AIPGMEE 2011 RECALL- All 300 Questions with Ans

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    1. Most common nerve injured in supracondylar fracture humerus?
    a. Median………………ans
    b. Radial
    c. Ulnar
    d. Axilary

    2. Damage to Superior oblique nerve causes diplopia
    a. Horizontal and downward
    b. Vertical and downward
    c. Horizontal and upward
    d. Vertical and upward

    3. Which of the following contraception method is contraindicated in women with epilepsy?
    a. Oral Contraceptive pill …………..ans
    b. IUCD
    c. Condom
    d. Mifepristone

    4. Deoxygenated blood is not seen in
    a. Pulmonary artery
    b. Umbilical artery
    c. Umbilical vein………ans
    d. Renal vein

    5. Which of the following is not supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve (V3) ?
    A. Temporalis
    B. Medial pterygoid………..ans
    C. Lateral pterygoid
    D. Masseter

    6. All of the following are pneumatic bones except?
    A. Frontal
    B. Ethmoid
    C. Mandible……….ans
    D. Maxilla

    7. Which of the following is not a contraindication for pregnancy?
    A. WPW syndrome………….ans
    B. Pulmonary hypertension
    C. Eisenmenger syndrome
    D. Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilatation

    8. Which of the following is a contraindication for medical treatment in gallstones?
    A. Radio opaque stones………..ans
    B. Radiolucent stones
    C. Normal functioning gall bladder
    D. Small stones

    9. Low dose oral contraceptive pill contains?
    A. Levonorgestrel…………ans
    B. Norgestrel
    C. Desogestrel
    D. Norethihisterone

    10. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in a patient on Lithium in order to prevent toxicity?
    A. Clonidine
    B. Beta blockers
    C. Calcium channel blockers
    D. Diuretics………….ans

    11. Superior vena caval syndrome is most commonly caused by?
    A. Lymphoma
    B. Small cell lung ca………….ans
    C. Non small cell lung ca
    D. Secondary tumours

    12. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of thalidomide?
    A. Diarrhoea………….ans
    B. Teratogenicity
    C. DVT
    D. Peripheral neuropathy

    13. Blount’s disease is:
    A. Genu valgum
    B. Genu varum………..ans
    C. Genu recurvatum
    D. Menisceal injury

    14. A teenaged girl complains of pain in knee on climbing stairs and on getting up after sitting for a long time. What is the probable diagnosis?
    A. Chondromalacia
    B. Plica syndrome
    C. Bipartite patella
    D. Patello-femoral osteoarthritis

    15. Which of the following is not included in parenteral nutrition?
    A. Fat
    B. Carbohydrate
    C. Fibre……………ans
    D. Micronutrients

    16. Sparrow marks are seen in?
    A. Gunshot injuries
    B. Stab injury of face
    C. Vitriolage
    D. Windshield glass injury…………..ans?

    17. Which organ obtained from a cadaver is not used for transplantation?
    A. Blood vessel
    B. Lung
    C. Liver
    D. Bladder

    18. 17-Amphotericin B causes deficiency of?
    A. Na
    B. Ca
    C. K…………..ans
    D. Mg

    19. 18-All are seen in injury to common peroneal nerve except?
    A. Loss of sensation over sole……………….ans
    B. Foot drop
    C. Injury to neck of fibula
    D. Loss of dorsiflexion of toe

    20. 19-Cause of premature death in schizophrenia?
    A. Homicide
    B. Suicide……………ans
    C. Toxicity of antipsychotic drug
    D. Hospital acquired infection

    21. 20-Epileptic potential is present in
    A. Desflurane
    B. Halothane
    C. Sevoflurane…………….ans
    D. Ether

    22. 21-Which among the following is the best inotrope drug for use in right heart failure?
    A. Dobutamine
    B. Amrinone
    C. Halothane
    D. Milrinone

    23. 22-Which of the following anesthetic drugs is contraindicated in a patient with hypertension?
    A. Ketamine……………ans
    B. Propofol
    C. Etomidate
    D. Diazepam

    24. 23-Baby born at 33 weeks / 1.5 kg should be started on?
    A. Nil oral and IV fluids
    B. Oral nasogastric tube / alternate oral route………………ans
    C. IV fluids and oral feeding
    D. TPN

    25. 24-A patient has a single kidney with an exophytic mass of 4 cm size at it’s lower pole. Which among the following is the best course of action?
    A. Partial nephrectomy…………….ans
    B. Radical nephrectomy with dialysis
    C. Radical nephrectomy with immediate renal transplant
    D. Observation

    26. 25-All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis except?
    A. Alendronate
    B. Etidronate
    C. Strontium
    D. Teriparatide………….ans

    27. 26-Ondoni cells and Haller cells are associated with the following structures respectively?
    A. Optic nerve and Orbital floor
    B. Optic nerve and Internal carotid artery
    C. Internal carotid artery and Optic nerve
    D. Orbital floor and Internal carotid artery

    28. 27-Pain sensation from the ethmoid sinus is carried by :
    A. Frontal nerve
    B. Lacrimal nerve
    C. Nasociliary nerve…………..ans
    D. Infraorbital nerve

    29. 28-Which among the following is not used to treat alcohol dependence?
    A. Flumazenil ………………..ans
    B. Acamprosate
    C. Naltrexone
    D. Disulfiram

    30. 29-Which among the following is the most common fungal infection seen in immuno competent patients?
    A. Aspergillus
    B. Candida
    C. Cryptococcus
    D. Mucor

    31. 30-All are seen in Argyl Robertson pupil except?
    A. Near reflex normal
    B. Direct reflex absent
    C. Consensual reflex normal
    D. Vision normal

    32. 31-A 5 year old boy while having dinner suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to the casulty for the complaint of respiratory difficulty. What should be the appropriate management?
    A. Cricothyroidotomy
    B. Emergency tracheostomy
    C. Humidified oxygen
    D. Heimlich maneuver………..ans

    33. 32-Which among the following is a branch from the trunk of brachial plexus?
    A. Suprascapular nerve…………..ans?
    B. Long thoracic nerve
    C. Anterior thoracic nerve
    D. Nerve to subclavius………………..ans?

