All India pre pg exam 2007 solved paper with refrrences

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    ALL INDIA POST GRADUATE MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2007


    ANATOMY


    1. Posterior communicating artery is the branch of –

    a- External carotid

    b- Internal carotid

    c- Ophthalmic

    d- Middle cerebra

    Ans: b- Internal carotid

    Ref: Student Gray’s anatomy different pages


    2. Which of the following is not true about trigone of bladder?

    a- Smooth mucosa

    b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa

    c- Transitional epithelium lines it

    d- It is remnant of mesonephric duct opening into post uro-genital sinus

    Ans: b- Loosely attached to underlying mucosa

    Ref: Gray’s Anat. pg-399


    3. Which of the following characteristic are helpful in differentiating between cervical and lumbar vertebra?

    a- Foramina transverserium

    b- Articulas fact in the body

    c- Triangular vertebral cannal

    d- Heavy vertebral body

    Ans: a- Foramina transverserium

    Ref: Gray’s student’s ed/page-31


    4. Pronation and supination does not take place at which of the following joint –

    a- Superior radio ulnar

    b- Middle radio ulnar

    c- Inferior radio ulnar

    d- Radio carpal joint

    Ans: d- Radio carpal joint


    5. Which of these part of vertebral canal will show concavity back-wards in secondary curves -

    a- Cervical

    b- Thoracic

    c- Sacral

    d- Coccyx

    Ans: a- Cervical

    Ref: Gray’s students edn. Pg-15


    6. The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except -

    a- Left brachiocephalic vein

    b- Hemiazygous vein

    c- Left gonadal vein

    d- Left renal vein

    Ans: c- Left gonadal vein

    Ref: pg-110 Student’s Gray’s anatomy


    7. All of the following structure crosses posterior to diaphragm from thorax to abdomen except -

    a- Thoracic duct

    b- Azygous vein

    c- Aorta

    d- Greater splanchinic nerve

    Ans: d- Greater splanchinic nerve

    Ref: BDC/3rd vol.1 / pg-161

    Student’s Gray’s / 135, 134


    8. Which one of the following is not a site of portasystemic anastomosis?

    a- Spleen

    b- Liver

    c- Gastroesophageal junction

    d- Anorectal junction

    Ans: a- Spleen


    9. Which of the following is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery -

    a- Cavernous branch of trigeminal ganglia

    b- Hypophyseal

    c- Opthalmic artery

    d- Chiasmal branches]

    Ans: c- Opthalmic artery

    Ref: BDC/3rd/81


    10. Primordial germ cell is derived from -

    a- Ectoderm

    b- Mesoderm

    c- Endoderm

    d- Mesodermal sinus

    Ans: c- Endoderm

    Ref: IB Singh Embryology pg-283


    ANAESTHESIA

    11. Centrineuraxial (spinal and epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in -

    a- Platelets < 80,000

    b- Patient on aspirin

    c- Patient on oral anticoagulants

    d- Patient on I.V. UFH.

    Ans: b- Patient on aspirin

    Ref: Ajay Yadav 3rd p-123


    12. Which one of the following is not a amide -

    a- Lignocaine

    b- Procaine

    c- Bupivacaine

    d- Dibucaine

    Ans: b- Procaine

    Ref: Ajay Yadav 2nd pg-105


    13. Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) -

    a- Capnography

    b- Impedence pulmonometry

    c- Chest movements

    d- Infrared End Tidal CO2

    Ans: b- Impedence pulmonometry

    Ref: Senior Resident, Dept. of Anaesthesia/SGPGI/Lukhnow


    14. An ICU patient on atracurium infusion develops seizures after 2 days. The most probable cause is -

    a- Accumulation of landonosine

    b- Allergy to drug

    c- Due to prolong infusion

    Ans: a- Accumulation of landonosine

    Ref: Ajay Yadav anaesthesia 2nd pg-90


    15. Which of the following is not used in controlling heart rate intraoperatively?

    a- Propanolol/Metoprolol

    b- Verapamil

    c- Esmolol

    d- Procainamide

    Ans: a- Propanolol/Metoprolol

    Ref: Antiarrythmics used intraoperatively

    24.05.2007

    RADIOLOGY

    16. Isotope used in RIA

    a- I131

    b- I123

    c- I125

    d- I127

    Ans: c- I125

    Ref: Internet references.


    17. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except -

    a- Hypoparathyroidism

    b- Wilson’s disease

    c- Perinatal hypoxia

    d- Fahr’s syndrome

    Ans: c- Perinatal hypoxia

    Ref: Chappman radiological differential diagnosis 3rd p-408.


