Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by Guest, Mar 26, 2009.

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    Q1. All is true about trochlear nerve except:
    a- Longest intracranial course
    b- Arise from dorsal aspect
    c- Supplies ipsilateral oblique
    d- Arises from out side the common tendinous ring
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all except:
    a- Sphincter urethra
    b- Perineal body
    c- Colles’ fascia
    d- Perineal membrane
    Ans: c.

    Q3. All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except:
    a- Bulb/Root of penis
    b- Dorsal nerve of penis
    c- Sphincter urethra
    d- Bulbourethral glands
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Neural tube begin to close from which region
    a- Cranial
    b- Cervical
    c- Thoracic
    d- Lumbar
    Ans: b.

    Q5. All is true for Sternberg canal except:
    a- Anterior and medial to foramen rotundum
    b- Posterior and lateral to foramen rotundum
    c- Cause of intra-sphenoidal meningocele
    d- Can carry infection to sphenoidal sinus
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of:
    a- Mandibular
    b- Facial
    c- Lingual
    d- Maxillary
    Ans: d.

    Q7. All of the following arteries supply medulla except:
    a- Posterior inferior cerebellar
    b- Basilar
    c- Anterior spinal
    d- Bulbar
    Ans: d.

    Q8. GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is present in:
    a- Submucosa
    b- Lamina propria
    c- Muscularis mucosa
    d- Adventita/Serosa
    Ans: b.

    Q9. All are pain sensitive area of brain except:
    a- Dural sinuses
    b- Middle meningeal artery
    c- Falx cerebri
    d- Choroid plexus
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Superior gluteal nerve supplies all except:
    a- Gluteus minimus
    b- Gluteus medius
    c- Tensor fascia lata
    d- Gluteus maximus
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is in part:
    a- 1st b- 2nd
    c- 3rd d- Terminal
    Ans: a.

    Q12. All are branches of splenic artery except:
    a- Short gastric
    b- Hilar
    c- Arteria pancreatica magna
    d- Right gastroepiploic
    Ans: d.

    Q13. Artery in anatomical snuff box:
    a- Radial
    b- Brachial
    c- Ulnar
    d- Interosseous
    Ans: a.

    Q14. All are composite muscles except:
    a- Pectineus
    b- Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c- Biceps femoris
    d- Flexor digitorum profundus
    Ans: b.

    Q15. Spongy part of the male urethra drains via which lymph nodes:
    a- Superficial inguinal
    b- External iliac
    c- Deep inguinal
    d- Aortic
    Ans: c.

    Q16. Which structure is just lateral to anterior perforated substances?
    a- Uncus
    b- Limen insulae
    c- 3rd ventricle
    d- Optic chiasma
    Ans: b.

    Q17. Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid come from all except:
    a- Otic ganglion
    b- Greater petrosal nerve
    c- Auriculotemporal nerve
    d- Tympanic plexus
    Ans: b.

    Q18. Popliteal pulse is not felt clearly because:
    a- It is not over prominent bone
    b- Pulse is weak
    c- It is deep seated
    d- It is both deep seated and not over prominent bone
    Ans: c.

    Q19. Chief cell are found in:
    a- Fundus
    b- Pit
    c- Neck
    d- Body
    Ans: a.

    Q20. Not true about shunt vessel is:
    a- It control temperature regulation
    b- It is direct communication between artery and veins
    c- It is under control of local mediators
    d- It is not under autonomic control
    Ans: d.

    Q21. Most common muscle to be congenitally absent is:
    a- Pectoralis major
    b- Teres minor
    c- Semimembranosus
    d- Gastrocnemius
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Paravertebral black, can extend into all except:
    a- Sub-arachnoids space
    b- Epidural space
    c- Sup and inferior paravertebral space
    d- Inter costal space
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Sodium Bicarbonate given as an adjunct to local anesthetics because:
    a- ↑ onset faction and ↑ duration
    b- ↓ onset faction and ↑ duration
    c- ↓ onset faction and ↓ duration
    d- ↑ onset faction and ↓ duration
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Signs of successful Stellate ganglion block all except:
    a- Miosis
    b- Guttmann sign
    c- Bradycardia
    d- Unilateral nasal stuffiness
    Ans: c.


    Q1. After cutting DNA with restriction enzymes; segments are joined by:
    a- Endonuclease-
    b- Ligase
    c- Topoisomerase
    d- Helicase
    Ans: b.

    Q2. Intestinal flora digests all except:
    a- Cellulose
    b- Lignin
    c- Pectin
    d- Starch
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except:
    a- Fatty acid
    b- Glucose
    c- Ketone bodies
    d- Cholesterol
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Splicing is associated with:
    a- mRNA
    b- Sn RNA
    c- r RNA
    d- t RNA
    Ans: b.

    Q5. LPL incorrect is:
    a- Is found in adipose tissue
    b- Is found in myocytes
    c- Def leads to hyper TG
    d- Does not require C-II as cofactor
    Ans: d.

    Q6. A male child presents with delayed development and biting of the lips and hands. His parent have restrained him because he obsessively chews on his lips and fingers which of the following is likely to occur in this child?
    a- HGPRTase def
    b- Adenosine deaminase def
    c- Phenylalanine hydroxylase def
    d- Sphingomyelinase def
    e- None
    Ans: a.

    Q7. CAP in Lac Operon is an example of:
    a- Positive regulator
    b- Negative regulator
    c- Constitutive expression
    d- Attenuation
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Oxidation reduction reaction occurs with all except:
    a- Hydroperoxidases
    b- Peroxidases
    c- Oxygenases
    d- Dehydrogenases
    Ans: a.

    Q9. MICRO RNA function:
    a- Gene regulation
    b- DNA conformation
    c- RNA splicing
    d- Translation
    Ans: a.

    Q10. Best marker for stratification of Cardiovascular disease risk:
    a- Homocystine
    b- Lipoprotein (a)
    c- Anti-chlamydial antibody
    d- CRP
    Ans: b.

    Q11. Least polar among following groups:
    a- Methyl
    b- Amino
    c- Carboxyl
    d- Phosphate
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Following SDS-PAGE electrophoresis, protein with is found to be 100 KD. After Rx with mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 KD and 30KD widely separated. True statement:
    a- Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
    b- It’s dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 KD
    c- It’s a tetramer of 2 20 KD and 2 30 KD
    d- Protein breakdown due to non-covalent linkage
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Basic defect in HbS is:
    a- Altered function
    b- Altered solubility
    c- Altered stability
    d- Altered O2 binding capacity
    Ans: b.

    Q14. Characteristic of HbS is all except:
    a- Change of glutamine to Valine
    b- Heterozygotes are protected against malaria
    c- Increase in sticky patch due to substitution of nonpolar residue
    d- Single base substitution lead to RFLP
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Diastolic pressure in aorta is maintained by:
    a- Elastic recoil of aorta
    b- Muscular artery
    c- Resistance in arterioles
    d- Capillaries
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Central chemoreceptors are most sensitive to:
    a- Increase in CO2 tension
    b- Decrease in CO2 tension
    c- Low CO2 tension
    d- Increase in H+
    Ans: a.

