AIIMS Q & A (Nov. 2008)

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    AIIMS QUESTIONS November 2008



    Anatomy

    1.In a subclavian artery block at the outer border of first rib all of the following vessels help in maintaining the circulation to upper limp except?
    a. thyrocervical trunk
    b. suprascapular a
    c. sub scapular a
    d. superior thoracic a.

    2.Fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from?
    a.prevertebral fascia
    b. clavipectoral fascia
    c. deep cervical fascia
    d. pectoral fascia.

    3.BUCCINATOR MUSCLE IS PIERCED BY ALL EXCEPT?
    A. BUCCAL BR OF FACIAL N.
    B. MUCUS GLAND OF BUCCOPHARYNGEAL FASCIA.
    C. PAROTID DUCT
    D. BUCCAL BR OF MANDIBULAR N.

    4.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BRAINSTEM NUCLEI IS NOT DERIVED FROM ALAR PLATE?
    A. HYPOGLOSSAL NUCLEI
    B. INFERIOR OLIVARY NUCLEUS
    C. DENTATE NUCLEUS
    D. SUBSTANTIS NIGRA

    5. WHICH IS NOT A PERMANENT MUCOSAL FOLD?
    A. GASTRIC RUGAE
    B. SPIRAL VALVE
    C. TRANSVERSE RECTAL FOLD
    D. PLICA SEMILUNARIS

    6.NOT A BOUNDARY OF TRIANGLE OF AUSCULTATION?
    A. SCAPULA
    B. TRAPEZIUS
    C. LATISSIMUS DORSI
    D. SERRATUS ANTERIOR

    7.SPLEEN PROJECTS INTO THE FOLLOWING SPACE OF PERITONEAL CAVITY?
    A. GREATER SAC
    B. PARACOLIC GUTTER
    C. LEFT SUBHEPATIC SPACE
    D. INFRACOLIC COMPARTMENT

    8. STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID IS NOT SUPPLIED BY?
    A. SUPERIOR THYROID A.
    B.THYROCERVICAL TRUNK
    C. OCCIPITAL A
    D. POST AURICULAR A





    9.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE TERMINAL GROUP OF LYMPH NODE IN COELIAC AXIS?
    A. PREAORTIC
    B. LATERAL SACRAL
    C. PARA COLIC
    D. INTERMEDIATE GP.



    Physiology

    10.NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS CAUSED DUE TO?
    A. INCREASED SUSCEPTIBILITY OF NEURONS FOR NITROGEN
    B. NITROGEN INHIBITS DISMUTASE ENZYME
    C. DECREASE IN OXYGEN FREE RADICALS
    D. INCREASED PRODUCTION OF NITROUS OXIDE

    11. CSF PRESSURE DEPENDS PRIMARILY UPON?
    A.RATE OF FORMATION FROM CHOROID PLEXUS
    A. RATE OF ABSORPTION
    C. CEREBRAL BLOOD FLOW
    D. BLOOD PRESSURE

    12.ALL ARE NON FUNCTIONAL PLASMA ENZYMES EXCEPT?
    A. LIPOPROTEIN LIPASE
    B. HORMONE SENSITIVE LIPASE
    C. ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
    D. PROSTATE SPECIFIC PHOSPHATASE

    13.MAXIMUM POST PRANDIAL MOTILITY IS SEEN IN?
    A. ASCENDING COLON
    B. DESCENDING COLON
    C. SIGMOID COLON
    D. TRANSEVERSE COLON

    14. VAGAL STIMULATION OF HEART CAUSES?
    A. INCREASED HR
    B. . INCREASED RR INTERVAL
    C. . INCREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT
    D. . INCREASED FORCE OF CONTRACTION

    15. TRUE ABOUT WEBER FESCHNER LAW?
    A. GRADATIONS OF STIMULUS STRENGTH ARE DISCRIMINATED APPROXIMATELY IN PROPORTION TO THE LOGARITHM OF THE STIMULUS STRENGTH
    B.
    C.
    D.

    16.CELLS PRESENT IN CEREBRAL CORTEX ARE ALL EXCEPT?
    A. BIPOLAR CELLS
    B. PURKINJE CELLS
    D. GOLGI CELLS
    D. GRANULE CELLS


    17. WHICH DOES NOT LIES IN MEDULLA?
    A. COLLECTING DUCT
    B. JG APPARATUS
    C. VASA RECTA
    D. LOOP OF HENLE

    18.MINERALOCORTICOID RECEPTORS ARE PRESENT IN ALL EXCEPT?
    A. LIVER
    B. GLOMERULAR TUBULES
    C. COLON
    D. HIPPOCAMPUS

    19. WHICH IS TRUE?
    A. CLEARANCE OF A SUBSTANCE IS GREATER THAN GFR IF TUBULAR SECRETION OCCOURS
    B. CLEARANCE OF A SUBS IS ALWAYS INCREASED IF THERE IS TUBULAR SECRETION
    C. DESCENDING LOH HAS HYPOTONIC URINE
    D. DESCENDING LOH IS PERMEABLE TO SOLUTES

    20. MEAN CIRCULATING FILLING PRESSURE IS?
    A. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CENTRAL VENOUS PRESSURE AND CENTRAL ARTERIAL PRESSURE
    B. MEAN ATRIAL PRESSURE
    C. ARTERIALPRESSURE TAKEN JUST AT THE POINT WHEN HEART STOPS BEATING
    D. DIFFERENCE BETWEEN SYSTEMIC AND PULMONARY ARTERIAL PRESSURE

    21.WHICH IS TRUE ABOUT PRESYNAPTIC INHIBITION?
    A. OCCOURS DUE TO HYPERPOLARISATION OF PRESYNAPTIC MEMBRANE
    B. OCCOURS DUE TO INHIBITION OF RELEASE OF NEUROTRANSMITTER FROM PRESYNAPTIC TERMINAL
    C. PRODUCES ACTION POTENTIAL
    D.

    22.CIRCADIAN RHYTHM IS CONTROLLED BY?
    A. SUPRACHIASMATIC NUCLEUS
    B. MEDIAN EMINENCE
    C. PARAMEDIAN NU
    D. SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEI


    Biochemistry

    23.DNA WITHOUT INTRONS IS?
    A. B DNA
    B. Z DNA
    C. C DNA
    D. MITOCHONDRIAL DNA

    24.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT GLUTATHIONE EXCEPT?
    A. CONVERTS HEMOGLOBIN TO METHEMOGLOBIN
    B. DECREASES FREE RADICALS
    C. HELPS IN CONJUGATION REACTION
    D. CO FACTOR OF VARIOUS ENZYMES


    25. RIBOSOME HAS FOLLOWIN ENZYMATIC ACTIVITY?
    A. PEPTIDYL TRANSFERASE
    B. AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASE
    C. PEPTIDASE
    D.

    26.WHICH ENZYME IS RESPONSIBLE FOR CARBOXYLATION REACTION?
    A. BIOTIN
    B.
    C.
    D. THIAMINE PYROPHOSPHATE

    28. GLOWING OF FIREFLY IS DUE TO?
    A. ATP
    B. NADH
    C. GTP
    D. PHOSPHO CREATININE

    29.IN CARBOXYLATION OF CLOTTING FACTORS BY VIT K WHICH AMINO ACID IS CARBOXYLATED?
    A.ASPARTATE
    B. GLUTAMATE
    C. HISTAMINE
    D. HISTIDINE

    30.SYNTHESIS OF A IMMUNOGLOBULIN IN MEMBRANE BOUND OR INDEPENDENT FORM IS DETERMINED BY?
    A. ONE TURN TWO TURN JOINING RULE
    B. ALLELIC EXCLUSION
    C. CLASS SWITCHING
    D. DIFFERENTIAL RNA PROCESSING

    31.PHOSPHORLASE B IS INHIBITED BY?
    A. ATP
    B. AMP
    C. GLUCOSE
    D. CALCIUM

    32. IN METABOLISM OF XENOBIOTICS ALL OF THE FOLLOWIN REACTIONS OCCOUR IN PHASE ONE EXCEPT?
    A. CONJUGATION
    B. REDUCTION
    C. HYDROLYSIS
    D.OXIDATION

    33. WHICH IS NOT A SECOND MESSENGER?
    A. AMP
    B. GUANYL CYCLASE
    C. DAG
    D. IP3

    34.STRUCTURE OF PROTEINS CAN BE DETERMINED BY ALL EXCEPT?
    A. MASS SPECTROMETRY
    B. NMR SPECTROMETRY
    C. HPLC
    35. FUNCTIONS OF THIAMINE?
    A. CO ENZYME OF PYRUVATE DEHYDROGENASE AND ALPHA KETO DEHYDROGENASE
    B. CO ENZYME OF TRANS KETOLASE
    C.
    D.

    36.REPLACIN ALANINE BY WHICH AMINO ACID WILL INCREASE THE ABSORBANCE OF PROTEINS AT 280nm?
    A. LEUCINE
    B.TRYPTOPHAN
    C. PROLINE
    D. ARGININE



    Pharmacology

    37.THALIDOMIDE IS NOT USED IN?
    A. HIV RELATED NEUROPATHY
    B. ERYTHEMA NODOSUM LEPROSUM
    C. APHTHOUS ULCER
    D. BECHETS DS

    38. DRUGS USED FOR DETRUSOR INSTABILITY ARE ALL EXCEPT?
    A. FLAVOXATE
    B. SOLIFENACIN
    C. DULOXETINE
    D.TIAPERETIDE

    39.WHICH IS NOT AN ALKYLATING AGENT?
    A.CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
    B. BUSULPHAN
    C.5FU
    D.MELPHALAN

    40.IFOSFAMIDE BELONGS TO WHICH CLASS?
    A. ALKYLATING AGENT
    B. ANTI METABOLITE
    C. TAXANES
    D. ANTIBIOTICS

    41.DOC FOR REFRACTORY HISTIOCYTOSIS?
    A. CLADARABINE
    B. FLUDARABINE
    C. CYTOSINE ARABINOSIDE
    D.HIGH DOSE METHOTREXATE

    42.TNF ALPHA INHIBITORS ARE CONTRAINDICATED IN?
    A. SLE
    B. SERONEGATIVE SPONDYLOARTHRITIS
    C. PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS
    D. RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS



    43. TRUE ABOUT ALPHA SUBUNIT OF G PROTEIN?
    A. HAS GTPase ACTIVITY
    B.
    C.
    D.

    44.HERCEPTIN?


    45.TRUE ABOUT ACARBOSE ARE A/E?
    A. CONTROLS BOTH PRE AND POST PRANDIAL HYPERGLYCEMIA
    B. IT DECREASES FIBRINOGEN LEVEL
    C. ITS AN ALPHA GLUCOSIDASE INHIBITOR
    D.IT DELAYS PROGRESSION OF DIABETES

    46.A FEMALE HAS HYPOPIGMENTED LEISON ON CENTRE OF FOREHEAD.DRUG RESPONSIBLE IS?
    A. HYDROQUINONE
    B. ETHER METABOLITE OF HYDROQUINONE
    C. PARA TETRA BUTYL CATECHOL
    D. PARA TETRA BUTYL PHENOL

    47.DOSE OF WHICH CEPHALOSPORIN IS NOT REDUCED IN RENAL INSUFFICIENCY?
    A. CEFIXIME
    B. CEFOPERAZONE
    C. CEFIPIME


    48. TRUE ABOUT ACE INHIBITORS?
    A. HALF LIFE OF ENLAPRIL IS MORE THAN LISINOPRIL
    B. INHIBIT CONVERSION OF ANGIOTENSINOGEN TO ANGIOTENSIN I
    C. FIRST DOSE HYPOTENSION IS NOT SEEN IF PREVIOUS TREATMENT WITH DIURETICS IS STOPPED


    49.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOES NOT CONTRIBUTE TO DIGOXIN TOXICITY?
    A. HYPERKALEMIA
    B. HYPERCALCEMIA
    C. RENAL FAILURE
    D. HYPOMAGNESEMIA

    50.WHICH DRUG USED INTREATMENT OF OSTEOPOROSIS CAUSES BOTH BONE FORMATION AND DECREASED BONE RESORPTION?
    A.BISPHOSPHONATE
    B STRONTIUN RANOXALATE
    C. TERAPEPTIDE
    D. CALCITONIN

    51.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS CAN BE USED IN RENAL FAILURE?
    A.LORAZEPAM
    B.METRONIDAZOLE
    C.THEOPHYLLNE
    D. ACETAMINOPHEN


    52.A GIRL ON SULPHONAMIDES DEVELOPED ABDOMINAL PAIN AND PRESENTED TO EMERGENCY WITH SEIZURE.WHAT IS THE PROBABLE CAUSE?
    A. ACUTE INTERMITTENT PORPHYRIA
    B. CONGENITAL ERYTHROPOIETIC PORPHYRIA
    C. INF MONONCLEOSIS
    D. KAWASAKIS DS


    Pathology


    53.MHC IS LOCCATED ON WHICH CHROMOSOME?
    A. 10
    B. 6
    C.X
    D. 13

    54.BRCA 1 IS LOCATED ON CHROMOSOME?
    A. 13
    B. 11
    C. 17
    D. 22

    55. GENE FOR FOLATE CARRIER PROTEIN IS LOCATED ON CHROMOSOME?
    A. 5
    B. X
    C. 10
    D. 9

    56.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT THROMBOTIC THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA EXCEPT?
    A. MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
    B. THROMBOCYTOPENIA
    C. NORMAL COMPLEMENT LEVEL
    D. THROMBOSIS

    57.ESSENTIAL FOR TUMOUR METASTASIS IS?
    A. ANGIOGENESIS
    B.TUMOROGENESIS
    C. APOPTOSIS
    D. INHIBITION OF TYROSINE KINASE ACTIVITY

    58. COMMON COMPLEMENT COMPONENT FOR BOTH PATHWAYS IS?
    A. C3
    B. C5
    C. C1q
    D. C8

    59.ENZME RESPONSIBLE FOR RESPIRATORY BURST IS?
    A. OXIDASE
    B. DEHYDROGENASE
    C. PEROXIDASE
    D.CATALASE



    60.MOST POTENT STIMULATOR OF NAÃVE T CELL IS?
    A. MATURE DENDRITIC CELL
    B. FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELL
    C. MACROPHAGE
    D. B CELL

    61.NITROBLUE TETRAZOLIUM TEST IS USED FOR?
    A. PHAGOCYTES
    B. COMPLEMENT
    C. T CELL
    D. B CELL

    62.HYPERSENSITIVITY VASCULITIS IS SEEN IN?
    A. POST CAPILLARY VENULES
    B. ARTERIOLES
    C. VEINS
    D. CAPILLARIES



    Microbiology

    63. BIOSAFTEY PRECAUTION GRADE III IS PRACTICED IN ALL EXCEPT?
    A. HUMAN INFLUENZA VIRUS
    B. ST LOUIS ENCEPHALITIS VIRUS
    C. COXIELLA BURNETTI
    D. MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS

    64.MOST COMMON SPECIES OF PSEUDOMONAS CAUSING INTRAVENOUS CATHRTER RELATED INFECTIONS?
    A. P. cepacia
    B. P.areuginosa
    C. P.maltiphila
    D. P.mallei

    65.MOST SENSITIVE DIAGNOSTIC TEST FOR DENGUE IS?
    A. IgM ELISA
    B. CFT
    C. TISSUE CULTURE
    D. ELECTRON MICROSCOPY