    18. Radio contrast is contraindicated in all except:

    a- Renal failure

    b- Patient on metformin

    c- Dehydration

    d- Obesity

    Ans: d- Obesity

    Ref: Harrison 16th p-1704, 1646, Katjung 9th p-708, Chapmann Radiology D/D 3rd p-160


    19. Which is not a deep heat therapy?

    a- Short wave diathermy

    b- Infra Red

    c- USG

    d- Microwave

    Ans: c- USG

    Ref: Internet


    20. A patient presents with loss of consciousness, Ct shows multiple spotty hemorrhage and full basal cistern. The most probable diagnosis is-

    a- Brain contusion

    b- Diffuse axonal injury

    c- Subdural hemorrhage

    d- Multiple infarct

    Ans: b- Diffuse axonal injury

    Ref: CDST 11th p-900, Harrison 16th p-2448


    21. A 25 yrs old female presented with lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy and mid dorsal intradural enhancing mass in MRL. What is the diagnosis?

    a- Intradural Lipoma

    b- Meningioma

    c- Dermoid cyst

    d- Neuroepithelial cyst

    Ans: b- Meningioma


    BIOCHEMITERY


    22. Transport of ascorbic acid to lens is done by -

    a- Choline

    b- Taurine

    c- Myoinositol

    d- Na+, K+ ATpase

    Ans: d- Na+, K+ ATpase

    Ref: Internet


    23. All of the following act through nuclear receptor except -

    a- Vitamin D

    b- Insulin

    c- Thyroid

    d- Steroid

    Ans: b- Insulin

    Ref: Harper p-445


    24. The urine analysis of a person showed green colour on Ferric chloride test, the person is suffering from -

    a- Alkaptonuria

    b- Phenyl Iketonuria

    c- Methyl malonic aciduria

    Ans: b- Phenyl Iketonuria

    Ref: Ghai 6th p-609


    25. Mucopolysaccharide Hyaluronic acid is present in -

    a- Acquous humor

    b- Vitreous humor

    c- Lens

    d- Cornea

    Ans: b- Vitreous humor

    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-553


    26. All of the following are true about Proteoglycans except -

    a- Contains amino sugar

    b- Forms structural element of connective tissue

    c- Contains small amount of water

    d- Chodritin sulphate in an example

    Ans: c- Contains small amount of water

    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-118


    27. Northern blot is used for diagnosis of -

    a- mRNA expression

    b- DNA

    c- Protein

    Ans: a- mRNA expression

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-409


    28. All of the following is true about HMP pathway except -

    a- Occurs in cytosole

    b- Produces NADPH

    c- H+ acceptor is NADP

    d- End product is pyruvate

    Ans: d- End product is pyruvate

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-179


    29. Which one of the following is not a method of protein penification?

    a- Electrophoresis

    b- Centrifugation

    c- Densitometry

    d- Chromatography

    Ans: c- Densitometry> b- Centrifugation

    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-21


    30. Which one of the following is responsible for oxygen dependent killing?

    a- Superoxide dismutase

    b- Catalase

    c- Glutathione peroxidase

    d- NADPH oxidase

    Ans: d- NADPH oxidase

    Ref: Robbin’s Pathology 7th p-16


    31. Biotin is used in -

    a- Beta ketoacid dehydrogenase deficiency

    b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency

    Ans: b- Multiple carboxylase deficiency

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-502


    32. Study of protein elaborated by cell under different conditions -

    a- Genomics

    b- Proteinomics

    Ans: b- Proteinomics

    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-28


    33. Regarding Triacylglycerol metabolism in adiposite all are true except -

    a- Storage from of lipid of body

    b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase

    c- Glycerol kinase is enzyme involved

    d- Dihydoxyacetone

    Ans: b- Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase

    Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry 27th ed. p-209


    34. About oxygenase all are true except -

    a- Incorporate 1 atom of O2 molecule

    b- Incorporate both atom of O2 molecule

    c- Required for reactions like hydroxylation of steroid

    d- Required for carboxylation of drugs

    Ans: d- Required for carboxylation of drugs

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-96, 97


    35. All are true for mRNA except -

    a- capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 405 ribosome.

    b- In eukaryote is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation.

    c- The 1st aminoacid is methionine

    d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.

    Ans: d- Synthesized from DNA in 3’ - 5’.

    Ref: Lippincott Biochemistry p-429, 435, 401


    36. The ‘C’ terminal of Adrogen receptor is essential for -

    a- Ligand binding site

    b- Target binding site

    c- Transcription efficacy.