    Q3. True for vasomotor center is:
    a- Not influenced by cortical centers
    b- Stimulated by baroreceptors from arterial organs
    c- In sleep medulla stops sending signals which explains decrease in BP
    d- Functional interaction with cardio-vagal center
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Interior factor of castle is present in:
    a- Chief cells
    b- Fundus cells
    c- Goblet cells
    d- Parietal cells
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Facilitated diffusion:
    a- Requires carrier protein
    b- Is a form of active transport
    c- Along concentration gradient
    d- Requires creatinine phosphate
    Ans: a.

    Q6. Action potential generated in axon hillock is due to:
    a- It has least threshold
    b- Neurotransmitters produced
    c- Unmyelinated
    d- Has more ion channels
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Cell-cell interaction occurs by all of the following mechanism except:
    a- Hormones
    b- Gap junctions
    c- G-protein receptors
    d- Neurotransmitters released at synapse
    Ans: c.

    Q8. In obstructive azoospermia:
    a- FSH and LH both increase
    b- FSH and LH both normal
    c- FSH decrease but LH increases
    d- FSH and LH both decrease
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Which is not involved in intrinsic pathway?
    a- Factor XII
    b- Factor XI
    c- Factor IX
    d- Factor VII
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Cause of sigmoid shape of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (O2) is:
    a- Binding of one O2 molecule increase the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules
    b- Binding of one O2 molecule decrease the affinity of binding of other O2 molecules
    c- Bohr effect
    d- Haldane effect
    Ans: a.

    Q11. Sertoli cells are associated with:
    a- Spermiogenesis
    b- Secretion of seminal fluid
    c- Production of testosterones
    d- Production of sperm
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Sleep is primarily regulated by:
    a- Thalamus
    b- Hypothalamus
    c- Putamen
    d- Limbic cortex
    Ans: b.

    Q13. Paneth cells are rich in:
    a- Zinc
    b- Lysozyme
    c- Mucus
    d- Intrinsic factor
    Ans: Both a and b.

    Q14. Muscle’s blood supply increases during exercise due to:
    a- Increased blood pressure
    b- Accumulation of active metabolites
    c- Increase vasodilatation
    d- Increase heart rate
    Ans: b.

    Q15. The status of fluid in distal convoluted tubule is all except:
    a- Always hypotonic
    b- Hypertonic
    c- Isotonic
    d- Always hypertonic
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Energy expenditure in resting state depends upon:
    a- Lean body mass
    b- Adipose tissue
    c- Heart rate
    d- None of the above
    Ans: a.

    Q17. Rise in 2-3 bisphosphoglycerate is seen in all of the following except:
    a- Chronic anemia
    b- Chronic hypoxia
    c- Inosine
    d- Hypoxanthine
    Ans: d.

    Q18. A person sits from standing position, change seen is:
    a- Immediate increase in venous return
    b- Increase in heart rate
    c- Increase epinephrine
    d- Increase cerebral blood flow
    Ans: a.

    Q19. Angiotensin II causes all except:
    a- Stimulates release of ADH
    b- Increases thirst
    c- Vasodilation
    d- Stimulates aldosterone release
    Ans: c.

    Q20. About renal physiology all are true except:
    a- DCT always receive hypo-osmotic solution
    b- Afferent artery supplies glomerulus
    c- GFR is controlled by afferent and efferent arteriole
    d- 5% cardiac output is received by kidney
    Ans: d.

    Q21. After 48 hours of fasting insulin receptors are down regulated in:
    a- Brain
    b- Liver
    c- RBC
    d- Adipocytes
    Ans: d.

    Q22. True about deglutition peristalsis of esophagus:
    a- Primary
    b- Secondary
    c- Tertiary
    d- Quaternary
    Ans: A.

    Q23. Oxygen demand of heart:
    a- Increases proportionately with heart rate
    b- Depends upon duration of systole
    c- Is negligible when heart is at rest
    d- Is in constant relation with amount of work done
    Ans: a.

    Q24. Cyanosis doesn’t occur in anemia because:
    a- Certain min. amount of reduced Hb should be present
    b- In anemia, O2 saturation increases
    c- Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
    d- O2 hemoglobin curve shifts to right
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Finnish type of nephritic syndrome is associated with:
    a- Nephrin
    b- Podocin
    c- Alpha actinin
    d- CD2 activated protein
    Ans: a.

    Q2. A 7-year old girl presents with bleeding in joints. She has prolonged aPTT, normal PT an platelet counts. What could be the deficiency?
    a- IX
    b- VIII
    c- VII
    d- Von Willebrand
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Which of the following is not true about Neuroblastoma?
    a- Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood
    b- >50% present with metastasis at time of diagnosis
    c- Lung metastases are common
    d- Involve aorta and its branches early
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Function of CD4, is all except:
    a- Memory
    b- Immunoglobin production
    c- Activation of macrophages
    d- Cytotoxicity
    Ans: b.

    Q5. What is specific for GIST?
    a- CD 117
    b- CD34
    c- CD23
    d- S-100
    Ans: a.

    Q6. True for hemochromatosis:
    a- Complete penetrance
    b- Autosomal recessive
    c- Phlebotomy leads to cure
    d- More common in females
    Ans: b.

    Q7. When one gene is inherited from one parent only, it is known as:
    a- Genomic imprinting
    b- Mosaicism
    c- Alleles
    d- Chimerism
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis is associated with:
    a- Microscopic polyangitis
    b- SLE
    c- H S Purpura
    Ans: a.

    Q9. What is affected in HbS (Hemoglobin S)?
    a- Stability
    b- Function
    c- Affinity
    d- Solubility
    Ans: d.

    Q10. A 56-year-old male presents with sudden substernal pain, impending doom, died days after. On autopsy, there was a large transmural anterior wall infarction. It would be associated with:
    a- Presence of collagen and fibroblasts
    b- Presence of neutrophils
    c- Granulomatous inflammation
    d- Granulation tissue
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Characteristic of acute inflammation:
    a- Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
    b- Vasoconstruction
    c- Platelet aggregation
    d- Infiltration by neutrophil
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Coagulative necrosis is found in which infection?
    a- TB
    b- Sarcoidosis
    c- Gangrene
    d- Fungal infection
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Psammoma bodies are seen in all except:
    a- Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    b- Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    c- Serous cystadenoma
    d- Meningioma
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Stain of mineralization of newly formed osteoid:
    a- von Kossa stain
    b- Alizarin red
    c- Labeled tetracycline
    d- Fluorescence
    Ans: c.

    Q15. Colon Ca is associated with all except:
    a- Rb
    b- Mismatch repair genes
    c- APC
    d- Beta detenin
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Hallmark features of benign HTN is:
    a- Hyaline arteriosclerosis
    b- Cystic medial necrosis
    c- Fibrinoid necrosis
    d- Hyperplastic art
    Ans: a.

    Q17. Organelle which plays a pivotal role in apoptosis:
    a- Cytoplasm
    b- Golgi complex
    c- Mitochondria
    d- Nucleus
    Ans: c.