    66. A GARDENER HAS MULTIPLE VESICLES ON HAND AND MULTIPLE ERUPTION S ALONG THE LYMPHATICS. MOST COMMON FUNGUS RESPONSIBLE IS?
    A. SPOROTHRIX SHENKII
    B. CLADOSPORIUM
    C. HISTOPLASMA
    D. CANDIDA

    67. WHICH IS NOT A RNA VIRUS?
    A. EBOLA
    B. SIMIAN 40
    C. RABIES
    D. VESICULAR STOMATITIS VIRUS

    68.TRUE ABOUT PRION IS?
    A. ARE VIRUS CODED
    B. CAUSE MISFOLDING OF PROTEINS
    C. CLEAVE PROTEIN
    D. DEFECT IN FOLDING OF PROTEINS

    69. AL ARE TRUE ABOUT BACTERIOPHAGE EXCEPT?
    A. HELPS IN TRANSDUCTION OF BACTERIA
    B. IMPARTS TOXIGENICITY TO BACTERIA
    C. CAN TRANSPER CHROMOSOMAL GENE

    70.A GIRL FROM SHIMLA PRESENTED TO OPD WITH FEVER MALAISE AND AXILLARY AND INGUINAL LYMPHADENOPATHY.CULTURE SHOWS STALACTITE GROWTH.CAUSATIVE ORGANISM IS?
    A.YERSINIA PESTIS
    B. FRANCISELLA
    C. PSEUDOMONAS

    71.TRUE ABOUT CARBOHYDRATE ANTIGEN ARE ALL EXCEPT?
    A. HAS LOW IMMUNOGENICITY
    B. MEMORY RESPONSE SEEN
    C. CAUSES POLYCLONAL B CELL STIMULATION
    D. DOES NOT STIMULATE T CELL

    72.MECHANISM OF ACTION OF PERTUSIS TOXIN IS?
    A. ADP RIBOSYLATION
    B.
    C.
    D. ACTS THROUGH G ALPHA SUBUNIT

    73.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT ISOTYPIC VARIATION?
    A. SUBTLE AMINO ACID CHANGES DUE TO ALLELIC DIFFERENCES
    B. CHANGES IN AA HEAVY AND LIGHT CHAIN IN VARIABLE REGION
    C. CHANGES IN HEAVY N LIGHT CHAIN IN CONSTANT REGION RESPONSIBLE FOR CLASS AND SUBTYPE
    D. THESE ARE AREAS IN ANTIGEN THAT BIND SPECIFICALLY TO ANTIBODY

    74.TRUE ABOUT HYBRIDOMA TECHNIQUE ARE A/E?
    A. NARMAL ACTIVATED B CELLSMYELOMA CELLS
    B. MYELOMA CELLS SELECTIVE MUTATION IN SALVAGE PATHWAY, VIGOROUS PROLIFERATION IN HAT MEDIUM
    C. THYMIDINE KINASE AND HGPRT CATALYSE HE SALVAGE PATHWAY
    D. AMINOPTERIN A FOLIC ANTAGONIST, INHIBITS DE NOVO NUCLEOTIDE SYNTHESIS



    Forensic MEDICINE


    75. WHAT IS FALLANGA?
    A. BEATING ON SOLES WITH BLUNT OBJECT
    B.
    C.
    D.

    76.HYDROCUTION REFERS TO?
    A. DROWNING IN COLD WATER
    B. ELECTROCUTION IN WATER
    C. POST MORTEM IMMERSION
    D. IMMERSION IN BOILING WATER

    77.NOT A CONSTITUENT OF EMBALMING FLUID?
    A. PHENOL
    B. ETHANAOL
    C.FORMALIN
    D. GLYCERINE

    78. THANATOLOGY IS STUDY OF?
    A. DEATH

    79.A MAN WORKING AS A PEST KILLER COMES TO OPD WITH PAIN ABDOMEN AND GARLIC ODOUR IN BREATH WITH TRANSVERSE LINES ON NAILS.POSONING IS DUE TO?
    A. LEAD
    B,ARSENIC
    C.MERCURY
    D. CADMIUM



    PSM


    80.KAPLAN MEIER METHOD IS USED FOR?
    A . SURVIVAL
    B. PREVALANCE
    C. INCIDENCE
    D. FREQUENCY

    81.INCIDENCE CAN BE CALCULATED BY?
    A. CASE CONTROL STUDY
    B. CROSS SECTIONAL STUDY
    C. PROSPECTIVE STUDY
    D. RETROSPECTIVE STUDY

    82.all are true about cluster sampling except?
    a. sample size is same as that of simple random sampling
    b.
    c.
    d.

    83. FALSE ABOUT INDIAN REFERENCE FEMALE IS?
    A. WEIGHS 55 KG
    B. AGE 20-39YRS
    C. 8 HOURS OF MODERATE WORK
    D. WALKING AND RECREATION FOR 2 HOURS





    84. NOT TRUE ABOUT BREAST MILK IS?
    A. MAXIMUM OUTPUT IS SEEN AT 12 MONTH
    B. BREAST MILK PROTEIN IS A REFERENCE PROTEIN
    C. CALCIUM UTILIZATION FROM BREAST MILK IS MORE THAN COWS MILK
    D. COEFFICIENT OF ABSORPTION OF IRON IS 70%

    85.LEPROMIN TEST IS URED FOR?
    A. DIAGNOSIS
    B. TREATMENT
    C. PROGNOSIS
    D. EPIDEMIOLOGICAL INVESTIGATION

    86.FISH IS A POOR SOURCE OF?
    A. IRON
    B. PHOSPHORUS
    C. IODINE
    D. VIT A

    87.FALSE ABOUT VACCINES IS?
    A. THIOMERSAL IS PRESERVATIVE IN DPT
    B.KANAMYCIN IS PRESERVATIVE IN MEASELS
    C. MgCl2 IS STABILIZER USED IN OPV
    D. NEOMYCIN IS PRESERVATIVE IN BCG

    88.TRUE ABOUT BCG VACCINATION IS?
    A. TUBERCULIN TEST IS POSITIVE AFTER 6 WEEKS OF VACCINATION
    B. INJ SITE SHOULD BE CLEANED WITH SPIRIT
    C. WHO RECOMMENDS DANISH1331 STRAIN FOR VACCINE
    D. DILUENT UESD IS EITHER DISTILLED WATER OR NORMAL SALINE


    89.SHORTEST INCUBATION PERIOD IS OF?
    A INFLUENZA
    B. HEP B
    C. HEP A
    D. RUBELLA

    90.INCREASE IN FALSE POSITIVE IS SEEN IN?
    A. HIGH PREVALANCE
    B. LOW PREVALANCE
    C. HIGH SPECIFICITY
    D. HIGH SENSITIVITY

    91.PLASTIC WRAPPER OF SURGICAL SYRINGE SHOULD BE DISCARDED IN?
    A BLUE BAG
    B. BLACK
    C. YELLOW
    D.RED

    92. FALSE ABOUT DDT IS?
    A. CONTACT POISON
    B. RESIDUAL EFFECT LASTS FOR 18 MOTHS
    C. CAUSES IMMEDIATE DATH
    D. PERMETHRIN HAS SYNERGISTIC ACTION

    93.ALL ARE LARVA CONTROL MEASURES EXCEPT?
    A. GAMBUSIA
    B. INTERMITTENT IRRIGATION
    C. DDT
    D. PARIS GREEN

    94.NOT A PART OF SAFE STRATEGY?
    A. AZITHROMYCIN
    B. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION
    C. FACE WASH
    D. SANITATION

    95.GOALS OF NATIONAL POPULATION POLICY ARE A/E?
    A. BRING DOWN TFR TO REPLACEMENT LEVEL BY 2015
    B. DECREASE IMR TO 30/1000
    C. DECREASE MMR TO 100/100000
    D. 100% REGISTRETION OF BIRTH DEATH AND PREGNANCY

    96.BEST INDEX OF CONTRACEPTIVE EFFICACY IS?
    A. PEARL INDEX
    B. CHANDELERS INDEX



    97.TEST FOR EFFICACY OF PASTEURISATION OF MILK IS?
    A. METHYLENE BLUE TEST
    B. PHOSPHATASE TEST
    C.
    D.

    [snip].INCINERATION IS NOT DONE FOR?
    A. WASTE SHARP
    B. CYTOTOXIC DUGS
    C. HUMAN ANATOMICAL WASTE

    99.CYCLO DEVELOPMENTAL LIFE CYCLE IS SEEN IN?
    A.FILARIA
    B. MALARIA
    C.YELLOW FEVER
    D,PLAGUE

    100. TRUE ABOUT NPU?
    A.IT GIVES IDEA ABOUT QUALITY OF PROTEIN
    B. IT IS THE RATIO OF TOTAL NITROGEN RETAINED BY TOTAL N2 INTAKE MULTIPLIED BY 1OO

    101.TRUE ABOUT MAXIMUM ISOLATION PERIOD OF ENTERIC FEVER IS?
    A. UPTO 3 DAYS AFTER STARTING THE TREATMENT
    B. TILL 3 CONSEQUTIVE NEGATIVE STOOL AND URINE SAMPLES ARE OBTAINED FROM THE PATIENT
    C.
    D.



    102.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT RANDOMISED CONTROLLED TRIAL EXCEPT?
    A. SAMPLE SIZE DEPENDS UPON HYPOTHESIS
    B. DROPOUTS ARE EXCLUDED FROM ANALYSIS
    C. INTERVIEWERS BIAS CAN BE ELIMINATED BY DOUBLE BLINDING
    D. GROUPS ARE COMPARABLE ON BASELINE CHARACTERSTICS.


    ENT

    103. USE OF NITROUS OXIDE IS CONTRAINDICATED IN?
    A. COCHLEAR IMPLANT
    B. MICROLARYNGEAL SURGERY
    C. VITREORETINAL SURGERY
    D. EXENTRATION OPERATION

    104. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT NASOLABIAL CYST EXCEPT?
    A. ARISES FROM ODONTOID EPITHELIUM
    B. USUALLY BILATERAL
    C. PRESENTS SUBMUCOSALLY IN ANTERIOR NASAL FLOOR
    D. USUALLY PRESENTS IN ADULTHOOD

    105.MICROWICK MICROCATHETER SUSTAINED RELEASE PREPARATION IS USED IN?
    A. MEDICATION TO ROUND WINDOW
    B. CONTROL OF EPISTXIS
    C. FREIS SYNDROME
    D. DROOLING OF SALIVA



    Ophthalmology

    106.ALL ARE SEEN IN HORNERS SYNDROME EXCEPT?
    A. HETEROCHROMIA IRIDIS
    B. PTOSIS
    C. MIOSIS
    D. APPARENT EXOPHTHALMOS

    107. INCLUSION CONJUNCTIVITIS IS CAUSED BY?
    A. CHLAMYDIA PSITTACI
    B. CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS

    108.MAXIMUM REFRACTORY INDEX IS OF?
    A. CORNEA
    B. ANT SURFACE OF LENS
    C.CENTRUM OF LENS
    D. POST SURFACE OF LENS

    109.WHAT IS SEEN IN 6TH NERVE PALSY OF LEFT SIDE?
    A. DIPLOPIA IN LEFT GAZE
    B. ACCOMODATIVE PAREISIS OF LEFT EYE
    C. PTOSIS OF LEFT EYE
    D. ADDUCTION WEAKNESS OF LEFT EYE



    110.WHIICH ENZYME IS DEFECTIVE IN REFSUMS DISEASE?
    A. PHYTANIC ACID OXIDASE
    B. SUCCINATE THIOKINASE
    C. MALONATE DEHYDROGENASE



    MEDICINE

    111. A 9 YR OLD GIRL HAS DIFFICULTY IN COMBING HAIRS AND CLIMBING UPSTAIRS SINCE 6 MONTHS.SHE HAS GOWERS SIGN POSITIVE AND MACULOPAPULAR RASH OVR METACARPO PHALANGEAL JOINTS.WHAT SHUOLD BE THE NEXT APPROPRIATE INVESTIGATIO TO BE DONE?
    A. ESR
    B. RA FACTOR
    C. CREATINE KINASE
    D. ELECTROMYOGRAPHY

    112.ANTIBODY FOUND IN MYOSITIS IS?
    A. ANTI JO1
    B ANTI SCL 70
    C. ANTI DS DNA

    113.A GIRL ON EXPOSURE TO COLD HAS PALLOR OF EXTERMITIES FOLLOWED BY PAIN AND CYANOSIS. IN LATER AGES OF LIFE SHE IS PRONE TO DEVELOP?
    A. SLE
    B. SCLERODERMA
    C. RA
    D. SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

    114. WHICH RADIOLOGICAL FEATURE WOULD HELP DIFFERENTIATE RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS WITH SLE?
    A. EROSION
    B. JUXTA ARTICULAR OSTEOPOROSIS
    C. SUBLUXATION OF MCP JOINT
    D. SWELLING OF PIP JOINT

    115.ALL ARE SEEN IN REITERS SYNDROME EXCEPT?
    A. SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES
    B. ORAL ULCERS
    C. KERATODERMA BELANORRHAGICUM
    D. CIRCINATE BALANITIS

    116.WHICH OF THE ORGANISM CAUSES REACTIVE ARTHRITIS?
    A. UREAPLASMA UREALYTICUM
    B. GROUP A BETA HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI
    C. BORRELIA BURGDORFERI

    117.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT METACHROMATIC LEUCODYSTROPHY EXCEPT?
    A. FOLLOWS AN INDOLENT COURSE AND SLOW TO PROGRESS
    B. TISSUE BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC
    C. PRESENTS AS VISUAL LOSS AND SPEECH ABNORMALITY
    D. INVOLVES DEEP CORTICAL NEURONS


    118. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MONONEURITIS MULTIPLEX IN INDIA IS?
    A. HANSENS DISEASE
    B. RA
    C. TB
    D. PAN

    119.WISKOTT ALDRICH SYNDROME IS CHARACTERISED BY ALL EXCEPT?
    A. THROMBOCYTOPENIA
    B. AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE
    C. FAILURE OF AGGREGATION OF PLATELETS IN RESPONSE TO AGONISTS
    D. ECZEMA

    120.SPONTANEOUS CSF LEAK OCCOURS IN ALL EXCEPT?
    A. INCREASED ICT
    B. PARTIAL OR COMPLETE EMPTY SELLA SYNDROME
    C. PSEUDOTUMOUR CEREBRI
    D. LOW RISK ENCEPHALOCOELE

    121. TRUE ABOUT FLUORESCENT ANTIBODY DETECTION TEST IN DIAGNOSIS OF PLASMODIUM FALCIFARUM ARE A/E?
    A. IT’S A IMMUNOCHROMATIC TEST
    B. DETECTION OF HISTIDINE RICH PROTEIN 1
    C. DETECTION OF LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE ANTIGEN
    D. DETECTION OF ALDOLASE ANTIGEN

    122.MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA IS SEEN IN A/E?
    A. ANTIPHOSPHPLIPID ANTIBODY SYN
    B.TTP
    C. MICROSCOPIC POLYANGITIS
    D. METALLIC CARDIAC VALVES

    123. WHICH OF THESE IS NOT A MARKER OF ACTIVE REPLICATIVE PHASE OF CHRONIC HEPATITIS B?
    A. HBV DNA
    B. HBV DNA POLYMERASE
    C. ANTI Hbc
    D. AST &ALT

    124.VASODIALATION IN SPIDER NAEVI IS DUE TO?
    A. HEPATOTOXIN
    B. ESTROGEN
    C. TESTOSTERONE
    D. DHEA

    125. IN A EMPHYSEMATOUS PATIENT WITH [bleep] LEISON WHICH IS THE BEST INVESTIGATION TO MEASURE LUNG VOLUMES?
    A. BODY PLETHYSMOGRAPHY
    B. HELIUM DILUTION
    C. TRANS DIAPHRAGMATIC PRESSURE
    D. DLCO