    Ans: a- Ligand binding site

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-477


    37. The function of 2,4 DNP is -

    a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain

    b- Inhibits transport of ADP

    Ans: a- Uncoupler of electron transport chain

    Ref: Harper’s 27th ed. p-107


    38. Blackening of urine occurs in -

    a- Maple syrup urine disease

    b- Alkaptonuria

    c- Phenyl ketonuria

    d- Isovalanic academia

    Ans: b- Alkaptonuria

    Ref: Ghai 6th p-610


    PHYSIOLOGY

    39. Clotting factor present in both plasma and serum is-

    a- Factor VIII

    b- Thrombin

    c- Factor V

    d- Factor VII

    Ans: d- Factor VII

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/539


    40. True about cardiac muscle re all except -

    a- Have multiple nuclei

    b- Have gap junctions

    c- Syncytium

    d- Branched

    Ans: a- Have multiple nuclei

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/78


    41. In EEG, Delta wave is seen in -

    a- Deep sleep

    b- 1st stage sleep

    c- Arousal

    Ans: a- Deep sleep

    Ref: Ganong/23rd/194, 195


    42. Conversion of short term memory into long term memory occurs in

    a- Frontal cortex

    b- Hippocampus

    c- Amygdala

    d- Hypothalmus

    Ans: b- Hippocampus

    Ref: Internal Medicine 16th/2394


    43. Which of the following statement about small intestinal motility is not true?

    a- Abdominal distention increases motility

    b- Independent of stomach motility

    c- Acetylcholine increases small intestinal motility

    d- CCK increases small intestinal motility

    Ans: b- Independent of stomach motility

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/481, 485, 486


    45. Enzyme not stable at acidic pH is all except -

    a- Trypsin

    b- Chymotrypsine

    c- Pepsin

    d- Carboxypeptidase

    Ans: c- Pepsin

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/468, 471


    46. Which of the following hormone in not secreted by kidney?

    a- Renin

    b- Angiotensin I

    c- 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

    d- Erythropoietin

    Ans; b- Angiotensin I

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/454


    47. A granular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of -

    a- Vitamin

    b- Lipid

    c- Protein

    d- Carbohydrate

    Ans: b- Lipid

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/18


    48. Botulinum toxin involve all of the following except -

    a- Neuro : Muscular Junction

    b- Postganglionic parasympathetic ganglia

    c- Peripheral ganglia

    d- CNS

    Ans: d- CNS

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/87


    49. Site of RBC formation in adult is -

    a- Long bones

    b- Flat bones

    c- Liver

    d- Spleen

    Ans: b- Flat bones

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/515


    50. Papez circuit in limbic system involve -

    a- Anterior thalamic nuclei

    b- Pulvinar nuclei

    c- Anterior hypothalamic nuclei

    d- Interlaminar nuclei

    Ans: a- Anterior thalamic nuclei

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/256


    51. In the process of learning and memory all of the following are true except -

    a- It involves change in the level of nmeurotransmitter at synapse

    b- There is proliferation of neurone

    Ans: b- There is proliferation of neurone

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/270, 269, Harrison 16th/2395


    52. Brocas area is involved in -

    a- Word formation

    b- Word interpretation

    Ans: a- Word formation

    Ref: Ganong/22nd/273


    PATHOLOGY

    53. FAB L3 refers to -

    a- Pre B ALL
    b- T cell ALL
    c- B cell ALL

    d- Mixed AL

    Ans: c- B cell ALL

    Ref: Harrison/16th/642


    54. Tumor marker for Paget’s disease of the breast is -

    a- HMB 45

    b- CEA

    c- S100

    d- 1 Synaptophysine

    Ans; b- CEA


    55. Autosomal recessive trait seen in child, despite normal parent is due to -

    a- Uniparetal Disomy

    b- Mosaicism

    c- Maternal Inheritence

    Ans; a- Uniparetal Disomy

    Ref: Nelson /17th/389


    56. Basement membrane damage is mediated by -

    a- Oxidase

    b- Metalloproteinase

    c- Hydroxylase

    Ans: b- Metalloproteinase

    Ref: Internet References, Basis/7th/111


    57. Absolute indication for Bone Marrow biopsy -

    a- Hairy cell leukemia

    b- Acute leukemia

    c- Megaloblastic anemia

    d- Gaucher’s disease

    Ans; b- Acute leukemia

    Ref: Clinical diagnosis and management by John Bernard Henry/20th/541


    58. For diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis which of the following test is done -

    a- kidney biopsy

    b- Rectal biopsy

    c- Skin biopsy

    d- Electrophoresis

    Ans: b- Rectal biopsy

    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/264


    59. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in -

    a- T cell lymphoma

    b- B cell lymphoma

    c- AML

    d- ALL

    Ans: b- B cell lymphoma

    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/673, 674


    60. The mode inheritance reflected by the given pedigree is -

    a- Autosomal dominant

    b- Mitochondrial

    c- Autosomal recessive

    d- X-linked dominant

    Ans: b- Mitochondrial

    Ref: Harrison/16th/374-375


    61. Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury in electron microscopy?