    Q18. Most bactericidal agent is:
    a- Cationic basic protein
    b- Lactoferrin
    c- Lysozyme
    d- Reactive O2 species
    Ans: d.

    Q19. Hypersensitive pneumonitis is classically a:
    a- Allergic reaction
    b- Type II hypersensitivity
    c- Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
    d- Cell mediated hypersensitivity
    Ans: c.

    Q20. Karyotyping is done for:
    a- Chromosomal disorders
    b- AR disorders
    c- AD disorders
    d- Link disorders
    Ans: a.

    Q21. Aging is due to:
    a- Accumulated mutations in somatic cells
    b- Accumulation of free radicals
    c- Decreased cross linking of collagen
    d- Decreased antioxidant
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Ifosfamide is:
    a- Alkylating agents
    b- Antimetabolite
    c- Folate antagonists
    d- Plant alkaloids
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Nitroglycerin causes all except:
    a- Hypotension and bradycardia
    b- Methemoglobinemia
    c- Hypotension and tachycardia
    d- Vasodilation
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct?
    a- Major depression and associated lethargy
    b- Narcolepsy
    c- Obstructive sleep apnea
    d- Shift work disorder
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Which cephalosporins can be used in ↓ GFR?
    a- Cefuroxine
    b- Ceftriaxone
    c- Ceftazidime
    d- Cefoperazone
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Use of tamoxifen in HRT does not lead to ↑ in:
    a- Thromboembolic episodes
    b- Heart disease
    c- Ca in contralateral breast
    d- Endometrial hyperplasia
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Folate deficiency is associated with all except:
    a- Phenytoin
    b- Alcohol
    c- Sulfasalazine
    d- Chloroquine
    Ans: d.

    Q7. A patient is given tacrolimus, which antibiotic should not be given to him?
    a- Gentamicin
    b- Cisplatin
    c- Rifampicin
    d- Vancomycin
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Drug not given in acute angle glaucoma:
    a- Pilocarpine
    b- Clozapine
    c- Fluphenazine
    d- Duloxetine
    Ans: c.

    Q9. All are the side effects of tacrolimus except:
    a- Hepatoxic
    b- Nephrotoxic
    c- Ototoxic
    d- Neurotoxic
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Which of the following is cell cycle specific?
    a- Ifosfamide
    b- Bleomycin
    c- Vinblastine
    d- Cyclophosphamide
    Ans: c.

    Q11. Bleomycin toxicity affects which type of cells:
    a- Type-I pneumocyte
    b- Type-II pneumocyte
    c- Endothelial cell
    d- Alveolar macrophages
    Ans: b.

    Q12. DOC in severe complicated falciparum malaria:
    a- Chloroquine
    b- Quinine
    c- Artesunate
    d- Artemether
    Ans: b.

    Q13. In treatment of osteosarcoma, all of the following are used except:
    a- High dose methotrexate
    b- Cyclophosphamide
    c- Vincristine
    d- Bleomycin etoposides, doxorubicin
    Ans: c.

    Q14. ‘Hand Foot’ syndrome can be caused by :
    a- Cisplatin
    b- Vincristine
    c- Capecitabine
    d- Mitomycin-C
    Ans: a.

    Q15. All are true about estrogen except:
    a- Decreases HDL
    b- Increases triglycerides
    c- Increases turnover of LDL receptors
    d- Increases apolipoprotein
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Valproate causes all except:
    a- Weight gain
    b- Alopecia
    c- Liver damage
    d- Osteomalacia
    Ans: d.

    Q17. Topical mitomycin-C is used in:
    a- Sturge-Weber syndrome
    b- Laryngotracheal stenosis
    c- Endoscopic angiofibroma
    d- Skull base osteomyelitis
    Ans: c.

    Q18. Amifostine is protective to all except:
    a- Salivary gland
    b- Skin
    c- CNS
    d- GIT
    Ans: c.

    Q19. Appetite suppressors are all except:
    a- Melanocyte stimulating hormone
    b- Melanocyte corticotropic releasing hormone
    c- Neuropeptide Y
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Regarding angioneurotic edema, what is not true?
    a- Edema is pitting in cheeks and lips
    b- Due to deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor
    c- Can be induced by sunlight or stress
    d- Can be caused by ACE inhibitor
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Receptor of HIV:
    a- CD4
    b- CD8
    c- Plasma cell
    d- CD56
    Ans: a.

    Q3. True for Chlamydia trachomatis:
    a- Always symptomatic
    b- Can be diagnosed by cervical smear culture
    c- Susceptible to penicillin
    d- Most common pathogen in OC pills user
    Ans: c.

    Q4. True for necrotizing fasciitis are all except:
    a- Infection of fascia and subcutaneous tissue
    b- Caused by group a beta hemolytic streptococcus pyogenes
    c- Most common in trunk, lower limbs and perineum
    d- Surgical debridement is usually not needed
    Ans: d.

    Q5. E.coli 0157 is cultured not on:
    a- XLD
    b- Mannitol sucrose agar
    c- Hoenke media
    d- Sorbitol MacConkey agar
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs in:
    a- Re-infection with same virus
    b- Re-infection from other virus
    c- Infection with wild virus
    d- Infection with type I virus
    Ans: b.

    Q7. Tickborne relapsing fever is caused by all except:
    a- B. recurrentis
    b- B. hermsii
    c- B. turicatase
    d- B. duttonii
    Ans: a.

    Q8. What is not true about nontyphoidal Salmonella?
    a- Can be transmitted due to eating of poultry
    b- Causes severe infection in neonates
    c- Blood culture is more sensitive than stool culture
    d- Quinolones are most effective Rx
    Ans: c.

    Q9. Non-invasive diarrhea caused by all except:
    a- Shigella
    b- EIEC
    c- B. cereus
    d- Y. enterocolitica
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Enterovirus caused all except:
    a- Aseptic meningitis
    b- Pleurodynia
    c- Herpangina
    d- Hemorrhagic fever
    Ans: d.

    Q11. Pasturella multocida infection is due to:
    a- Soil
    b- Aerosol
    c- Animal bite
    d- Contaminated tissue
    Ans: c.

    Q12. Regarding Parvovirus B-19, false statement is:
    a- Can cross placenta in <10% cases
    b- DNA virus
    c- Can cause anemia
    d- None
    Ans: a.

    Q13. True about leptospirosis is all except:
    a- Transmitted by rodent urine
    b- Penicillin IV is treatment in severe cases
    c- 5 to 15% mortality in severe cases
    d- Antibody can be detected in a week
    Ans: d.

    Q14. Lambda phase all except:
    a- In lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant
    b- In lytic phase it fuses with host chromosomes and remains dormant
    c- In lysogenic phase it causes cell lysis
    d- Both phases are not together
    Ans: d.

    Q15. Maltese cross is associated with:
    a- Candida albicans
    b- Penicillin marneffei
    c- Babesia microti
    d- Cryptococcus
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Casper’s dictum is for:
    a- Identification of body
    b- Time since death
    c- Mode of injury
    d- Depth of insertion of knife
    Ans: b.

