Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by Dr.Hemalatha, Jan 11, 2009.

  1. nikky.

    nikky. Guest

    one question which has gained much attention is hiv attacks which type of cell...........d question was like this

    hiv attacks which of the following RECEPTORS?

    IM SURE IT WAS ASKED RECEPTOR n not cell.....we have always studied that hiv attacks ccr5 n cxcr4 damn sure it was receptor because dat got me confused n i left d question
  2. Guest

    Guest Guest

    the other option regerding ecclampsia was thrombosis
  3. priya.

    priya. Guest

    Menorragia SHAw page 230 12th ed
    Ethamsylate:reduses capillary fragility
    500mg 4 times daily from 5 days prior to cycle to 10 days after.No side effects reported.
    Tranexmeic acid ;Anti fibrinolytic agent.1-2g 4times daily for 6-7 days during menses .50% success.
    Progeseronal steroids :High dose 10-30mg/day .
    there after 5mg for 20 days from day 5th day to 25th day
    Ethamsylate is is progesterone from 5-25th day.Ans we have to wait for rsult.
  4. Guest

    Guest Guest

    about the toxoplasmosis question if my memory is right i thinl it mentioned calcification around the ventricle so can the answer be CMV
    :arrow: :?:
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    hypersensitivity pnemonitis is considered as delayed t cell mediated HS disorder that make it type 4 :?:
  6. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    Answer to the controversial diabetes is type 1 DM .mody is inherited as autosomal dominant.father was not affected but mother status was unknown.she could have mody.also good control on oral hypoglycemics without requiring insulin and no history of ketosis rule out type 1 d.m.also maltese cross-crytococcus is the answer.
  7. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    Steps-prevalance of risk factors of non-communicable disease.2.spread of meningitis to ear-cochlear aqueduct.3.pedestrian with graze abrasion-secondary injuries.4.rapid correction of hyperglycemia with insulin prognostic index for lymphoma a/e 1.leucocytosis2.age 3.serum ldh4.serum albumin and hemoglobin.In this question they didn't mention hodgkin or non-hodgkin if u take hodgkin lymphoma ans. is serum ldh only and if u take it nhl then the ans. Are serum albumin and hb,and also leucocytosis.i think serum ldh is better answer
  8. tahir.

    tahir. Guest

    Fusion of neural tube starts at

    Ans. cervical. Ref Nelson 18th ed, p2443
  9. tahir.

    tahir. Guest

    There was a q regarding Aedes aegypti. Here is what I found in Website of National Vector Borne Disease Control Program
    • Aedes aegypti is the vector of dengue / dengue haemorrhagic fever.
    • It is a small, black mosquito with white stripes and is approximately 5 mm in size.
    • It takes about 7 to 8 days to develop the virus in its body and transmit the disease.Feeding Habit
    • Day biter
    • Mainly feeds on human beings in domestic and peridomestic situations
    • Bites repeatedly
    Resting Habit
    • Rests in the domestic and peridomestic situations
    • Rests in the dark corners of the houses, on hanging objects like clothes, umbrella, etc. or under the furniture
    Breeding Habits
    • Aedes aegypti mosquito breeds in any type of man made containers or storage containers having even a small quantity of water
    • Eggs of Aedes aegypti can live without water for more then one year
  10. DrDiya.