    a- Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum

    b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria

    c- Disaggregation of ribosome

    d- Damage to cell membranes

    Ans: b- Amorphous densities in mitochondria

    Ref; Robbins/6th/9


    62. Virus laden cell is specifically killed by -

    a- T cell

    b- Neutrophil

    c- Complement

    d- NK cell

    Ans: d- NK cell

    Ref: Basis Pathology /7th/201, 198


    ENT

    63. Brown’s sign is seen in -

    a- Acoustic Neuroma

    b- Otosclerosis

    c- Meinier’s disease

    d- Glomus juglarae

    Ans: d- Glomus juglarae

    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/139


    64. Which one of the following is the commonest site involved in CSF rhinorrhoea?

    a- Ethmoid bone

    b- Frontal sinus

    c- Petrous part of temporal bone

    d- Sphenoidal sinus

    Ans: a- Ethmoid bone

    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202, CSDT - 11th p - 983


    65. About rhinophyma true statement is -

    a- Due to involvement of sweat gland

    b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland

    Ans: b- Is a hypertrophied sebaceous gland

    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/177


    66. In trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth cranial nerve. Which is true?

    a- Longitudinal fracture

    b- Transverse Fracture

    c- Always associated with CSF leak

    d- The paralysis of VIIth cranial nerve is always complete

    Ans; b- Transverse Fracture

    Ref: Dhingra ENT - 139


    67. Earliest nerve affected in Acoustic neuroma is -

    a- CN VII

    b- CN X

    c- CN V

    d- CN IX

    Ans: c- CN V


    68. Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except-

    a- Palatal paralysis

    b- Adenoid

    c- Allergic rhinitis

    d- Nasal polyp

    Ans: a- Palatal paralysis

    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/380


    69. In the case of temporal bone fracture the investigation of choice will be -

    a- MRI

    b- Ct Scan

    c- Plane X-ray lateral view

    Ans: b- CT scan

    Ref: Dhingra ENT - 3rd, Harrison - 16th p - 2448-9


    EYE

    70. Cherry red spot is found in all of the following except -

    a- Nimen Pick’s disease

    b- GMI gangliosidosis

    c- Krabbe’s disease

    d- Multiple sulfatase deficiency

    Ans: c- Krabbe’s disease

    Ref: Basak/3rd/242


    71. Which one of the following retinal disease is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant trait?

    a- Bardet - biedle syndrome

    b- Gyrate atrophy

    c- Best disease

    d- Bassen Kornzweig syndrome

    Ans: c- Best disease

    Ref: Rudolph’s pediatrics/21st/26, 21, 9


    72. Absence of lamina cribrosa occurs in:

    a- Optic nerve hypoplasia/agenesis

    b- Morning glory syndrome

    c- Drusen

    d- Non opthalmia

    Ans: b- Morning glory syndrome

    Ref: Basak/3rd/262


    73. Cat eye syndrome is -

    a- Partial Trisomy 21

    B- Partial Trisomy 18

    c- Partial Trisomy 13

    d- Partial Trisomy 22

    Ans: d- Partial Trisomy 22

    Ref: www.webmet.com/hw/vision


    74. Childhood blindness is associated with all except:

    a- Glaucoma

    b- Opthalmia neonatorum

    c- Malnutrition

    d- Congenital dacryocystitis

    Ans: d- Congenital dacryocystitis

    Ref: Khurana/3rd/342, 425, CPDT 17th/ch-15


    75. SAFE strategy for Trachoma includes all of the following except

    a- Screening

    b- Antibiotics

    c- Face wash

    d- Environmental improvement

    Ans: a- Screening

    Ref: Basak/3rd/370


    76. Which of the following does not handle free radicle in lens?

    a- Vitamin A

    b- Vitamin B

    c- Vitamin C

    d- Catalase

    Ans: d- Catalase

    Ref: Internet and Parson/275


    77. All statements are true about pailloedema except:

    a- Collection of extracellular fluid

    b- Disruption of neurofilament

    c- Stasis of axoplasmic transport

    d- Swelling of the axom

    Ans: b- Disruption of neurofilament

    Ref: Khurana/3rd/285, Parson 19th/367, Harrison 16th.


    78. A child presents with unilateral proptosis which was compressible and increased on bending forward. No thrill or bruit was present. MRI shows retroorbital mass with enhancement with echogenic shadows. What is the most probable condition?

    a- Orbital AV malformation

    b- Orbital Varix

    c- Orbital encephalocele

    d- Neurofibromatosis

    Ans: b- Orbital Varix

    Ref: Basak/3rd/284-5


    SKIN

    79. Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is mot true?