    Q2. All are traumatic asphyxia except:
    a- Railway accident
    b- Road traffic accident
    c- Accidental strangulation
    d- Stampede
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Disease, which permanently alters finger print:
    a- Burns
    b- TB
    c- Psoriasis
    d- Leprosy
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause?
    a- Primary impact injury
    b- Secondary impact injury
    c- Secondary injury
    d- Postmortem artefact
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Stellate wound is seen in:
    a- Contact wound
    b- From close range
    c- W/I 2 meters range
    d- Long range
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Abrasion marks resemble:
    a- Eczema
    b- Ant-bite marks
    c- Artefact
    d- Excoriations by excreta
    Ans: b.

    Q7. Motorcyclist fracture is:
    a- Ring fracture
    b- Comminuted fracture
    c- Skull divided into two halves
    d- Subdural hemorrhage
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Heat hematoma differs from blunt trauma by:
    a- Margins are smooth
    b- Margins are irregular
    c- Blood vessels cut
    d- Blood vessel intact
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Privileged conversation is between:
    a- Patient and doctor
    b- Doctor and law
    c- Doctor and relative
    d- Doctor and notifying authority
    Ans: d.

    Q10. Organ MC involved in blast injuries:
    a- Lung
    b- Liver
    c- Intestine
    d- Brain
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Incidence rate can be calculated by:
    a- Case control study
    b- Cohort study
    c- Cross sectional study
    d- Longitudinal study
    Ans: b.

    Q2. In a program the end pint of all activities which may not be operationally measurable is called?
    a- Objective
    b- Target
    c- Mission
    d- Goal
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Continuous variable of ground data, the frequency is represented by:
    a- Histogram
    b- Line diagram
    c- Pictogram
    d- Bar diagram
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Late expanding stage in demography is:
    a- BR in low DR v. low
    b- BR static DR ↓
    c- BR less than DR
    d- BR high Dr high
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Regarding purification of water all are true except:
    a- Multiple tube method is used for sampling
    b- E. coli can be tested by Indole test
    c- Clostridial infection indicates recent infection
    d- Level of residual chlorine should be 0.5 mg/L
    Ans: c.

    Q6. In simple random sampling:
    a- All have equal chance of getting selected
    b- Selection is dependent on individuals characteristic
    c- Only possible when complete sampling frame is not available
    d- Suitable for large heterogeneous population
    Ans: a.

    Q7. Regarding crude birth rate all are true except:
    a- Unaffected by Age-distribution
    b- Indicator of fertility
    c- Excludes the stillbirths
    d- Is a better measure of fertility than the general fertility rate
    Ans: d.

    Q8. Cut off of Indian reference man (kg):
    a- 60
    b- 70
    c- 50
    d- 55
    Ans: a.

    Q9. All of the following are correct about disinfections except:
    a- Glutaraldehyde-virus killing
    b- Ethylene oxide is 3rd generation disinfecting agent
    c- Phenols are ineffective against organic matter
    d- Autoclaving is not suitable for sterilization of plastics and sharp instruments
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Most recent classification according to WHO for disability:
    a- International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health’s
    b- DALY
    c- WHO DAIS
    d- STEPS
    Ans: a.

    Q11. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls, out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys that were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery?
    a- 3/5
    b- 2/6
    c- 5/6
    d- ½
    Ans: b.

    Q12. True statements about RDA:
    a- Average daily requirements of all nutrients
    b- Average daily requirements of all nutrients except calories +_ 2SD
    c- Indicates adequacy of dietary intake
    d- Applies to even sick people
    Ans: b.

    Q13. STEPS refers to:
    a- Assessing incidence of risk factors of non-communicable diseases
    b- Assessing incidence of non-communicable diseases
    c- Assessing Rx compliance of non-communicable diseases
    d- Assessing rate of mortality of non-communicable diseases
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Chemoprophylaxis can be done for the following except:
    a- Meningitis meningococcal
    b- Typhoid
    c- Cholera
    d- Plague
    Ans: b.

    Q15. Q fever is transmitted by:
    a- Ticks
    b- Mites
    c- Louse
    d- Aerosol
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Toxin shock syndrome is caused by:
    a- Infected DPT administration
    b- IV DPT
    c- Infected measles vaccine
    d- Infected BCG vaccine
    Ans: c.

    Q17. False about Aedes aegypti is:
    a- Eggs can survive without water for > 7-8 days
    b- Transmits dengue
    c- Bites repeatedly
    d- Incubation period in mosquito is 8-10 days
    Ans: a.

    Q18. Which of the following is not part of targeted intervention in preventive strategy in spread of AIDS?
    a- Providing ART
    b- Treating STD
    c- Providing Condoms
    d- Behavior change communication
    Ans: a.

    Q19. Association of chronic disease is all except:
    a- Dose response relationship
    b- Temporal association
    c- Biological plausibility
    d- Consistency
    Ans: NONE

    Q20. In a standard distribution curve:
    a- Mean = 2 median
    b- Median = Variance
    c- Mean = Median
    d- Standard deviation = 2 variance
    Ans: c.

    Q21. Vitamin A prophylaxis program is an example of:
    a- Primordial prevention
    b- Health promotion
    c- Specific protection
    d- Disability limitation
    Ans: c.

    Q22. In HIV maximum risk of transmission is by:
    a- Homosexual
    b- Blood transfusion
    c- Heterosexual
    d- Needle pride
    Ans: b.

    Q23. Analytical studies A/E:
    a- Case control
    b- Ecological
    c- Cohort
    d- Field trials
    Ans: d.

    Q24. Baby friendly hospital initiative all except:
    a- Breast feeding on demand
    b- Initiate breastfeeding within 4 hours of (N) delivery
    c- Allow mothers and infants to remain together 24 hr/day
    d- Training of health care staff
    Ans: b.

    Q25. The modes of infection of the following diseases are all except:
    a- Leptospirosis – rat urine
    b- Tetanus – dust droplets
    c- Listeria – refrigerated food
    d- Legionella – aerosol
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Trotters triad include
    a- Deafness
    b- Mandibular neuralgia
    c- Palatal palsy
    d- Seizures
    Ans: d.

    Q2. A 38 years old man had labyrinthine fistula with positive fistula sign. Two weeks later fistula sign became negative without any treatment. Which of the following will be the Rinne’s test (tuning fork) finding:
    a- True-positive Rinne’s test
    b- False-positive Rinne’s test
    c- True-negative Rinne’s test
    d- False-negative Rinne’s test
    Ans: d.

    Q3. A young man met with an accident leading to loss of hearing in the right ear. On otoscopy examination the tympanic membrane was intact. Pure tone audiometry showed AB gap of 55 dB on the right ear with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be probable tympanometry finding?
    a- As type tympanogram
    b- Ad type tympanogram
    c- B type tympanogram
    d- C type tympanogram
    Ans: b.