    34. 33-Orthotolidine test is used for detecting:
    A. Chlorine…………ans
    B. Nitrites
    C. Nitrates
    D. Ammonia

    35. 34-Which among the following is the most common tumour associated with neurofibromatosis in a child?
    A. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia………….ans
    a. B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    C. Acute monocytic leukemia
    D. Acute myeloid leukemia

    36. Diaphragm develops from all except:
    A. Septum transversum
    B. Dorsal mesocardium
    C. Pleuroperitoneal membrane
    D. Cervical myotomes

    37. ECG is poor at detecting ischaemia in areas supplied by?
    A. Left anterior descending
    B. Left circumflex
    C. Left coronary artery
    D. Right coronary artery

    38. A patient with history of discharge from right ear for past 1 year presented with severe ear ache. The discharge was cultured and the organism was found to be gram positive cocci. The least likely cause is?
    A. Psuedomonas
    B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    C. Staphylococcus
    D. Haemophilus influenza…………..ans

    39. Erythema nodosum is seen in all except:
    A. Pregnancy
    B. Tuberculosis
    C. SLE
    D. Chronic pancreatitis………..ans

    40. Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all except?
    A. Common bile duct
    B. First part of duodenum …………..ans
    C. Aorta
    D. Inferior vena cava

    41. Multiple sebaceous cysts seen in:
    A. Gardner’s syndrome
    B. Turcot syndrome
    C. Torre Maura syndrome………….ans
    D. Cowden syndrome

    42. Which among the following is the hallmark of acute inflammation?
    A. Vasoconstriction
    B. Stasis
    C. Vasodilation and increase in permeability………….ans
    D. Leukocyte margination

    43. A fire breaks out during laser vocal cord surgery. What is not to be done?
    A. Pouring sterile water
    B. Removing endotracheal tube
    C. 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic gases
    D. Treatment with steroid & antibiotic

    44. Which insect among the following is not resistant to DDT?
    A. Musca domestica
    B. Phlebotomus…………..ans
    C. Culex
    D. Anopheles stephensi

    45. Which virus among the following is least likely to cross placenta?
    A. Rubella
    B. Herpes simplex……………………ans
    C. HIV
    D. HBV

    46. Which among the following does not cause hyperpyrexia?
    A. MAOI
    B. Alcohol
    C. Cresol
    D. Amphetamine

    47. Which is not seen in digoxin toxicity?
    A. Biventricular tachycardia
    B. Proxysmal atrial tachycardia
    C. Ventricular bigeminy
    D. Regularisation of AF
    i.
    49. Which of the following does not cause indoor air pollution?
    A. CO
    B. Nitrogen dioxide
    C. Radon
    D. Mercury vapor

    51. All are true about neuronal tumors except?
    A. 90% are malignant
    B. 95% occur in the abdomen
    C. They secrete catecholamines
    D. They arise from sympathetic ganglions

    52. Most important and potential agent that can be used in bioterrorism:
    A. Plague
    B. Small pox
    C. TB
    D. Clostridium botulinum

    53. True about epidural opioids are all except?
    A. Acts on dorsal horn cell
    B. Itching
    C. Nausea & vomiting
    D. Respiratory depression

    54. Most common site of obstruction after TURP?
    A. Navicullar foss
    B. Bulb
    C. Prostatic membranous urethra
    D. Bladder neck

    55. Intraoperative myocardial infarction is best diagnosed by:
    A. ECG
    B. Invasive arterial pressure
    C. Central venous pressure
    D. Trans esophageal echo

    56. Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon seen in
    A. Psoriasis
    B. Lichen planus
    C. Vitiligo
    D. Plane warts

    57. Some antigen was injected into a rabbit. What antibody will it produce initially?
    A. IgG
    B. IgM…………….ans
    C. IgE
    D. IgD

    58. Regarding PCOD, all are true except?
    A. High LH/FSH
    B. High DHEAS
    C. Very high prolactin…………………….ans
    D. Raised LH

    59. Which anesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?
    A. General anesthesia
    B. Brachial plexus block
    C. Local arterial injection
    D. Spinal

    60. About yaws all are true except:
    A. Caused by Treponema pertenue
    B. Transmitted non-venerally
    C. Secondary yaws can involve bones
    D. Last stages involve heart and nerves

    61. Rise in end tidal CO2 during thyroid surgery can be due to all except:
    A. Anaphylaxis
    B. Malignant hyperthermia
    C. Thyroid storm
    D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    62. Weight gain in pregnancy is related to all except?
    A. Ethnicity
    B. Smoking …………………………..ans
    C. Socioeconomic status
    D. Pre conceptional weight

    63. A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizures 16 hours after birth. Most probable cause is?
    A. Hypoglycemia
    B. Hypocalcemia…………………………ans
    C. Birth asphyxia
    D. Intra ventricular hemorrhage

    64. Best marker for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is?
    A. Bile salts
    B. Bile acid……………………………..ans
    C. Bilirubin
    D. Alkaline phosphatase

    66. A 6 year old child presents with pain in hip in femoral triangle region. X-ray does not reveal any abnormality. What is the next step?
    A. USG
    B. MRI
    C. Aspiration
    D. Traction

    68. All are true except:
    A. Human anatomical waste is disposed in a yellow bag
    B. Red bag contents can be a source of contamination
    C. Black bag is used for incineration ash
    D. Blue bag contents are always disposed in secure landfill

    69. A patient presented to the casuality with bluish pigmentation of conjunctiva, mucous membranes, nails and tachycardia after ingestion of a poison. What is the poison:
    A. Mercury
    B. Arsenic
    C. Lead
    D. Copper

    70. The distant metastasis of bone can be best detected by:
    A. MRI
    B. Bone scan
    C. CT
    D. Intravenous venogram

    71. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in a patient with loss of central vision and a normal retinogram?
    A. Best's disease
    B. Stargardt's disease
    C. Retinitis pigmentosa
    D. Macular hole

    72. Methods of producing monoclonal antibodies are all except?
    A. Attaching inactive viral particle on cell membrane
    B. Adding ethylene glycol
    C. Applying a small electric current
    D. Reducing the viscosity of the membrane

    73. Dose of radiation required for development of haematological syndrome is?
    A. 2.5-5 Gy
    B. 10 Gy
    C. 100 Gy
    D. 200 cGy

    74. The primary action of NO in git is?
    A. Vasodilatation
    B. Vasoconstriction
    C. GI smooth muscle relaxation…………………..ans
    D. Secretomotor

    76. Renal calculi associated with proteus infection is:
    A. Uric acid
    B. Triple phosphate…………………ans
    C. Calcium oxlalate
    D. Xanthine

    77. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because?
    A. It is required for the process of transamination
    B. It is a co-factor in oxidative reduction
    C. It is a co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
    D. It is a co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase & alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase……..ans

    78. Regarding anterior choroidal artery syndrome, all are true except?
    A. Hemipareisis
    B. Hemisensory loss,
    C. Involvement of anterior limb of internal capsule…………….ans
    D. Homonymous hemianopia

    79. A 40 year old female underwent surgery. Post operatively she told the anaesthetist that she was aware of per-operative events. Individual intraoperative awareness is evaluated by (to prevent such instances from occurring)?
    A. Pulse oximetry
    B. Colour doppler
    C. Bispectral imaging
    D. End tidal CO2

    80. Which of the following helps in generating oxygen burst for killing bacteria within neurophils ?
    A. Superoxide dismutase
    B. Oxidase
    C. Peroxidase
    D. Glutathione reductase

    81. Most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children?
    A. HSV
    B. Enterovirus ………….ans
    C. Mumps
    D. Listeria

    82. A 15 day old baby came with history of seizures. Blood tests revealed Ca 5mg/dl, PO4 9mg/dl, PTH 30pg/ml (n=10-60). What is the most probable diagnosis?
    A. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
    B. Vitamin D deficiency
    C. Hyperparathyroidism
    4. HIE