    126.A 29 YR OLD UNMARRIED FEMALE PRESENTS WITH DYSPNEA, HER CHEST X RAY IS NORMAL, FVC-92% FEVI/FVC-89% DLCO-59%. ON EXERCISE HER OXYGEN SATURATION DROPS FROM 92% TO 86%.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
    A. ALVEOLAR HYPOVENTILLATION
    B. PRIMARY PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
    C. INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASE
    D. ANXIETY

    127.A MAN ON 10 DAYS COURSE OF CEPHALOSPORINS ON 8TH DAY OF TREATMENT DEVELOPS HIGN GRADE FEVER AND RASHES ALL OVER THE BODY.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
    A. PARTIALLY TREATED MENINGITIS
    B. TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION
    C. KAWASAKI’S DS

    128. WHICH IS FALSE ABOUT ACRODERMATITIS ENTEROPATHICA?
    A. TRIAD OF DIARRHOEA DMENTIA DERMATITIS
    B. LOW SERUM ZINC LEVELS
    C. SYMPTOMS IMPROVE WITH ZINC SUPPLEMENTATION

    129.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MINOR CRITERIA FOR MULTIPLE MYELOMA?
    A. MULTIPLE LYTIC BONE LEISONS
    B. PLASMACYTOSIS OF 20% IN BONE MARROW
    C. PLASMACYTOMA ON TISSUE BIOPSY
    D. IgG- 3g/Dl IgA-1.5g/Dl

    130.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FEATURES OF UREMIA WILL NOT IMPROVE WITH HEMODIALYSIS?
    A. PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY
    B. PERCARDITIS
    C. SEIZURES
    D. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

    131.NOT A MAJOR FRAMINGHAM CRITERIA FOR DIAGNOSIS OF CHF?
    A. HEPATOMEGALY
    B. CARDIOMEGALY
    C. S3 GALLOP
    D. PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL DYSPNEA

    132.A 54 YR OLD SMOKER MAN COMES WITH FEVER HEMOPTYSIS WEIGHT LOSS AND OLIGOARTHRITIS. SERIAAL SKIAGRAM SHOWS FLEETING OPACITIES.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
    A. ALLERGIC BRONCHOPULMONARY ASPERGILLOSIS
    B. CA LUNG
    C. TB
    D. WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS

    133.MISFOLDED PROTEINS ARE SEEN IN A/E?
    A. PRION DS
    B. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
    C. AMYLOIDOSIS
    D. CREUTZFELDT JACOB DS

    134.ZINC DEFICIENCY CAUSES A/E?
    A. PULMONARY FIBROSIS
    SURGERY


    135.IN A MALE AFTER LAPROSCOPIC CHOLECYSTECTOMY CARCINOMA GALL BLADDER STAGE Ia WAS DETECTED ON HISTOPATH. WHAT IS THE NEXT APPROPRIAT MANAGEMENT?
    A. CONSERVATIVE AND FOLLOW UP
    B. RADICAL PORTAL LYMPHADENECTOMY
    C. RADIOTHERAPY
    D.

    136. BOUNDARY OF TRIANGLE OF DOM ARE FORMED BY ALL EXCEPT?
    A. PERITONEAL FOLD REFLECTION
    B. COOPERS LIGAMENT
    C. TESTICULAR VESSELS
    D. VAS DEFRENS

    137.MOST COMMON SITE OF CURLINGS ULCER IN A BURNS PATIENT IS?
    A. DUODENUM
    B. ILEUM
    C. COLON
    D. OESOPHAGUS

    138.MOST COMMON SITE OF PERIPHERAL ANEURYSM?
    A. FEMORAL A.
    B. POPLITEAL A
    C. BRACHIAL A
    D. RADIAL A

    139. THE CHILDREN HOSPITAL OF EASTERN ONTARIO PAIN SCALE(CHEOPS) FOR RATING POST OPERATIVE PAIN IN CHILDREN INCLUDES A/E?
    A. CRY
    B. TOUCH
    C. TORSO
    D. OXYGEN SATURATION

    140. A MAN COMES TO EMERGENCY WITH STEB INJURY TO LEFT FLANK.HE HAS STABLE VITALS WHAT WOULD BE THE NEXT STEP IN MANAGEMENT?
    A. CECT
    B. CELIOTOMY/SCOPY
    C. DIAGNOSTIC PERITONEAL LAVAGE
    D. LAPAROTOMY

    141. RECURRENT GIST IS DIAGNOSED BY?
    A. PET SCAN
    B. MIBG
    C. MRI
    D. USG

    142. NICOLADONI’S SIGN IS ALSO KNOWN AS?
    A. BRANHAMS SIGN
    B. MURRAY SIGN
    C.
    D. FREI SIGN

    143.NOT A COMPLICATION OF TOTAL PARENTERAL NUTRITION?
    A. CONGESTIVE CARDIAC FAILURE
    B. METABOLIC BONE DISEASE
    C. ESSENTIAL FATTY ACID DEFICIENCY
    D.HYPOPHOSPHATEMIA

    144. SURGERY NOT DONE IN MORBID OBESITY?
    A. ILEAL TRANSPOSITION
    B. PANCREATICO BILIARY DIVERSION
    C. SLEEVE GASTRECTOMY
    D. GASTRIC BYPASS

    145.A PERSON WITH MULTIPLE INJURIES DEVELOPS FEVER TACHYCARDIA TACHYPNEA AND A PERIUMBILICAL RASH. DIAGNOSIS IS?
    A. FAT EMBOLISM
    B. PULMONARY EMBOLISM
    C.
    D.

    146. GLOMUS TUMOUR IS SEEN IN?
    A.PITUITARY
    B. ADRENAL
    C. LIVER
    D. FINGER

    147. HUNTERIAN LIGATURE IS USED IN?
    A. VARICOSE VEIN
    B. POPLITEAL ANEURYSM
    C. AV MALFORMATION
    D. LIMB ISCHEMIA

    148.TREATMENT OF MEDULLARY CARCINOMA THYROID?
    A. SURGERY ALONE
    B. RADIOIODINE ABLATION
    C. SURGERY AND RADIOTHERAPY
    D. CHEMO AND RADIATION

    149.IN A PATIENT OF CARCINOMA BREAST SUPRACLAVICULAR LYMPH NODES ARE POSITIVE FOR METASTASIS.STAGE IS?
    A.II
    B. IIIb
    C. IIIc
    D. IV

    150.BEST TEST TO DIAGNOSE GERD AND QUANTIFY ACID OUTPUT IS?
    A. ESOPHAGOGRAM
    B. ENDOSCOPY
    C. 24 hour PH MONITORING
    D. MANOMETRY

    151.VIRCHOWS TRIAD INCLUDES A/E?
    A. INJURY TO VEIN
    B. VENOUS THROMBOSIS
    C. VENOUS STASIS
    D. HYPERCOAGULABILITY OF BLOOD

    152.A 25 YEAR MALE PRESENTED WITH PAIN ABDOMEN, ON USG MIXED ECHOGENICITY WAS FOUND AT LEFT RENAL HILUM AND A MULTIFOCAL NECROTIC MASS IS DETECTED.PROBABLE DIAGNOSIS IS?
    A. METASTATIC GERM CELL TUMOUR
    B. TRANSITIONAL CELL CARCINOMA
    C. LYMPHOMA
    D. METASTATIC MALIGNANT MELANOMA

    153.MOST COMMON SITE OF CHOLANGIO CARINOMA?
    A. DISTAL BILIARY TREE
    B. HILUM
    C. INTRAHEPATIC BILIARY DUCT
    D. MULTIFOCAL

    154.TRUE ABOUT GLEASONS STAGING?
    A. SCORE FROM 1-10
    B. HIGH SCORE IS ASSOCIATED WITH BAD PROGNOSIS
    C. HELPS IN GRADING OF TUMOUR
    D. HELPS DECEIDE TREATMENT MODALITY

    155.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF ACUTE MESENTRIC ISCHEMIA?
    A. THROMBOSIS
    B. EMBOLISM
    C.NON OCCLUSIVE MESENTRIC ISCHEMIA
    D.

    156.A WOMAN NOTICED MASS ON BREAST WITH BLOODY DISCHARGE.
    HISTOPATH REVEALED DUCT ECTASIA.TREATMENT IS?
    A. MICRODOCHECTOMY
    B. LOBECTOMY
    C. RADICAL DUCT EXCISION
    D. SIMPLE MASTECTOMY


    PEDIATRICS

    157. A 7 YR OLD GIRL WITH NON PRODUCTIVE COUGH, MILD STRIDOR FOR 3 MONTHS DURATION. PATIENT IS IMPROVING BUT SUDDENLY DEVELOPED WHEEZE PRODUCTIVE COUGH MILD FEVER AND HYPERLUCENCY ON CXR AND PFT SHOWS OBSTRUCTIVE CURVE.DIAGNOSIS IS?
    A. BRONCHIOLITIS OBLITERANS
    B. HEMOSIDEROSIS
    C. PULMONARY ALVEOLAR MICROLITHIASIS
    D. FOLLICULAR BRONCHITIS

    158. 3.5 KG TERM MALE BABY BORN OF UNCOMPLICATED PREGNANCY DEVELOPED RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AT BIRTH NOT RESPONDED TO SURFACTANT, ECHO IS NORMAL, CXR SHOWS GROUND GLASS APPEARANCE. CULTURE NEGATIVE.APGAR SCORE 4 AND 5 AT 1 AND 5 MIN.HOSTORY OF I MONTH FEMALE SIBLING DIED BEFORE.DIAGNOSIS?
    A. TAPVC
    B. MECONIUM ASPIRATION
    C. NEONATAL PLMONARY ALVEOLAR PROTEINOSIS
    D. DIFFUSE HERPES SIMPLEX INFECTION

    159. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT CONGENITAL RUBELLA EXCEPT?
    A. IgG PERSISTS FOR MORE THAN 6 MONTHS
    B. IgM ANTIBODY IS PRESENT AT BIRTH
    C. MOST COMMON ANOMALIES ARE HEARING AND HEART DEFECTS
    D. INCREASED CONGENITAL MALFORMATION IF INFECTION AFTER 16 WEEKS

    160. A 10 YR OLD CHILD IS ALWAYS RESTLESS INATTENTIVE TO STUDY AND ALWAYS WANTS TO PLAY OUTSIDE.PARENTS ARE EXTREMELY DISTRESSED.WHAT WOULD YOU ADVISE?
    A. IT’S A NORMALBEHAVIOUR
    B. BEHAVIOUR THERAPY
    C. IT’S A SERIOUS ILLNESS REQUIRES MEDICAL TREATMENT
    D. NEEDS CHANGE IN ENVIRONMENT

    161.A 2YR OLD CHILD BROUGHT TO EMERGENCY AT 3 AM .CHILD HAS BARKY COUGH AND STRIDOR ONLY WHILE CRYING. NARMAL HYDRATION RR-36/MIN T-39.6 C .WHAT WILL BE YOUR NEXT STEP?
    A. RACEMIC EPINEPHRINE NEBULISATION
    B. HIGH DOSE DEXAMETHASONE INJ
    C. NASAL WAS FOR INFLUENZA/RSV
    D. ANTIBIOTICS AND BLOOD CULTURE

    162.BAD PROGNOSTIC FACTOR FOR ALL IS?
    A. AGE 2-8 YEARS
    B. TLC<50000
    C. HYPERDIPLOIDY
    D. t(9:22), t(8:14),t(4:11)



    OBSTETRICS AND Gynaecology

    163.IN Mc ROBERTS MANOEUVRE HIP IS FLEXED AGAINST MOTHERS ABDOMEN.THIS LEADS TO INJURY OF WHICH NERVE?
    A. LUMBOSACRAL TRUNK
    B. OBTURATOR N
    C. FEMORAL N.
    D. LATERAL CUTANEOUS N OF THIGH

    164. ALL ARE DONE IN MANAGEMENT OF SHOULDER DYSTOCIA EXCEPT?
    A. FUNDAL PRESSURE
    B. Mc ROBERTS MANOEUVRE
    C. SUPRAPUBIC PRESSURE
    D. WOOD S MANOEUVRE

    165.A 25 YEAR OLD MARRIED NULLIPARA UNDERGOES LAPROSCOPIC CYSTECTOMY FOR OVARIAN CYST WHICH ON HISTOPATH REVEALS SEROUS OVARIAN ADENOCARCINOMA.WHAT SHOULD BE THE NEXT MANAGEMENT?
    A. SERIAL CA-125 AND FOLLOW UP
    B. HYSTERECTOMY AND SALPINGOOOPHORECTOMY
    C. HYSTERECTOMY + RADIOTHERAPY
    D. RADIOTHERAPY



    166. SAFEST VASOPRESSOR IN PREGNANCY IS?
    A. EPHEDRINE
    B. PHENYLEPHRINE
    C. METHOXAMINE
    D. MEPHENTINE

    167.FALLOPIAN TUBE DYSMOTILITY IS SEEN IN?
    A. NOONAN SYN
    B. TURNER SYN
    C. KARTAGENER SYN
    D. MARFAN SYN

    168.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING INVESTIGATIONS ARE USED IN FIGO STAGING OF CARCINOMA CERVIX EXCEPT?
    A. CECT
    B. IVP
    C. CYSTOSCOPY
    C. PROCTOSIGMOIDOSCOPY

    169.CLUE CELLS ARE FOUND IN?
    A. CANDIDIAL VAGINOSIS
    B. BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS
    C. TRICHOMONIASIS
    D.