    DrDiya. Guest

    1.bone mineralization marker
    ans : labelled tetracycline
    2.atheletic pubalgia
    ans: abdominal muscle strain
    3.The International Prognostic Index of lymphoma(I haemoglobin and serum pr h 17th 692
    4.which of the following does not occur in rcc cushing syndrome h 17th 592
    5.prognostic indicator of colon cancer lymph node status h 17th 575
    6 mutation not found in colon cancer beta catenin h 17th 574
    7. not a part of pancreatic cancer p53 mutation found in 75%cases h 17th 587
    8 does not cause folic acid deficience chloroquine h 17th 649
    9. not a component of pnh massive splenomegally h 17th 661
    10. a q about small cell carcinoma most sensitive to chemotherapy h 17th 561
    11 which of the following does not increase appetite msh h 17th 464
    12.which of the following is not done in ca ovary staging peritoneal biopsy h 17th 605
    13 which of the followin is not a type of analytical study field trial park 19th 58
    14 not a useful component of chronic disease depends upon dose park 19th 84
    15 chemoprophylaxis is given in all except typhoid park 19th 106
    16 q fever transmission by aerosol park 19th 252
    17 1 q about not includede in aids control programme supply of ART park 17th 357
    18.average indian man 60 kg park 500
    19.incidence can be calculated by prospective cohort studypark 19th 71
    20.vit a prophylaxis is type of specific protection park 19th 39
    21. late expanding phase means birth rate falls and death rates declines still further park 19th 379
    22. aging which of the following true oxidative free radical robbins 7th 42
    23 hallmark of acute inflamation vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability r 50
    24 which of the following specifically found in intrinsic pathway factor 12 r 128
    25 not seen in idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis eosinopenia r 746
    26 hypersensitive pneumonitis is type of delayed type of hsn rctn r 739
    27.marker of gist cd 117 r 827
    28.lymphoid tissue found in small intestine in lamina p r 829
    29.finish type nephrotic syndrome is due to nephrin gene r [snip]
    30. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis false is causative organism is tb r 1001 beningn nephrosclerosis specific finding hyaline arteriosclerosis r 1006
    32. moderate increase is incidence of breast cancer by atypical hypeplasia r 1130
    33/reversible ischemia most sensitive tst thallium scan h 17th 1519
    34.not a component of SIRS thrombocytopenia h 17th 1696
    35. child with multiple renal cysts false is autosomal inheritence h 17th 1796
    36.chief cells are found in fundus of gastric gland h 17th 1855
    37 differance between follicular adenoma nd carcinoma vascular invasion h 17th 2245
    38. a patient with family history of diabetis with absent ketonuria cant be diagnosed as type 1 DM h 2279
    39 which of the following is tre about sertoli cell helps in spermiogenesis h 17th 2312
    40.which of the following is false about trochlear nerve supply ipsilateral superior oblique muscle h 17th 193
    41.does not cause diarhea by invasion b.cereus h 17th 248
    42. which of the following does not cause increased anion gap diarhea h 17th 290
    43.which of the following does not cause hirsutism hyperthyroidism h 17th 301
    44.most common cause of superficial v thrombosis intravenous infusion csdt 12th 858
    45.chronic ischemia causes rest pain csdt 12th 798 nonoperative treatment for stress incontinence pelvic floor exercise csdt 1072
    47.sigmoid curve in hemoglobin oxygen binding is due to cooperative binding harper 27th 43
    48.HBS causes defect in function harper 27th 47
    49 which of the following is false about lipoprotein lipase does not require apo c II as cofactor har 219
    50.which of the following helps in intron removel snRNA har 27th 319
    51.which of the following helps in DNA nick sealing DNA ligase har 27th 336
    52 sodium bicarbonate is added to local Anaesthesia to increase speed of onset katjung 10th 419
    53. all except 1 can be used in acute closure glaucoma duoxetine ref
    53 . 1 repeat q from nov 2008 about zn causes pulmonary fibosis
    54 1 repeat q from nov 2008 as drug causin bone formation and antio resorptive strontium ranelate
    55 1 repeat q about c wave in JVP due to bulging of av valve in to right atria
    56 triple phosphete stones is due to proteus infection h 17th 1819
    57.false about treatment of chronic low back pain bed rest 4 3 month h 17th 115 its given tht bed rest should not exceed 2 days
    58. hyperaldosteronism all are true except metabolic acidosis h 17th 288
    59.which of the following causes fastest reduction in k+ level in hyperkalemia glucose with insulin
    60scarring alopecia is caused by lichen planus h 322
    61. a q was there like a female child came 4 tosillectomy with increased a PTT diagnosis isVWF disease h 723
    62. a q was there with some older aged male with lytic bone lesion rest i dont remember but the dignosis is multiple myeloma and investigation to be done is serum electrophoresis h 704
    63.p.multocida is caused by animal bite h 801
    64 all are true except necrotisin fascitis ... its caused by grp b streptococcus h 17th 801
    65. fishy odour is found in gardnella infection h 17th 827
    66. a q was thr with infection and mode of transmission with listeria legionella n tetanus as choice ans the wrong ans is tetanus is due to aerosol dust h 17th 898
    67. culture media used for etec o157 is sorbitol mc konky media h 17th 942
    68. endemic relapsing fever is caused by a/e b.recurrentis h 17th 1052
    69 a/e are true about parvo virus is transplacental fetal infection incidence is <,10% h 17th 1116
    70. HIV infects predominently CD4 h 17th 1139 induced cardiomyopathy all are true except it causes aortic aneurism h 1174
    72.enterovirus causes a/e hemmorhagic fever h 1209
    73.dengue hemmorhagic fever is caused by reinfection with another dengue virus serotype h 1239
    74 drug of choice in severe falciperum malaria artesunate h 1289
    75. maltese cross on immunoforoscence babesia microti h 1295
    76. true about simple random saampling each unit has a n equal chance of being drawn park 703
    77.a q about comet tail appearance adenomyosis of gall bladder repeat from nov 2008
    76. obstructive azoospermia true statement is normal fsh with normal lh h 2314 its given normal fsh only not mentioned abt lhi will search 4 further referanc
    77. a/e are true abt eaton lambert syndrome spare ocular m. h 2674
    80.signal transmission occurs between cell by all route except gap junction ganong 22nd 16
    81.which of the following is true about fascilitated diffusion carrier protein mediated gan 31
    82.intrinsic factor is secreted by parietal cells gan 491
    83. which of the following is secreted by paneth cells lysozyme gan 506,518
    84.which of teh following is not a function of CD4 helper cell >>>>>>>> cytotoxicity gan 527
    85.increased blood flow to muscle during exercise is due to accumulation of vasodilator metabolites gan 632
    86.diastolic flow in aorta is due to elastic recoil of aortic wall gan 587
    87.primary stimulus to chemoreceptors is due to increased h+ions gan 675
    88.cyanosis does not occur in anemic hypoxia gan 684
    89 previlaged communication means relation between a dr and public authority concerned with moral dutis to protect public parikh 6th 1.34
    90.1q was thr about fingerprints are lost in leprosy repea
    91.abrasions should be distinguished from ant bite parikh 4.3
    92.foreign body sensation in eye with arthritis diagnosis is reactive arthritis h 17th 2113
    93.which of the following is not true about angioneurotic edeme >>pittin in nature h 17th 2066
    94 another q was there with immediately after taking some food develops dyspnea cyanosis dianosis is angioneurotic edema h 2066
    95.not a direct cutaneous disease reiters disease h 2066
    96.extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the cause secondary impact injury not secondary injury as it occurs on opposite side of primary impact injury parikh 4.133
    97. 20yrs. old male with Hb-10 MCV 70 serum iron 65 serum ferritin 100 what is the diagnosis thallasemia trait table [snip]-6 page 633 and table 99.2 page 637
    98. Which of these is an FDA approved indication for use of modafinil as an adjunct obstructiv sleep apnoea h 178
    99. sleep is controlled by which centre hypothalamus h 173
    100.myoodesis is c/i in ischemia
    101 intermittent claudication pain is produced during exercise h 1168
    102 cell cycle specific agent a/e vinblastine bleomycin katzung 881
    103ifosphamide is an alkylating agent katzung 882
    104.true about nitroglycerine except hypotension and bradycardia kat 187
    105. valproate causes a/e osteomalacia kat 387
    106.water sample estimation all are true except cl.perfringes spore denotes recent contamination park 580
    107 INMCI does not include tb park 372
    108.pseudoclaudication is due to ---- COMPRESSION OF CAUDA EQUINNA (repeat question)
    109.Cap in lac operon is - positive regulator {repeat}
    110.Shortest interval in onset to death- pph dutta 6th 412
    111.a female child was brought with complaint of generalised swelling of her body. She was passing fatty cast in her urine. No haematuria. The true statement is – no IgG or C3 deposition seen on renal biopsy
    h 1790
    112.von hippel landau syndrome consists of a/e – gastric cancer repeat
    113.triple assessment of breast dis includes clinical ex,mammogram,aspiration h 564
    114.the following cephalosporin doesn’t need dose modifications depending on gfr values – cefoperazone kat 737
    115.tacrolimus side effect – nephrotoxicity kat 918
    116/hand foot and mouth syndrome – capecitabin kat 888
    117the nephrotoxicity of cisplatin is increased by a/e – rifampicin kat 774
    118 the following drug can be given safe in pregnancy - propylthiouracil kat 626
    119. cystic fibrosis all are true except – defect in calcium channel h 1632
    120 girl with abnormal sweat chloride test, next diagnostic test – transnasal potential difference h 1634
    121 HepB infected neonate - both Vaccine and Immunoglobin repeat
    122 Joint aspiration in acute gout shows prdominent neutrophills or birefringent needle-shaped msu crystal h 2166
    123 About mesial temporal lobe epilepsy true is it involves hippocampus h 2500
    124 Lupus anticoagulant true is specifically increases PTT h 731
    125.Nerve entrapment all except femoral h 2654
    126.triad of tuberous sclerosis a/e rhabdomyoma h 2607
    127 Coombs positive anaemia – sle h 659
    128 normal curve mean=median b k mahajan 6th ed 81
    129. abt apla syndrome all are true except severe laife threatening hemmorhage ref i will give soon
    130.contineous data is represented by histogram mahajan 20
    131. baby clinic a/e helping mother to initiate breast feeding with in 4 hr of normal vaginal delivery park 444
    132. the following vaccine when contaminated causes toxic shock syndrome – measles vaccine park 129
    133 abt hemochromatosis true is heterozygosity h 2430
    134. Proteus –ans. triple phosphate renal stone h 1819
    135. Milkman # - pseudo#
    136.dense mammogram in young female is due to more glandular tissue
    137 gold standard test to diagnose insulinoma 72 hr fasting plasma glucose level ref
    138.true about trroters triad except seizures repeat with different choice
    139. pulsatile large liver is seen in tricuspid regurgitition h 1479
    140 after 4 days of fasting glucose receptors increase in all except adipose tissue harper 27th 140
    141 commonest organ to be injured in bomb blast – lung parikh 4.184
    142 thromboembolism assoc with a/e – diabetes h 660
    143.vaginal delivery not allowed in twin with 1 vertx n other with non vertex presentation dutta 211
    144. all are effect of estrogen except decreased HDL kat 658
    145.smoking assoc with a/e nasopharyngeal cancer h 487
    147 all are included in nutritional surveillance except maternal haemoglobin <11.5% park
    148 thorasic outlet syndrome is diagnosed by DSA as clinical examination finding is similar with cervical disk disease and X RAY is not diagnostic and DSA shows post stenotic dilatation which is definitive csdt12th 822
    149.mifepristone can be given in fibroid uterus shaw 345
    150. carpal tunnel syndrome caused by a/e addisons disease h 2154
    151 a/e is a cause of priamry amennorhe a.... sneehans syndrome shaw 280
    152 all are C/I of laparoscopic sterilisation except obesity as its C/I in extreme obesity not obesity shaw 238
    153 best contraceptive in lactation progesterone pill as its male condom thts effective not female condoms so a generalised term of barrier method cant be best in lactation shaw 240 dutta 548
    54.neonate with scarred and hypoplastic limb .. congenital varicella
    155 mother in 1st trimester pregnancy with irregular use of spiramycin gave birth to a baby with hydrcephalus diagnosis is congenital toxoplasmosis h 1308
    156 a q was thr abt SDS PAGE ans is it causes protein denaturation the b choice in the q har27th24
    157 acetyl coA is a direct precurser of a/e glucose harper27th 139
    158 mi RNA helps in gene regulation harper 320
    159. angiotensin a/e – vasodilatation gan 456
    160. renal Physiology true – 5%of cardiac output received by kidney gan 708
    161.Anatomical snuff box – radial a repeat
    162 Pauci immune glomerulonephritis – microangiopathic polyangitis rob 977
    163 a/e are true about neuroblastoma mst common mets to lung
    164 bld supply of medulla are a/e basilar a bdc 304
    165. trauma patient with gcs score 15, bp 100/80 next step iv fluid with blood for cross matching csdt 214
    166 content of deep perineal pouch a/e root of penis repeat
    167.part of pelvic diaphragm a/e - colles fascia bdc 332
    168. posterior superior alveolar n is a branch of – ifraorbital nerve
    69 a lady with temporal field defects, galactorrhoea, most common cause – pituitary macroadenoma h 2202
    170 orphan annie nuclei is found in a/e follicular carcinoma thyroid h 2245
    171 hepatomegaly is caused by all except hepatic pophyria plz look the porphyria chapter frm harrison 2438
    172 lithium can be used in all except generalised anxiety disorder as its also used in cluster headache but no where mentioned in generalised anxiety disorder in hari 2712 abt lithium so the ans wd be generalised anxiety disorder
    173. dysgerminoma marker – LDH
    174.superior gluteal nerve supplies all except – gluteus maximus
    175.45 year old male had a chest pain. he died after 4 days. on postmortem intramural coagulation was found. true finding is presence of granulomatous inflammation r 579
    176 spstic paraplegia is caused by all except lead poisoning
    176 evidence based treatment fr mennorrhagia are a/e ethamsylate
    177,secretomotor fire to parotid pass through a/e greater petrosal n bdc 127
    178 the most bactericidal among the following oxygen free radical r 61,75
    179.spongy urethra drainage into which node – deep inguinal
    bdc 350
    180.chemoradiation is given in a/e glottic T2 cancr ref dhingra and plz review h 608 4 trt in cancer cx its given in it
    181.angiogenesis requires a/e –can any 1 tell me whts the choice in ths q IL8 or IL 1 as i remember i had marked it thnkn it IL!
    182.peripheral pulmonary a. prunning is seen in pulmonary hypertension h 1576
    183.paneth cell secret lysozyme
    184 best predictor of CHD lipoprotein a park 306
    185 not a feature of right heart failure increased PCWP r 563
    186 not afeature of hasimotos thyroiditis orphan an nuclei h 2230
    187 not a feature of temporal arteritis worsens on warmth exposure h 96
    188 LDH level raised in retinoblastoma khurana 4th 282
    189 motorcyclist's fructure means base of skull divided into 2 halves reddy synopsis 19th ed 129
    190 traumatic asphyxia seen in a/e accidental strangulation reddy 163
    191 casper dictu denotes time since dath reddy 85
    192 pain sensitive structures a/e choroid plexus repeat
    193 all are indicated in treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy except exphotocoagulation parson 20th 297
    194 all are seen in idiopathic juvenile arthritis except rheumatoid nodule
    195 stellate wound contact shot injury reddy 111
    196.35 yr female para 3+0,CIN 3 in one quadrant on pap smear, what is the management cone excision as it provides tissue for biopsy also shaw 385 h 608
    197 45 yr man with 2 cm papillary ca thyroid nodule on left lobe trt of choice is near total thyroidectomy with lt RND csdt 285
    198.amifostine is protective in all except cns
    199.karyotyping used for – chromosomal abnormalities
    200 regarding topical mitomycin c i want to tell that after searching so many internet sites i got the result thah it can be given in laryngeal stenosis and also struge weber syndrome rest the wish of AIIMS faculty
    201.zenker diverticulum
    202.risk factor for gb polyp turning into malignancy a/e size 5mm or >
    203.apoptosis which cell organelle responsible – mitochondria rob 29
    204 Sympathectomy usefull in all except anhydrosis repeat
    205.visual cycle – opsin combines with retinol repeat
    206 a q on genomic imprinting
    207.splenic artery br a/e right gastro epiploic
    208 stellate ganglion block causes all except – bradycardia
    209.neurofibromatosis a/e ans is autosomal recessive
    210. a q about malformation
    211. DSM IV include benefit for mental retardation
    212 most common site of subclavian a stenosis 1 st part
    213.214 Which of these is a set point which is framed for a long term plans, but yet something that can not be quantified/measured? Objective graft material for below inguinal ligament anastomosis reverse saphenous vein
    215,Parastomal hernia MCC-end colostomy
    216.myocardiac o2 demand depends upon duration of systole
    g 575
    217, incontinenta pigmenti? 100 percent with ocular symptoms
    218.all are true except erythrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated
    219.SEPS is used 4 veins
    220.precocious puberty boy 5years with pubic hair, bp 120/90 – 11 beta hydroxylase h 2344
    221 intestinal absorption test stoll fat estimation h 1877
    222 heat rupture true is irregular margin reddy 143
    223.Rheumatoid factor will give false negative tests with – coombs test….
    223.restless leg syndrome seen in renal failure h 174
    224.hepatitis C true statement is moost common indication 4 liver transplantation h 1990
    225. amifostine protects all organs from radiation exposure except CNS or skin actuaaly all are giving cns as ans
    226.von hippel landau syndrome consists of a/e – gastric cancer, renal cell carcinoma, phaechromocytoma, cerebral and retinal haemangiomas.
    gastric cancer r 1414
    227.arteriovenous shunt true is helps in thermoregulation
    228.aedes mosquito a/e - constant biters, eggs cannot survive more than one week without water, transmit dengue ans constant biters park 625 maximum transmission – homosexual, heterosexual, blood transfusion, needle prick ans blood tranfusion park 289
    230.systolic thrill in left 2nd or 3rd intercostal space is seen in a/e ,,,, subpulmonic vsd, pink TOF, ebsteins anomaly ,valvular pulmonic stenosis as per referances given i got the ans that subpulmonary vsd
    231 leptospirosis all except? antibody cn b detectd in a week
    234 a/e 1 are comlication of eclampsia deep vein thrombosis dutta 234
    235 pancreatic transplant with bladder catheter – urine amylase, blood amylase, blood glucose ans urinary amylase
    236.aortic aneurysm rupture occurs mostly – anterior, posterior, lateral, intraperitoneal ans posterior
    237.the following joint has least chances for recurrent dislocation – ankle, hip, shoulder, knee ans ankle reviewed from various sites
    238 which of the following is not helpful in oxidation reduction reaction dehydroperoxidase har 96
    238.which true about vasomotor centre?? connected to cardiovagal fibres
    239.Closure of nueral tube begins at- Cervical
    240 rapid correction of hyperglycemia using insulin alone will result in –hypernatremia h 2285
    241 foamy histiocytes and intense neutrophilic infilterates in a patient presenting with fever and lymphadenopathy ....diagnosis is sweet syndrome
    242.most common change in child in response to hypoxia ans tachycardia
    244. sternberg camnal false is lies lateral to foramen rotundum ANS 4
    245.chemotherapeutic agent not used in osteosarcoma ACCRD TO T10 PROTOCOL ETOPOSIDE
    247 energy source in restg state DEPENDS ON ?? lean body mass,heart rate,?,? LEAN BODY MASS HAR 486
    248 chlamydia true can be grown on culture
    249 i dnt remember the exact q bt mentioned tht child is bein ntubated n ventillated wht to do next thnk no ref required its ABC of resuscication bt a choice was thr as i remember secure airway as intubation is part of securin airway it has been excludedv transfusion and bood for cross matching
    250.crude birth rate a/e – ratio, fertility indicator, still born excluded
    ans fertility indicator park 386
    251 child bites his fingers – hgprtase def, adenosine deaminase def
    ans hgprt deficiency har 308
    252.pancreatic transplant+bladder drainage, investigation to evaluate function--- urinary amylase/ serum amylase/ bilirubin ans-- urinary amylase
    253 a patient with acute leukemia and hyperleiukocytosis which is not to be given imediatle ans chemotherapy ref h 680
    254 .which of the following is a non progressive esophageal contraction ans tertiary
    255.most common cause of death after 48 hr of THR PULMONARY EMBOLISM
    256.6 year old girl comes with dyspnea and cough... after primary treatment she was sent home.. a weak later the whole lung on right side was opacified on cxr... what's probable diagnosis FB ASPIRATION CSDT 1311
    257.Q. On a given day a hospital had 50 admissions. 20 girls, out of which 10 needed surgery and out of 30 boys which were admitted 20 needed surgeries. What is the probability of picking up a person requiring surgery? 2/6
    258.true about papilloma of larynx ans hpv 6 is more virulent
    259.spread of malignancy) from cns tumors to the inner ear occurs along which of the following?
    a.endolymphatic sac
    b.sup vestibular nerve sheath
    c.cochlear nerve
    d.hyrlt fissure ans cochlear aqueduct
    260 regarding non typhoidal salmenellosis A/E a)can be transmitted by eating poultry products
    b)can be diagnosed by blood culture better than stool sample
    c)quinolones r effective
    -severe in neonates ANS B HAR 960
    261.preg female wid sle can b given all xcept predni,mtx,sulfasalazine.
    ans sulfasalazine as it causes drug induced lupus ref har 2083