    a- It is the most common skin lymphoma

    b- Pautriers micro abscesses are common

    c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis

    d- It presents with diffuse erythroderma

    Ans: c- It has a indolent course and good prognosis

    Ref: Harrison 16th/653, Robbins 6th/1191


    80. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is:

    a- Air borne contact dermatitis

    b- Atopic dermatitis

    c- Seborrhic dermatitis

    d- Infectious exzematoid dermatitis

    Ans: b- Atopic dermatitis

    Ref: Harrison 16th/288


    81. Pityriasis rosea is a -

    a- chronic relapsing disease

    b- It is an autoimmune disease

    c- Caused by dermatophytes

    d- Self resolving

    Ans: d- Self resolving

    Ref: Harrison 16th/292


    FMT

    82. Spalding sign is seen in -

    a- Putrefaction

    b- Saponification

    c- Maceration

    d- Mummification

    Ans: c- Maceration

    Ref: Reddy/23rd


    83. Mercury causes Nephrotoxicity by involving -

    a- DCT

    b- PCT

    c- Loop of Henle

    d- Collecting duct

    Ans: b- PCT

    Ref: Reddy/23rd/451


    84. Burtonian line is seen in -

    a- Mercury poisoning

    b- Lead poisoning

    c- Copper poisoning

    d- Arsenic poisoning

    Ans: b- Lead poisoning

    Ref: Reddy/23rd/473


    85. Acrodynia is seen in the poisoning of -

    a- Lead poisoning

    b- Arsenic poisoning

    c- Mercury poisoning

    d- Phenol poisoning

    Ans: c- Mercury poisoning

    Ref: Reddy/23rd/451


    86. All of the following are arylsulphate except -

    a- Parathione

    b- Malathione

    c- TIK-20

    d- Folidol

    Ans: b- Malathione

    Ref: Reddy/20th ed./436




    ORTHOPAEDICS

    87. Epiphyseal tumor is -

    a- Osteoclastoma

    b- Chondromyxoid fibroma

    c- Osteosarcoma

    d- Ewing sarcoma

    Ans: a- Osteoclastoma

    Ref: Maheswary


    88. About posterior cruciate ligment true statement is -

    a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia

    b- Attaches to lateral femoral condyle

    c- Intra Synovial

    d- Inserted on medial side of medial femoral condyle

    Ans: a- Prevent posterior displacement of tibia

    Ref: Oxford textbook of surgery/2nd /46.


    89. A 15yrs old boy presented with mass in lower femur, which on X-ray was found to have Codman’s triangle and surgery appearance. the diagnosis is:

    a- Ewing’s Tumour

    b- Osteosarcoma

    c- Osteoclastoma

    d- Osteomyelitis

    Ans: b- Osteosarcoma

    Ref: Maheswary 2nd


    90. Claw hand is caused by lesion of-

    a- Ulner nerve

    b- Median nerve

    c- Axillary nerve

    d- Radial nerve

    Ans: a- Ulner nerve


    91. Meralgia paraesthetica is due to involvement of which of the following nerve-

    a- Femoral nerve

    b- Genitofemoral nerve

    c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

    d- Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh

    Ans: c- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh


    92. Most common type of injury to spinal cord is-

    a- Flexon

    b- Extension

    c- Compression

    d- Flexon rotation

    Ans: a- Flexon

    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144


    93. Tube (Cyllinder) cast is applied for the fracture of -

    a- Shoulder

    b- Hip

    c- Pelvis

    d- Knee

    Ans: d- Knee

    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/13


    94. Which of the following is not true case of congenital tortiocollis?

    a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery

    b- It can disappear spontaneously

    c- It is also known as Sternomastoid tumour

    d- Untreated, neglected cases can result in plagiocephaly

    Ans: a- Seen only in cases o breech vaginal delivery

    Ref: Maheswary 3rd/272


    95. Osteoarthritis of knee involves:

    a- Hamstring

    b- Quadriceps

    c- Both A & B

    d- Gestrocneimius

    Ans: b- Quadriceps

    Ref: Internal References


    96. Bohler angle measurement gives the reference for:

    a- calcaneum

    b- Talus

    c- Navicular

    d- Cuboid

    Ans: a- calcaneum

    Ref: Internet


    97. Burst Fracture of spine is a -

    a- Compression Fracture

    b- Extension injury

    c- Direct injury

    Ans: a- Compression Fracture

    Ref: Maheswary 2nd/144


    98. All of the following investigations are needed for the diagnosis of osteosarcoma, except:

    a- MRI of femur

    b- Bone marrow biopsy

    c- Bone scan

    d- CT chest

    Ans: b- Bone marrow biopsy

    Ref: Harrison/16th/561


    99. Indicators of bone formation includes all of the following except:

    a- Osteocalcin

    b- Alkaline phosphatase

    c- Hydroxyprolin

    d- Bone scan

    Ans: c- Hydroxyprolin

    Ref; Internal Medicine p-2281




    PAEDIATRICS

    100. CSF picture in tubercular meningitis is -

    a- Increased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma

    b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma

    c- Decreased protein, increased sugar, increased lymphoma

    d- Decreased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma

    Ans: b- Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphoma

    Ref: Nelson 17th


    101. What is pentalogy of Fallot?

    a- TOF with PDA

    b- TOF with ASD

    c- TOF with CoA

    Ans: b- TOF with ASD

    Ref: Nelson 17th, Stemann Dictionary 26th/1322


    102. Commonest childhood malignancy is -

    a- Leukemia

    b- Lymphoma

    c- Neuroblastoma

    d- Wilm’s tumor

    Ans: a- Leukemia

    Ref: Ghai 6th


    103. A one year old child with bronchial asthma. The treatment given for prophylaxis:

    a- Theophyllin (long acting)