    170. BEST INDICATOR OF OVARIAN RESERVE IS?
    A. FSH
    B. ESTRADIOL
    C. LH
    D. FSH/ LH RATIO

    171. A PREGNANT LADY ACQUIRES CHICKEN POX 3 DAYS PRIOR TO DELIVERY.SHE DELIVERS BY NORMAL VAGINAL ROUTE.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE?
    A. BOTH MOTHER AND BABY ARE SAFE
    B. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO MOTHER BEFORE DELIVERY
    C. GIVE ANTIVIRAL TT TO BABY
    D. BABY WILL DEVELOP CONGENITAL VARICELLA SYNDROME

    172. EARLIEST DETECTABLE CONGENITAL MALFORMATION BY USG IS?
    A. ANENCEPHALY
    B. SPINA BIFIDA
    C. MENINGOCOELE
    D. CYSTIC HYGROMA

    173.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE TO PREVENT THE TRANSMISSION OF HIV FROM MOTHER TO BABY EXCEPT?
    A. VIT A SUPPLEMENTATION TO MOTHER
    B. NO BREAST FEEDING
    C. VAGINAL DELIVERY
    D. ZIDOVUDINE TO MOTHER




    174.A 45YR OLD LADY WITH DUB HAS 8mm THICKNESS OF ENDOMETRIUM.NEXT STEP IN MANAGEMENT?
    A. HISTOPATHOLOGY’
    B. HYSTERECTOMY
    C. PROGESTERONE
    D.OCP

    175. ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT PCOD EXCEPT?
    A. PERSISTENTLY ELEVATED LH
    B. INCREASED LH/FSH RATIO
    C. INCREASED DHEAS
    D. INCREASED PROLACTIN

    176.A FEMALE AT 37 WKS OF GESTATION HAS MILD LABOUR PAIN FOR 10 HOURS AND CERVIX IS PERSISTENTLY 1cm DIALATED NON EFFECED.WHAT WILL BE NEXT APPROPRIATE MANAGEMENT?
    A. SEDATION AND WAIT
    B. AUGMENTATION WITH SYNTOCINON
    C. CESAREAN SECTION
    D. AMNIOTOMY

    177.A WOMAN COMES WITH OBSTRUCTED LABOUR AND GROSSY DEHYDRATED INVESTIGATIONS REVEAL FETAL DEMISE.WHAT WILL BE THE MANAGEMENT?
    A. CRANIOTOMY
    B. DECAPITATION
    C. CESAREAN SECTION
    D. FORCEPS EXTRACTION

    178.INVESTIGATION OF CHOICE IN CHOLESTASIS OF PREGNANCY?
    A. BILIRUBIN
    B. BILE ACIDS
    C. ALK PHOSPHATASE
    D. ALT&AST

    179.A FEMALE HAS HISTORY OF 6 WEEKS AMENORRHOEA,USG SHOWS EMPTY SAC,SERUM BETA HCG -1000IU.WHAT WOULD BE NEXT MANAGEMENT?
    A. MEDICAL MANAGEMENT
    B. REPEAT HCG AFTER 48 HOURS
    C. REPEAT HCG AFTER 1 WEEK



    orthopaedics

    180. VELPEAU SLING AND SWATH BANDAGE IS USED IN?
    A. ACROMIO C LAVICULAR DISLOCATION
    B. SHOULDER DISLOCATION
    C. FRACTURE SCAPULA
    D. FRACTURE CLAVICLE

    181. IN POST RADICAL NECK DISSECTION SYNDROME ALL ARE SEEN EXCEPT?
    A. SHOULDER DROOPING
    B. RESTRICTED RANGE OF MOVEMENT OF SHOULDER JOINT
    C. SHOULDER PAIN
    D. NORMAL ELECTROMYOGRAPHIC FINDING
    182. RISSERS LOCALISER CAST IS USED IN THE CONSERVATIVE MANAGEMENT OF?
    A. DORSOLUMBAR SCOLIOSIS
    B. IDIOPATHIC SCOLIOSIS
    C. KYPHOSIS
    D. SPONDYLOLISTHESIS GRADE III

    183. WATSON JONES OPERATION IS DONE FOR?
    A. VALGUS DEFORMITY
    B. MUSCLE PARALYSIS
    C. NEGLECTED CLUBFOOT
    D. HIP

    184. TRENDELENBERG TEST IS POSITIVE DUE TO INJURY TO?
    A. SUP GLUTEAL N
    B. INF GLUTEAL N
    C. OBTURATOR N
    D. TIBIAL N

    185. JOINT NOT INVOLVED IN RA ACCORDING TO 1987 MODIFIED ARA CRITERIA IS?
    A. METATARSOPHALANGEAL
    B. TARSOMETETARSAL
    C. ANKLE
    D. ELBOW

    186.IN POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT SYNDROME WHICH PASSIVE MOVEMENT CAUSES PAIN?
    A. DORSIFLEXION OF FOOT
    B. FOOOT INVERSION
    C. TOE DORSIFLEXION
    D. FOOT ABDUCTION

    187.MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INSERTIONAL TENDINITIS OF TENDOACHILLES IS?
    A. IMPROPER SHOE WEAR
    B. RUNNERS AND JUMPERS
    C. OVERUSE
    D. INTRALEISONAL STEROID INJ


    Dermatology

    188.CHILD PRESENTS WITH LINEAR VERRUCOUS PLAQUES ON THE TRUNK WITH VACUOLISATION OF KERATINOCYTES IN S. SPINOSUM AND S. GRANULOSUM.DIAGNOSIS IS?
    A. INCONTINENTA PIGMENTI
    B. DELAYED HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION
    C. NAEVUS
    D. LINEAR DARRIERS DISEASE

    189.IN CENGENITAL DYSTROPHIC EPIDERMOLYSIS [bleep] DEFCT IS SEEN IN?
    A. LAMININ 4
    B. COLLAGEN TYPE 7
    C.
    D.


    RADIOLOGY

    190.A PT COMES WITH PROPTOSIS AND ABDUCENT N PALSY. A DARK HOMOGENOUS MASS ON T2W MRI IS SEEN WHICH SHOWS INTENSE ENHANCEMENT WITH CONTRAST.DIAGNOSIS IS?
    A. CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA
    B. MENINGIOMA
    C. ASTROCYTOMA
    D. GLIOMA

    191.CENTRAL DOT SIGN IS SEEN IN?
    A. CAROLIS DISEASE
    B. PRIMARY SCLEROSING CHOLANGITIS
    C. POLYCYSTIC LIVER DISEASE
    D.LIVER HAMARTOMA.

    192. ON USG DIFFUSE THICKENING OF GALL BLADDER WITH HYPERECHOIC SHADOW AT NECK AND COMET TAILING IS SEEN IN?
    A. XANTHOGRANULOMATOUS CHOLECYSTITIS
    B. ADENOMYOMATOSIS
    C. ADENOMYOMATOUS POLYPS
    D. CHOLESTEROL CRYSTALS

    193. CT INDEX. TRUE IS?
    A. BY REDUCING kvp BY 50% RADIATION DOSE IS REDUCED TO HALF
    B.
    C.
    D.


    Psychiatry

    194. TYPE TWO SCHIZOPHRENIA(TJ CROW) IS CHARACTERISED BY ALL EXCEPT?
    A. NEGATIVE SYMPTOMS
    B. POOR RESPONSE TO TT
    C. DISORGANISED BEHAVIOUR
    D. CT SCAN ABNORMAL

    195.ACCORDING TO DISABILITIES ACT 1995. SEVENTH DISABILITY AS IT IS USUALLY REFERRED TO IS?
    A. NEUROLOGICAL ABNORMALITY
    B. MENTAL ILLNESS
    C. SUBSTANCE ABUSE
    D. DISABILITY DUE TO ROAD TRAFFIC ACCIDENT

    196. COGNITIVE MODEL OF DEPRESSION IS GIVEN BY?
    A. GODFREY
    B. BECK
    C.
    D.





    197.MOST RECENT MARKER OF ECT IS?
    A. 5-HIAA
    B. CSF DOPAMINE
    C. BRAIN DERIVED GROWTH FACTOR
    D. THYROXINE



    Anaesthesia

    198. FASTEST ROUTE OF ABSORPTION OF LOCAL ANAESTHETIC IS?
    A. INTERCOSTAL
    B. EPIDURAL
    C. BRACHIAL
    D. CAUDAL

    199. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CAUSE NEUROLEPT MALIGNANT SYNDROME EXCEPT?
    A. AMANTADINE
    B. HALOPERIDOL
    C. METOCLOPRAMIDE
    D. DOMPERIDONE

    200. WHICH DRUG ACTS THROUGH ALPHA SUBUNIT OF GABA RECEPTOR?
















    1.embalming fluid constituents?
    2.all are contained in renal medulla except...
    3.spleen projects into the following space except....
    4.thanatology..........
    5.triangle of auscultation..........


    AIIMS nov 2008 recall

    1 central dot sign on ct - caroli disease
    2 latest biomarker found for ect -brain derived growth factor
    3 treatment of refractory histiocytoma -high dose cytosine arabinoside ,my guess
    4 not immunosuppressant -cephalosporin
    5 good prognostic factors in ALL are all except-option containing t99,22
    6class of ifosfamide-alkylating agent
    7 primi 37 wk cervix 1 cm after 10 hrs in labour you do-syntocinon or amniotomy
    8 enhancing lesion on kidney hilum -prpbably lymphoma
    9 stab injury on right flank,pt stable next mgt-ct abd my ans,other celiac angiography,wait watch
    10 not artery supply of sternocleidomastoid -
  2. Guest

    Guest Guest

    here r some of d ques dat i can rem.......

    sling n swathe bandage used for?

    waston jones operation is done for...........

    which passive movement will produce pain in deep post compt synd........

    wiskott aldrich syndrome.....

    factors for poor prognosis of ALL

    all of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except.......
    fundal press
    mc roberts manovre
    woods
    suprapubic press

    post radicle neck dissection shoulder synd has all d follwin except.....
    shoulder pain
    rest. of movement
    normal emg findings...

    mc roberts manovere causes injury to which nerve

    triangle of doom.....

    triangle of auscultation.......

    whwre r d followin genes lcated.....
    mhc
    braca-1
    folate carrier protein...

    refsum's disease..........

    dna without introns is.......
    b dna
    z dna
    mt dna
    nu dna

    genetic basis of congenital epidermolysis [bleep]..........

    hydrocution....

    managent of serous ovarian adeno ca......

    managemnt of ca gb stage Ia discovered after cholecystectomy.............

    drugs for rx of duterosor instability..........

    vasopressor used in preg is.......
    methoxamine
    phenyephrine
    ephidrine

    N2O is not used in which Sx.......
    micro laryngeal Sx
    vitero retinal....

    thalidomide not usd in..........
    hiv realted neuropathy
    enl


    TTP.........

    minor diagnostic criteria of multiple myeloma.............

    function of a subunit of G receptor.......

    MOA of pertusis toxin............

    cefalosporin not requirin dose reduction in renal faliur..........

    anti ca drug excreted by lungs.........

    mesentric ischemia..........


    MC site of curlin's ulcer.........

    mineralocorticoid receptors r not present in........
    hippocampus
    liver
    colon

    horner's synd..

    nitrogen narcosis is caused due to.......

    central dot sign in ct is sen in......

    type II schizophrenia..............

    MC cause of mononueritis multiplex in india.......

    diff b/w sle arthritis n ra on basis of radiological features......

    MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........
    femoral
    popliteal
    brachial
    radial

    function of TPP n biotin..............

    nasolabial cyst.....

    inclusion conjuctivitis is caused by....

    the followin has fallopian tube dysmotility........
    marfans
    kartagener's
    noonan's
    turners
  3. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Q FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LANAESTHETIC
    a)CAUDAL
    b)epidural
    c)brachial

    Q NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    a)interferes with dismutase enzyme
    b)decrease in oxygen radicals
    c)increased production of nitric oxide



    1. TRIANGLE OF DOOM:
    The triangle of doom is defined be vas deferens medially, spermatic vessels laterally and external iliac vessels inferiorly. This triangle contains external iliac artery and vessels, the deep circumflex iliac vein, the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve and hidden by fascia the femoral nerve. Staple should not be applied in this triangle otherwise; chances of mortality are there if these great vessels are injured.



    2. TRIANGLE OF PAIN:
    Triangle of pain is defined as spermatic vessel medially, the iliopubic tract laterally and inferiorly the inferior edge of skin incision. This triangle contains lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and anterior femoral cutaneous nerve of thigh. The staple in this area should be less because nerve entrapment can cause neuralgia.



    3. CIRCLE OF DETH:

    This is also called as corona mortis and refers to vascular ring form by the anastomosis of an aberrant artery with the normal obturator artery arising from a branch of the internal iliac artery. At the time of laparoscopic hernia this vessel is torn both end of vessel can bleed profusely, because both arise from a major artery.


    The surgeon should remember these anatomic landmarks and the point of mesh fixation should be selected superiorly, laterally and medially
    PUBLISHERS
  4. Guest

    Guest Guest

    gold standard investigation for recurrence gist?
    1. pet
    2.mibg
    3.mri


    which one of these is not a cerebellar cortex nuclei
    medullary ca treatment
    common complement component for both the pathways
    true abt ace inhibitors..........they inhibit ansiotensin to angiotensin1....
    achillestendenitis caused by


    child having adhd what will u advise parents?

    seventh disability


    carboxylation which a mino acids?
    lepromin test
    preservatives in case of vaccines
    presynaptic inhibition
    gleason staging
    lungs having [bleep]....... investigation for measuring lung volume
    trendelenberg.......inferior gluteal nerve
    complication of parentral feeding


    Structure not piercing buccinator
    1.Buccal br of facial
    2 buccal br mandible
    3.parotid duct
    4 buccal Glands on buccopharyngeal fascia

    Vasodilation in spider naevi is seen wid

    1.hepatotoxin
    2 Estrogen
    3 testosterone
    4 DHEAS

    Not associated with CHEOPS

    1 .cry
    2 .Touch
    3 .Oxygen saturation
    4 Torso

    45 yrs old lady with c/o DUB .8mm thick endometrium ... wat to be done

    1.Hysterectomy
    2.Progesterone
    3.Histo patho
    4.?????
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    AIIMS Questions Nov. 2008

    Wrapper of surgical syringe to be discarded in ??

    1.Red bag
    2.Yellow
    3 Blue
    4 Black


    Vircows Triad

    1 Hypercoagability
    2 stasis of blood
    3 injury to vessels
    4 ?????


    Vagus stimulation causes

    1.Increase CO
    2.Inc Heart rate
    3.Inc stroke vol
    4. inc R-R interval

    Left Abducent Nerve palsy causes

    1 Left gaze diplopia
    2 inability to accomodate on left gaze
    3 ????
    4 ?????


    Vassopressor of choice in obg

    1 Phenylephrine
    2 Ephedrine
    3 Methoxamine
    4 Mephentermine

    Curlings ulcer seen in
    1 esophagus
    2 duodenum
    3 ??????
    4 ??????


    Fish is deficient in

    1 Iron
    2 Iodine
    3 Vit A
    4 Phosphorous


    Essential for tumor Metastasis is

    1 Angiogenesis
    2 Tumorogenesis
    3 ???????
    4 ???????


    Shortest Incubation period is seen in

    1 Hep A
    2 Hep B
    3 Influenza
    4 Rubella


    Not an RNA virus

    1 Simian 40
    2 Ebola
    3 Rabies
    4 Vesicular Stomatitis virus


    More False +ve seen in

    1 High Prevalence
    2 Low Prevalence
    3 High Specifi...
    4 High Sensiti....


    GERD diagnosis n extent of disease

    1. Manometry
    2. 24 hrs PH
    3. Esophagoscope
    4. ????????


    Recurent GIST Diagnosed by

    1.PET Scan
    2. CECT
    3.MRI
    4.????

    Lepromin test is

    1.Diagnostic
    2.Prognostic.
    3 Treatment
    4 Epidemiologic Evaluation

    Folic Acid gene present on Chr .....

    1 . chr 5
    2 . chr 10
    3 . chr 21
    4 . chr X


    MC Cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india

    1. TB
    2. RA
    3. Hansens
    4. ???????


    Glomus tumor found in

    1 Finger
    2 Liver
    3 Adrenal
    4 Pituitary


    DNA without introns is.......

    1 b dna
    2 z dna
    3 mt dna
    4 nu dna


    All of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except.......
    1 fundal press
    2 mc roberts manuovre
    3 woods .....
    4 suprapubic press


    MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........

    1 femoral
    2 popliteal
    3 brachial
    4 radial


    Fallopian tube dysmotility........

    1 marfans
    2 kartagener's
    3 noonan's
    4 turners


    FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LOCAL ANAESTHETIC

    1.CAUDAL
    2.epidural
    3.brachial
    4.Intercostal


    NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO

    1. interferes with dismutase enzyme
    2. decrease in oxygen radicals
    3. increased production of nitric oxide
    4. ??????