    262.answr to d disinfctant ques is a/e phenol works more in presence of organic matter...

    it actually loses its potency in presence of pus,blood etc plz chq ananth its given sm1 has taken my book so cant give u page ref

    263.hypercalcemia a/e milk alkali syn,hyperparathyroid,celiac dis ans celiac disease h 2380,1880
    264. Dsm IV include benefit for

    1. schizophrenea
    2. bipolar affective disorder
    3. mental retardation
    4. dementia
    ANS 3

    265....usg apperance of thyroid ca..all except...

    c)irregular margin..


    267 I THNK A REPEAT Q ventral neural tube defect marker is a- phoshphatidyl esterase b- c-acetyl choline esterase ANS B

    269 INVESTIGATION OF CHOICE FOR dcis usg ref

    270 incontinenti pigmenti – 100% ophthalmic problems, x linked dominant, skin rash, associated with eye problems
    ans 100% ophthalmic involvement

    271. all the following are composite muscles except – flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus, pectineus, biceps femoris
    272.hbs 4 options all except
    a) glutamate replaced by valine
    b)non polar replaced by polar
    c) hetrozygotes with hbs r protected frm malaria
    d) something abt sticky patch
    ANS .b ref harper 27 47
    273 earliest change from Standing to sitting position is increased venous return
    274. Wilm's Tumor - National Wilm tumor staging system ref nelson copying the thns given in nelson 18th ed
  11. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    Help in this question.
    CRVO can be differentiated from carotid artery occlusion by all except:
    1.dilatation of retinal veins.
    2.tortuosity of retinal veins
    4.pressure in central retinal artery
  12. ace.

    ace. Guest

    Treatment of hyperglycemia with insulin ALONE causes

    its a confusing question. carotid artery emboli is an indirect way of saying crao as emboli is the main etiology of crao. retinal vein dilation and tortuosity r seen in crvo and not in crao and tortuosity being more sensitve than dilation. in crao retinal veins r normal. coming to retinal artery pressure its decreased in crao and quite normal in crvo. so all these can be used to diffrntiate crao and crvo. now coming to opthalmodynamometer net refernces say it can be used to measure retinal vessel pressures indirectly but now its outdated. so the answer depends on wat the dumb question setters had in mind.. i thnk it could be opthalmodynamometer.
  13. dr parveen

    dr parveen Guest

    question with answer

    sleep is controlled by which centre
    b. hypothalamus
    c. putamen
    d limbic system
    and d
  14. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    All are true about mesial temporal lobe sclerosis except
    1.fornix is involved
    2.mamillary body involved
    3.hippocampus involved
    4.blurring of grey-white matter junction in temporal lobe
  15. leon.

    leon. Guest

    up mid alveolar n-infra orbital
    sertoli cell-meiosis as spermiogenesis is maturation phase.only it helps in spermatogenesis.
    chief cell-fundus
    hbs-glutamine by valine.only glutamate
    meneingitis route-cochlearacqueduct.see dhingra lesson 1
    how can glutaraldehyde sporicidal
    nutri surviellance-mother 11gm repeat
    intestinal absorption for carbohydrate is the question-d xylose is the ans
    hypercoagula a/e-DM ref harri
    para 3+0 -completed family so hysterectomy as cin3 has 9 p.c. chance for malignancy
    recurrent disloca-ankle
    breast young women-more fat
    milkman fracture where it is common is the question- scapula ref harri osteomalacia chap x ray pic
  16. sandy.

    sandy. Guest

    Even for lap TL, minimum Hb level over 8 is required as per Govt guidelines. So ananemia MAY be a contraindication, irrespective of the requirement for G.A/S.A
  17. sandy.

    sandy. Guest

    Q 156 - Probability -
    Probability of a girl needing surgery is 1/2 and of a boy is 2/3. Since the multiplicative law of probability will apply in this case of selecting a person needing surgery, its 1/2 X 2/3 i.e 2/6.
  18. milind.

    milind. Guest

    if u have time go read probability from class 12th mathematics i had mathematics so i can explain u but i cant type much about this again n again.

    the answer is 3/5.

    i just want to make it simple with words only,i am not putting any formulas here.

    now for the same question i will give u following facts.u can understand it from that.

    Probability= number of desired outcomes/total number of outcomes.

    The Probability of picking one student for surgery will be 30/50 dat equals to 3/5.

    Probabilty of picking one boy for surgery=20/50=2/5.
    Probability of picking one girl for surgery=10/50=1/5.

    Probability of picking two student for surgery=30/50 x 29/49.
    (after picking one student 49 are left so for total left is 49.
    and the one who has been picked was from surgery so 29 students for surgery left)

    Probability of picking two student(one boy n one girl) for surgery=20/50 x 10/49.

    Probability of picking two girls for surgery=10/50 x 9/49.
    Probability of picking two boys for surgery=20/50 x 19/49.

    Probability of only picking a boy from that class=30/50=3/5.
    (becoz there are 30 boys so every boy has a equal chance for getting picked.)

    Probability of not picking a boy from that class=20/50=2/5.
    (becoz 20 students can be picked who are not boy)

    Now sum of the probability of an event to occur and to not occur is always one.

    so,3/5 + 2/5=1.

    now for girls.

    Probability of picking one girl from that class =20/50=2/5.
    Probability of not picking a girl from that class=30/50=3/5.