    b- Oral ketotifen

    c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist

    d- Oral leukotrience receptor antagonist

    Ans: c- Inhaled beta 2 agonist

    Ref: Ghai 6th/356-357


    104. Moro reflux disappear at -

    a- 5 months

    b- 3 months

    c- 7 months

    d- 6 months

    Ans: d- 6 months

    Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979


    105. Which of the following appears 1st in child?

    a- Creeping

    b- Crawling

    c- Mirror play

    d- Pincer grasp

    Ans: c- Mirror play

    Ref: Ghai 6th/44


    106. A 6yrs old child with an IQ50 So, can do which of the following task-

    a- Draw a triangle

    b- Recognise colours

    c- Ride a bicycle

    d- Read a sentence

    Ans: b- Recognise colours

    Ref: Ghai 6th/46-47.


    107. All of the following are true about Kawasaki disease except-

    a- Purulent conjunctivitis

    b- Swelling of limb

    c- Rash

    d- Fever

    Ans: a- Purulent conjunctivitis

    Ref: Ghai 6th/586


    108. All of the following reflexes are present at birth except-

    a- Rooting reflex

    b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex

    c- Asymmetrical neck reflex

    d- Crossed extensor reflex

    Ans: b- Symetrical tonic neck reflex

    Ref: Ghai 6th/146, Nelson/17th/1979


    109. A premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered. The baby had a bullous lesion on the baby and x-ray showed periostitis what will be the next diagnostic procedure-

    a- VDRL of mother and baby

    b- ELISA for HIV

    c- PCR for Herpes

    d- HBsAg for mother

    Ans: a- VDRL of mother and baby

    Ref; CMDT- 17th/ch-38


    110. All of the following is associated with good prognosis in childhood leukemia except -

    a- Common ALL subtype

    b- Precursor B cell ALL

    c- Hyperdiploidy

    d- Female gender

    Ans: b- Precursor B cell ALL

    Ref: Ghai 6th/562, Nelson/17th/1696, Basis Pathology 7th/673.


    111. The commonest organism responsible for meningitis in 1 year old child is -

    a- Listeria

    b- E. coli

    c- H. Influenza

    d- Type B pneumococcus

    Ans: d- Type B pneumococcus > c- H. Influenza

    Ref: Nelson/17th/2038


    112. Tuberculoid is seen in -

    a- Lupus vulgaris

    b- Lichen secrofulosorum

    c- Lupus Serofulocium

    d- Lupus

    Ans: b- Lichen secrofulosorum

    Ref: Nelson/17th/2229.


    113. Seizures and Jitteriness can be differentiated by all except -

    a- Gaze

    b- Autonomic disturbance

    c- Sensitivity to stimulus

    d- Frequency of movements

    Ans: d- Frequency of movements

    Ref: Nelson/17th/2021,

    Paediatric neurology by Fenichel 4th/p-4


    114. A newborn has congestive heart failure, not improving on treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit o auscultation on trans fontanelle USG a hypo echoic midline mass in seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is:

    a- Vein of galen malformation

    b- Medulloblastoma

    c- Arachnoid cyst

    d- Encephalocele

    Ans: a- Vein of galen malformation

    Ref: Nelson/17th/2037.


    115. The most common cause of short stature is -

    a- Constitutional delay

    b- Growth hormone deficiency

    c- Cretinism

    Ans: a- Constitutional delay

    Ref: Nelson/17th/1851.


    116. A child has started mouthing objects, shows likes and dislikes and not yet developed stanger anxiety. The age of child is -

    a- 3 month

    b- 5 months

    c- 7 months

    d- 9 moths

    Ans: b- 5 months

    Ref: Nelson/17th/36, Ghai- 6th/51


    117. A child with one week history of URTI, presents with stridor, which decreases on lying position. What is your diagnosis?

    a- Acute epiglottitis

    b- Laryngotracheobronchitis

    c- Retropharyngeal abscess

    d- Foreign body in larynx

    Ans: b- Laryngotracheobronchitis

    Ref: Nelson/17th/1406, Ghai- 6th/340.





