutaneous nodules Q.187 A child presents with linear verrucous plaques on trunk with vacuolisation of keratinocytes in Stratum Spinosum and Str. Granulosum. Diagnosis ? a) Incontinenta Pigmenti b) Delayed Hypersensitivity reaction c) Darrier's Disease d) Naevus Q.188 Which of the following is defective in Congenital Dystrophic Epidermolysis Bullosa ? a) Laminin-4 b) Collagen-7 c) d) Surgery Q.189 Nicoladoni sign is also known as a) Murrey's sign b) Branham's sign c) Frei Sign d) Q.190 Which of the following is most common site for cholangiocarcinoma? a) Intrahepatic b) Hilum c) Distal Biliary tree d) Multifocal Answer : (b) Hilum Q.191 All of the following are complications of Total Parenteral Nutrition except? a) CCF b) Metabolic bone disease c) Hyperphosphatemia d) Essential Fatty acid deficiency Q.192 Which of the folowing is treatment of medullary carcinoma of thyroid? a) Surgery alone b) Radioiodine ablation c) Chemotherapy and radiation d) Surgery and radiotherapy Q.193 Which of the following is not part of Virchow's triad? a) Venous thrombosis b) Injury to veins c) Hypercoagulability d) Venous stasis Q.194 Which of the following mucosal changes in GIT is not permanent? a) Gastric Rugae b) Transverse rectal fold c) Heister valve d) Plica semilunaris Q.195 Most common site of Curling's Ulcer in a burn's patient? a) Esophagus b) Duodenum c) Colon d) Ileum Q.196 A patient has undergone cholecystectomy and Ca.GB stage I has been discovered on histopath. Appropriate step would be? a) Excsion of Port b) Conservative management and follow up c) Radical Portal Lymphadenopathy d) Radiotherapy Q.197 Hunterian ligature is used for which of the following? a) Aneurysm b) Varicose veins c) A-V malformation d) Acute Ischemia Q.198 Which of the following surgeries is not done in morbid obesity? a) Sleeve gastrectomy b) Gastric bypass c) Biliopancreatic diversion d) Ileal transposition Q.199 A patient sustains a stab injury on right flank. He is hemodynamically stable. Next step is a) Diagnostic peritoneal lavage b) CT abdomen c) Explore d) Celiotomy/scopy Q.200 Gold standard investigation in GERD is a) Endoscopy b) Esophagoscopy c) Mannometry d) 24hr gastric ph : hey i found that the Velpeau bandage is used for all the four options given in the question..please shed more light on this and the sling and swathe bandages..they seem to be used in a variey of shoulder injuries...!