    83. A graph of Normal blood sugar level curve and Diabetic blood sugar level curve was shown. An area was seen overlapping towards the normal gycemic curve. A point at 120 mg/dl was shown too. Question : What does that area represent?
    A. True positive
    B. False positive ………………….ans
    C. True negative
    D. False negative

    84. Which among the following not used in diagnosis of insulinoma?
    A. Fasting glucose test
    B. Xylulose test………………………ans
    3. C peptide levels
    4. Insulin / glucose ratio

    85. All are true about Nesidioblastosis except ?
    A. Hypoglycemic episodes are seen
    B. Occurs in adults more than children
    C. Histopathology shows hyperplasia of islet cells
    D. Diazoxide is used for treatment

    86. Which among the following is preferred in a patient with decreased renal functio to avoid contrast nephropathy?
    A. N acetylcysteine
    B. Fenoldopam
    C. Low osmolar contrast
    D. Mannitol

    87. A young lady presents with fever, dysuria and pain abdomen. Uncomplicated acute cystitis was diagnosed. Which among the following is not true?
    A. Nitrate test positive
    B. E.coli count was < 10^3
    C. 1 pus cell per 7 fields
    D. 1 bacilli per field

    88. A patient presented with an abdominal injury with peritonitis and shock. Airway, breathing and IV fluids for circulation were taken care of. What is the next step of management?
    A. Take the patient for laparotomy under GA
    B. Take the patient go for a laparoscopy
    C. Insert an abdominal drain under LA and take up for surge...

    89. Mother to baby transmission of HIV can be minimised by all except?
    A. Zidovudine
    B. Vitamin A
    C. Vaginal delivery …………..ans
    D. Avoidance of breast feeding

    91. A investigator finds out that 5 independent factors influence the occurrence of a disease. Comprision of multiple factors responsible for a disease can be assessed by?
    A. ANOVA………….ans??
    B multiple linear regression……..ans?
    C. Chi square
    D. multiple logistic regression

    92. A primigravida at 37 weeks of gestation with loss of engagement. Cervix 1cm dilated. 10 uterine contractions per hour. What is management?
    A. Sedate the patient and wait ……..ans
    B. LSCS
    C. Amniotomy
    D. Induction with membrane rupture

    93. Gold standard test for diagnosis of laryngopharyngeal reflux?
    A. 24 hr double probe pH monitoring ……………….ans
    B. Flexible endoscopy
    C. Barium swallow
    D. Laryngoscopy

    94. Acoustic neuroma involves
    A. Superior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve
    B. Auditory part of 8th cranial nerve
    C. 7th cranial nerve
    d. Inferior vestibular division of 8th cranial nerve………………….ans

    95. A patient had running nose and pain over medical aspect of eye. He later developed chemosis,protosis and diplopia on abduction of right eye with congestion of optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
    A. Acute ethmoidal sinusitis
    B. Orbital cellulitis
    C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis………….ans
    D. Orbital apex syndrome

    96. An anesthesia resident was giving spinal anaesthesia when the patient had sudden aphonia and loss of consciousness. What could have happened?
    A. Total spinal
    B. Partial spinal
    C. Vaso vagal attack
    D. Intra vessel injection

    97. Urea cycle occurs in:
    A. Liver……………..ans
    B. G.I.T.
    C. Spleen
    D. Kidney

    [98]. Main blood supply of neck of femur?
    A. Lateral circumflex femoral
    B. Medial circumflex femoral
    C. Profunda femoris
    D. Popliteal artery

    99. Not a part of national screening program?
    A. Diabetes mellitus……………..ans
    B. Dental caries
    C. Refractive error...... not breast cancer
    D. Carcinoma cervix

    100. Definitive airway is all except?
    A. Nasotracheal tube
    B. Orotracheal tube
    C. LMA …………………….ans
    D. Cricothyroidotomy

    101. Right isomerism is?
    A. Asplenia …………………..ans
    B. Two spleens
    C. One spleen
    D. Polysplenia

    103. Least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a female child?
    A. Placental steroid sulfatase deficiency
    B. Fetal aromatase deficiency
    C. WT-4 mutation
    D. CAH

    104. Otogenic abcess is caused by all except?
    A. Pseudomonas
    B. Streptococcus
    C. Hemophilus inflenzae
    D. Staphylococcus

    105. True regarding leptospirosis is?
    A. Rats are the only reservoirs
    B. Fluroquinolones are the DOC
    C. Person to person transmission
    D. Hepatorenal syndrome occurs in 50% cases

    106. Principle orgenelle involved in the execution of apoptosis is?
    A. Nucleus
    B. Lysosome
    C. Mitochondria………………ans
    D. Endoplasmic reticulum

    108. Feature of obstructive azoospermia is?
    A. High FSH, high testosterone
    B. Low FSH, high testosterone
    C. High FSH, low testosterone
    D. Normal FSH, normal testosterone…………….ans

    109. ‎'C' in C reactive protein stands for:
    A. Capsular polysaccharide in pneumococcus…………….ans
    B. Concanavalin-a
    C. Calretinin
    D. Cellular

    111. Buprenorphine is?
    A. Partial agonist at Mu Receptor ………………..ans
    B. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
    C. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
    D. Antagonist at Kappa receptor

    112. All are true about aprepitant except?
    A. Agonist at NK1
    B. Crosses blood brain barrier
    C. Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy
    D. Metabolized by CYP450

    113. Time of occurrence of secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy?
    A. 24 hrs
    B. 6 days
    C. 12 days
    D. 12 hrs

    114. Which of the following is true?
    A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition by malathion can be reversed by increasing the level of acetylcholinesterase
    B. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase irrevesibly
    C. Flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase
    D. Ethanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase when used in methanol poi...

    115. A patient with head injury on examination revealed eye opening in response to pain, inappropriate words and pain localisation. Calculate GCS?
    a. 10 ………………ans
    b. 8
    c. 12
    d. 14

    116. A primigravida in 1st trimester had sputum positive for acid fast bacillus. What is the preferred treatment?
    A. Treatment deferred till 2nd trimester
    B. Category 1 DOTS…………..ans
    C. Category 2 DOTS
    D. Category 3 DOTS

    117. What will you give to treat hypothyroidism in a patient with ischemic heart disease?
    A. Low dose of levothyroxine
    B. Normal dose of levothyroxine
    C. Do not give levothyroxine
    D. Thyroid extract

    118. Carrier state is not important in transmission of:
    A. Measles…………ans
    B. Typhoid
    C. Polio
    D. Diphtheria

    119. A schizophrenic patient started on haloperidol 2 days back, comes with complaints of torticollis and orofaciolingual movements. What is the diagnosis?
    A. Acute dystonia
    B. Tardive dyskinesia
    C. Parkinsonism
    D. Akathisia

    120. A 55 year old man presents with history of 5 episodes of hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past 5 years. What will be the best investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
    A. Urine examination and microscopy…………..ans?
    B. X-ray KUB
    C. Abdominal USG………..ans?
    D. DTPA scan

    121. Mifepristone is used in?
    A. Molar pregnancy
    B. Threatened abortion
    C. Fibroid ………….ans??
    D. Ectopic pregnancy………………..ans??