    PSM

    118. All of the following diseases are spread by louse as a vector except:

    a- Relapsing fever

    b- Q fever

    c- Epidemic typhus

    d- Trench fever

    Ans: b- Q fever

    Ref: Perk- 18th/239


    119. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of the chlorine demand of water?

    a- Chlorometer

    b- Horrock’s apparatus

    c- Berkfeld filter

    d- Double pot method

    Ans: b- Horrock’s apparatus

    Ref: Perk- 18th/528, 540


    120. Chronic carrier state is seen in all except:

    a- Typhoid

    b- Measles

    c- Hepatitis B

    d- Gonorrhoea

    Ans: b- Measles

    Ref: Perk- 18th/125


    121. OCP is useful is all except:

    a- Ectopic pregnancy

    b- Ca Endometrium

    c- Ca breast

    d- Rheumatoid arthritis

    Ans: c- Ca breast

    Ref: Perk- 18th/369, Shaw - 13th/226-7


    122. Which ICUD lasts for 10 years?

    a- Cu-T-380-A

    b- Cu-220 c

    c- Nava T

    d- Progestasert

    Ans: a- Cu-T-380-A

    Ref: Perk- 18th/363.


    123. All of the following indicators are included in physical quality of life index (PQLI) except-

    a- Infant mortality rate

    b- Literacy rate

    c- Per capita income

    d- Life expectancy at age one

    Ans: c- Per capita income

    Ref: Perk- 18th/16.


    124. Case finding in RNTCP is based on -

    a- Sputum culture

    b- Sputum microscopy

    c- X-ray chest

    d- Mantoux test/PCR

    Ans: b- Sputum microscopy

    Ref: Perk- 18th/160.


    125. The followings statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except:

    a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD

    b- The pregnancy rate of lippes loop and Cu-T 200 are similar

    c- IUD can be used for emergency contraception with in 5 days

    d- Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 year

    Ans: a- Multiload Cu-375 is a 3rd generation IUD

    Ref: Perk- 18th/363, Perk- 17th/340.


    126. Incineration is not done for -

    a- Waste sharps

    b- Human waste

    c- Cytotoxic waste

    d- Solid waste

    Ans: a- Waste sharps

    Ref: Perk- 18th/596


    127. Which of the following is the “Least common†complication of measles?

    a- Diarrhoea

    b- Pneumonia

    c- Otitis media

    d- SSPE

    Ans: d- SSPE

    Ref: Perk- 18th/126, CDMT/2006/1363



    128. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know-

    a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

    b- Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test

    c- Incidence and prevalence of SLE

    d- Relative risk of SLE in this patient

    Ans: a- Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

    Ref: Harrison - 15th/500.


    129. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in -

    a- Cause of death

    b- Numerators

    c- Age distributions

    d- Denominators

    Ans: c- Age distributions

    Ref: Perk- 18th/53-4


    130. Leprosy affects all except-

    a- uterus

    b- Ovary

    c- Eye

    d- Nerves

    Ans: b- Ovary/a- uterus

    Ref: Harrison - 16th/966.


    131. For prevention of tetanus neonatorum, all of the following are effective, except:

    a- Give 2 doses of TT pregnant woman

    b- Immunize all woman of reproductive age group with 2 doses of TT

    c- Give penicillin to neonate

    d- Practicise 5 cleans

    Ans: c- Give penicillin to neonate

    Ref: Perk- 18th/25.


    132. In comparison to cow milk, which one of the following is more in human milk?

    a- Lactose

    b- Protein

    c- Minerals

    d- Iron

    Ans: a- Lactose

    Ref: Perk- 18th/455


    133. Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI, schedule -

    a- Tetanus Toxoid

    b- DPT

    c- MMR

    d- DT

    Ans: c- MMR

    Ref: Perk- 18th/103.


    134. For obesity BMI should be -

    a- >=20

    b- >=50

    c- >=40

    d- >=30

    Ans: d- >=30

    Ref: Perk- 18th/317, Ghai- 6th/p-481, Harrison 16th/426.


    135. A diagnosed patient with boarder line tuberculoid leprosy presented with severe neuritis. The treatment prescribed to him should be-

    a- MDT

    b- MDT with corticosteroid

    c- Corticosteroid

    d- Antibiotic

    Ans: b- MDT with corticosteroid

    Ref: Perk- 18th/261.


    136. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to -

    a- Facilitate double binding

    b- Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population

    c- Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics

    d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment

    Ans: d- Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment

    Ref: Perk- 18th/76.


    137. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of-

    a- Incidence rate

    b- Relative risk

    c- Attributable risk

    d- Absolute risk

    Ans: c- Attributable risk

    Ref: Perk- 18th/72.


    138. During Rubella vaccination, 1st priority is given to -

    a- All child

    b- 15-39 year old female

    c- Adolescent girl

    d- Pregnant woman

    Ans: b- 15-39 year old female

    Ref: Perk- 18th/129.


    139. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated acids are -

    a- groundnut oil

    b- Soyabean oil

    c- Margarine oil

    d- Palm oil

    Ans: b- Soyabean oil

    Ref: Perk- 18th/440.