    (now making it more simple.
    there are 50 students in the class.30 boys and 20 girls.
    if you pick 50 times you will get a girl only 20 times becoz there are 20 girls.and rest thirty times you will get a boy.

    now for surgery.if u want a student for surgery than every student needing surgery stands a equal chance for getting picked.
    and there are 30 students who need 30/50.

    now a girl who need surgery then find out how many girls need surgery.dat is u have to pick it from 50 students not 20.
    becoz when ever u have to put ur hand for picking every student has an equal chance for getting picked.

    probability= number of desired outcomes/total number of outcomes.

    probabilty of tossing a coin and getting heads =1/2
    becoz desired outcome is 1(head)
    total outcome is 2(head n tail)(it can be anything of the two)

    probabilty of getting a six in dice=1/6.
    becoz there is only one six in a dice.
    total outcome=6(it can be 1,2,3,4,5,6,any of these can come)
  19. leon.

    leon. Guest

    Saphenous Vein Versus PTFE for Above-Knee Femoropopliteal Bypass. A Review of the Literature

    The autogenous saphenous vein is considered the best bypass graft material for arterial bypasses below the inguinal ligament. However, a synthetic graft or prosthesis is considered an acceptable alternative, especially when the distal anastomosis is situated above the knee. Some studies even suggest that patency rates for vein and synthetic grafts are comparable, whereas others indicate that a vein graft is superior to a prosthetic graft, even above the knee.

    To test the hypothesis that both vein grafts and synthetic prostheses are equally beneficial in the above-knee position, we performed a systematic review of available studies comparing the patency of saphenous vein and polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) as bypass material. English and German medical literature from 1966 to 2002 was searched using Medline, and 25 articles meeting our inclusion and exclusion criteria were selected.

    The patency of venous bypasses was superior to that of PTFE bypasses at all time intervals studied. After 2 years, the primary patency rate of venous bypasses was 81% as compared to 67% for PTFE bypasses, and after 5 years it was 69 and 49%, respectively. After 5 years, the secondary patency of PTFE bypasses reached 60%. When only randomized trials were considered, venous bypasses were again superior to PTFE bypasses at all intervals studied. After 2 years, the primary patency rate of venous and PTFE bypasses was 80 and 69%, respectively, and after 5 years it was 74 and 39%, respectively.

    Since both randomized and retrospective studies comparing venous with PTFE bypasses showed that vein grafts were ‘better’ than PTFE prostheses, the null hypothesis that there is no difference between the two types of graft material was rejected (p=0.008).

    We conclude from this systematic review that if a saphenous vein is available, a venous bypass should be chosen at all times, even if patients have an anticipated short life expectancy (<2 years). If the saphenous vein is absent or not suitable for bypass grafting, PTFE is a good alternative as bypass material.
  20. leon.

    leon. Guest

    Treatment Options
    NOTE: Management of bleeding in pregnancy requires Gynaecology referral and potential hospital admission especially if bleeding does not stop or is substantial and surgical intervention is required.

    First line
    IntraUterine System insertion
    Second Line
    Tranexamic acid an antifibrinolytic agent
    Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
    Combined oral contraceptive pills to prevent proliferation of the endometrium
    Third line
    Oral progestogen (e.g. norethisterone), to prevent proliferation of the endometrium
    Injected progestogen (e.g. Depo provera)
    Other options
    Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists (e.g. Goserelin)
  21. leon.

    leon. Guest

    Parastomal Hernias
    VOLUME: 49
    Issue Number:
    Gwen B. Turnbull, RN, BS
    A s soon as a stoma is constructed, a potential site of weakness in the abdominal wall is instantly produced. Parastomal hernia occurs when weakness in the abdominal wall is sufficient to permit abdominal contents, usually the intestine, to protrude through the fascial defect around the stoma and into the subcutaneous tissue, creating a bulge on the abdomen. Parastomal herniation occurs in approximately 30% of all stomas1 and is more common in colostomies than in ileostomies and urostomies.Peristomal herniation has been attributed to many causes: 1) placement of the stoma outside the rectus sheath, 2) an oversized defect created in the abdominal wall through which the stoma protrudes, 3) increased intra-abdominal pressure, 4) location of the stoma in a midline incision, 5) wound infection at the mucocutaneous border, or 6) poor abdominal muscle tone due to aging and weight gain or loss.2 The progress of a parastomal hernia is often gradual as the area next to the stoma stretches and becomes weaker over time. Every strain (coughing, laughing) or other increase in intra-abdominal pressure (with heavy lifting or strenuous abdominal exercise) causes the area around the stoma to bulge and/or the entire stoma to protrude as it is pushed forward by the intestine behind it.
  22. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Can anyone please give answer along with reference to the following q
    Treatment of hyperglycemia with insulin ALONE causes
  23. krish.

    krish. Guest

    Sonography generally has not been considered a diagnostic technique for DCIS because it is less sensitive than mammography for the identification of calcifications [28]. Nonetheless, one prospective study showed that the use of diagnostic sonography as an adjunct to mammography resulted in an increase in sensitivity of 7.4% for the detection of breast cancer, without a compromise in specificity [29]. The emergence of high-resolution transducers and the increasing experience of physicians in breast sonography have resulted in improved sensitivity and specificity of sonography and increased confidence in using this technique
  24. krish.

    krish. Guest

    pain sensitive structure is-
    1.dural sheath
    2.cerebral art
    3.falx cerebri
    4.choroid plxs

    its the Qs..300% sure,ans is 3 falx.....
    dural sinus pain sensitive not the dural sheath,& meningeal art pain sensitive not the cerebral art,i always try t oput Qs with rite ans, & rite option,so my contribute may be less,but qualitative MCh better,so sm body blaming me,is nt rite that
  25. kim.

    kim. Guest

    A patient presents with fever , lymphadenopathy and skin nodules.biopsy of nodules reveal foamy histiocytes with neutrophils.diagnosis: erythema nodosum leprosum ref. Robbins 7th ed pg1265,harrison 16th ed. Page 969
  26. krish.

    krish. Guest

    hey guys regardin d ques a 29 yr pt aftr a leisure trip returnd wid effusion in lt knee and foreign body sensation bilaterally.wats d diagnosis?
    b.reactiv arthritis
    c.psoriatic arthritis

    acc 2 harrison reactiv arthritis has a h/o 2-4 wk prior infection.
    d/d is psoriatic arthritis and clearly mentions dat such h/o is not present in psoriatic arthritis
    guys can d ans b psoriatic arthritis
  27. virat.

    virat. Guest

    regarding,,,,,,,,,,,,chemoreceptor stimulation,,,,,,,,,,check it on wikipedia,,,,,,,,,,,,h+can not diffuse,,,,,,,,,,, co2 can,,,,,,,,,, and hence more co2 is the answer

    Central chemoreceptors
    From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
    Jump to: navigation, search

    Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface, are sensitive to the pH of their environment.

    These act to detect a change in pH of the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of a change in oxygen or carbon dioxide concentration available to brain tissues. An increase in carbon dioxide tension of the arteries, often resulting from increased CO2 intake (hypoxia) indirectly cause the blood to become more acidic; the cerebral spinal fluid pH is closely comparable to the plasma pH, as carbon dioxide easily diffuses across the blood/brain barrier.

    However, it is important to note that a change in plasma pH will not stimulate central chemoreceptors as H+ will not be able to diffuse into the CSF. Only CO2 levels affect this as it can diffuse across into the CSF, forming H+ and decreasing pH. Central chemoreception remains, in this way, distinct from peripheral chemoreceptors.

    This central chemoreception system has also been shown experimentally to respond to hypercapnic hypoxia (elevated CO2, decreased O2) and aqueous sodium cyanide injection into the whole animal [1] and in vitro slice preparation. These methods can be used to mimic some forms of hypoxic hypoxia and they are currently being studied including the detection of variation in arterial CO2 tension acting as a quick-response-system for short term (or emergency) regulation.

    This system utilizes a negative FEEDBACK system, therefore if the pH of the cerebral spinal fluid does not compare to an ideal “set” level, then the receptor will send an error signal to the effectors and appropriate action may be executed.
  28. virat.

    virat. Guest


    fluphenazine and glaucoma

    malignant hypertension and rcc

    cushing also does occur in rcc
    although it is rare in rcc

    whipple's procedure,,,,,,,5 year survivle is 15-20%,,,,,,,,,, this statement is correct,,,,,,,,,,hence it is not the answer,,,,,,,,,,,,,
  29. viarma.

    viarma. Guest

    maltoma --------- lamina propria

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    eMedicine Specialties > Hematology > Stem Cells and Disorders
    Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue: Differential Diagnoses & Workup

    Sara Grethlein, MD, Associate Dean for Graduate Medical Education, Associate Professor, Department of Internal Medicine, Division of Hematology and Oncology, State University of New York at Upstate
    Jose A Perez, Jr, MD, MSEd, Director of Medical Education, Residency Program Director, Associate Professor, Department of Medicine, David Geffen School of Medicine, University of California at Los Angeles, Kern Medical Center
    Contributor Information and Disclosures

    * Print ThisPrint This
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    * Overview
    * Differential Diagnoses & Workup
    * Treatment & Medication
    * Follow-up

    * References
    * Keywords

    Differential Diagnoses

    Helicobacter Pylori Infection
    Lymphoma, B-Cell
    Lymphoma, Diffuse Large Cell
    Lymphoma, Non-Hodgkin
    Other Problems to Be Considered

    Extranodal lymphoma
    Gastric lymphoma
    Low-grade NHL
    Laboratory Studies

    * Complete blood cell (CBC) counts and blood chemistries may provide important information about the tissues and organs affected by MALTomas.
    * Immunologic phenotyping of circulating lymphocytes, bone marrow lymphocytes, or biopsy specimens of MALTomas can be determined by flow cytometric analysis.
    o MALTomas have an immunophenotype that is similar to marginal-zone lymphomas.
    o MALTomas are almost always negative for CD10, CD5, and CD23, but they do express CD20. They also express surface immunoglobulin that is restricted to one type of light chain (kappa or lambda) and, often, both CD21 and CD35. Low-grade MALTomas are usually positive for BCL2, whereas intermediate-grade MALTomas are usually negative for BCL2.
    * Cytogenetic studies may show chromosomal abnormalities in the malignant cells of MALTomas. The most common abnormalities detected are trisomy 3, t(11;18), and, less frequently, t(1;4).