    122. All are true about parvovirus b19 except?
    A. <10 % spread by transplacental route
    B. Spread by respiratory route
    C. It is a DNA virus…………………….ans
    D. Affects erythroid progenitor cells

    123. Sterile pyuria is present in?
    A. Renal tuberculosis…………………….ans
    B. Chronic hydronephrosis
    C. Wilm's tumour
    D. Neuroblastoma

    124. A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatiguability. The best test to diagnose her condition is:
    A. Muscle biopsy
    B. CPK
    C. Edrophonium test ………………ans
    D. EMG

    125. Denominator in Maternal Mortality Rate?
    A. Total number of live births……………ans
    B. Total number of married women
    C. Total number of births
    D. Midyear population

    126. Psammoma bodies are seen in all except?
    A. Follicular carcinoma thyroid……………..ans
    B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    C. Cystadenocarcinoma
    D. Meningioma

    127. Visceral larva migrans is seen in?
    A. Strongyloides
    B. Ancylostoma
    C. Toxocara canis…………….ans
    D. Visceral leishmaniasis

    128. Urethral crest is situated in:
    A. Prostatic urethra …………ans
    B. Membranous urethra
    C. Penile urethra
    D. Bulbar urethra

    129. People were separated into 5 sub groups. People were selected randomly from these sub groups. What type of sampling was done?
    A. Simple random sampling
    B. Stratified Sampling
    C. Cluster sampling
    D. Systematic sampling

    130. All of the following are true about erlotinib except?
    A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
    B. Food delays its absorption ……………ans
    C. Rashes can occur
    D. Used in non small cell lung cancer when there is no response to other chemotherapeutic agents

    131. Compliance is decreased in all except?
    A. Pulmonary congestion
    B. COPD
    C. Decreased surfactant
    D. Pulmonary fibrosis

    132. A 70yr old presents with intemittent jerks of recent origin, EEG showing bilateral periodic spikes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    A. Hepes simplex encephalitis
    B. Lewy body dementia
    C. Alzheimer's
    D. CJD………………ans

    133. Not a disorder of protein misfolding?
    A. Alzheimer's disease
    B. Tuberculosis…………….ans?
    C. Cystic fibrosis …………………ans
    D. CJD

    134. Pulmonary toxicity is seen with?
    A. Bleomycin ……………ans
    B. Cisplatin
    C. Methotrexate
    D. Actinomycin D

    135. ‎18 year old male presents with hemetemesis, melena and splenomegaly. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    A. NCPF ………………….ans
    B. Cirrhosis
    C. Malaria with DIC
    D. Extra hepatic portal venous obstruction

    136. Following are true about carbohydrate antigen except?
    A. Memory ………………….ans
    B. Poly clonal response
    C. Poor immunogenicity
    D. T cell independent immunity

    137. Ideal age for surgery in unilateral undescended testis is?
    A. 6 months
    B. 12 months………………..ans
    C. 24 months
    D. 36 months

    138. Not a predisposing factor for atherosclerotic plaque formation?
    A. ApoE
    B. Alpha 2-macroglobulin……………ans
    C. Oxidised LDL
    D. Increased homocystiene

    139. What is the type of joint seen in the growth plate?
    A. Fibrous
    B. Primary cartilagenous …………….ans
    C. Secondary cartilagenous
    D. Plane joint

    140. Which of the following is a vector used to increase the yield of protein produced in recombinant protein synthesis?
    A. Promoter induced
    B. Genes for protease inhibitors
    C. Translation initiation
    D. Translation and transcription termination

    141. A poison which is illuminous, translucent and waxy?
    A. Iodine
    B. Ammonium bromide
    C. Cobra venom
    D. Yellow phosphorous………………ans

    142. A 5 year old child presented with ballooning of perpuce while micturition. Perpuce adhesions were present. What is the best treatment for him?
    A. Adhesiolysis and dilatation
    B. Circumcision ……………ans
    C. Dorsal slit
    D. Conservative

    143. All are true about aprepitant except?
    A. Agonist at NK1
    B. Crosses blood brain barrier
    C. Ameliorates nausea and vomiting of chemotherapy
    D. Metabolized by CYP450

    144. Time of occurrence of secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy?
    A. 24 hrs
    B. 6 days
    C. 12 days
    D. 12 hrs

    145. Which of the following is true?
    A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition by malathion can be reversed by increasing the level of acetylcholinesterase
    B. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase irrevesibly
    C. Flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase ............ans
    D. Ethanol inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase when used in methanol poi...

    146. A schizophrenic patient started on haloperidol 2 days back, comes with complaints of torticollis and orofaciolingual movements. What is the diagnosis?
    A. Acute dystonia..........ans
    B. Tardive dyskinesia
    C. Parkinsonism
    D. Akathisia

    147. A 55 year old man presents with history of 5 episodes of hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past 5 years. What will be the best investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
    A. Urine examination and microscopy
    B. X-ray KUB
    C. Abdominal USG
    D. DTPA scan

    148. Mifepristone is used in?
    A. Molar pregnancy
    B. Threatened abortion
    C. Fibroid ..........ans?
    D. Ectopic pregnancy..............ans?

    149. All are true about parvovirus b19 except?
    A. <10 % spread by transplacental route
    B. Spread by respiratory route
    C. It is a DNA virus...................ans
    D. Affects erythroid progenitor cells

    150. Sterile pyuria is present in?
    A. Renal tuberculosis...................ans
    B. Chronic hydronephrosis
    C. Wilm's tumour
    D. Neuroblastoma

    151. A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatiguability. The best test to diagnose her condition is:
    A. Muscle biopsy
    B. CPK
    C. Edrophonium test
    D. EMG

    152. All of the following are true about erlotinib except?
    A. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
    B. Food delays its absorption
    C. Rashes can occur
    D. Used in non small cell lung cancer when there is no response to other chemotherapeutic agents

    153. Earliest to be diagnosed by USG is?
    A. Anencephaly ………………….ans
    B. Prosencephaly
    C. Meningocele
    D. Spina bifida

    154. A 45 year old lady presented with DUB & USG finding of 8mm thick endometrium. What is the next step?
    A. Endometrial histopathology………………….ans
    B. Hysterectomy
    C. OCP
    D. Follow up

    155. Fallopian tube immotility is seen in?
    A. Churg strauss syndrome
    B. Kartagener's syndrome……………………..ans
    C. Noonan syndrome
    D. Turner syndrome

    156. First structure to be fixed after amputation is?
    A. Bone fixing………………….ans
    B. Arterial repair
    C. Venous repair
    D. Nerve repair

    157. Pearson's skewness coefficient is?
    A. (Mean-median)/SD
    B. Median-mean/SD
    C. SD/mean-median
    D. SD/median-mean

    158. Poor prognostic factor for ALL is?
    A. Hyperdiploidy
    B. t(9;22) t(4;11)
    C. 2-8 yrs of age
    D. TLC < 50000

    159. Most potent activator of T cells?
    A. B cells
    B. Follicular dendritic cells
    C. Mature dendritic cells
    D. Macrophages

    160. About Human Development Index, all are true except?
    A. Life expectancy at birth
    B. Life expectancy at 1 year of age
    C. Education
    D. GDP

    161. Which among the following is not a component of hypogastric sheath?
    A. Broad ligament
    B. Transverse cervical ligament
    C. lateral ligament
    D. Ligament of bladder

    162. All are seen in the floor of 3rd ventricle except?
    A. Infundibulum
    B. Oculomotor nerve
    C. Mammillary body
    D. Optic chiasm

    163. Late onset endophthalmitis after lens implantation is caused by?
    A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    B. Pseudomonas
    C. Streptococcus pyogenes
    D. Propionibacterium acnes……………..ans??