    Q4. A 45 years old lady presented with a swelling in the parotid gland for the past 6 months. FNAC done from this area revealed lympho-epithelioma. All are true of lymphoepithelioma except:
    a- Parotid gland is the most common site of lymphoepithelioma in the head and neck region
    b- It is known to be caused by EBV
    c- The epithelial cells are mainly malignant with lymphoid tissue
    d- It is a highly radio sensitive tumor
    Ans: A.

    Q5. Meningitis spreads from CNS to Inner ear through:
    a- Cochlear aqueduct
    b- Endolymphatic sac
    c- Vestibular aqueduct
    d- Hyrtl fissure
    Ans: a.

    Q6. Laryngeal pseudosulcus true is:
    a- Due to vocal abuse
    b- Due to reflux induced laryngitis (pharyngoesophageal reflux)
    c- Seen in TB
    d- Due to high dose corticosteroids
    Ans: b.

    Q7. True about Recurrent Laryngeal Papillomatosis (RLP):
    a- Caused by Parvo virus
    b- HPV 16 and HPV 18 are most commonly implicated
    c- HPV 6 is most virulent
    d- Transmission to the neonate occurs secondary to direct contact with mother
    Ans: d.


    Q1. All are used in the treatment of diabetic retinopathy except:
    a- Removal of epiretinal membrane
    b- Vitrectomy
    c- Retinal reattachment
    d- Exo photocoagulation
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Which of the following is best to differentiate CRVO from carotid artery occlusion?
    a- Dilated retinal vein
    b- Retinal artery pressure
    c- Tortuous retinal vein
    d- Ophthalmodynamometry
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Raised LHD levels in Aqueous is seen in:
    a- Galactosemia
    b- Glaucoma
    c- Hemangioblastoma
    d- Retinoblastoma
    Ans: d.

    Q4. ICG angiography is primarily indicated in:
    a- Minimal classical CNV
    b- Occult CNV
    c- Angioid streaks with CNV
    d- POlypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
    Ans: b.

    Q5. In fetus Angio genesis in eye involved all except:
    a- TNF beta
    b- IL-8
    c- BFGF
    d- VEGF
    Ans: b.

    Q6. True about Uveal effusion syndrome is all except:
    a- Due to defect in sclera
    b- Choroido-retinal detachment
    c- Scleritis
    d- Myopia
    Ans: d.

    Q7. True about Juxta foveal Telangiectasia is all except:
    a- Variant of Coat’s disease
    b- Macular telangiectasia
    c- Peripheral telangiectasia
    d- Structural abnormality seen in vessels
    Ans: c.

    Q8. All are true about Lambert Eaton syndrome except:
    a- Spares ocular muscle
    b- Tensilon test positive
    c- Proximal muscle involvement
    d- Repeat nerve stimulation improve muscle strength
    Ans: a.

    Q9. All are true about visual cycle except:
    a- Condensation of opsin with aldehyde of retinal
    b- NADP is reduced
    c- NAD is reduced
    d- Opsin combines with retinal to form visual purple
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by the following except:
    a- Diabetes mellitus
    b- Acromegaly
    c- Addison’s disease
    d- Hypothyroidism
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Hirsutism is caused by all except:
    a- Cushing syndrome
    b- Acromegaly
    c- Hyperthyroidism
    d- Hyperprolactinemia
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Systolic thrill in 2nd and 3rd IC space. Causes all except:
    a- Pink TOF
    b- Sub-pulm VSD
    c- Pulm stenosis
    d- Ebstein anomaly
    Ans: b.

    Q4. All of the following can be associated with PNH except:
    a- Cerebral thrombosis
    b- Budd Chiari
    c- Pancytopenia
    d- Massive splenomegaly
    Ans: d.

    Q5. Aldosterone leads to all except:
    a- Hypernatremia
    b- Hypokalemia
    c- HTN
    d- Metabolic acidosis
    Ans: d.

    Q6. Hypercalcemia is associated with:
    a- Hyperparathyroidism
    b- Sarcoidosis
    c- Milk alkali syndrome
    d- Celiac disease
    Ans: d.

    Q7. All lead to hyper coagulability except:
    a- Burns
    b- Hemorrhage
    c- Infections
    d- Surgery of 1 hour duration
    Ans: d.

    Q8. Coombs positive hemolytic anemia associated with:
    a- TTP
    b- PAN
    c- SLE
    d- HUS
    Ans: c.

    Q9. True about temporal arteritis all except:
    a- More common in females
    b- Worsens on exposure to heat
    c- Seen in elderly women
    d- Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness
    Ans: b.

    Q10. Hepatomegaly with liver pulsations indicates:
    a- TR
    b- MR
    c- Pulmonary hypertension
    d- MS
    Ans: a.

    Q11. C wave in JVP indicates:
    a- Atrial contraction
    b- Bulging of tricuspid valve
    c- Ventricle systole
    d- Rapid ventricle filling
    Ans: b.

    Q12. False-positive rheumatoid factor can be associated with all except:
    a- Inflammatory bowel disease
    b- HbsAg
    c- VDRL
    d- Coombs test
    Ans: a.

    Q13. Patients with foreign body sensation in eye and swollen knee it after leisure trip:
    a- Sarcoidosis
    b- Reiter’s disease
    c- Behcet’s disease
    d- SLE
    Ans: b.

    Q14. About Hepatitis C, which is true?
    a- DNA virus
    b- MC indication for liver transplant
    c- Does not cause liver cancer
    d- Does not cause coinfection with HBV
    Ans: b.

    Q15. A 23 years old symptomatic female pilot has MCV-70, ferritin – 100 g/L, Hb – 10 gm%, what is the cause?
    a- Thalassemia trait
    b- B12 def
    c- Folate def
    d- Iron def
    Ans: a.

    Q16. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
    a- Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
    b- Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
    c- Increased calcium ingestion causes iron deficiency
    d- Vitamin A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vitamin A diet
    Ans: b.

    Q17. Immediately after eating a man developed lump in throat, prutitis, dyspnea, cyanosis and not being able to breath after few hours. Most probable cause is;
    a- Angioneurotic edema
    b- Hypersensitivity reaction
    c- MI
    d- Food stuck in larynx
    Ans: b.

    Q18. A girl-aged 8 years has been admitted for dialysis. She has serum K of 7.5 mEq/l, which is the fastest way to reduce the hyperkealmia?
    a- Kayexalate enema
    b- Infusion of insulin + glucose
    c- IV calcium gluconate
    d- IV NaHCO3
    Ans: b.

    Q19. Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is seen in:
    a- Hypercalcemia
    b- Hyperphosphatemia
    c- Chronic renal failure
    d- Hyperkalemia
    Ans: C.

    Q20. Positive hepatojugular reflux is found in conditions except:
    a- Tricuspid regurgitation
    b- Right heart failure
    c- Decreased after lead
    d- PS
    Ans: c.

    Q21. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:
    a- Autosomal recessive
    b- Cutaneous fibromas
    c- Cataract
    d- Scoliosis
    Ans: a.

    Q22. A 55 years old lady posted for hip replacement surgery. All of the following are known causes of DVT except:
    a- PNH
    b- OCP
    c- Infections
    d- Surgery for 1 hrs
    Ans: c.