    Related Medscape topics:
    Specialty Site Hematology-Oncology
    Specialty Site Pathology & Lab Medicine
    Imaging Studies

    * Staging MALTomas can be a challenge (see Staging). Imaging studies are not helpful for visualizing normal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), but they may be useful in diagnosing and staging MALTomas.
    * Barium contrast studies of the upper gastrointestinal tract, small bowel, or colon may demonstrate the presence of masses or infiltration of the bowel wall in mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). However, the results from these studies are often nonspecific and may be insensitive.
    * Computed tomography (CT) scanning and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings may help document the extent of the primary lesion and possible distant disease, but they cannot help differentiate malignant from benign lesions in mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
    * Positron-emission tomography (PET)/CT scans are becoming more widely accepted as useful in the management of MALToma. Gastric disease is less likely to be detected by this imaging modality. In one case series, only 42% of early mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) was identified, but 100% of stage III-IV patients had positive studies.14


    * Endoscopy may reveal mucosal rigidity and hyperplasia in patients with MALTomas. The diagnosis requires a biopsy. Endoscopic ultrasonography can be performed for gastrointestinal tract lesions, but its applicability is limited. H. pylori infection can also be detected in samples obtained via endoscopy.
    * Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy findings can show evidence of bone marrow involvement by the MALToma.

    Histologic Findings

    Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is characterized by large amounts of immune-competent cells in the lamina propria of the mucosal layer of many organs.

    Intercalated among the mucosal epithelial cells are the M cells, which have a membranous appearance and several external microfolds. Lymphoid tissue occupying the lamina propria of digestive, genitourinary, and respiratory mucosae contains an outer, dense-staining region that contains small T lymphocytes (dark zone) and a lighter-staining region that contains large cells (B lymphocytes and plasma cells). Together, these areas constitute the germinal center, consisting of a mesh of DFCs that support rapidly dividing B cells. The mantle zone surrounds the germinal center and contains small, resting B cells. Germinal centers also contain CD4+ T cells and macrophages.

    In the ileum, the lamina propria may contain hundreds of aggregated nodules that form Peyer patches. In the tonsils, epithelium is distributed over lymphoid tissue. Small indentations in the tonsillar tissue form tonsillar crypts. Lymphoid tissue in the tonsils is dense and more nodular. Mucosal glands may be scattered among the surface epithelium of tonsillar tissue. Stratified squamous epithelium is seen in palatine and lingual tonsils, and pseudostratified and ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in the pharyngeal and tubaric tonsils, respectively.

    MALTomas are B-cell lymphomas composed of small- to medium-sized lymphocytes that have irregular nuclear contours and abundant cytoplasm. Intermediate-grade MALTomas are distinguished from low-grade MALTomas by the presence of clusters or sheets of transformed blastlike cells with or without a background of low-grade MALToma. If no background of low-grade MALToma is present, the intermediate-grade form is morphologically indistinguishable from diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.

    The unifying theme in MALTomas is the production of a diffuse infiltrate that invades epithelial structures and disrupts epithelium, resulting in a lymphoepithelial lesion. Reactive lymphoid follicles are present and become infiltrated and colonized by neoplastic lymphocytes. Thus, most MALTomas are low-grade B-cell lymphomas that express the B-cell antigens CD19 and CD20 and monotypic surface immunoglobulin (usually IgM without IgD). The CD23 marker, which is negative in almost all MALTomas, is useful for distinguishing MALTomas from mantle cell lymphomas.

    Limited reports describe chromosomal anomalies that may have significant prognostic significance. The presence of trisomy 3 may indicate a low likelihood of response to anti-Helicobacter antibiotic therapy. The translocation t(11;18)(q21;q21) results in the API2-MALT1 fusion transcript, but it does not appear to have a negative prognostic impact.

    The staging of MALTomas uses the same definitions as other NHLs; MALTomas are, by definition, extranodal in origin.

    * Stage IE: Lymphoma is present in only 1 area or organ outside the lymph nodes.
    * Stage IIE: Lymphoma is present in only 1 area or organ outside the lymph nodes and in the lymph nodes around it. Other lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm may also be involved.
    * Stage IIIE: Lymphoma is present on both sides of the diaphragm. It may also have spread to an area or organ near the lymph nodes and/or the spleen.
    * Stage IV: Lymphoma is widespread to several organs, with or without lymph node involvement.

    Overview: Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
    Differential Diagnoses & Workup: Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
    Treatment & Medication: Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue
    Follow-up: Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue

    * Print ThisPrint This
    * Email ThisEmail This



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    Further Reading

    mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue, lymphoid tissue, MALToma, MALT lymphoma, MALT, marginal zone B-cell lymphoma, lymph node, mucus membrane, mucus, mucosal tissue, tonsils, Peyer patches, Peyer's patches, vermiform appendix, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, NHL, lymphoma, malignancy, malignancies, cancer, Hashimoto thyroiditis, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Crohn disease, Crohn's disease, celiac disease, Sjögren syndrome, Helicobacter pylori, H. pylori,
    gut-associated lymphoid tissue, GALT, bronchial/tracheal-associated lymphoid tissue, BALT, nose-associated lymphoid tissue, NALT, vulvovaginal-associated lymphoid tissue, VALT, gastric MALT lymphoma, nongastric MALT lymphoma, gastric MALToma, nongastric MALToma, human mucosa

    Contributor Information and Disclosures

    Sara Grethlein, MD, Associate Dean for Graduate Medical Education, Associate Professor, Department of Internal Medicine, Division of Hematology and Oncology, State University of New York at Upstate
    Sara Grethlein, MD is a member of the following medical societies: American Society of Hematology
    Disclosure: Nothing to disclose

    Jose A Perez, Jr, MD, MSEd, Director of Medical Education, Residency Program Director, Associate Professor, Department of Medicine, David Geffen School of Medicine, University of California at Los Angeles, Kern Medical Center
    Jose A Perez, Jr, MD, MSEd is a member of the following medical societies: American College of Physician Executives and American College of Physicians-American Society of Internal Medicine
    Disclosure: Nothing to disclose
    Medical Editor

    Karen Seiter, MD, Professor, Department of Internal Medicine, Division of Oncology/Hematology, New York Medical College
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  30. rayen.

    rayen. Guest

    All increase appetite except
    1. MCh
    2. MSH
    3. Agouti-related peptide
    4. Neuropeptide Y

    Ans is MSH (Reference: Harrison 17th ed p464)
  31. rayen.

    rayen. Guest

    What about this question: Pancreatic transplant with bladder drainage: best way to monitor-
    1. blood glucose
    2. serum amylase
    3. urinary amylase
    What's the ans? Have u got any ref?
  32. asmita.

    asmita. Guest

    Microsurgical Anatomy of the insula and the sylvian fissure
    Auteur(s) / Author(s)
    TANRIOVER Necmettin (1) ; RHOTON Albert L. (1) ; KAWASHIMA Masatou (1) ; PH.D. (1) ; ULM Arthur J. (1) ; YASUDA Alexandre (1) ;
    Affiliation(s) du ou des auteurs / Author(s) Affiliation(s)
    (1) Department of Neurological Surgery, University of Florida, Gainesville, Florida, ETATS-UNIS
    Résumé / Abstract
    Object. The purpose of this study was to define the topographic Anatomy , arterial supply, and venous drainage of the insula and sylvian fissure. Methods. The neural, arterial, and venous Anatomy of the insula and sylvian fissure were examined in 43 cerebral hemispheres. Conclusions. The majority of gyri and sulci of the frontoparietal and temporal opercula had a constant relationship to the insular gyri and sulci and provided landmarks for approaching different parts of the insula. The most lateral lenticulostriate artery, an important landmark in insular surgery, arose 14.6 mm from the apex of the insula and penetrated the anterior perforated substance 15.3 mm medial to the limen insulae. The superior trunk of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) and its branches supplied the anterior, middle, and posterior short gyri; the anterior limiting sulcus; the short sulci; and the insular apex. The inferior trunk supplied the posterior long gyrus, inferior limiting sulcus, and limen area in most hemispheres. Both of these trunks frequently contributed to the supply of the central insular sulcus and the anterior long gyrus. The areas of insular supply of the superior and inferior trunks did not overlap. The most constant insular area of supply by the cortical MCA branches was from the prefrontal and precentral arteries that supplied the anterior and middle short gyri, respectively. The largest insular perforating arteries usually arose from the central and angular arteries and most commonly entered the posterior half of the central insular sulcus and posterior long gyrus. Insular veins drained predominantly to the deep middle cerebral vein, although frequent connections to the superficial venous system were found. Of all the insular veins, the precentral insular vein was the one that most commonly connected to the superficial sylvian vein.
  33. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    In Posterior longitudinal ligament calcification question, begins from thoracic region was one option and another option was begins from lumbar was asked all true abt. Post. Lig. Calcification except.many say the answer to be begins from thoracic region. But i checked from current orthopaedics it is most commonly seen in cervical region.can any one post the exact answer.
  34. asmita.

    asmita. Guest

    synovial fluid characteristics a/e

    a. formed by type a cells
    b. follows non Newtonian fluid kinetics
    c. viscosity is variable

    Synovial tissue is composed of vascularized connective tissue that lacks a basement membrane. Two cells type (type A and type B) are present: type B produce synovial fluid. Synovial fluid is made of hyaluronic acid and lubricin, proteinases and collagenases. Synovial fluid exhibits non-Newtonian flow characteristics. The viscosity coefficient is not a constant, the fluid is not linearly viscous, and its viscosity increases as the shear rate decreases.
    Normal synovial fluid contains 3-4 mg/ml hyaluronan (hyaluronic acid), a polymer of disaccharides composed of D-glucuronic acid and D-N-acetylglucosamine joined by alternating beta-1,4 and beta-1,3 glycosidic bonds [2]. Hyaluronan is synthesized by the synovial membrane and secreted into the joint cavity to increase the viscosity and elasticity of articular cartilages and lubricate the surfaces between synovium and cartilage.[3]
    Synovial fluid also contains lubricin secreted by synovial cells. It is chiefly responsible for so-called boundary-layer lubrication, which reduces friction between opposing surfaces of cartilage. There is also some evidence that it helps regulate synovial cell growth.[4]
    Its functions are:
    reducing friction by lubricating the joint, absorbing shocks, and supplying oxygen and nutrients to and removing carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the chondrocytes within articular cartilage.
    It also contails phagocytic cells that remove microbes and the debris that results from normal wear and
  35. rashan.