    164. All are true about blood coagulation except?
    A. Factor 10 in a part of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway
    B. Extrinsic pathway is activated by contact with plasma and negatively charged proteins
    C. Calcium is very important for coagulation
    D. Intrinsic pathway can be activated in vitro…………….ans

    165. Best treatment option for genuine stress incontinence?
    A. Burch colposuspension
    B. Kelly’s procedure
    C. Sling operation
    D. Tension free vaginal taping

    166. All of the following are done in management of shoulder dystocia except?
    A. Fundal pressure ……………….ans
    B. Suprapubic pressure
    C. McRoberts maneuver
    D. Woods maneuver

    167. Pentalogy of fallot has which one of following extra entities:
    A. ASD …………………..ans
    B. VSD
    C. RVH
    D. Pulmonary stenosis

    168. Aortic knuckle shadow on chest X ray, PA view is obliterated by consolidation of which portion of lung?
    A. Upper lingula
    B. Lower lingula
    C. Apex of lower lobe
    D. Posterior part of upper lobe

    171. Best test for HCG action?
    A. Radioimmunoassay……………….ans
    B. ELISA
    C. Latex test
    D. Bioassay

    172. Lines of blaschko are:
    A. Lymphatics
    B. Blood vessel
    C. Nerves
    D. Lines of development…………….ans

    173. A man connected to a body plethysmograph exhales against a closed glottis. What will be the finding?
    A. The pressure in both the lungs and the box increases
    B. The pressure in both the lungs and the box decreases
    C. The pressure in the lungs decreases, but that in the box increases
    D. The pressure in the lungs increases, but that in the box decrease………………….ans

    174. A patient presents with fever and abdominal pain. Clinical examination reveals hepatomegaly extending 4 finger breadths below the costal margin. USG reveals a 4cm*5cm*4cm hypodense lesion 1cm deep to liver surface. Tests for hydatid disease were -ve. Best course of action is?
    A. Hepatectomy
    B. Multiple aspirations and me...

    175. Main site of water absorption is:
    A. Jejunum………………..ans
    B. Colon
    C. Ileum
    D. Stomach

    176. All are true about delirium tremens except?
    A. Visual hallucinations
    B. Coarse tremors
    C. Ocular palsy
    D. Unconsciousness

    177. All of the following are neuronal tumours except?
    A. Gangliocytoma
    B. Ganglioglioma
    C. Neuroblastoma……………ans??
    D. Ependymoma…………..ans??

    178. All are true about meglitinides except?
    A. Decreases post parandial hyperglycemia
    B. Hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas
    C. It decreases insulin resistance
    D. It acts by releasing insulin

    179. Pasteurised milk is most commonly tested by:
    A. Phosphatase test……………….ans
    B. Coliform test
    C. Catalase test
    D. Oxidase Test

    180. All of the following are affected in low radial nerve palsy except?
    A. Extensor carpi radialis longus
    B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
    C. Finger extensors
    D. Sensation on dorsum of hand

    181. Clue Cells are seen in :
    A. Bacterial vaginosis ……………….ans
    B. Vaginal candidiasis
    C. Chlamydial vaginosis
    D. Trichomoniasis

    182. Which complement component is involved in both classical and alternate pathway?
    A. C1
    B. C2
    C. C3…………………..ans
    D. C4

    183. Which of the following are not associated with menstrual cycle?
    A. Hormonal changes
    B. Vaginal cytology changes
    C. Estrus profile……………….ans
    D. Endometrial changes

    184. HbH is seen in?
    A. Deletion of 3 alpha genes……………ans
    B. Deletion of all 4 alpha genes
    C. Deletion of 3 beta genes
    D. Deletion of all 4 beta genes

    185. Which among the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid?
    A. Palmitic acid
    B. Stearic acid
    C. Oleic acid
    D. Omega-3 fatty acids………………..ans

    186. All are true about xanthogranulomatous inflammation except?
    A. Presence of foamy macrophages
    B. Presence of tuberculous infection………………..ans
    C. Multinucleated giant cell
    D. Presence of yellow Nodules

    187. Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery infarct is?
    A. Midbrain
    B. Pons…………….ans
    C. Thalamus
    D. Cortex

    188. Pregnant mother at 35 weeks of gestation. What drug can you not give her for treatment of SLE?
    A. Prednisolone
    B. Methotrexate…………………..ans
    C. Sulfsalazine
    D. Hydroxychloroquine

    189. Common carotid artery is palpated at?
    A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
    B. Upper border of thyroid cartilage……………..ans
    C. Hyoid bone
    D. Cricothyroid membrane

    190. A 50 yr lady has history of sprained ankle 2 months back followed by recovery. She now complains of severe pain in that ankle with inability to flex that foot. Physician notes edema and shiny skin in local examination. What is the probable diagnosis:
    A. Fibromyalgia
    B. Complex regional pain syndrome 1
    C. Complex regional pain syndrome 2
    D. Peripheral neuropathy

    191. Tolerance in opioids develops to all except?
    A. Miosis ……………………..ans
    B. Analgesia
    C. Euphoria
    D. Nausea and vomiting

    192. All are actions of muscarinic antagonist except?
    A. Decreases gastric secretion
    B. Prolongs a-v conduction
    C. Decreases respiratory secretions
    D. Contraction of radial muscles of iris

    193. Which among the following is an early sign of magnesium toxicity?
    A. Depression of deep tendon reflexes
    B. Respiratory depression
    C. Cardiac arrest
    D. Decreased urine output

    194. Drugs used in prophylaxis of migraine are all except?
    A. Propranolol
    B. Flunarizine
    C. Topiramate
    D. Levetiracetam………………ans

    195. Auto-Rikshaw ran over a child’s thigh, there is a mark of the tyre tracks, it is an
    A. Contact bruise
    B. Patterned bruise
    C. Imprint abrasion……………….ans
    D. Ectopic bruise

    196. Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is contraindicated in?
    A. Finger block ……………..ans
    B. Spinal block
    C. Epidural block
    D. Regional anaesthesia

    197. Integrase inhibitor approved for treatment of HIV is?
    A. Raltegrase……………….ans
    B. Indinavir
    C. Lopinavir
    D. Elvitegravir

    198. A 65 yrs old lady presented with a swollen and painful knee. On examination, she was found to have grade III osteoarthritic changes. What is the best course of action?
    A. Conservative management
    B. Arthroscopic washing
    C. Partial knee replacement
    D. Total knee replacement