    About DDT false is

    1. Contact poison
    2. Residual effects persist for 18 mnths
    3. Cause Immediate death
    4. Permethrin has synergistic action


    All r larvicides xcept ---

    1.DDT
    2.Gambusia
    3.Intermittent Irrigation
    4.Paris green


    Hunterian ligature done in

    1 Aneurysm
    2 Varicose
    3 A-V Malformation
    4 ???????


    MicroWick and Micro filter is used in administering drug in

    1. Epistaxis
    2. Antibiotics to round window
    3. Frei`s Syndrome
    4. ????????
  6. Guest

    Guest Guest

    q..which joint is not involved in rh artheritis
    1.tarsometatarsal
    2.metatarsophalengial
    3.ankle
    4.elbow


    stimulator of naive t-cell
    1.mature dendritic cell
    2.follicular dendritic cell
    3????
    4.?????


    risser's localiser cast is used in
    1.idiopathic scoliasis
    2.kyphoscoliasis
    4.thoracolumbar scoliasis
    4.????????

    all are true abaut ddt exept
    1.contact poison
    2.persist for more than 18 months
    3.kills prey immediatly
    4.????????


    all supply sternocleidomastoid except
    1.occipital artery
    2.post auricular artery
    3.thyrocervical trunk
    4.superior thyroid artery


    1)capillary filling pressure
    2)depression theory by:- beck, ellis,goldman,??
    3)test for pasturisation:- phosphatase test, methylene blue
    4)not a part of SAFE :- safe excreta disposal,face wash,vit A supple,antibiotic
    5)not a goal of national popu policy:-tfr to replacement level by 2015,imr 30/1000,mmr 100/1000,100% reg of birth death marriage.
    6)circardian rhythm by:-suprachiasmatic nu, supraoptic nu,?
    7)a pesticide worker presents nausea, vomiting,abdo pain,garlic odour, white transverse lines on nails diagnosis? arsenic, lead,???
    8)not a cerebellar cell:-golgi,bipolar, granular, purkinje. ANS IS BIPOLAR
    9)PEARL INDEX
    10)highest ref. index :- cornea,ant. lens cap,post lens cap
    11)braca-1 :- ch.17,ch.13,ch,22


    following are the procedure for morbid obesity sx except
    1.gastric bypass
    2.billiopancreatic diversion
    3.vertical banding
    4.ileo -ilial bypass


    Which segment of git undergoes maximum post prandial contraction
    ascendiNG COLON
    DESCENDING COLON
    TRANSVERSE COLON
    SIGMOID COLON
  7. Guest

    Guest Guest

    which of the following inhibit phosphorylase b
    1.atp
    2.camp
    3.calcium
    4.glucose

    which of the following not contribute to digoxin toxicity
    1.hypomagnesemia
    2.hypercalcemia
    3.renal failure
    4.hypercalemia


    25 years old primi,diagnosed for ovarion cyst gone for sx,histopath shows cystadenocarcinoma..next line of management
    1. bso
    2.chemotherapy
    3.abdominal hysteroctomy
    4.ca-125 follow up25


    which one of the following is not a minor criteria for multiple myeloma
    1.lytic lession of bone
    2.plasmacytosis 20%
    3.plasmacytoma on biopsy
    4.igG-3%,igA-1.5%


    comet tail sign of gallbladder wall on abdominal usg is seen in
    1.adenomyomatosis
    2.xanthogranulomatous gallbladder
    3.cholecystitis
    4.???????


    Q.all of yhe foll done in morbid obesity except
    1.sleeve gastrectomy
    2.gastrectomy
    3.biliopancreatic diversion
    4.ileal transposition


    Q.which drug is excreted by lung
    1.cyclophosphamide
    2.doxorubicin
    3.cisplatin
    4.5-FU


    morbid obesity following procedure are done
    1.sleeve gastrectomy
    2.gastrectomy
    3.ileal transposition


    Q.Marker for ovarian reserve.

    1. LH
    2.FSH
    3.LH/FSH RATIO
    4.ESTRADIOL


    Q.DRUGS USED IN DETRUSOS INSTABILITY A/E

    1.FLAVOXATE
    2.TOLETERADINE
    3.SOLAFENACIN
    4.DULOXITINE


    Q.Marker for ovarian reserve.

    1. LH
    2.FSH
    3.LH/FSH RATIO
    4.ESTRADIOL

    ans is fsh
  8. Guest

    Guest Guest

    a test shows high false positives....reason??
    1. high prevalence of disease
    2. low prevalence of disease
    3. highly sensitive test
    4. highly specific test


    type 2 schizophrenia is not associated with
    1.ct finding positive
    2.poor response to medical trt
    3.negative symptoms
    4???????????


    Spleen projects in

    1 paracolic gutter
    2 infracolic
    3 left subhepatic space
    4 ...??????


    breast ca showing supra clavicular nodes metastasis is in which stage?
    1.1
    2.3a
    3.3b
    4.4


    iapologise fo the last posted options of q regarding breast ca rigth options were
    1.1
    2.3b
    3.3c
    4.4

    wats to be done for obstructed labour with intra utero fetal death with fever and hypotension(not sure abt hypotension )
    1.craniotomy
    2.cesarean section
    3.decapitation
    4.?


    which is the terminal group of colonic lymph nodes..
    a.preaortic
    b.infracolic
  9. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Myositis-specific antibodies

    Myositis-specific antibodies

    The identified MSA targets include 3 distinct groups of proteins: aminoacyl–transfer RNA (tRNA) synthetases (anti-Jo-1), nuclear Mi-2 protein, and components of the signal-recognition particle (SRP).

    Most of the anti-tRNA synthetase antibodies are directed toward functional and highly conserved domains of the enzyme. As many as 6 of 20 aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases have been described, but anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase (Jo-1) is most common (20-30%). Autoantibodies directed toward the other synthetases specific for alanine (anti-PL12), glycine (anti-EJ), isoleucine (anti-OJ), threonine (anti-PL7), and asparagine (anti-KS) have been reported in only about 1% of patients. Anti-Jo-1 autoantibodies were originally described as precipitating autoantibodies in sera of patients with polymyositis. Later, the anti-Jo-1 antibodies were recognized to be specific for patients with polymyositis. The target for the anti-Jo-1 antibodies was one of a family of distinct cellular enzymes: the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.

    The Jo-1 antigen is histidyl-tRNA synthetase. This enzyme is partially responsible for attaching tRNA to their cognate ribosomal RNA (rRNA). The Jo-1 antigen migrates as a 53-kd protein on sodium dodecyl sulfate–polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE).

    The presence of autoantibodies against the Jo-1 antigen has been reported in up to 23% of polymyositis patients by immunodiffusion. Anti–Jo-1 antibodies are almost completely specific for myositis and are more common in polymyositis than in dermatomyositis and rare in children. The presence of anti-Jo-1 antibodies defines a distinct group of polymyositis patients with interstitial lung disease, arthritis, and fevers. The anti–Jo-1 response appears to be self-antigen driven, having a broad spectrotype over time and undergoing isotype switching. Anti–Jo-1 antibodies also inhibit the function of histidyl-tRNA synthetase in humans more than they do in other species.

    Anti-Mi-2 antibodies recognize a major protein of a nuclear complex formed by at least 7 proteins that is involved in the transcription process. Autoantibodies recognizing Mi-2 are considered specific serologic markers of dermatomyositis. They are detected in about 20% of patients with myositis and are associated with relatively acute onset, a good prognosis, and a good response to therapy.

    Anti-SRP antibodies are directed towards an RNA-protein complex that consists of 6 proteins and a 300-nucleotide RNA molecule (7SL RNA). Patients with anti-SRP antibodies have acute polymyositis with cardiac involvement, a poor prognosis, and a poor response to therapy.

    Myositis-associated antibodies

    The MAA are found in the sera of 20-50% of patients and are commonly encountered in other connective tissue diseases. The most important antigenic targets of the MAA are the PM/Scl nucleolar antigen, the nuclear Ku antigen, the small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNP), and the cytoplasmic ribonucleoproteins (RoRNP). The anti-PM/Scl autoantibodies are generally found in patients affected by polymyositis overlapping with scleroderma. Anti-Ku antibodies are found in patients with myositis overlapping with other connective tissue diseases. Antibodies directed against snRNP are frequently found in patients with myositis and in patients with connective tissue–disease overlap syndrome, whereas antibodies toward Ro/SSA 60 kd, Ro/SSA 52 kd, and La/SSB protein components of the RoRNP complex are almost exclusively found in patients with Sjögren syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
  10. Guest

    Guest Guest

    The nasolabial cyst (nasoalveolar cyst, Klestadt's cyst) is now considered to originate from remnants of the embryonic nasolacrimal duct or the lower anterior portion of the mature duct, although a popular past theory presumed it to arise from epithelial rests remaining from the "fusion" of the globular process with the lateral nasal process and the maxillary process. Zuckerkandl may have been the first to describe this cyst, and at least 200 examples have thus far been reported, including one family with a father and daughter having similar involvement. A population study has determined a prevalence rate of 1 cyst per 25,000 adults (Table 1).


    Clinical Features

    The nasolabial cyst has a strong female predilection (75% occur in women) and appears to occur more frequently in blacks than in whites. It is found near the base of the nostril, just above the periosteum, or in the superior aspect of the upper lip, and is bilateral in approximately 10% of all cases. The cyst usually obliterates the nasolabial fold and may elevate the ala of the nose on the affected side. It also obliterates the maxillary vestibule and frequently extends into the floor of the nasal vestibule, perhaps causing nasal obstruction or pressure erosion of the bone of the nasal floor. When located in the lip, there almost always is a fibrous or epithelial attachment to the nasal mucosa.

    Most examples are less than 1.5 cm. in greatest diameter, but some have reached much larger sizes. Injection of a radiopague dye into the lumen will help to define the cyst outline, which may be somewhat irregular, even bilobed. It is not unusual for this cyst to be secondarily inflamed and somewhat tender to palpation. Occasional cysts rupture or drain into the oral cavity or nose.



    Pathology and Differential Diagnosis

    The nasolabial cyst is lined by respiratory epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium, pseudostratified columnar epithelium or a combination of these. Mucus-filled goblet cells may be scattered within the epithelium and chronic inflammatory cells may be seen in the surrounding fibrovascular stroma.


    Treatment and Prognosis

    This cyst is treated by conservative surgical excision, usually using access from the anterior maxillary vestibule. The surgical procedure may have to be extended deeply into the nasal sinus and it is sometimes necessary to remove part of the nasal mucosa in order to remove the entire cys
  11. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Q. Kaplan Meere method is used for estimating

    1.Incidence
    2.Surveillance
    3.Prevalence
    4.??????


    breast ca showing supra clavicular nodes metastasis is in which stage?
    1.1
    2.3a
    3.3b
    4.4
    answer should be 3rd'c'
  12. Guest

    Guest Guest

    1.Which is not a major Framingham criterion for diagnosis of heart failure?
    a. Cardiomegaly
    b. Hepatomegaly
    c. S3 gallop
    d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

    2. Study of death is known as:
    a. Thanatology
    b. Trichology
    c. ....
    d. ....

    3. What is known as Hydrocution?
    a. electrocution in water.
    b. immersion in boiling water
    c. postmortem drowning in water
    d. ....

    4. Embalming solution contains all except?
    a. Ethanol
    b. Phenol
    c. Glycerine
    d. Formalin

    5. Which does not form a boundary of triangle of auscultation?
    a. trapezius
    b. scapula
    c. latissimus dorsi
    d. ....

    6. Which is not a boundary of Triangle of doom?
    a. vas deferens
    b. spermatic vessels
    c. ....
    d. ....

    7. Which structure is not part of the renal medulla?
    a. Collecting duct
    b. loop of henle
    c. ....
    d. ....

    8. Which cells are not seen in cerebellar region?
    a. golgi
    b. purkinje
    c. granular
    d. ....

    9. BRCA 1 gene is located on?
    a. Chr 11
    b. Chr 21
    c. Chr 17
    d. Chr 9

    10. Human MHC complex is located on?
    a. Chr 6
    b. Chr 13
    c. Chr 22
    d. ....

    11. Which is the most important complement which is the first common point between classical and alternative pathway?
    a. C3
    b. C5
    c. C7
    d. ....

    12. Which is not part of blood supply to SCM?
    a. Occipital
    b. Posterior Auricular
    c. ....
    d. ....

    13. Which is not an alkylating agent?
    a. Cyclophosphamide
    b. Busulphan
    c. 5-FU
    d. Melphalan

    14. Which class of drugs does ifosfamide belong to?
    a. Alkylating agent
    b. Antimetabolite
    c. ....
    d. ...

    15. All are immunosuppresants except?
    a. Cyclosporine
    b. Cephlosporine
    c. Steroids
    d. ....

    16. Which anti-cancer drug is excreted by the lungs?
    a. Cyclophosphamide
    b. Doxirubicin
    c. ....
    d. ....

    17. Fallopian tube motility is affected in?
    a. Marfan's
    b. Noonan's
    c. Kartagener
    d. Turner's

    18. A 54 year old smoker comes with fever, hemoptysis, .......... Serial skiagrams show fleeting opacities. What is the most probablr diagnosis.
    a. TB
    b. ABPA
    c. ....
    d. Ca lung

    19. Central dot sign on CT is most characteristic of?
    a. Caroli's disease
    b. ..... cholestasis
    c. ....
    d. ....

    20. Which of the following is not seen in active replication phase of chronic hepatitis patient?
    a. HBV DNA
    b. HBV DNA Polymerase
    c. Anti HBc
    d. AST and ALT

    21. most common cause of intestinal ischemia?
    A. thrombosis
    B. embolism
    .....
    ........

    22.max gastric motility postprandial ?
    ....ascending,
    transverse,
    descending,
    sigmoid colon

    23)essential for carboxylation reaction-
    a. Biotin

    q24)more false positives in -
    a. High Sensitivity

    q.25)disposal of solid wastes, sharps-
    a. yellow bag
    b. black
    c. green
    d. red.

    26 FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LANAESTHETIC
    a)CAUDAL
    b)epidural
    c)brachial
    d)

    27NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    a)interferes with dismutase enzyme
    b)decrease in oxygen radicals
    c)increased production of nitric oxide
    d)

    28) max refractive index-
    a. cornea
    b. ant surface lens
    c. pos surface lens
    d. nucleus

    28)gold standard investigation for recurrence gist?
    1. pet
    2.mibg
    3.mri
    4.

    29)clue cells seen in-
    a. bacterial vaginosis
    b.
    c.
    d.

    30) 9 yr old, female child, difficulty in climbing stairs since one month, gowers sign positive , rash on metacarpo..investigation to be done-
    a. esr
    b. rheu factor
    c.raised creatine kinase
    d.

    31) 'falanga'-
    a. hitting on soles with blunt object
    b.
    c.
    d.

    32)patient in obstructed labour, signs of fetal demise..next to be done-
    a.craniotomy
    b.decapitation.
    c.ceasarian
    d.wait and watch

    34) misfolded proteins-
    a. prions
    b. cruetz feldt jacobs
    c. amyloidosis.
    d. mutiple sclerosis

    35.Marker for ovarian reserve.
    1. LH
    2.FSH
    3.LH/FSH RATIO
    4.ESTRADIOL


    36.DRUGS USED IN DETRUSOS INSTABILITY A/E
    1.FLAVOXATE
    2.TOLETERADINE
    3.SOLAFENACIN
    4.DULOXITINE

    37.all of the foll done in morbid obesity except
    1.sleeve gastrectomy
    2.gastrectomy
    3.biliopancreatic diversion
    4.ileal transposition

    38which one of the following is not a minor criteria for multiple myeloma
    1.lytic lession of bone
    2.plasmacytosis 20%
    3.plasmacytoma on biopsy
    4.igG-3%,igA-1.5%

    39)comet tail sign of gallbladder wall on abdominal usg is seen in
    1.adenomyomatosis
    2.xanthogranulomatous gallbladder
    3.cholecystitis
    4.???????