    rashan. Guest

    Hi! Here is the list of questions of AI 09 that I collected. But many are with incomplete options and many are incomplete. Please post the remaining options or any modifications-
    1. Dose of which drug need not be changed in Renal failure
    a. cefoperazone

    2. Ifosfamide is
    a. alkylating agent

    3. Which drug causes both increased bone formation and decreased bone resorption
    a. Strontium
    b. Teriparatide
    c. Calcitonin

    4. Which drug is safe in pregnancy
    a. Aldosterone
    b. Propylthiouracil

    5. What is the FDA approved indication of Modafinil
    a. Narcolepsy

    6. Folate deficiency can be precipitated by all except
    a. Alcohol
    b. Chloroquine (Harrison 649)
    c. Sulphasalazine

    7. All are true about Estrogen except
    a. decreases HDL
    b. increases triglycerides
    c. increases turnover of LDL receptors
    d. decreases total cholesterol

    8. All are true about Tamoxifen except
    a. increase in contralateral breast cancer

    9. All are indications of Lithium except
    a. Bipolar disorder
    b. Major Depression
    c. Vasculogenic Headache
    d. Generalized anxiety disorder

    10. Which drug is not given in Narrow Angle Glaucoma
    a. Duloxetine
    b. Fluphenazine

    11. Valproate causes all except
    a. weight gain
    b. alopecia
    c. liver damage
    d. osteomalacia

    12. Which drug is avoided in 35 weeks pregnant lady
    a. Methotrexate
    b. Sulfasalazine

    13. Which drug is cell cycle specific?
    a. Bleomycin
    b. Vinblastine

    14. Bleomycin pulmonary toxicity is due to damage to
    a. epithelial cells
    b. type 2 pneumocytes
    c. endothelium
    d. alveolar macrophages

    15. Topical Mitomycin is used in
    a. Sturge Weber Syndrome
    b. Laryngeal stenosis

    16. Hand Foot Syndrome is caused by
    a. Cisplatin
    b. Carboplatin
    c. Capecitabine
    d. Carmustine

    17. Tamoxifen causes
    a. Nephrotoxicity
    b. Hepatotoxicity
    c. Neurotoxicity

    18. Amifostine protects all organs from radiation exposure except
    a. CNS
    b. Skin
    c. Salivary glands

    19. False about nitroglycerine
    a. Causes hypotension and bradycardia

    20. Patient is on Cisplatin (or Tacrolimus?). Antiobiotics to be avoided are all except
    a. Rifampicin
    b. Gentamycin

    21. All are true except
    a. zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis

    22. HSP

    23. Reiter’s syndrome

    24. A pilot with pallor had MCV , serum iron , serum feritin . Diagnosis
    a. thalessemia trait
    b. megaloblastic anemia
    c. iron deficiency anemia

    25. All the following structures produces pain except
    a. falx cerebri
    b. dura of veins
    c. choroid plexus

    26. Coomb’s positive hemolytic anemia is seen in
    a. SLE

    27. Marker of GIST is
    a. CD 117

    28. Tumor marker of Dysgerminoma is
    a. LDH
    b. AFP
    c. β-HCG

    29. Enlarged liver with pulsations
    a. TR
    b. CHF

    30. Angiogenesis is promoted by all except
    a. VEGF
    b. FGF
    c. IL-8
    d. TGF- β

    31. A child is born with scars and limb defects, caused by a congenital infection
    a. Varicella
    b. Syphilis

    32. Triple diagnosis includes

    33. As per guidelines, all of the following drugs are used in osteosarcoma except
    a. Etoposide
    b. Vincristine?

    34. Restless leg syndrome is caused by
    a. CRF

    35. Concomitant chemotherapy is given in all except
    a. T2N0M0 laryngeal cancer
    b. Anal carcinoma

    36. Moderate increase in risk of breast carcinoma is seen in
    a. atypical hyperplasia

    37. Thoracic outlet syndrome is diagnosed
    a. Clinically

    38. All can cause spastic paraplegia except
    a. lead encephalopathy
    b. Motor Neuron Disease

    39. Triple phosphate stone is seen in which infection
    a. Proteus

    40. VHL syndrome includes all except
    a. pheochromocytoma
    b. gastric cancer

    41. Pseudoclaudication is seen in
    a. Femoral artery
    b. Popliteal artery
    c. Femoral nerve
    d. Cauda equina syndrome

    42. A boy had sweat chloride test 2 times with values ___ and ___. To diagnose Cystic Fibrosis, next test is
    a. Transnasal potential difference
    b. Detection of ___ gene mutation

    43. In the treatment of hyperkalemia, the fastest to decrease potassium level is
    a. Glucose + Insulin
    b. Calcium Gluconate
    c. Sodium bicarbonate

    44. Von Willebrand disease

    45. SIRS includes all except
    a. infectious or non-infectious
    b. leukocytosis
    c. thrombocytopenia
    d. fever

    46. Which is not seen in PNH
    a. Massive Splenomegaly

    47. True about small cell carcinoma is that it is
    a. sensitive to chemotherapy
    b. it is peripheral

    48. True about Xanthogranulomatous nephritis is all except
    a. it is caused by TB

    49. Best investigation to detect reversible ischemia is
    a. Thallium scan
    b. MUGA scan

    50. Difference between follicular carcinoma and follicular adenoma of thyroid is
    a. vascular invasion

    51. All are appropriate treatments for chronic back pain except
    a. bed rest for 3-4 months

    52. All are seen in Hyperaldosteronism except
    a. metabolic acidosis

    53. A patient with punched out ulcers on skull radiography
    a. Serum electrophoresis

    54. True about obstructive azoospermia is
    a. normal FSH and LH

    55. True about Eaton Lambert Syndrome is all except
    a. it spares ocular muscles

    56. False about angioneurotic edema is that
    a. it is pitting in nature

    57. True about Cystic Fibrosis is all except
    a. defect in Calcium channel

    58. GOUT. Synovial fluid aspiration will show
    a. Monosodium Urate crystals

    59. Triad of Tuberous Sclerosis includes all except
    a. Seizures
    b. Mental Retardation
    c. Adenoma Sebacceum
    d. Rhabdomyoma

    60. Hemochromatosis
    a. it shows heterozygosity

    61. Insulinoma is best diagnosed by
    a. 72 hour fasting

    62. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is associated with all except
    a. Hypothyroidism
    b. Acromegaly
    c. Diabetes Mellitus
    d. Addision’s disease

    63. A patient with Galactorrhea and _________ visual field defect. Diagnosis
    a. Pituitary Macroadenoma

    64. True about Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is all except
    a. Orphan Annie Nuclei

    65. Hepatomegaly is seen in all except
    a. Hepatic Porphyria

    66. International Prognostic Index of Lymphoma includes all except
    a. Hemoglobin and serum albumin
    b. LDH

    67. RCC causes all except
    a. polycythemia
    b. Cushings syndrome
    c. Malignant Hypertension

    68. Not a feature of Right Heart Failure
    a. increased PCWP

    69. Colon cancer is prevented by
    a. High Fibre Diet
    b. Selenium

    70. All can cause hypercoaguability except
    a. Polycythemia Vera
    b. IBD

    71. Angioneurotic edema is caused by
    a. C1 esterase deficiency

    72. A 29 year old lean male is on oral hypoglycemic and has never had ketonuria. His grandfather had diabetes but his father did not. Which cannot occur
    a. Type 1 DM
    b. Type 2 DM
    c. MODY
    d. Pancreatic DM

    73. Immediately after ingestion, a man complains of throat pain. He then develops dyspnea and cold, clammy extremities. Diagnosis
    a. MI
    b. FB
    c. Anaphylaxis

    74. True about Temporal arteritis are all except
    a. females more than males
    b. sudden bilateral blindness
    c. pain worsens on exposure to warmth

    75. Cyanosis is not seen in severe anemia because
    a. critical level of deoxyHb is required

    76. Urinary anion gap
    a. Toluene blue poisoning
    b. Diarrhoea
    c. Ketoacidosis

    77. Genes involved in Colon Carcinoma are all except
    a. APC
    b. Β-Catenin
    c. K-RAS
    d. Mismatch repair gene

    78. Not an entrapment neuropathy
    a. Femoral nerve
    b. Tibial nerve
    c. Median nerve
    d. Dorsal digital nerve

    79. Appetite is increased by all except
    a. MSH
    b. MCh
    c. Agoutti related peptide
    d. Neuropeptide Y

    80. False about Pancreatic Cancer is
    a. p53 mutation is seen in 75 %
    b. Stage III survival is 3-6 months
    c. 5 year survival after pancreaticoduodenectomy is 15-20 %

    81. Smoking is involved in all except
    a. Esophageal cancer
    b. Nasopharyngeal cancer
    c. Laryngeal cancer
    d. Urinary Bladder cancer

    82. Prognosis of Colorectal carcinoma depends on
    a. Lymh node status
    b. Size of the tumor

    83. True about Sickle Cell Anemia is all except
    a. glutamate replaced by valine
    b. non polar replaced by polar
    c. sticky patch
    d. heterozygotes protected against malaria

    84. True about Idiopathic Pulmonary Hemosiderosis is all except
    a. Eosionopenia

    85. Which does not cause Hirsuitism
    a. Hyperthyroidism
    b. Hypothyroidism?
    c. Hyperprolacinemia
    d. Cushing’s syndrome?