    199. Causes of primary amenorrhoea are all except?
    A. Rokintasky syndrome
    B. Kallaman syndrome
    C. Sheehan syndrome……………ans
    4. Turner syndrome

    200. NARP syndrome is seen in?
    A. Mitochondrial function disorder……………………..ans
    B. Glycogen storage disorder
    C. Lysosomal storage disorder
    D. Lipid storage disorder

    201. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in?
    A. Kimura disease
    B. Kikuchi disease ………………………ans
    C. Hodgkin disease
    D. Castelman disease

    202. Two plants are grown. One in some fluorescent pigment containing media. Other in fire fly luciferase containing media. Which plant will glow in the dark?
    A. Both plants will glow
    B. Neither will glow
    C. First one will glow
    D. Second one will glow…………………..ans

    203. CT scan is least accurate for diagnosis of:
    A. 1 cm size aneurysm in an artery
    B. 1 cm size lymph node in thyroid carcinoma
    C. 1 cm size mass in tail of pancreas
    D. 1 cm size gall stone

    204. Which is the most reliable objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in chest X-ray?
    A. Diameter of the main pulmonay artery >16mm
    B. Diameter of the lt pulmonay artery >16mm
    C. Diameter of the decending Rt pulmonay artery >16mm…………………ans
    D. Diameter of the decending Lt pulmonay artery >16mm

    205. Prolonged treatment with INH leads to deficiency of?
    A. Pyridoxine …………………….ans
    B. Thiamine
    C. Pantothenic acid
    D. Niacin

    206. Mineralocorticoid receptor is not present in?
    A. Liver…………………….ans
    B. Colon
    C. Hippocampus
    D. Kidney

    207. A man presents with a maculopapular rash. He gives a history of previous painless rash. Infection is due to?
    A. Treponema pallidum …………..ans
    B. Chlamydia
    C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
    D. Haemophilus ducreyi

    208. In L5 root involvement, which among the following is not affected?
    A. Thigh adduction
    B. Knee flexion
    C. Knee extension
    D. Toe extension

    209. Which among the following is not a cause of fasting hypoglycemia?
    A. Glucagon excess
    B. Glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
    C. Ureamia
    D. Glycogen synthase deficiency

    210. McKeon's theory on reduced prevalence of TB?
    A. Increased awareness and knowledge
    B. Medical advancement
    C. Behavioural modification
    D. Social and environmental factor

    211. Which of the following passes through foramen magnum?
    A. Internal Carotid Artery
    B. Sympathetic chain
    C. Hypoglossal Nerve
    D. Vertebral Artery……………………ans

    212. A child presents with abdominal pain only during passage of stools. No other symptoms like vomiting or blood in stools. There are no signs of intestinal obstruction. Most probable diagnosis is?
    A. Rectal polyp
    B. Intusseception
    C. Meckels diverticulum
    D. NEC

    213. Spinal anaesthesia is given at which level?
    A. L1-2
    B. L2-4 ……………………ans
    C. Midline of thorax
    D. Below L5 (caudal)

    214. A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizures 16 hours after birth. Most probable cause is?
    A. Hypoglycemia……………………..ans
    B. Hypocalcemia
    C. Birth asphyxia
    D. Intra ventricular hemorrhage

    215. a child presented with mild fever little breathlessness..... was treated and she improved over 4 days and later deteriorated again with fever and more breathlessness. x ray showed hyperlucency. diagnosis?
    1.bronchiolitis obliterans
    2.alveolar proteinosois
    3.bronchitis

    216. coarctation of aorta mc asso with
    1.bicuspid aoric valve………………ans
    2.pda
    3.
    4.

    217. Vitamin K is involved in the posttranslational modification of?
    A. Glutamate…………………….ans
    B. Aspartate
    C.
    D.

    218. Muscular component of dorsal aorta develops from?
    A. Axial mesoderm
    B. Paraxial mesoderm
    C. Intermediate mesoderm
    D. Lateral plate mesoderm

    219. Maintenance dose of which of the following drugs is used worldwide for opioid dependence?
    A. Naltrexone
    B. Methadone………………..ans
    C. lmma
    D. Disulfiram

    220. Which is not true regarding diet modification recommended in high cardiovascular risk group?
    A. Cholesterol less then 100 mg/1000kcal/day
    B. Avoid alcohol
    C. Fat intake < 10% of total calories
    D. Salt limitation to less than 5 gm

    221. Regarding an imbecile, all are true except?
    A. IQ is 50-60 ………………………………ans
    B. Intellectual capacity equivalent to a child of 3-7 years of age
    C. Not able to take care of themselves
    D. Condition is congenital or acquired at an early age

    222. All are true about ranalozine except?
    A. Causes hypotension
    B. It is recommended as first line treatment for angina
    C. Improves glycemic control
    D. Increases fatty acid utilization

    223. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray?
    A. Enlarged Left atrium……………………..
    B. Normal left atrium…………………….ans
    C. Pulmonary congestion
    D. Aortic shadow

    224. Rave drug is?
    A. Cannabis
    B. Cocaine
    C. Heroin
    D. Ecstasy………………….ans

    225. Mr X is a chronic smoker. His family insists on quitting smoking. He is thinking about quitting, but is reluctant to do so because he is worried that on quitting he will become irritable. This is?
    A. Precontemplation and preparation……………………….ans
    B. Contemplation and extent of sickness susceptability
    C. Contemplation and cost factors
    D. Precontemplation and cost factors

    226. A farmer developed a swelling in the inguinal region which later ulcerated. What stain can be used to detect bipolar stained organisms?
    A. Albert's stain
    B. Waysons stain…………………….ans
    C. Ziehl neelsen stain
    D. Nigrosin stain

    227. An 8 year old boy completed 8 out of 10 day course of cefaclor. Now he developed a generalized erythmatic rash which is mildly pruritic and lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis is?
    A. Kawasaki disease
    B. Type 3 hypersensitivity………………………….ans
    C. Anaphylaxis
    D. Infectious mononucleosis

    228. All are true about world health report 2008 except?
    A. Social reforms
    B. Leadership
    C. Polices
    D. Economic reforms

    229. Small air way has laminar flow because?
    A. Reynold number more than 2000
    B. Diameter is very small……………………..ans
    C. Density very high / velocity very high
    D. Total cross sectional area low

    230. Which is not an autoimmune disease?
    A. SLE
    B. Grave's disease
    C. Myasthenia gravis
    D. Sickle cell disease……………………ans

    231. All are true regarding selective estrogen receptor downregulator (SERD), fulvestrant except?
    A. Used for breast cancer
    B. Is a selective oestrogen antagonist
    C. Is slower acting, safer, more effective than SERM
    D. Given as once a month dose

    232. In pseudohyperparathyroidism, true is?
    A. Gain of function mutation
    B. Decreased conversion of GTP to GMP
    C. Decreased inositol tri phosphate production
    D. Decreased response to increase cAMP

    233. Vectors don't transmit infection by?
    A. Ingestion
    B. Regurgitation
    C. Rubbing of feces
    D. Contamination with body fluids

    234. All are factors responsible for resurgence of malaria except?
    A. Drug resistance
    B. Use of bed nets…………………….ans
    C. Vector resistance
    D. Mutation in parasite