    40.acrodermatitis enteropathica -whcih is false:
    a)due to zn deficiency
    b)Sx relieved by zinc supplementation
    c)triad to diarrhea demetia n dermatitis
    d)??


    41.which of the following inhibit phosphorylase b
    1.atp
    2.camp
    3.calcium
    4.glucose

    42which of the following not contribute to digoxin toxicity
    1.hypomagnesemia
    2.hypercalcemia
    3.renal failure
    4.????

    43)isolation period in enteric fever-
    a.3 days after starting treatment
    b.3 negative urine and stool examination
    c.
    d.

    44)hybridoma-
    a.
    b.
    c.
    d.

    45.which joint is not involved in rh artheritis
    1.tarsometatarsal
    2.metatarsophalengial
    3.ankle
    4.elbow

    46.stimulator of naive t-cell
    1.mature dendritic cell
    2.follicular dendritic cell
    3????
    4.?????

    47.risser's localiser cast is used in
    1.idiopathic scoliasis
    2.kyphoscoliasis
    3.dorsolumbar scoliasis
    4.????????

    48.all are true abaut ddt exept
    1.contact poison
    2.persist for more than 18 months
    3.kills prey immediatly
    4.????????

    49.all supply sternocleidomastoid except
    1.occipital artery
    2.post auricular artery
    3.thyrocervical trunk
    4.superior thyroid artery

    50.Which segment of git undergoes maximum post prandial contraction
    ascendiNG COLON
    DESCENDING COLON
    TRANSVERSE COLON
    SIGMOID COLON

    51.MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........
    1 femoral
    2 popliteal
    3 brachial
    4 radial

    52.All of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except.......
    1 fundal press
    2 mc roberts manuovre
    3 woods .....
    4 suprapubic press

    53.NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    1. interferes with dismutase enzyme
    2. decrease in oxygen radicals
    3. increased production of nitric oxide
    4. ??????

    54.About DDT false is
    1. Contact poison
    2. Residual effects persist for 18 mnths
    3. Cause Immediate death
    4. Permethrin has synergistic action

    55.All r larvicides xcept ---
    1.DDT
    2.Gambusia
    3.Intermittent Irrigation
    4.Paris green

    56.Hunterian ligature done in
    1 Aneurysm
    2 Varicose
    3 A-V Malformation
    4 ???????

    57.MicroWick and Micro filter is used in administering drug in
    1. Epistaxis
    2. Antibiotics to round window
    3. Frei`s Syndrome
    4. ????????

    58)
    a. maternal mortality rate below 100/100000
    b. IMR less than 30/1000
    c. 100 % instituitional deliveries
    d.

    59.GERD diagnosis n extent of disease
    1. Manometry
    2. 24 hrs PH
    3. Esophagoscope
    4. ????????

    60.Lepromin test is
    1.Diagnostic
    2.Prognostic.
    3 Treatment
    4 Epidemiologic Evaluation

    61.Folate transporter gene present on Chr .....

    1 . chr 5
    2 . chr 10
    3 . chr 21
    4 . chr X

    62.MC Cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india
    1. TB
    2. RA
    3. Hansens
    4. ???????

    63.Glomus tumor found in
    1 Finger
    2 Liver
    3 Adrenal
    4 Pituitary

    64.Fish is deficient in
    1 Iron
    2 Iodine
    3 Vit A
    4 Phosphorous

    65.Essential for tumor Metastasis is
    1 Angiogenesis
    2 Tumorogenesis
    3 ???????
    4 ???????

    66.Shortest Incubation period is seen in

    1 Hep A
    2 Hep B
    3 Influenza
    4 Rubella

    67.Not an RNA virus
    1 Simian 40
    2 Ebola
    3 Rabies
    4 Vesicular Stomatitis virus

    68.More False +ve seen in
    1 High Prevalence
    2 Low Prevalence
    3 High Specifi...
    4 High Sensiti.

    69.Wrapper of surgical syringe to be discarded in ??
    1.Red bag
    2.Yellow
    3 Blue
    4 Black

    70.Vircows Triad
    1 Hypercoagability
    2 stasis of blood
    3 injury to vessels
    4 ?????

    71.Vagus stimulation causes
    1.Increase CO
    2.Inc Heart rate
    3.Inc stroke vol
    4. inc R-R interval


    72.Left Abducent Nerve palsy causes
    1 Left gaze diplopia
    2 inability to accomodate on left gaze
    3 ????
    4 ?????

    73.Vassopressor of choice in obg
    1 Phenylephrine
    2 Ephedrine
    3 Methoxamine
    4 Mephentermine

    74.Structure not piercing buccinator
    1.Buccal br of facial
    2 buccal br mandible
    3.parotid duct
    4 buccal Glands on buccopharyngeal fascia

    75.Vasodilation in spider naevi is seen wid

    1.hepatotoxin
    2 Estrogen
    3 testosterone
    4 DHEAS

    78.Not associated with CHEOPS
    1 .cry
    2 .Touch
    3 .Oxygen saturation
    4 Torso

    79.45 yrs old lady with c/o DUB .8mm thick endometrium ... wat to be done
    1.Hysterectomy
    2.Progesterone
    3.Histo patho
    4.?????
  13. pankej123.

    pankej123. Guest

    1.NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    a)interferes with dismutase enzyme
    b)decrease in oxygen radicals
    c)increased production of nitric oxide
    d...........

    2.gold standard investigation for recurrence gist?
    1. pet
    2.mibg
    3.mri
    4...........
  14. doctor.

    doctor. Guest

    42which of the following not contribute to digoxin toxicity
    1.hypomagnesemia
    2.hypercalcemia
    3.renal failure
    4.????

    4th option hyperkalemia
  15. pankej123.

    pankej123. Guest

    4. misfolded proteins-
    a. prions
    b. cruetz feldt jacobs
    c. amyloidosis.
    d. mutiple sclerosis

    5.which of the following inhibit phosphorylase b
    1.atp
    2.camp
    3.calcium
    4.glucose

    6.which joint is not involved in rh artheritis
    1.tarsometatarsal
    2.metatarsophalengial
    3.ankle
    4.elbow
  16. pankej123.

    pankej123. Guest

    7.All r larvicides xcept ---

    1.DDT
    2.Gambusia
    3.Intermittent Irrigation
    4.Paris green

    8.risser's localiser cast is used in
    1.idiopathic scoliasis
    2.kyphoscoliasis
    3.dorsolumbar scoliasis

    9.Hunterian ligature done in

    1 Aneurysm
    2 Varicose
    3 A-V Malformation
  17. pankej123.

    pankej123. Guest

    10.MC Cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india

    1. TB
    2. RA
    3. Hansens

    11.Essential for tumor Metastasis is

    1 Angiogenesis
    2 Tumorogenesis
    3 neovascularisation

    12.Shortest Incubation period is seen in

    1 Hep A
    2 Hep B
    3 Influenza
    4 Rubella
  18. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    risser's localiser cast is used in
    1.idiopathic scoliasis
    2.kyphoscoliasis
    3.dorsolumbar scoliasis
    4th option is lumbar scoliosis
  19. Guest

    Guest Guest

    stab injury ine the right abdomen , hemodynamics stable wat to be done next

    1 cect
    2 diag peritonel lavage
    3 explore
    4 ......
  20. Guest

    Guest Guest

    which drug excreted by lungs

    1 cyclophosphamide
    2 cisplatin
    3 5 FU
    4 daunorubicin
  21. doctor.

    doctor. Guest

    which of the following inhibit phosphorylase b
    1.atp
    2.camp
    3.calcium
    4.glucose
  22. mni.

    mni. Guest

    IN QUE. not part of renal medulla
    option were..
    1 CD
    2 JG APPARATUS
    3 LOOP OF HENLE
    4 VASA RECTA
  23. buffer.

    buffer. Guest

    dengue fever - most sensitive test?
    tissue culture
    elisa
    cft
    microscopy
  24. mni.

    mni. Guest

    the que about disposal...
    disposal of wrapper of needle done in
    1 black
    2 yellow
    3 blue
    4 red
  25. paraphilia.

    paraphilia. Guest

    i think there was a question on IgG isotypes??anyone remember
    another one was with option as class sithching,attacher to ribosomes,free in cytoplasm?
    there was a question in which one of the option was human breast milk is a referene protein??
    i thinj the question about misfolded pretein was all except??nayone remember
    all the following take part in phase i reaction except-----conjugation
  26. kanhaa.

    kanhaa. Guest

    Q on phosphorylase.... used in glycogenolysis.so it is definitely in an inhibited state in well fed condn.in well fed condn there is plenty of ATP & Glucose.so ans 'll be among these 2 options.SATYANARAYAN writes CAMP & Ca are the stimulatorsof phosphorylase,where as ATP & free glucose in liver are the inhibitors.

    i think the Qn was- in normal condn ,phosphorylase in MUSCLE is in inactivated state due 2
    1.ATP
    2.AMP
    3.Ca
    4.GLUCOSE
    SO ans might be ATP.
  27. paraphilia.

    paraphilia. Guest

    1.Vit k Carboxylation-glutamate
    2.true abt BCG-who recommends danish 1331(repeat)
    3.Carboxylation defeciency:biotin
    4.non functional plasma enzymes a/e lipoprotein lipase
    5.multiple injury,tachypnoea, periumbilical rash-fat embolism
    6.multiple myeloma minor criteria a/e:plasmacytoma(major criteria)
    7.fleeting opacitis in lung: abpa
    8.ttp associated with all except:low complements
    9.not improves with dialysis:peripheral neuropathy
    10.N2 narcosis due to : N2 dissolves in neurons
    11.introns not seen in mitochondrial DNA
    12.TNF Alfa contraindicatedin SLE.
    13.16 year old girl with s/o of raynauds phenomenon is prone for:scleroderma
    14.Not done for FIGO staging of ca cervix:CT scan
    15.Enapril true is:emission of thiazides causes less chances of first dose hypotension.
    16.Max refractory power of eye:cornea
    17.digoxin toxicity a/e : hyperkalemia
    18.Not a immunosuppresent:Cephalosporins
    19.Sulphonamides to girl:Acute intermittent porphyria
    20.Neonatal alveolar prteoinosis
    21.Bronchilitis obliterans
    22.Falangana-beating on the sole of foot
    23.Hydrocution-submersion in cold water
    24.Staclite growth shimla girls:Yersinia
    25.Sporothrix in gardener
    26.Not done for shoulder dystocias: fundal pressure
    27.Hunterian ligature:aneurysms
    28.dystrophic epidermolysis [bleep]:collagen 7
    29.20 year girl with 6th nerve palsy hyperintense lesion on t2 scan-cavernous hemangioma
    30.painful in post. comparment syndrome-passive dorsiflexion
    31.trendelburg positive-inferior gluteal nerve
    32.folic acid transporter gene-21
    33.oxygen burst:NAdph oxidase
    34.Alanine can be replaced by:Tryptophan
    35.Factory worker with mees lines:Arsenic poisiong
    36.ALL TRUE EXCEPT:Zn defeciency causes pulmonary fibrosis
    37.Resistant Histiocytosis-x treatment-Hih dose Cytarabin
    38.Schizophreni Type 2 (T J CROW) A/e:Disorganized behaviour
    39.rafsum diseae:phytanic acid oxidase
    40.mucocutaneous manifestation of Reiters syndrome all true except:Subcutaneous nodule
    41.B-27 associated arthritis,urethritis:Chlamydia
    42.EArliest to be diagnosed by usg:Anencephaly
    43.Supraclavicular node in ca breast:IIIc
    44.Alar plate all develops except:Substantia niagra
    45.Isolation for typhoid fever:until 3 stool and urine test negative
    46.Pearl index for contraceptive effectiveness
    47.CSF pressure maintained by :rate of csf absorption
    48.Cyclodevelopmental:filaria
    49.A lady with signs and symtomsof dermatomyositis;inv to do-creatinine kinase
    50.Ovarian reserve marker:FSH
    51.PCOD all except:increased prolactin
    52.To diff. btwn SLE and RA:Bone erosion
    53.HIV reduced by all except:Normal vaginal delivery
    54.Min incubation period :Influenza
    55.Metastasis in tumor most important factor:Angiogenesis
    56.Thantology:study of death
    57.Central dot sign:Fibrosing cholangitis
    58.Class of ifofosamide:Alkylating agent
    59.Stab injury to right flank,stable vitals:CT scan
    60.BRCA 1 on chromosome 17
    61.Function of G protein:Alfa unit acts as GTPase
    62.Mesentric ischemia MC cause:embolic
    63.Minerelocortecosteroid receptor seen in a/e:liver
    64.MC peripheral aneurysm:popliteal art.
    65.MC cause of Mononeuritis multiplex:pAN
    66.Function of thiamine:Co enzyme for PDH and alfa keto dehydrogenase
    67.Fallopian tube dysmotility:Kartgener syndrome
    68.High false positive:High prevelance
    69.Cluster sampling true except:Same as randome simple sampling(repeat)
    70.Glutathione a/e:Converts hemoglobin to meth hemoglobi(repeat)
    71.Indian reference women all/e:Wt 55 kg
    72.GIST recurrence:pET scan
    73.Gold standard for GERD:24 hr ph monitoring
    74.clue cells:Bacterial vaginosis
    75.Acarbose true all/e:Causes hypoglycemia and both well fed and empty stomach
    76.morbid obesity surgery not done:biliary enteric bypass
    77.Vagal stimulation causes :increased rr interval
    78.FVC 90%,FEV1/FVC-92% decreased DLCO
    decrease in sat on exercise:Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
    79.glomus tumor:finger
    80.Seventh disability:mental illness
    81.detrusor instability not used:Duloxetine
    82.Active replication in Hep B a/e:Anti HbC
    83.Vasodilation in nevus:Estrogen
    84.Not a goal for NHP:NRR of 2.1 by 2015
    85.Circadian rhythm:Suprachiasmatic nucleus
    86.Phosphorylase b inhibited by:ATP(repeat)
    87.HLA gene on chromosome 6
    88.ALL in phase I reaction except :conjugation
    89.Not true for rubella:maxm effect after 16 weeks of pregnancy
    90.Misfolded protein disease all/except:multiple sclerosis
    91.weber fletsher law:
    92.Nicoldisy:brahms sign
    93.Trearment of choice for breast discharge:michrodochotomy
  28. drdipak19.

    drdipak19. Guest

    Definition

    Nitrogen narcosis is a condition that occurs in divers breathing compressed air. When divers go below depths of approximately 100 ft, increase in the partial pressure of nitrogen produces an altered mental state similar to alcohol intoxication.

    Description

    Nitrogen narcosis, commonly referred to as "rapture of the deep," typically becomes noticeable at 100 ft underwater and is incapacitating at 300 ft, causing stupor, blindness, unconsciousness, and even death. Nitrogen narcosis is also called "the martini effect" because divers experience an effect comparable to that from one martini on an empty stomach for every 50 ft of depth beyond the initial 100 ft.

    Causes and symptoms

    Nitrogen narcosis is caused by gases in the body acting in a manner described by Dalton's Law of partial pressures: the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of gases in the mixture. As the total gas pressure increases with increasing dive depth, the partial pressure of nitrogen increases and more nitrogen becomes dissolved in the blood. This high nitrogen concentration impairs the conduction of nerve impulses and mimics the effects of alcohol or narcotics.

    Symptoms of nitrogen narcosis include: wooziness; giddiness; euphoria; disorientation; loss of balance; loss of manual dexterity; slowing of reaction time; fixation of ideas; and impairment of complex reasoning. These effects are exacerbated by cold, stress, and a rapid rate of compression.