    86. False about necrotizing fascitis is
    a. Lower limbs involved more commonly

    87. A patient with Acute Leukemia and Hyperleukocytosis should not be given immediately
    a. Chemotherapy

    88. Lupus anticoagulant
    a. specifically increases PTT

    89. Best predictor of Cardiac disease
    a. CRP
    b. Lipoprotein a

    90. RF will give false negative test with
    a. Coomb’s test?

    91. Rapid correction of hyperglycemia using insulin alone causes
    a. Hypernatremia
    b. Hyponatremia
    c. Hypokalemia
    d. Hyperkalemia

    92. Best intestinal absorption test is
    a. Quantitative stool fat estimation
    b. Urinary D-Xylose test

    93. True about RDA is
    a. it is average intake + 2 standard deviations

    94. True about Hemochromatosis
    a. shows heterozygosity

    95. A girl----
    a. Von Willebrand Disease
    b. Hemophilia A
    c. Hemophilia B

    96. Selective Medium for E Coli O157:H7 is
    a. Sorbitol MacConkey Medium

    97. Q fever is transmitted by
    a. aerosols

    [snip]. Enterovirus does not cause
    a. Hemorrhagic fever

    99. Pastuerella is caused by
    a. Animal

    100. Fishy odour in vaginal discharge is due to
    a. Gardenerella
    b. Trichomonas
    c. Candida

    101. Toxic Shock Syndrome is caused due to
    a. Measles vaccine
    b. DPT

    102. Most effective drug in Falciparum Malaria is
    a. Artesunate
    b. Artemether
    c. Quinine
    d. Chloroquine

    103. Chemoprophylaxis is given in all except
    a. Cholera
    b. Typhoid

    104. Organism that does not cause diarrhea by invasion
    a. Bacillus cereus
    b. Yersinia enterocolitica

    105. True about Parvovirus is all except
    a. Incidence of transplacental fetal infection is < 10% (Harrison 1116, it is 30%)

    106. HBV positive mother gives birth to a baby. Treatment of neonate will include
    a. Both vaccine and Ig

    107. True about HCV is
    a. Most common cause of Liver transplantation

    108. Maximum risk of transmission of HIV is in
    a. Blood transfusion
    b. Heterosexual contact

    109. All are true except
    a. Tetanus is caused by dust droplets

    110. Regarding Non Typhoidal Salmonellosis, all are true except
    a. can be transmitted by eating poultry products
    b. can be diagnosed by blood culture better than stool culture
    c. quinolones are effective
    d. severe in neonates

    111. All are true about erythrogenic toxin except
    a. plasmid mediated

    112. All are true about leptospirosis except
    a. antibody can be detected in 1 week

    113. True about Chlamydia is
    a. diagnosis is done by culture of cervical discharge

    114. Maltese Cross is seen in
    a. Cryptococcus
    b. Blastomycosis
    c. Candida
    d. Penicillium

    115. Endemic Relapsing fever is caused by all except
    a. Borellia recurrentis

    116. Dengue hemorrhagic syndrome is caused by
    a. reinfection with same serotype
    b. reinfection with another serotype

    117. HIV induced cardiomyopathy includes all except
    a. dilated cardiomyopathy

    118. Lambda phage

    119. All are true about laryngeal papillomatosis except

    120. False about disinfectants is
    a. Hypochlorite is virucidal
    b. Glutaraldehyde is sporicidal
    c. Phenol – organic matter?
    d. Ethylene dioxide is a moderate agent

    121. Popliteal pulse is not felt easily because
    a. it does not cross a prominent bone and is not superficial (Norman Browse p 163)
    b. it does not cross a prominent bone
    c. it is not superficial

    122. Most common cause of Superficial Thrombophlebitis is
    a. IV infusion
    b. Varicose veins
    c. DVT

    123. Best infra inguinal graft is
    a. reversed saphenous vein

    124. Intermittent claudication is
    a. pain on first step
    b. pain on exercise

    125. Most common organism to be affected by bomb explosions
    a. Lung
    b. Liver
    c. Brain

    126. Critical limb ischemia causes
    a. rest pain
    b. intermittent claudication

    127. Non progressive esophageal contractions
    a. primary
    b. secondary
    c. tertiary
    d. quaternary

    128. Trauma patient has GCS score 15, BP 100/80. Next step
    a. IV fluid + blood for cross matching

    129. True about Zenker’s diverticulum is
    a. diagnosis by Barium X ray lateral view

    130. Abdominal aorta most commonly ruptures
    a. posteriorly
    b. anteriorly

    131. A ___ year old male has 2 cm Papillary Carcinoma of Thyroid. Treatment will be
    a. Near Total thyroidectomy + Radical dissection
    b. Total Thyroidectomy
    c. Hemithyroidectomy

    132. Most common site of subclavian artery stenosis is
    a. 1st part
    b. 2nd part
    c. 3rd part
    d. Equal in all parts

    133. Myodesis is contraindicated in
    a. tumor
    b. ischemia
    c. children
    d. trauma

    134. SEPS is done for
    a. artery
    b. vein
    c. lymphatics

    135. Parastomal hernia is most common in
    a. End ileostomy
    b. Loop ileostomy
    c. Transverse colostomy
    d. End colostomy

    136. Sympathectomy is contraindicated in
    a. intermittent claudication
    b. anhydrosis

    137. Pancreatic transplantation and catheter in situ. Best way to monitor is
    a. blood glucose
    b. urinary amylase
    c. serum amylase

    138. All are risk factors for gall bladder carcinoma except
    a. increasing age
    b. gall bladder polyp > 5mm

    139. Best management of stress incontinence
    a. Pelvic floor exercise
    b. Bladder training

    Forensic Medicine
    140. Casper dictum is used for
    a. identification
    b. time since death

    141. Modification of finger print is caused by
    a. Leprosy

    142. Stellate wound is caused by
    a. contact wound

    143. Privileged conversation is between
    a. doctor and concerned authority

    144. Not a traumatic asphyxia
    a. road traffic accident
    b. railway accident
    c. stampede
    d. accidental strangulation

    145. Characteristic of heat rupture is
    a. irregular margins

    146. Abrasions are confused with
    a. Ant bite
    b. Eczema

    147. Extensive abrasions are found on the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. The cause is
    a. primary impact injury
    b. secondary impact injury
    c. secondary injury
    d. post mortem artifact

    148. Motorcyclist’s fracture is
    a. sutural dehiscence of skull

    149. Incidence can be calculated from
    a. prospective studies

    150. Indian reference man weighs
    a. 60 kg

    151. Not an analytical study
    a. Ecological study
    b. Field trials
    c. Cohort study

    152. In Normal distribution
    a. Mean = Median

    153. All are included in AIDS control strategy except
    a. ART

    154. Vitamin A prophylaxis is a form of
    a. specific protection

    155. True about Simple Random sampling is that
    a. each unit has an equal chance of being selected

    156. All are true except
    a. perfringes spores denote recent contamination

    157. Baby friendly hospital initiative includes all except
    a. breast feeding within 4 hours of birth
    b. rooming in

    158. Probability

    159. Most efficacious vaccine
    a. Tetanus
    b. Measles

    160. not measurable
    a. Target
    b. Objective
    c. Mission
    d. Goal

    161. not measurable
    a. Target
    b. Objective
    c. Mission
    d. Goal

    162. Latest disability scale
    a. IDEAS

    163. IDEAS includes all except
    a. ?

    164. Late expanding phase of population is due to
    a. increasing birth rate and

    165. Not a primary requirement for association in chronic diseases
    a. Biological plausibility
    b. Temporal association
    c. Consistency
    d. Coherence

    166. Continuous variable data is represented by
    a. Histogram
    b. Line diagram

    167. All are included in Nutritional Surveillance except
    a. Children aged 1 to 5 years

    168. All are true about Crude birth rate except
    a. it is a ratio
    b. fertility indicator
    c. excludes still birth

    169. A patient presenting with fever and lymphadenopathy on skin biopsy shows foamy histiocytes and neutrophilic infiltration. Diagnosis
    a. Sweet syndrome
    b. Erythema Nodosum Leprum

    170. Scarring alopecia is seen in
    a. Lichen planus
    b. Alopecia areata

    171. Not a primary cutaneous disorder
    a. Reiter’s disease

    172. Granuloma around hair follicle is seen in
    a. Lichen scrofulosorum
    b. Papulonecrotic tuberculid
    c. Erythema induratum
    d. Miliary tuberculosis

    173. A child with precocious puberty with pubic hair, BP 120/90
    a. 11 β hydroxylase

    174. A patient of Down Syndrome is to undergo surgery. Necessary pre operative investigation
    a. X ray cervical spine
    b. Echocardiography

    175. Systolic thrill is heard in 1st and 2nd intercostal space in all except
    a. Pink Tetralogy of Fallot
    b. Ebstein’s anomaly
    c. Pulmonary stenosis
    d. VSD

    176. True about Incontinentia Pigmenti are all except
    a. X linked dominant
    b. 100% blindness is seen

    177. Neonate response to hypoxia is
    a. tachycardia
    b. bradycardia

    178. Neuroblastoma false is
    a. most common extracranial tumor of childhood
    b. lung metastasis are common
    c. aorta invasion

    179. Closure of neural tube begins at
    a. cephalic
    b. cervical
    c. thoracic
    d. sacral

    180. Marker of Neural tube defects
    a. Acetyl cholinesterase

    181. Child intubated and ventilated. Next step
    a. Check pulse

    182. IMNCI does not include
    a. TB
    b. Diarrhoea
    c. Respiratory infections

    183. Post chemotherapy classification of Wilm’s tumor is
    a. National Study Group
    b. International Society of Pediatrics (SIOP)
    c. Chadwick

    184. All are seen in Idiopathic Juvenile arthritis except
    a. Rheumatoid nodules
    b. High grade fever

    185. A child with recurrent pneumonia.
    a. Foreign body

    186. Nephrotic Syndrome
    a. no IgG or C3 on renal biopsy

    187. Primary defect in structure is called
    a. Malformation
    b. Anomaly

    188. Self mutilation
    a. HGPRT deficiency

    189. A pregnant lady was non compliant in taking Spiramycin prescribed by a doctor. She gives birth to a child with hydrocephalus. Causative agent is
    a. Toxoplasma

    190. Most common muscle to be absent is
    a. Pectoralis Major

    191. Neurofibromatosis
    a. autosomal dominant

    192. Finnish type of Nephrotic Syndrome is caused by mutation in
    a. Nephrin
    b. Podocin

    193. True about Polycystic Kidney disease in children is all except
    a. autosomal dominant
    b. associated with hepatic fibrosis

    194. CAP in lac operon is
    a. positive regulator
    b. negative regulator

    195. Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following directly except
    a. Glucose