    235. Administration of which of the following drug needs alkalization of urine?
    A. Cytosine arabinoside
    B. Methotrexate………………………ans
    C. Cisplatin
    D. Ifosfamide

    236. Which drug is not used to control bleeding during delivery in a woman with heart disease ?
    A. Methylergometrine…………………..ans
    B. Carboprost
    C. Syntocin
    D. Misoprostol

    237. In expectant management of placenta praevia, all are done except?
    A. Cervical encirclage
    B. Anti D ……………………….ans???
    C. Corticosteroids
    D. Blood transfusion

    238. A 5 yr old boy presented with leukocoria in right eye ball, while other eye had 2-3 small lesions in the periphery. What will be the ideal management for this patient?
    A. Enucleation of both eyes
    B. Enucleation of right eye & conservative management for the other eye……………..ans??
    C. Enucleation for right eye and radiotherapy for the other eye………………….ans??
    D. 6 cycles of chemotherapy

    239. Chimerism is associated with?
    A. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins ………………ans?
    B. Monochorionic diamniotic twins
    C. Singleton pregnancy
    D. Vanishing twin

    240. A tennis player gets hit by a ball in the face following which he has complaints of decreased vision. which of the following tells that injury is due to injury by ball.
    1. Optic neuritis
    B. Pars planitis
    C. Vitreous base detachment………..ans
    D. Equatorial edema

    241. What factor is responsible for deciding whether an antibody will remain membrane bound or get secreted?
    A. RNA splicing
    B. Class switching
    C. Differential RNA regulation……………ans
    D. Allelic exclusion

    242. Signature fracture refers to?
    A. Depressed skull fracture………………..ans
    B. Suture displacement fracture
    C. Contrecoup injury
    D. Fracture at foramen magnum

    243. Which among the following is seen in anti phospholipid antibody syndrome?
    A. Beta 2 microglobulin antibody
    B. Anti nuclear antibody
    C. Anti centromere antibody
    D. Anti glycoprotein antibody…………………….ans

    244. All are true regarding phagocytosis by protozoa except?
    A. Amoeba n other unicellular org make their living out of it
    B. Phagocytose particles of < 5 microns size
    C. Phagocytose particles of > 5 microns size
    D. Digestion occurs within phagolysosomes

    245. Child brought to casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. Most likely injury is?
    A. Long bone fracture
    B. Ruptured spleen
    C. Subdural hematoma
    D. Skull bone fracture

    246. Gun powder on clothing can be visualized by?
    A. Magnifying lens
    B. UV rays
    C. Infrared rays
    D. Liquid spray/ solution spray

    247. Capsular virulence is seen in all except?
    A. Neisseria meningitidis
    B. Pneumococcus
    C. Bordetella pertussis
    D. Haemophilus influenza

    248. Which of the following is not an evidence based treatment for menorrhagia?
    A. Ethamsylate……………ans
    B.OCP
    C.Tamoxefene
    D.

    249. A lady who presented with hematuria on evaluation was found to have stage 2 transitional cell carcinoma of bladder. Which of the following is true?
    A. 70% chance of requiring cystectomy in 5 yrs………………….ans
    B. Cystoscopic fulguration will have to be done
    C. A 10 year history of beedi smoking is not a risk factor
    D. There is no chemotherapy available

    250. A sewer worker presented with fever. Lab findings revealed renal failure with increased BUN and serum creatinine. What is the most appropriate drug to give him?
    A. Cotrimoxazole
    B. Erythromycin
    C. Ciprofloxacin
    D.Benzyl penicillin

    251. True regarding chlamydia trachomatis is?
    A. Culture of endocervical discharge is used for isolation of organism
    B. Patient using OCP's are carriers
    C.
    D.

    252. Ethanol is used for treatment of methanol poisoning because?
    A. It inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase
    B.
    C.
    D.

    253. A female patient presented with depressed mood, loss of appetite and no interest in surroundings. There is associated insomnia. The onset of depression was preceeded by a history of business loss. What is the line of management?
    A. No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
    B. SSRI is the best choice………………ans
    C. Start SSRI treatment based on side effect profile
    D. Combination therapy of 2 anti depressant drugs

    254. Antidepressant drug that can be used in nocturnal eneuresis?
    A. Imipramine…………..ans
    B. Fluoxamine
    C.
    D.

    255. Difference between follicular carcinoma and follicular adenoma is?
    A. Vascular invasion…………..ans
    B.
    C.
    D.

    256. If Gs alfa subunit gain of function mutation, there is?
    A. Decreased cAMP
    B. Decreased IP3
    C. Increased gtpas activity
    D.

    258. Coarctation of aorta is most commonly associated with?
    A. Bicuspid aoric valve…………ans
    B. PDA
    C. ASD
    D.

    259. Which of the following are not seen on giving intra thecal opoids?
    A. Dysphonia
    B. Itching
    C. Fall in blood pressure
    D.

    260. All are non deleberate measures for control of mosquito except?
    A. Use of alkaline soap water……………ans
    B. Use of larvicidal agents
    C. Community participation
    D.

    261. All of the following are true regarding diabetes mellitus except?
    A. Insulin is not used in type 2 diabetes………….ans
    B. Sliding scale regimen is used in hospitals
    C.
    D.

    262. A surgeon removed the part of liver to the left of the falciform ligament. Which segments have been removed?
    A. 1 & 4a
    B. 2 & 3…………….ans
    C. 1 & 4b
    D.

    263. A 6 week old male infant was brought in a state of dehydration and shock. Examination revealed hyper pigmentation over the body with normal external genitalia. Blood tests revealed hypoglycemia, Na - 124 mEq/L and K - 7 mEq/L. What is the probable diagnosis ?
    A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    B. Adrenal haemorrhage and shock
    C. Acute gastroenteritis with dehydration
    D.

    264. A child presented with mild fever and breathlessness. He was treated and his condition improved over 4 days. Later his condition deteriorated with increase in fever and breathlessness. X-ray showed hyperlucency. What is the probable diagnosis?
    A. Bronchiolitis obliterans………………….ans
    B. Alveolar proteinosis
    C. Bronchitis
    D.

    265. All are true regarding serotonin syndrome except?
    A. It is not idiosyncratic and unpredictable
    B. Dantrolene is used for treatment……………ans
    C.
    D.

    266. False regarding Japanese encephalitis is:
    A. Epidemic is 2-3 cases in a village
    B. Mosquito bite is always associated with disease
    C. 70 in infants
    D.

    267. Which of the following is given to treat thrombocytopenia secondary to myelosuppresive therapy?
    A. Filgrastim
    B. Oprelvekin
    C. Erythropoietin
    D.

    268. True regarding ranula?
    A. It is also known as epulis
    B. It is a cystic swelling in the floor of mouth……………ans
    C. It is a type of thyroglossal cyst
    D. It is a type of mucus retention cyst

    269. A patient who was given primaquin develops hemolysis. Diagnosis is
    A. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency……………..ans
    B. Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency
    C.
    D.