    Q23. SIRS includes all except:
    a- Leukocytosis
    b- Thrombocytopenia
    c- Hypothermia
    d- Oral temperature more than 38°C
    Ans: b.

    Q24. Treatment for leukemia in a child with hyperleukocytosis is all except:
    a- IV fluids
    b- Allopurinol
    c- Alkalinizations of urine
    d- Immediately start chemotherapy
    Ans: d.

    Q25. Which of the following is not true about JRA?
    a- Fever
    b- Rheumatoid nodules
    c- Uveitis
    d- Raynaud’s phenomenon
    Ans: d.

    Q26. Positive urinary anion gap is found in:
    a- RTA
    b- Glue poisoning
    c- Diabetic ketoacidosis
    d- Diarrhea
    Ans: a.

    Q27. Triad of tuberous sclerosis except:
    a- Epilepsy
    b- Adenoma sebaceum
    c- Low intelligence
    d- Hydrocephalus
    Ans: d.

    Q28. Test for assessment of mucosal function of GIT:
    a- D-Xylose test
    b- Small bowel study
    c- Biopsy
    d- Schilling test
    Ans: a.

    Q29. The following are the complications of the HIV infection except:
    a- Cardiac tamponade
    b- Pericardial effusion
    c- Aortic aneurysm
    d- Cardiomyopathy
    Ans: c.

    Q30. A young man with gout has synovial fluid removed. It would shows:
    a- MSU crystals
    b- CPPD crystals
    c- PMN cells
    d- Mono nuclear cells
    Ans: a.

    Q31. In a lady with bilateral superior temporal quadrantopia, galactorrhea, the most probable cause is:
    a- Pituitary macroadenoma
    b- Craniopharyngioma
    c- Sheehan’s syndrome
    d- Pituitary hypophysitis
    Ans: a.

    Q32. Hepatomegaly is caused by all except:
    a- Glycogen storage disease
    b- Niemann pick
    c- Hepatic porphyria
    d- Hurlers disease
    Ans: c.

    Q33. Not seen in idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis:
    a- Eosinopenia
    b- Iron deficiency anemia
    c- Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
    d- Hemoptysis
    Ans: a.

    Q34. A 29 years old person know diabetic on OHA since 3 years. He has lost weight. Never had DKA. His grand father is diabetic. His father is nondiabetic. Which is the likely diagnosis?
    a- MODY
    b- DM type I
    c- DM type II
    d- Pancreatic diabetes
    Ans: c.

    Q35. About VHL which is not true:
    a- Retinal and cerebellar hemangioblastoma
    b- Gastric carcinoma
    c- Pheochromocytoma
    d- RCC
    Ans: b.

    Q36. Spastic paraplegia is caused by all except:
    a- Vit B12 deficiency
    b- Cervical spondylosis
    c- Lead poisoning
    d- Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
    Ans: c.

    Q37. If a person with severe hyperglycemia is given IV insulin, which of the following can occurs?
    a- Hypokalemia
    b- Hyperkalemia
    c- Hyponatremia
    d- Hypernatremia
    Ans: a.

    Q38. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC are all of the following except:
    a- Polycythemia
    b- Hypercalcemia
    c- Malignant hypertension
    d- Cushing syndrome
    Ans: d.

    Q39. Which of the following won’t present in right heart failure?
    a- Increased PCWP
    b- Pulsatile liver
    c- Increased liver
    d- Positive hepatojugular reflux
    Ans: a.

    Q40. Cystic fibrosis all are true except:
    a- Defect in calcium channel
    b- Pseudomonas infection seen
    c- AR
    d- Cirrhosis of liver can occur
    Ans: a.


    Q1. Which of the following is protective against carcinoma colon?
    a- High fiber diet
    b- High fat
    c- High selenium diet
    d- Low protein diet
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Which is high-risk for laparoscopic surgery?
    a- Hiatus hernia
    b- Obesity
    c- Heart disease
    d- Hb < 8 gm%
    Ans: b.

    Q3. On USG of thyroid which is not sign of malignancy?
    a- Hypoechogenicity
    b- Hyperechogenicity
    c- Microcalcification
    d- Colloids
    Ans: d.

    Q4. Patient with pancreatic transplant with urinary drainage. Monitoring will be done by:
    a- Blood amylase
    b- Urine amylase
    c- Serum glucose levels
    d- Serum lipase level
    Ans: b.

    Q5. SEPS is done for:
    a- Arteries
    b- Veins
    c- Lymphatics
    d- A-V fistula
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Thoracic outlet syndrome is diagnosed by:
    a- Clinical examination
    b- X-ray
    c- Electromyography
    d- CT scan
    Ans: a.

    Q7. MC cause of superficial thrombophlebitis:
    a- IV injections
    b- DVT
    c- HT
    d- Trauma
    Ans: a.

    Q8. Gold standard to diagnosis insulinoma is:
    a- 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels and insulin levels
    b- C-peptide < 50
    c- Insulin levels > 5 mmol
    d- Glucose < 3 mmol
    Ans: a.

    Q9. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) ruptures most commonly:
    a- Ant
    b- Post
    c- Lat
    d- Non
    Ans: c.

    Q10. Pt. presents with punched out lesion on X-ray with Serum Na-144, K+-4.5, Ca-12, Globulin – 8.4, alls 5.4, what will be next investigation to do?
    a- Serum protein electrophoretic studies
    b- Alk PO4- levels
    c- Bone scan
    d- ESR
    Ans: a.

    Q11. Best material for below inguinal arterial graft:
    a- Saphenous upside down
    b- PTFE
    c- Dacron carmustine
    d- Teflon
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Most associated with moderate risk for breast carcinoma:
    a- Atypical adenosis
    b- Metaplasia
    c- Atypical hypertrophy
    d- Atypical hyperplasia
    Ans: d.

    Q13. A 50-year-old male has thyroid nodule. FNAC is suggestive of papillary carcinoma. Best treatment is:
    a- Hemithyroidectomy
    b- Subtotal thyroidectomy with MR neck dissection
    c- Total thyroidectomy MR neck dissection
    d- Hemithyroidectomy with MR neck dissection
    Ans: a.

    Q14. Most important prognostic factor of colorectal carcinoma:
    a- Site of lesion
    b- Stage of lesion
    c- Age of patient
    d- LN status
    Ans: b.

    Q15. What is intermittent claudication?
    a- Pain on 1st sleep
    b- Pain on exercise only
    c- Pain on last step
    d- Pain on rest
    Ans: b.

    Q16. A gallbladder with a polyp, what is not a risk factor for development of carcinomas:
    a- Presence of gallstones
    b- Age > 60 years
    c- Polyp > 5 mm in length
    d- Sudden ↑ in the size of polyp
    Ans: c.

    Q17. The patient has chronic arterial obstruction. He presents with:
    a- Gangrene and claudication
    b- Intermittent claudication
    c- Rest pains
    d- Gangrene
    Ans: b.

    Q18. Zenker’s diverticulum is:
    a- Barium swallow in lateral position is best investigation
    b- Outpouching in the anterior pharyngeal sphincter
    c- True diverticula
    d- Out pouching above cricopharyngeal sphincter
    Ans: d.