    196. Splicing is due to
    a. snRNA

    197. Function of microRNA is
    a. gene regulation

    198. All of the following are serine proteases except
    a. trypsin
    b. chymotrypsin
    c. papain
    d. thrombin

    199. Enzyme to join site cut by Restriction endonuclease is
    a. Ligase
    b. Polymerase

    200. HbS
    a. defect in solubility

    201. A protein on SDS PAGE
    a. protein is completely hydrolysed
    b. protein is made of 2 dimers of 30 and 50 kda
    c. protein is made of monomers of 30 and 50 kda

    202. After 4 days of fasting glucose receptor increase in all except
    a. adipose tissue

    203. All of the following increase 2,3-BPG except
    a. chronic anemia
    b. hypoxia
    c. inosine
    d. hypoxanthine

    204. Not an oxidation-reduction reaction
    a. Peroxidase

    205. Substance not fermented by Intestinal bacteria
    a. Pectin
    b. Cellulose
    c. Starch

    206. Least polar is
    a. Methyl

    207. False about lipoprotein lipase is
    a. Apolipoprotein C II is not required as cofactor

    208. Function of Sertoli cells is during
    a. Spermiogenesis
    b. Meiosis
    c. Mitosis

    209. Facilitated diffusion
    a. requires carrier proteins

    210. Angiotensin causes all except
    a. increased ADH secretion

    211. c wave in JVP is due to
    a. bulging of tricuspid valve into the right atrium

    212. Pressure in aortic head is maintained even during diastole due to
    a. elastic recoil of aorta
    b. muscular artery

    213. Intrinsic pathway includes
    a. XII
    b. XI
    c. X
    d. IX

    214. IF is secreted by
    a. parietal cells

    215. Increased blood flow to muscles during exercise is due to
    a. increase in local metabolites

    216. False about renal Physiology is
    a. 5 % of cardiac output

    217. On lying down from standing position, first there is
    a. immediate increase in venous return

    218. All are involved in signal transmission except
    a. gapjunctions
    b. synapse

    219. True about O2 consumption of heart is
    a. has a constant relation with work done
    b. is directly proportional to duration of systole

    220. Primary stimulus of central chemoreceptors is
    a. increased pCO2
    b. decreased pCO2
    c. decreased pO2
    d. increased H+

    221. True about Vasomotor Centre is
    a. has physiological connection with vagal inhibitory centre
    b. sensitive to baroreceptors but not to chemoreceptors

    222. Action potential starts at axon hillock because
    a. it has the lowest threshold
    b. it has the largest number of Na+ channels

    223. Shunt vessels
    a. help in thermoregulation

    224. Energy in resting state depends on
    a. lean body mass

    225. Feature of Benign Hypertension is
    a. hyaline arteriosclerosis

    226. Inheritence of characters that depends on parents
    a. Genomic imprinting
    b. Uniparental disomy

    227. Karyotype is done to detect
    a. chromosomal disorders

    228. Paneth cells contain
    a. lysozyme
    b. zinc

    229. Coagulation necrosis is seen in
    a. TB
    b. Gangrene

    230. Cell organelle which has important role in apoptosis is
    a. Mitochondria
    b. Golgi body

    231. Psammoma bodies are seen in all except
    a. Follicular carcinoma of Thyroid
    b. Papillary carcinoma of Thyroid
    c. Serous adenocarcinoma of Ovary

    232. Receptor for HIV is
    a. CD4

    233. Aging is due to
    a. oxidative free radicals

    234. Characteristic of acute inflammation
    a. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

    235. Not a function of CD4 helper cells
    a. cytotoxicity

    236. Function of Glutathione is all except
    a. Hb to Meth-Hb

    237. Lymphoid tissue of gut is present in
    a. Mucosa
    b. Lamina Propria
    c. Submucosa
    d. Serosa

    238. Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis is a type of
    a. Type 1 Hypersensitivity
    b. Type 2 Hypersensitivity
    c. Type 3 Hypersensitivity
    d. Type 4 Hypersensitivity

    239. Pauci-immune glomerulonephritis is caused by
    a. HSP

    240. A patient died on 4th day of Myocardial Infarction. On post mortem examination of heart, findings will be
    a. Granulation tissue
    b. Neutrophils

    241. Most bactericidal is
    a. O2 free radical

    242. Trotter’s triad includes all except
    a. Seizures

    243. Meningitis (or Cancer?) spreads from CNS to Inner ear through
    a. Cochlear duct
    b. Endolymphatic sac
    c. Superior vestibular nerve
    d. Hyrlt fissure

    244. Vocal cord sulcus is due to
    a. Voice trauma

    245. True about Uveal effusion syndrome is all except
    a. due to defect in sclera
    b. choroido-retinal detachment
    c. scleritis
    d. myopia

    246. ICG is used to diagnose
    a. occult

    247. Difference between CRVO and carotid obstruction are all except
    a. retinal vein dilatation
    b. tortuosity of retinal vein
    c. opthalmodynametry
    d. retinal pressure

    248. All are done to treat diabetic retinopathy except
    a. retinal detachment

    249. LDH level is increased in
    a. Retinoblastoma

    250. True about Juxtafoveal Telangiectasia is all except
    a. Variant of Coat’s disease
    b. Macular telangiectasia

    Obstetrics and Gynecology
    251. Mifepristone is used in
    a. Fibroid Uterus
    b. Ectopic Pregnancy

    252. Laproscopic ligation is not contraindicated in
    a. Obesity

    253. Shortest interval to onset of death is seen in
    a. PPH
    b. Obstructed labour
    c. APH

    254. Primary amenorrhea is seen in all except
    a. Sheehan’s syndrome

    255. Staging of Carcinoma ovary includes all except
    a. mesenteric biopsy
    b. peritoneal biopsy
    c. palpation of organs

    256. Treatment of choice of CIN III in a 35 year old female para 3 is
    a. Hysterectomy
    b. LEEP
    c. Cone excision
    d. Cryosurgery

    257. Vaginal delivery is contraindicated in
    a. Mentoanterior
    b. Extented breech
    c. Dichorionic twins with one vertex and one breech
    d. Monoamniotic twins

    258. True about HRT is
    a. Transdermal estrogen has less risk of thromboembolism than oral estrogen

    259. True about Medroxy Progesterone acetate is that
    a. failure rate of 0.3 %
    b. good agent in patient with seizures

    260. Investigation of choice in DCIS
    a. Mammography
    b. CT
    c. MRI
    d. PET

    261. Comet tail sign is seen in
    a. Adenomyomatosis

    262. Mammogram in adolescent girls is less accurate due to
    a. increased glandular tissue
    b. increased fat

    263. Peripheral pulmonary pruning is seen in
    a. Pulmonary Hypertension
    b. Pulmonary emboli

    264. All are true about Mesial Temporal Sclerosis except
    a. Hippocampus is involved
    b. Blurring of Grey White Junction

    265. In Mammography, fatty tissue is not found in
    a. Galactocele
    b. Hamartoma
    c. Fat necrosis
    d. Cyst

    266. Calcification of posterior spinal ligament
    a. ?

    267. Characteristics of Thyroid carcinoma include all except
    a. Hyperechoic
    b. Hypoechoic
    c. Microcalcifications

    268. Stellate ganglion block is not indicated by
    a. Miosis
    b. Nasal congestion
    c. Guttman sign
    d. Bradycardia

    269. Sodium bicarbonate is added to local anesthetic because
    a. it increases speed of onset, improves quality of block and prolongs block

    270. In Paravertebral block, anesthetic agent should not go to
    a. intercostal space
    b. epidural space
    c. subarachnoid space

    271. Milkman’s fracture is
    a. pseudofracture

    272. Athletic pubalgia is due to
    a. Abdominal muscles
    b. Hamstrings
    c. Rectus Femoris

    273. Rate of mineralization of newly formed osteoid is detected by
    a. Fluorescein labelled tetracycline
    b. Vonkossa stain
    c. Alzarin stain
    d. Biopsy

    274. Least recurrence of dislocation is seen in
    a. Ankle
    b. Hip
    c. Shoulder
    d. Elbow

    275. False about Superior tibial osteotomy is that
    a. it is done through cancellous bone
    b. it can correct about 30 % of varus deformity

    276. Most common cause of death after 48 hours of THR is
    a. Pulmonary embolism

    277. Characteristics of synovial fluid are all except
    a. contains hyaluronic acid
    b. non Newtonian fluid
    c. variable viscosity
    d. produced by type A synovial cells

    278. Artery in anatomical snuff box
    a. Radial artery

    279. Urogenital diaphragm includes all except
    a. Root of Penis

    280. Not a composite muscle
    a. Flexor digitorum superficialis
    b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
    c. Pectineus
    d. Biceps femoris

    281. Lymphatics of spongy urthra drain into
    a. deep inguinal nodes
    b. iliac nodes
    c. superficial inguinal nodes

    282. Superior gluteal nerve supplies all except
    a. Gluteus maximus
    b. Gluteus medius
    c. Gluteus minimus
    d. Tensor Fascia Lata

    283. True about Trochlear nerve are all except
    a. innervates ipsilateral Superior Oblique

    284. Not a branch of Spleenic artery
    a. Right Gastroepiploic artery

    285. Perineal membrane includes all except
    a. Colles fascia

    286. All are involved in pathway of nerve fibres to Parotid gland except
    a. greater petrosal nerve
    b. tympanic plexus
    c. auriculotemporal nerve
    d. otic ganglion

    287. Structure just lateral to anterior perforated substance
    a. Uncus

    288. Medulla blood supply is by all except
    a. Anterior Spinal artery
    b. Basilar artery
    c. Bulbar artery
    d. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar artery

    289. Superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
    a. Inferior orbital nerve

    290. Sternberg canal
    a. ?

    291. ICD 10 includes all except
    a. lack of exercise
    b. alcoholism
    c. poisoning
    d. unhealthy food

    292. ICD 10 includes compensation for
    a. Schizophrenia
    b. MR
    c. Depression
  36. abhi.

    abhi. Guest

    Anterior perforating substance is laterally related to limen insulae.ref.grey Anatomy .post chemotherapy staging of wilms tumour ans. International oncological society. Ref.hutchingson paediatric.Each day answers are keep on changing .don't know what will happen on result day.

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