    270. All are true statements regarding use of sodium fluoride in the treatment of otosclerosis except?
    A. It inhibits osteblastic activity
    B. Used in active phase of otosclerosis when schwartz sign positive
    C. Has proteolytic activity(bone enzymes)
    D.

    271. A 5 year old child has burns on the surface of his body corresponding to the size of his palm. The percentage of burns is?
    A. 1%
    B. 5%
    C. 10%
    D.

    272. False about pneumococcus is?
    A. Capsule aids in virulence
    B. Commonest cause of otitis media and pneumonia
    C.
    D.

    273. Medical treatment for variceal bleed is by?
    A. Octreotide…………….ans
    B. Pantaprazole
    C.
    D.

    274. Dental numbering is done by all except?
    A. FDI two digit system
    B. Anatomic and diagramatic charting
    C. Palmer notation
    D.

    275. Most important prognostic factor in congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
    A. Pulmonary hypertension……………ans
    B. Timing of surgery
    C. Size of defect
    D.

    276. Aflatoxin is produced by?
    A. Aspergillus flavus ……………..ans
    B. Aspergillus niger
    C. Candida
    D.

    277. A 7 month old child has bouts of cough ending with a whoop. What is the best way to confirm the diagnosis?
    A. Nasophayngeal swab …………………ans??
    B. Cough sputum culture
    C. Tracheal aspirate
    D.

    278. A 7 yr old child underwent neurosurgery for craniopharyngioma following which pituitary function was lost. Which hormone is to be replaced first?
    A. Hydrocortisone
    B. Thyroxine
    C. Growth hormone
    D.

    279. Tetracycline is used in prophylaxis of?
    A. Cholera …………..ans
    B. Brucellosis
    C. Leptospirosis
    D.

    280. Orthopnoea in right heart failure develops due to?
    A. Reservoir function of pulmonary veins
    B. Pooling of blood in legs
    C.
    D.

    281. A young male presented with history of fever and a nodule in the leg. Histopathology of the nodule revealed foamy histiocytes and neutrophillic infiltrate in the dermis. Most probable diagnosis is?
    A. Sweet's syndrome…………..ans
    B. Rosai Dorfman disease
    C. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
    D.

    282. True regarding drug resistance of MRSA?
    A. Penicillinase enzyme production
    B. Due to change in penicillin binding receptors
    C. Plasmid mediated/chrosome mediated
    D. Treated with amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

    283. Commonest cause for bilateral proptosis in children?
    A. Cavernous haemangioma
    B. Rhabdomyosarcoma………….ans?
    C. ALL
    D. AML

    284. Blood examination of a patient revealed low calcium, high phosphate and raised PTH. Which of the following investigations need not be done?
    A. Urine microscopy
    B. PTH reassessment
    C. Vitamin D levels
    D.

    285. A 32 year old mountaineer has a hematocrit of 70%. What is the possible explanation?
    A. Polycythemia with dehydration…………..ans
    B. High altitude cerebral oedema
    C. High altitude pulmonary oedema
    D. Hemodilution

    286. False about C.diphtheriae is?
    A. Toxin production is chromosome mediated……………ans
    B. org cnfd by toxin production
    C. Toxic to heart and neurons
    D.

    287. True about gastric carcinoma is?
    A. Occult bleeding in stool is not seen
    B. associated with achlorhydria/hypochlorhydria………………….ans
    C. Always squamous cell carcinoma
    D. Radiosensitive

    288. Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha keto acid is done by?
    A. Transaminases ………ans
    B. Aminases
    C. Transketoses
    D.

    289. A patient presented with sudden onset of floaters and sensation of falling of a curtain in front of the eye. Which one of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?
    A. Retinal detachment
    B. Eales disease
    C. Vitreous haemorrhage
    D.

    290. A girl presented with occipital headache associated with ataxia and vertigo. Mother also has similar complaints. Most probable diagnosis is?
    A. Vestibular neuronitis
    B. Basillar migraine …………..ans
    C.
    D.

    291. Basal metabolic rate is closely associated with?
    A. Lean body mass ………….ans
    B. Body surface area
    C. Body mass index
    D.

    292. Arthropod transmitted disease not found in India?
    A. West nile fever
    B. Dengue
    C. Yellow fever ………..ans
    D.

    293. Earliest symptom of GERD in an infant is?
    A. Respiratory distress
    B. Upper GI bleed
    C. regurgitation
    D.obstruction

    294. Cicatrising alopecia with perifollicular greying is most commonly associated with?
    A. Nail dystrophy
    B. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa
    C. Arthritis
    D. Discoid Plaques in the face

    295. Regarding Clostridium tetani, all are true except?
    A. Spores are resistant to heat
    B. 3 doses give immunity in primary immunisation
    C. Incubation period is 6-10 days
    D. Person to person transmission does not occur

    296. Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus?
    A. Desmopressin ……………ans
    B. Leuprolide
    C. Thiazide
    D.

    297. During TURP, surgeon takes care to dissect above the verumontenum so as to prevent injury to?
    A. External urethral sphincter
    B. Urethral crest
    C. Prostatic utricle
    D. trigone of bladder

    298. A neonate delivered at 38 weeks of gestation, birth weight of 2.2kg develops intolerance to feeds on 2nd day. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Sepsis screen in negative. What is the next step in management?
    A. Wait and watch
    B. Do a 2nd sepsis screen
    C. give prophylactic antibiotics
    D.

    299. True about platelet function defect?
    A. Normal platelet count with prolonged bleeding time …………ans
    B. Thrombocytosis with prolonged bleeding time
    C.
    D.

    300. Poor prognosis factor in AML?
    A. Hyperploidy
    B. Translocation (9;22)…………..ans
    C. Female sex
    D.

    301. The acid base status of a patient is as follows : pH - 7.45, pCO2 - 30 mm of Hg, pO2 - 105 mm of Hg. Patient has partially compensated?
    A. Metabolic acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory acidosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis………………..ans

    302. A patient presents with signs of pneumonia. The bacterium obtained from sputum grows on sheep agar. What test is used to identify the type of organism?
    A. Bile solubility………………ans
    B. Bacitracin sensitivity
    C. Coagulase test
    D.

    303. A female presents with sings of meningitis. CSF shows gram positive bacilli. It is most probably?
    A. Listeria …………ans
    B. Haemophilus influenzae
    C. Pneumococcus
    D.

    304. All are used in the treatment of hot flushes except?
    A. Tamoxifene ………………..ans
    B. Venlafaxine
    C.
    D.

    305. A patient comes with history of fever and cough unresponsive to antibiotics.It was partially Acid fast. X-ray shows consolidation. Bronchioalveolar lavage shows gram positive branching filaments. What is the diagnosis?
    A. Actinomycosis
    B. Nocardiosis …………ans?
    C. Aspergillus
    D.

    306. Cavitation is seen in?
    A. Mycolplasma pneumonia
    B. Tuberculous pneumonia
    C. Streptococcal pneumonia
    D.Staphylococcus pneumonia…………….ans

    307. Punnet Square is used for?
    A. Genotype of offspring ………………ans?
    B. Satistical analysis
    C.
    D.

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