    Q19. Stress incontinence is best treated by:
    a- Bladder training
    b- Pelvic exercises
    c- Drugs
    d- Surgery
    Ans: d.

    Q20. A man with blunt injury abdomen after road side accident has BP of 100/80 mm Hg, pulse 120 bpm. Respiration stabilized through airway. Next best step in the management is:
    a- Immediate blood transfusion
    b- Blood for cross-matching + IV fluids
    c- Ventilate the patient
    d- Rush to the OT
    Ans: b.

    Q21. Chemoradiotherapy is not given in:
    a- II Ca cervix
    b- Anal carcinoma T2 N1 M0
    c- T2 N0 M0 glottic Ca
    d- Nasopharyngeal Ca
    Ans: c.

    Q22. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection is:
    a- Uric acid
    b- Triple phosphate
    c- Calcium oxalate
    d- Xanthine
    Ans: b.

    Q23. Entrapment neuropathies commonly affect the following nerves except:
    a- Tibial
    b- Femoral
    c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    d- Median N
    Ans: b.

    Q24. Regarding pancreatic cancer, all are true except:
    a- More than 75% have p53 mutation
    b- More common in people with familial pancreatitis
    c- 3-6 m survival in stage 3
    d- 15-20% survival on 5 years
    Ans: d.

    Q25. Smocking doesn’t cause which cancer:
    a- Larynx
    b- Nasopharynx
    c- Esophagus
    d- Bladder
    Ans: b.

    Q26. Triple assessment for Ca breast is:
    a- History, clinical examination and mammogram
    b- History, clinical examination and FNAC
    c- History and mammogram and FNAC
    d- Clinical examination, mammogram and FNAC/biopsy
    Ans: d.

    Q27. Pseudoclaudication seen due to:
    a- Femoral artery
    b- Popliteal artery
    c- Lumbar canal stenosis
    d- Radial artery
    Ans: c.

    Q28. Prognostic factors for lymphoma are all except:
    a- Stage of disease
    b- Number of extralymphatic sites involved
    c- LDH
    d- Hemoglobin
    Ans: d.

    Q29. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of all except:
    a- Arteriovenous fistula
    b- Distal ischemia
    c- Intermittent claudication
    d- Anhidrosis
    Ans: d.

    Q30. Most common type of Parastomal hernia:
    a- Loop colostomy
    b- End colostomy
    c- Loop ileostomy
    d- End ileostomy
    Ans: b.

    Q31. Difference between follicular adenoma and carcinoma:
    a- Hurthle cells
    b- Increased mitosis
    c- Vascular invasion
    d- None
    Ans: c.


    Q1. Vaccine with best efficacy:
    a- TT
    b- DPT
    c- Measles
    d- Typhoid
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Integrated management of childhood illness includes except:
    a- ARI
    b- Malaria
    c- Diarrhea
    d- TB
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Nutrition in community is assessed by all/ except:
    a- Hb < 115 gm% in 3rd trimester pregnancy
    b- ↑ 1-4 yr mortality rate
    c- Height and weight of children
    d- BW < 2500 gm
    Ans: a.

    Q4. Most common sign of acute hypoxia in neonates:
    a- Tachycardia
    b- Bradycardia
    c- Cardiac arrest tachypnea
    d- Ventricle arrhythmia
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Staging for Wilms syndrome:
    a- Chadwick
    b- International staging international society of pediatrics (ISOP)
    c- AJCC
    d- TNM
    Ans: b.

    Q6. A five year old boy has precocious puberty bp 130/80. Estimation of which of the following will help in diagnosis?
    a- 17-Hydroxyprogesterone
    b- 11-deoxycortisol
    c- Aldosterone
    d- DOCA
    Ans: b.

    Q7. A Down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is:
    a- Echocardiography
    b- CT brain
    c- X-ray cervical spine
    d- USG abdomen
    Ans: a.

    Q8. A female child was brought with complaint of generalized swelling of her body. She was passing cast in her urine. No hematuria. The true statement is:
    a- No IgG or C3 deposition on renal biopsy
    b- Her C3 levels could be low
    c- IgA nephropathy is likely
    d- Alport syndrome
    Ans: a.

    Q9. True about infantile polycystic kidney disease include the following except:
    a- Autosomal dominant
    b- Hepatic cysts
    c- Renal cysts present at birth
    d- Periportal fibrosis
    Ans: a.

    Q10. Marker of neural tube defect:
    a- Phosphatidylesterase
    b- Pseudocholinesterase
    c- Acetylcholinesterase
    d- Butyrylcholinesterase
    Ans: c.

    Q11. A child presents raised chloride levels and suspicion of cystic fibrosis, which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
    a- Repeat sweat chloride measurements
    b- Nasal electrode potential difference
    c- Fat in stool for next 72 hours
    d- DNA analysis for delta F-508 mutation
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Creamy fishy odour is caused by:
    a- Trichomonas
    b- Gardnerella
    c- Candida
    d- Chlamydia
    Ans: b.

    Q2. A pregnant female, just diagnosed to be HBS positive what is the best management?
    a- Anti HB vaccine to neonate
    b- Immunoglobulins to neonate
    c- Both
    d- Observation
    Ans: c.

    Q3. Best contraception for lactating mother:
    a- Barrier
    b- OCPs
    c- POPs
    d- Lactational amenorrhea
    Ans: c.

    Q4. Vaginal delivery allowed in all except:
    a- Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
    b- First twin cephalic and second breech
    c- Extended breech
    d- Mento anterior
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Minimum duration between onset of symptoms and death is seen in:
    a- APH
    b- PPH
    c- Septicemia
    d- Obstructed labor
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Evidence-based treatments for menorrhagia are all except:
    a- OCPs
    b- Progesterone for three months cyclically
    c- Tranexamic acid
    d- Ethamsylate
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Which is raised in dysgerminoma?
    a- AFP
    b- LDH
    c- HCG
    d- CA-A 19-9
    Ans: b.

    Q8. A female 35 years para 3, liver 3 (P3, L3) with CIN III on colposcopic biopsy what would you do?
    a- LEEP
    b- Conization
    c- Hysterectomy
    d- Cryotherapy
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Mifepristone is used in management of:
    a- Threatened abortion
    b- Fibroid
    c- Ectopic pregnancy
    d- Molar pregnancy
    Ans: c.

    Q10. True regarding DMPA include the following except:
    a- 0.3% failure rate
    b- Does not have protective effect of C/A endometrium
    c- Can be given in seizures
    d- Useful in treatment of menohorrhegia
    Ans: b.

    Q11. All are true about pre-eclampsia except:
    a- Cerebral hemorrhage
    b- Pulmonary edema
    c- ARF
    d- DVT
    Ans: a.

    Q12. Pregnant woman in 1st trimester is given spiramycin that she did not take complete treatment and baby is born with hydrocephalus. From which infection she was suffering?
    a- HSV
    b- Treponema pallidum
    c- Toxoplasma
    d- CMV
    Ans: c.