    Diagnosis

    A diagnosis must be made on circumstantial evidence of atypical behavior, taking into consideration the depth of the dive and the rate of compression. Nitrogen narcosis may be differentiated from toxicity of oxygen, carbon monoxide, or carbon dioxide by the absence of such symptoms as headache, seizure, and bluish color of the lips and nail beds.

    Treatment

    The effects of nitrogen narcosis are totally reversed as the gas pressure decreases. They are typically gone by the time the diver returns to a water depth of 60 ft. Nitrogen narcosis has no hangover or lasting effects requiring further treatment. However, a doctor should be consulted whenever a diver has lost consciousness.

    Prognosis

    When a diver returns to a safe depth, the effects of nitrogen narcosis disappear completely. Some evidence exists that certain divers may become partially acclimated to the effects of nitrogen narcosis with frequency-the more often they dive, the less the increased nitrogen seems to affect them.

    Prevention

    Helium may be used as a substitute for nitrogen to dilute oxygen for deep water diving. It is colorless, odorless, tasteless, and chemically inert. However, it is more expensive than nitrogen and drains body heat from a diver. In diving with rapid compression, the helium-oxygen mixture may produce nausea, dizziness, and trembling, but these adverse reactions are less severe than nitrogen narcosis.

    Nitrogen narcosis can be avoided by limiting the depth of dives. The risk of nitrogen narcosis may also be minimized by following safe diving practices, including proper equipment maintenance, low work effort, proper buoyancy, maintenance of visual cues, and focused thinking. In addition, no alcohol should be consumed within 24 hours of diving.

    Key Terms

    Compressed air
    Air that is held under pressure in a tank to be breathed by underwater divers. A tank of compressed air is part of a diver's scuba (self-contained underwater breathing apparatus) gear.

    Compression
    An increase in pressure from the surrounding water that occurs with increasing diving depth.

    Partial pressure
    The pressure exerted by one of the gases in a mixture of gases. The partial pressure of the gas is proportional to its concentration in the mixture. The total pressure of the gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of the gases in it (Dalton's Law) and as the total pressure increases, each partial pressure increases proportionally.
  29. bindoc.

    bindoc. Guest

    D REISSERS LOCALISER CAST USED IN OPTIONS ARE----

    1 KYPHOSIS,
    2 THORACOLUMBER SCOLIOSIS ,
    3 LUMBER SCOLIOSIS ,
    4 SPONDYLOLYSTHESIS TYPE3
  30. dramy.

    dramy. Guest

    1)incidnce by
    prospective
    retrospective
    case control
    cross sectional



    2)which is not permanent fold?
    gastric rugae
    spiral valve
    transverse rectal fold
    plicae circularis
  31. dramy.

    dramy. Guest

    1.ribosomes have which enzymatic activity
    peptidyl transferase
    2.circulating filling pressure????
    3.presynaaptic inhibition
    4.m/c mesent ischaemia? thrombotic,emboli,non obstructive
    5.rct trial false is
    ?? is it drop outs not counted?
    6.which pseudo sp causes intravascular inf
    p.aeruginosa?
    7.wiskott aldrich syn
    8.intrahepatis cholestasis in preg
    9.naive t cell stimulator
    dendritic or macrophages
    10.herceptin
    11.misfolded proteins all except..ms,amyloid,prions,cj dis
    12.npu
    13.non functional plasma enzymes all except..hormone lipase,acid phosphatase,lpl
    14.nitrozolium test...phagocytes
    15.spont csf leak not seen...empty sella syndrome,raised icp,pseudo tumor cerebri
  32. ssg123

    ssg123 Guest

    Anticancer drug which excrets thru lung- a)cyclophosphamide
    b)doxorubicin
    c)cisplatin
    d)5-fu
    Plastic rapper of syringe is
    deposited in - a) black bag
    b) blue
    c)yellow
    d)red
  33. drdipak19.

    drdipak19. Guest

    The triangle of ausculation of the lungs is situated behind the scapula.


    It has the following boundaries:

    * above, by the Trapezius
    * below, by the Latissimus dorsi
    * laterally by the medial margin of the scapula

    The floor is partly formed by the Rhomboideus major.
  34. devirante.

    devirante. Guest

    q. drug for osteoporosis, both anti resorptive and bone formation

    from medscape.....

    Strontium ranelate has a novel mechanism of action for an osteoporosis drug, as it acts both on bone resorption to reduce the rate of bone growth (as do the bisphosphonates alendronate [Fosamax, Merck & Co] and risedronate [Actonel, Procer & Gamble]) but also acts on bone formation promoting the growth of new bone (as does the parathyroid hormone product, teriparatide.
  35. Dr saumya

    Dr saumya Guest

    Not a RNA virus- ANS- Simon 40
    A/E about DDT- Cause immediate death
    Cerebellum- Ans- Bipolar Cell
    Pseudomonas- Ans- P. maltophilia
  36. Dr saumya

    Dr saumya Guest

    7th illness- Mental illness
  37. ynod.

    ynod. Guest

    q.7primi 37wks---she is suffering from false labour pains hence we think sedation and analgesia is the right answer

    embalming fluid contains formalin (60%),glycerine ,liquified phenol(10%),methanol but not ethanol./page141 of 18th edition the essentials of Forensic medicine and toxicology -k.s.narayan reddy
  38. tinwintin.

    tinwintin. Guest

    In the pre-HAART era, the prognosis of PML was dismal, with death occurring within 4-6 months after diagnosis. Now, several case series have shown prolonged survival for patients receiving HAART. In a series of 118 consecutive patients from Spain, 63.6% survived for a median duration of 114 weeks (2.2 y) after diagnosis of PML2. Survival times with PML have increased with HAART

    and


    Insidious onset of focal symptoms including behavioral, speech, cognitive, motor, and visual impairment

    Rare headaches, seizures, and neck stiffness

    Subacute evolution over several weeks

    More rapid progression than AIDS dementia complex (ADC)

    HIV-associated inflammatory PML has variable outcome, including fatal course.


    Physical

    Focal neurological signs include aphasia, hemiparesis, ataxia, cortical blindness, and less frequently head tremor. Focal signs tend to be related to posterior brain (eg, occipital lobes).

    Conjugate gaze abnormalities are common. This is the initial presentation in more than 30% of patients.

    Abnormalities may progress to quadriparesis and coma.

    Occasionally, neurological signs are diffuse rather than focal.
  39. drtrichy.

    drtrichy. Guest

    1. Regarding acrodermatitis enteropathica all of the following are true except
    a. It is a triad of dermatitis , diarrhoea and dementia
    b. Autosomal recessive inheritance
    c. Caused by enzyme ............
    d. Treated by giving zinc
    Harrison 17th edition chapter 71
    Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by abnormalities in zinc absorption. Clinical manifestations include diarrhea, alopecia, muscle wasting, depression, irritability, and a rash involving the extremities, face, and perineum
    Q1:Ans: a...... because it does not not cause dementia, all other options are true
  40. genius.

    genius. Guest

    NBT test is done to screen for chronic granulomatous disease.

    Normally, white blood cells called neutrophils make a chemical that kills bacteria. In chronic granulomatous disease, this chemical is missing. The chemical that kills the bacteria is the same one that causes NBT to change from clear to deep blue. If the chemical is missing, the white blood cells will not change color when NBT is added.
  41. drtrichy.

    drtrichy. Guest

    2. All of the following are true about horner’s syndrome except
    a. Ptosis & miosis in ipsilateral eye
    b. Heterochromia of the iris
    c. Anhydrosis of the ipsilateral face
    d. Apparent exophthalmos
    Horner’s syndrome is associated with
    Ptosis
    Miosis
    Enophthalmos
    Anhidrosis
    Loss of ciliospinal reflex
    Eye movements full
    Q2:Ans: d) ........... because horner’s causes enophthalmos not exophthalmos
  42. genius.

    genius. Guest

    Firefly


    Unidentified species from India, dorsal (left) and ventral aspect
    Scientific classification
    Kingdom: Animalia

    Phylum: Arthropoda

    Class: Insecta

    Infraclass: Neoptera

    Superorder: Endopterygota

    Order: Coleoptera

    Suborder: Polyphaga

    Infraorder: Elateriformia

    Superfamily: Elateroidea

    Family: Lampyridae
    Latreille, 1817

    Subfamilies
    Cyphonocerinae
    Lampyrinae
    Luciolinae
    Ototetrinae (disputed)
    Photurinae
    and see below


    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    Genera incertae sedis:
    Oculogryphus
    Pterotus LeConte, 1859

    Lampyridae is a family of insects in the beetle order Coleoptera. They are winged beetles, and commonly called fireflies or lightning bugs for their conspicuous crepuscular use of bioluminescence to attract mates or prey. Fireflies are capable of producing a "cold light", containing no ultraviolet or infrared rays. This chemically-produced light, emitted from the lower abdomen, may be yellow, green, or pale red in colour, and has a wavelength from 510 to 670 nanometers.

    There are more than 2,000 species of firefly found in temperate and tropical environments around the world. Many species can be found in marshes or in wet, wooded areas where their larvae have abundant sources of food. These larvae can also emit light and are often called "glowworms", particularly in Eurasia. In the Americas, "glow worm" also refers to the related Phengodidae.

    Contents [hide]
    1 Biology
    1.1 Light production
    1.2 Systematics
    2 References



    [edit] Biology

    A larviform female showing light-emitting organs on abdomenFireflies tend to be brown and soft-bodied, often with the elytra more leathery than in other beetles. Though the females of some species are similar in appearance to males, larviform females are found in many other firefly species. These females can often be distinguished from the larvae only because they have compound eyes. The most commonly known fireflies are nocturnal, though there are numerous species that are diurnal. Most diurnal species are non-luminescent, though some species that remain in shadowy areas can produce light energy.

    A few days after mating, a female lays her fertilized eggs on or just below the surface of the ground. The eggs hatch 3-4 weeks later and the larvae feed until the end of the summer. The larvae are commonly called glowworms, not to be confused with the distinct beetle family Phengodidae or fly genus Arachnocampa. Lampyrid larvae have simple eyes. The term glowworm is also used for both adults and larvae of species such as Lampyris noctiluca, the common European glowworm, in which only the non-flying adult females glow brightly and the flying males glow only very weakly and intermittently. Fireflies overwinter (some species for several years) during the larval stage. Some do this by burrowing underground, while others find places on or under the bark of trees. They emerge in the spring. After several weeks of feeding, they pupate for 1 to 2.5 weeks and emerge as adults. The larvae of most species are specialized predators and feed on other larvae, terrestrial snails, and slugs. Some are so specialized that they have grooved mandibles which deliver digestive fluids directly to their prey. The diet of adults is variable. It has been reported that some are predatory, while others find food on plant pollen and sometimes nectar.


    [edit] Light production

    Firefly (species unknown) captured in Eastern Canada . The top picture is taken with a flash, the bottom only with the self-emitted light.
    Fireflies in the woods near Nuremberg, Germany. Exposure time 30 seconds.Light production in fireflies is due to a type of chemical reaction called bioluminescence. This process occurs in specialised light-emitting organs, usually on a firefly's lower abdomen. The enzyme luciferase acts on luciferin in this organ to stimulate light emission. Genes coding for these substances have been inserted into many different organisms (see Luciferase – Applications). Luciferase is also used in forensics, and the enzyme has medical uses.

    Bioluminescence is a very efficient process. Some 90% of the energy a firefly uses to create light is actually converted into visible light.[citation needed] By comparison, an incandescent electric bulb can convert only 10 percent of total energy used into visible light, and the remainder is emitted as heat.[1]

    For adult beetles, the production of light is primarily used to locate other individuals of the same species for reproduction. Some species, especially lightning bugs of the genera Photinus, Photuris and Pyractomena, are distinguished by the unique courtship flash patterns emitted by flying males in search of females. Females of the Photinus genus generally do not fly, but do give a flash response to males of their own species.


    Firefly larvaTropical fireflies, particularly in Southeast Asia, routinely synchronise their flashes among large groups, an example of biological synchronicity. In some fields, this phenomenon is explained as phase synchronization[2] and spontaneous order. At night along river banks in the Malaysian jungles, fireflies (kelip-kelip in Bahasa Malaysia), synchronise their light emissions precisely. Current hypotheses about the causes of this behavior involve diet, social interaction, and altitude. In the United States, one of the most famous sightings of fireflies blinking in unison occurred near Elkmont, Tennessee in the Great Smoky Mountains during the second week of June 2005[1]. Congaree National Park in South Carolina is another host to the phenomenon [2].

    Female Photuris fireflies are known for mimicking the mating flashes of other "lightning bugs" for the sole purpose of predation. Target males are attracted to what appears to be a suitable mate, and are then eaten. For this reason the Photuris species are sometimes referred to as "femme fatale fireflies".

    Many fireflies do not produce light. Usually these species are diurnal, or day-flying, such as those in the genus Ellychnia. A few diurnal fireflies that primarily inhabit shadowy places, such as beneath tall plants or trees, are luminescent. One such genus is Lucidota.

    All fireflies glow as larvae. Bioluminescence serves a different function in lampyrid larvae than it does in adults. It appears to be a warning signal to predators, since many firefly larvae contain chemicals that are distasteful or toxic.


    [edit] Systematics

    Cyphonocerus ruficollis, a weakly-glowing member of the CyphonocerinaeFirefly systematics, as with many insects, are in a constant state of flux, as new species continue to be discovered. The five subfamilies listed above are the most commonly accepted ones, though others such as the Amydetinae and Psilocladinae have been proposed. This was mainly done in an attempt to revise the Lampyrinae, which by and by had become something of a "wastebin taxon" to hold incertae sedis species and genera of fireflies. Other changes have been proposed, such as merging the Ototetrinae into the Luciolinae, but the arrangement used here appears to be the most frequently-seen and stable layout for the time being. Though most groups by and large appear to be monophyletic, some (e.g. the tribe Photinini) are perhaps better split up.

    There seem to be two groups of subfamilies: one containing many American and some Eurasian species in the Lampyrinae and Photurinae, and one predominantly Asian one made up from the other subfamilies. While the subfamilies as understood here are monophyletic by and large, there are still a few genera that need to be moved about for the subfamilies to accurately represent the evolutionary relationships among the fireflies.

    The Rhagophthalmidae are a glow worm-like lineage of Elateroidea. They have in the recent past usually been considered a distinct family, but it is still disputed whether this is correct. Indeed, they might be the only close relative of the puzzling firefly genus Pterotus which sometimes is placed in a monotypic subfamily.
  43. genius.

    genius. Guest

    Hybridoma and Monclonal Antibodies in Biotechnology -------------------------------------------
    Enzyme conjugated antibodies are being used for detection of viruses both in plants and animals (including humans) using ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay) tests. Immunotoxins are being produced from gene fusions so that the toxic drugs meant for killing tumour cells may be carried to the target sites with the help of specific antibodies.......................................so fusion not with myeloma cells


    in malaria The antigen histidin-rich Protein 2 (HRP2) remains in the bloodstream for several days after parasites have been cleared, whereas the antigen pLDH has a shorter lifetime in the blood stream and may be a better indicator of infection clearance.what were the other 2 options
  44. genius.

    genius. Guest

    Heterochromia irides may be present if the lesion is in a child younger than 2 years. The affected iris may remain blue when the other iris changes to brown. Iris pigmentation is under sympathetic control during development, which is completed by age 2 years. Heterochromia is uncommon in patients with Horner syndrome acquired later in life


    Sonographic findings of BDHs have been shown as follows: inhomogeneous and coarse echo texture, multiple small hyperechoic or hypoechoic nodules, and multiple spotty echogenic foci with comet tail artifacts.2–4 The color Doppler twinkling artifact appears as a random, rapidly alternating red and blue color Doppler signal behind a strongly reflecting medium, especially when the medium has a rough surface. The color Doppler twinkling artifact can be seen not only with urinary calculi, biliary stones, encrusted ureteral stents, and intravesicular sutures but also with~~~~::::: GALLBLADDER ADENOMYOMATOSIS :::::~~~~ and Bile duct hamartomas (BDHs) of the liver (von Meyenburg complexes) are developmental malformations composed of cystic dilated bile ducts filled with a collagenous stroma.1
  45. dcmymx.

    dcmymx. Guest

    SIDE EFFECTS: Side effects of cyclophosphamide include hair loss, vomiting, diarrhea, mouth sores, sterility and jaundice.