    Q13. Primary amenorrhea is not seen in:
    a- Sheehan’s syndrome
    b- Kallmann’s syndrome
    c- Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauster syndrome
    d- Turner syndrome
    Ans: a.

    Q14. About Lupus anticoagulant all are true except:
    a- Increase in aPTT only
    b- Recurrent 2nd trimester abortion in pregnant females
    c- Can occur without other symptoms of anti phospholipid antibody syndrome
    d- Thrombotic spells can be followed by severe life threatening hemorrhage
    Ans: d.

    Q15. The following drug can be given safely in pregnancy:
    a- Propylthiouracil
    b- MTX
    c- Warfarin
    d- Tetracycline
    Ans: a.

    Q16. All drugs can be given to a mother with lupus who is on 35th week of gestation except:
    a- Chloroquine
    b- Mehtotrexate
    c- Sulphadiazine/sulphasalazine
    d- Prednisolone
    Ans: b.

    Q17. In surgical staging of ovarian Ca, all are done except:
    a- Peritoneal Washing
    b- Liver biopsy
    c- Omental biopsy
    d- Palpation of organs
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Athletic pubalgia is due to:
    a- Abdominal muscle strain
    b- Quadriceps strain
    c- Rectus femoris strain
    d- Gluteus maximus strain
    Ans: a.

    Q2. All are involved in entrapment neuropathy:
    a- Median nerve
    b- Tibial nerve
    c- Femoral nerve
    d- Lat cutaneous of thigh
    Ans: c.

    Q3. True about synovial fluid al except:
    a- Secreted by Type A cells
    b- Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
    c- Contains hyaluronic acid
    d- Viscosity co efficient is variable
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Which of the following is used in osteoporosis for decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone formation?
    a- Teriparatide
    b- Calcitonin
    c- Strontium ranelate
    d- Bisphosphonate
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Not a treatment for chronic backache:
    a- NSAID
    b- Bed rest for 3 months
    c- Exercises
    d- Epidural steroid injection
    Ans: d.

    Q7. Myodesis is contraindicated in:
    a- Children
    b- Tumor
    c- Ischemia
    d- Paralysis
    Ans: c.

    Q8. Milkman fracture:
    a- Pseudofracture
    b- Fracture of metatarsals
    c- Fracture of distal end of radius
    d- Fracture of 5th metacarpal
    Ans: a.

    Q9. High tibial osteotomy all true except:
    a- Not > 30 degrees correction can be achieved
    b- Done though cancellous bone
    c- High chance of recurrence
    d- It is done unicompartmental OA
    Ans: A.

    Q10. What is the most common cause of death after total hip replacement in elderly lady?
    a- Infection
    b- Deep vein thrombus
    c- Pulmonary embolism
    d- Pneumonia
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Most sensitive investigation for DCIS invasive:
    a- Mammography
    b- USG
    c- MRI
    d- PET
    Ans: c.

    Q2. Potential for Reperfusion of the tissue, post-infarct can be assessed by:
    a- MUGA scan
    b- Thallium scan
    c- Echo cardiography
    d- MRI
    Ans: b.

    Q3. On USG diffuse thickening of gallbladder with hyperechoic shadow at neck and comet-talling is seen in:
    a- Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
    b- Adenomyomatosis
    c- Adenomyomatous polyps
    d- Cholesterol crystals
    Ans: b.

    Q4. Ca breast is not discovered in mammography in young woman due to:
    a- Dense glandular tissue
    b- Fat replaces glandular tissue
    c- Loose tissue
    d- Thick overlying skin in young
    Ans: a.

    Q5. Adrenal adenoma on CT which is not true:
    a- Hypodense mass
    b- Micro calcification can be present
    c- Contrast appears early and washes out late
    d- Regular border
    Ans: c.

    Q6. Which of the following contain Fat on mammography?
    a- Traumatic cyst
    b- Fibroadenoma
    c- Keratosis
    d- Galactocele
    Ans: a, d.

    Q7. Prunning of vessels is seen in:
    a- Lung tumor
    b- Primary Pulmonary hypertension
    c- Chronic Bronchitis
    d- Pulmonary infections
    Ans: b.

    Q8. All of the following is feature of temporal lobe epilepsy except:
    a- Atrophy of fornices
    b- Atrophy of temporal lobe
    c- Atrophy of hippocampus
    d- Atrophy of mammillary body
    Ans: b.

    Q9. Calcification of posterior spinal ligament is best diagnosed by:
    a- MRI
    b- CT
    c- X-ray
    d- USG
    Ans: b.


    Q1. Which diseases are given benefit under Disability Act except:
    a- Mental retardation
    b- Schizophrenia
    c- Bipolar disorder
    d- Dementia
    Ans: A.

    Q2. All are indications of lithium except:
    a- Neutropenia
    b- Major depression
    c- Vasculogenic Headache
    d- Generalized anxiety disorder
    Ans: d.

    Q3. Which of the following is recently included under ICD 10?
    a- Lack of exercise
    b- Alcoholism
    c- Poisoning
    d- Unhealthy food
    Ans: d.


    Q1. Neurofibromatosis is associated with all except:
    a- Autosomal recessive
    b- Cutaneous fibromas
    c- Cataract
    d- Scoliosis
    Ans: a.

    Q2. Primary Skin lesion are seen in all except:
    a- Bowen’s disease
    b- Reiter’s
    c- Psoriasis
    d- Lichen planus
    Ans: a.

    Q3. Scarring alopecia is associated with:
    a- Alopecia areata
    b- Tinea capitis
    c- Androgenic alopecia
    d- Lichen planus
    Ans: d.

    Q4. A neonate with focal skin lesions and hypoplastic limbs causative agent:
    a- Cytomegalovirus
    b- Herpes Zoster
    c- Toxoplasma
    d- T. pallidum
    Ans: b.

    Q5. Patient present with 5 days fever and raised erythematous lesions. Which on biopsy revealed neutrophilic infiltrate. What is a most probable diagnosis:
    a- ENL
    b- Sweat syndrome
    c- Erythema nodosum diminuta
    d- None
    Ans: b.

    Q6. Involvement of sweat glands and hair follicles with granuloma around the hair follicles is seen in:
    a- Lichen Scrofulosum
    b- Papulonecrotic tuberculid
    c- Lupus vulgaris
    d- Military TB
    Ans: a.

    Q7. Incontinentia pigmenti are associated with all except:
    a- 100% ocular problems
    b- X-linked dominant condition
    c- Linear hyperpigmented skin lesions
    d- Associated with eye problems
    Ans: a.
  2. smashingfuzz

    smashingfuzz Guest


    question on pg entrance
  3. anish13645

    anish13645 Guest

    mci recognition

    Can anyone tell me if i take a MD seat in a particular collegewhich is mci recognised at the time of counselling and then after i am into my PG say after 1 year if in the next mci inspection all MD seat of that particular deptt of that college gets derecognised then after my pg completion will i get a recognised degree..or it will affect my juniors only..someone told me that if a pg seat is derecognised all the degree of previous 5 years will be derecognised it true

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