    Cyclophosphamide causes kidney failure, and it also may affect the heart and lungs. Cyclophosphamide suppresses production of blood cells from the bone marrow, including white blood cells (leukopenia), red blood cells (anemia) and platelets (thrombocytopenia). Leukopenia reduces the ability of the body to fight infection, thrombocytopenia impairs the ability of blood to clot, and anemia reduces the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

    Cyclophosphamide also may cause inflammation of the urinary bladder with bleeding (hemorrhagic cystitis). This can result in lower abdominal pain from the bladder, problems urinating due to blood clots, and anemia due to loss of blood.
  46. madan.

    madan. Guest

    lots of repeats were thr..

    bronchiolitis obliterans
    neonatal alveolar proteinosis
    a/c intermittent porphyria-side effect of sulphonamide
    cervical ca -figo diagnostic options-ct exclusion
    dooms triangle
    fish is rich source of alll except
    itp
    micro angiopathic hemolytic anaemia
    nadph oxidative burst
    fire fly-creatine phosphate
    arsenic poisoning
    rissers splint-scoliosis
    smoker with migrating opacities- ca/abpa/wegners
    dehydrated mother with fetal demise-c section/craniotomy
    ct index
    deprrssion coined by
    schizophrenia type 2
    all prognostic indicators
    lepromin test
    true abt vaccines all except-bcg-neomycin ,dpt +mg,dpt+thiomrsal,kanamycin + measles
    endometrial ca rx options
    reitters disease-al except circinate balanitis
    ritters disease
    bcg _ danish strain 1331
    pertusis toxin -activates adenyl cyclase
    epidermolyssis [bleep] -collagen 7/laminin
    sporothrix in gardener (lesion in fore arm and hand
    yersinia pestis _ lymphadenopathy
    chicken pox mother to child transmission
    hiv mother to child prevention-zidovudine
    hiv mother to child prevention all except-vag delivery
    nicoladinis sign
    darriers disease
    mhc gene
    clue cells
    therapeutic index
    ra/sle joint diff
    multiple myeloma minor criteria
    chf criteria -hepatomegaly/cardiomegaly/pnd/s3
    chops criteria -touch/cry/tone/torso
    barking cough ,stridor and wheeze in a child-rsv and influenza
    renal failure cephalosporin c/i all except- cefuroxime
    isotyping of antibodies
    antibodies in myositis
    falanga
    anti hbc -hepatitis activity
    metastasis is due to -tumorigeensis,angiogenesis,apoptosis,
    alternate and classical pathway
    rna viruses except-ebola?
    ovarian reserve markers
    shortest incubation period
    cholangioca commonest site
    curling's ulcer commonest site-duodenum
    tga
    digitalis toxicity -hyperkalemia
    cardiomyopathy causing drugs
    drug excreted by lung-cisplatin
    phosphorylase b inhibited by-amp
    pda -collaterals all except-sup thoracic artery
    dmdystrophy - creatine kinase def
    hydrocution
    hybridization technique
    brca1 gene locus
    duct ectasia rx
    ovarian serous cystadeno ca- further mangmnt
    virchows triad
    n2o
    ace inhibitors true is

    weber fechner law
    indian reference women
    mct -rx
    cells of cerebellar cortex
    suprachiasmatic tumour with hyper echoeic centre
    fastest action la-caudal/epidural/brachial/intercostal
    commonest aneurysm in periphery-popliteal
    liver toxicity-lorazepam
    sh groups
    refractive index highest
    type 3 hyper sensitivity
    fat embolism
    catheter associated endocarditis-pseudomonas
    pregnancy with intra hepatic biliary obstruction-alk phospatase


    rct
    incidence rate calculated by-cohort
    vit a prophylaxis
    safestategy
    waste disposal-sharps-not incinerated
    plastic cover of syringe disposed in-
    ddt-immediate killing
    anti larval measures
    horners synd all except-apparent exophthalmos
    terminal colic nodes-?pre aortic
    stage 3c ca -
    mesentric ishchemia commonly due to- art thrombus/venous thrombus/embolism/non trombotic stenosis
  47. aditi82

    aditi82 Guest

    just compiling the good work of various persons in aiims thread including dcmyx, meet202,rohitboil & my own search, well my internet is very slow can anybody tell what percentage will go to get in top 200

    doxorubicin.ref Goodman
    biosafety level 3 influenza

    Regarding acrodermatitis enteropathica all of the following are true except
    a. It is a triad of dermatitis , diarrhoea and dementia
    b. Autosomal recessive inheritance
    c. Caused by enzyme ............
    d. Treated by giving zinc
    Harrison 17th edition chapter 71
    Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by abnormalities in zinc absorption. Clinical manifestations include diarrhea, alopecia, muscle wasting, depression, irritability, and a rash involving the extremities, face, and perineum
    Q1:Ans: a...... because it does not not cause dementia, all other options are true


    All of the following are true about horner’s syndrome except
    a. Ptosis & miosis in ipsilateral eye
    b. Heterochromia of the iris
    c. Anhydrosis of the ipsilateral face
    d. Apparent exophthalmos
    Horner’s syndrome is associated with
    Ptosis
    Miosis
    Enophthalmos
    Anhidrosis
    Loss of ciliospinal reflex
    Eye movements full

    which joint is not involved in rh artheritis
    1.tarsometatarsal
    2.metatarsophalengial
    3.ankle
    4.elbow
    stimulator of naive t-cell
    1.mature dendritic cell
    2.follicular dendritic cell
    3????
    4.?????
    risser's localiser cast is used in
    1.idiopathic scoliasis
    2.kyphoscoliasis
    4.thoracolumbar scoliasis
    4.????????
    all are true abaut ddt exept
    1.contact poison
    2.persist for more than 18 months
    3.kills prey immediatly
    4.????????
    all supply sternocleidomastoid except
    1.occipital artery
    2.post auricular artery
    3.thyrocervical trunk
    4.superior thyroid artery


    1)capillary filling pressure
    2)depression theory by:- beck, ellis,goldman,??
    3)test for pasturisation:- phosphatase test, methylene blue
    4)not a part of SAFE :- safe excreta disposal,face wash,vit A supple,antibiotic
    5)not a goal of national popu policy:-tfr to replacement level by 2015,imr 30/1000,mmr 100/1000,100% reg of birth death marriage.
    6)circardian rhythm by:-suprachiasmatic nu, supraoptic nu,?
    7)a pesticide worker presents nausea, vomiting,abdo pain,garlic odour, white transverse lines on nails diagnosis? arsenic, lead,???
    8)not a cerebellar cell:-golgi,bipolar, granular, purkinje. ANS IS BIPOLAR
    9)PEARL INDEX
    10)highest ref. index :- cornea,ant. lens cap,post lens cap
    11)braca-1 :- ch.17,


    following are the procedure for morbid obesity sx except
    1.gastric bypass
    2.billiopancreatic diversion
    3.vertical banding
    4.ileo -ilial bypassAll of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except.......
    1 fundal press
    2 mc roberts manuovre
    3 woods .....
    4 suprapubic press

    MC site of peripheral aneurysm is........
    1 femoral
    2 popliteal
    3 brachial
    4 radial

    Fallopian tube dysmotility........
    1 marfans
    2 kartagener's
    3 noonan's
    4 turners

    FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LOCAL ANAESTHETIC
    1.CAUDAL
    2.epidural
    3.brachial
    4.Intercostal

    NITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    1. interferes with dismutase enzyme
    2. decrease in oxygen radicals
    3. increased production of nitric oxide
    4. ??????

    All r larvicides xcept ---
    1.DDT
    2.Gambusia
    3.Intermittent Irrigation
    4.Paris green

    A 5 year old boy suffering from Duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anaesthetic would be:
    A. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O & halothane for maintenance.
    B. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O & oxygen for maintenance.
    C. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O & halothane for maintenance.
    D. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O & oxygen for maintenance.

    central dot sign on ct - caroli disease
    2 latest biomarker found for ect -brain derived growth factor
    3 treatment of refractory histiocytoma -high dose cytosine arabinoside ,my guess
    --not immunosuppressant -cephalosporin
    --good prognostic factors in ALL are all except-option containing t99,22
    --class of ifosfamide-alkylating agent
    --primi 37 wk cervix 1 cm after 10 hrs in labour you do-syntocinon or amniotomy
    ---enhancing lesion on kidney hilum -prpbably lymphoma
    -stab injury on right flank,pt stable next mgt-ct abd my ans,other celiac angiography,wait watch
    1-not artery supply of sternocleidomastoid –


    all of d follwin r done in shoulder dystocia except.......
    fundal press
    mc roberts manovre
    woods
    suprapubic press

    post radicle neck dissection shoulder synd has all d follwin except.....
    shoulder pain
    rest. of movement
    normal emg findings...


    dna without introns is.......
    b dna
    z dna
    mt dna
    nu dna


    vasopressor used in preg is.......
    methoxamine
    phenyephrine
    ephidrine

    N2O is not used in which Sx.......
    micro laryngeal Sx
    vitero retinal....

    thalidomide not usd in..........
    hiv realted neuropathy
    enl


    the followin has fallopian tube dysmotility........
    marfans
    kartagener's
    noonan's
    turners

    CHEOPS scale, not a component...
    a.cry
    b.trunk
    c.o2 sat
    d.torso

    All are antilarvicidal measures except
    a.paris green
    b. gambusia
    c.DDT
    d.intermittent irrigation

    59 yr old smoker, fever on and off, hemoptysis, oligoarthritis.serial x-ray shows fleeting opacities...
    a. ABPA
    b. Ca lung
    .....
    .....

    6. preservative not used in embalming
    a. formalin
    b. phenol
    c.ethanol
    d. glyceraldehyde (ans)

    7. nulliparous with ovarian cystectomy, HPE shows serous cystadenocarcinoma

    a. TAH with BSO
    b. ?? BSO
    c. F/U with USG and CA 125
    d......

    8. 10 yr old boy , cannot concentrate in studies....hyperactive, restless

    a. Normal
    b. behaviour therapy
    c. serious ds,, medicate
    d. envir. change

    9. wiskott aldrich, not correct
    a. thrombocytopenia
    b. AR
    c. ???
    d???

    10. DDT ,
    a. contact poison
    b. immed death
    c. synergistic axn with ??parathion
    d......

    11. primi, mild contractions since 10 hrs, 1cm effaced, mx
    a. augment with synto
    b. CS
    c. amniotomy
    d. expectant
    3. CHEOPS scale, not a component...
    a.cry
    b.trunk
    c.o2 sat
    d.torso


    FASTEST ROOT OF ABSORPTION FOR LANAESTHETIC
    a)CAUDAL
    b)epidural
    c)brachial
    d)
    QNITROGEN NARCOSIS IS DUE TO
    a)interferes with dismutase enzyme
    b)decrease in oxygen radicals
    c)increased production of nitric oxide
    d)


    Structure not piercing buccinator
    1.Buccal br of facial
    2 buccal br mandible
    3.parotid duct
    4 buccal Glands on buccopharyngeal fascia
    Vasodilation in spider naevi is seen wid

    1.hepatotoxin
    2 Estrogen
    3 testosterone
    4 DHEAS
    Not associated with CHEOPS

    1 .cry
    2 .Touch
    3 .Oxygen saturation
    4 Torso


    45 yrs old lady with c/o DUB .8mm thick endometrium ... wat to be done

    1.Hysterectomy
    2.Progesterone
    3.Histo patho
    4.?????

    Spontaneous csf leakage seen in
    raised ict
    pseudotumour cerebri
    ?
    ?

    max refractive index is for A.cornea
    B.ant surface of lens
    C.post surface of the lens
    D.centroid of lens
    Ans. D.centroid ref:parson
    Accordin to the Parliament Disability Act,seventh disability is:a.mental illness
    b.substance abuse
    c.RTA illness
    d.?
    Ans mental illness ref:google
    involvement of supraclavicular lymph nodes in Ca breast makes it IIIc ref :any surg book
    Kaplan Meier method is done for a.survival
    b.prevalance
    c.incidence
    d.frequency
    Ans:survival ref:google
    mc cause of mononeuritis multiplex in india :pAN
    repeat question.Hansens is polyneuritis

    Central dot sign on CT scan: Caroli's disease
    ref:google

    Wat is not a major criteria in Framinghams for CCF
    a.hepatomegaly
    b.cardiomegaly
    c.PND
    d.S3 gallop
    ans. hepatomegaly ref:harrison

    ifosfamide is-alkylating agent ref:any pharmac classification

    which is not present in the renal medulla?
    a.GJ apparatus
    b.collecting duct
    c.loop f henle
    d.vasa recta
    ans: GJ apparatus ref: BDC

    Refsum's disease- defect in phytanic acid oxidase
    ref:satyanarayan or ophthalm across-retinitis pigmentosa



    How to diagnose recurrent GIST?
    CT
    MRI
    MIBG
    ?
    _________________

    test for pasturization?
    >phosphatase test
    >methylene blue test
    >??
    >??
    ans is phosphatase test

    ddt- all r true except-
    >contact poison
    >kills immediately
    >action lasts 4 18 months
    >permethrin has synergistic effect
    ans is kills imm........
    ref parksorry it was pyrethrum



    all of the following nuclei develop from alar plate except....
    dentate
    inferior olivary
    substatia nigra
    hypoglossal
  48. aditi82

    aditi82 Guest

    Embalming chemicals are a variety of preservatives, sanitising and disinfectant agents and additives used in modern embalming to temporarily prevent decomposition and restore a natural appearance for viewing a body after death. A mixture of these chemicals is known as embalming fluid and is used to preserve deceased (dead) individuals, sometimes only until the funeral, other times indefinitely.

    Typically embalming fluid contains a mixture of formaldehyde, methanol, ethanol and other solvents. The formaldehyde content generally ranges from 5 to 29 percent and the ethanol content may range from 9 to 56 percent.
  49. paraphilia.

    paraphilia. Guest

    The arterial supply of Strenocleidomasstoid is all ecept:
    1.posterior auricular artery
    2.occipital artery
    3.Inferior thyroid aretery
    4.Branches from thyrocervical trunk

    Ans :Inferior thyroid aretry



    Reference from GRAYS Anatomy PAGE 536

    Scm is supplied upper 1/3rd by branches from posterior auricular and occipital.
    Middle part from superiothyroid aretry
    lower part from suprascapular artery which is a branch from thyrocervical trunk.

    In case if the option had superior thyroid artery then the answer would be thyrocervical trunk as it gives rise to 2 more arteries!!!!!
  50. changu.

    changu. Guest

    MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MONONEURITIS MULTIPLEX IN INDIA-

    1.TB
    2.RA
    3.hansen's disease
    4.polyarteritis nodosa

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