    140. True of BCG vaccination in all except:

    a- Uses Danish 1331 strain

    b- Distilled water is used as diluent

    c- Spirit is used for cleaning the skin

    Ans: b- Distilled water is used as diluent

    Ref: Perk- 18th/157.


    141. Not true about lepromine test is -

    a- Helps in classification of leprosy

    b- Negative in most of the child in 1st 6 month of line

    c- It is a diagnostic test

    d- BDG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive

    Ans: c- It is a diagnostic test

    Ref: Perk- 18th/258, 158.


    142. Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status in child?

    a- Body weight

    b- Mid arm circumference

    c- Weight for linear height

    Ans: c- Weight for linear height

    Ref: Perk- 18th/402.


    143. About herd immunity, all are true except:

    a- Depends on clinical and subclinical cases

    b- Influenced by immunization

    c- Depends on the presence of alternative host

    d- Herd immunity is constant

    Ans: d- Herd immunity is constant

    Ref: Perk- 18th/95.


    144. Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied it represents

    a- Nominal scale

    b- Ordinal scale

    c- Interval scale

    d- Ratio scale

    Ans: b- Ordinal scale

    Ref: High yield Biostatics by Anthony N. Glaser/1st ed. pg-5.


    145. Two drugs were given to two subsets of population and the response was noted as cured and not cured. From the data given below:

    Drugs Cured Not cured
    A 510 100
    B 110 50
    Total 620 150

    Which study design is more suitable?

    a- Student T test

    b- Paired T test

    c- Chi square test

    d- Bland and Altman test

    Ans: c- Chi square test

    Ref: NMS Biostat - p-59, B K Mahajan - 6th/130.


    146. True about cluster sampling is all except;

    a- Sample size is same as SRS

    b- Rapid method

    c- It is independent of the result

    d- It is done for evaluating the immunization status

    Ans: a- Sample size is same as SRS

    Ref: B K Mahajan - 6th/100, 101.


    MICROBIOLOGY

    147. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for at least one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he developed spikes of fever, and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism is-

    a- Stap. Aureus

    b- Viridans streptococci

    c- Enterococcus faecalis

    d- Coagulase negative staph

    Ans: c- Enterococcus faecalis

    Ref: H/16th/815, 830 & Panikar/7th/216


    148. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of beta hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:

    a- Bacitracin

    b- Novobiocin

    c- Optochin

    d- Oxacillin

    Ans: a- Bacitracin

    Ref: Panikar/7th/216


    149. Which one of the following statement is true?

    a- Solid media are enrichment media

    b- Nutrient broth is a basal media

    c- Agar add nutrient to the media

    d- Chocolate agar is a selective media

    Ans: b- Nutrient broth is a basal media

    Ref: Panikar/7th/34 to 38.


    150. With reference to bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:

    a- B. fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples

    b- B. fragilis is not uniformally sensitive to Metronidazole

    c- The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins

    d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia

    Ans: d- Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteroides bacteremia

    Ref: Harrison 16th/944, 940


    151. A person working in a abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which later turned into ulcer. Which stain will help to demonstrate the organism smear made from the pustule?

    a- Polychrome Methylene blue

    b- Carbol Fuschin

    c- PAS

    d- Modified kinyoun stain

    Ans: a- Polychrome Methylene blue

    Ref: Harrison 16th, Panikar/7th/226


    152. Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia?

    a- Has biphasic life

    b- Elementary body is metabolically active

    c- Reticulate body undergo binary fission

    d- Once it invades into the cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion

    Ans: b- Elementary body is metabolically active

    Ref: Jawetz Microbiology


    153. Negri body is seen in -

    a- CMV

    b- Rabies

    c- Inclusion of herpes simplex

    d- EBV

    Ans: b- Rabies

    Ref: Jawetz 22nd/495


    154. About vibryo cholera all statements are true except:

    a- Non-halophilic

    b- Can grow in ordinary media

    c- Can survive outside the intestine

    d- Man is the only reservoir of cholera infection

    Ans: b- Can grow in ordinary media

    Ref: Harrison 16th/909


    155. Not true about vibryo O139 is-

    a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo

    b- Was 1st isolated in Chennai?

    c- Has ‘O’ polysaccharide capsule

    d- Antibody to Vibrio cholera is not protective against O139

    Ans: a- Can cause disease distinguishable from vibryo

    Ref: Harrison 16th /910, Panikar/6th/285


    156. About Chlamydia Psittaci, all are true except:

    a- Caused by Parrot

    b- Causes Pneumonitis

    c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)

    d- Tetracyclin is drug of choice

    Ans: c- Causes, NGU (Non Gonococcal urethritis)

    Ref: Harrison 16th /763, Panikar/6th/395


    157. True about Endemic typhus is -

    a- Man is the only reservoir

    b- Flea is a vector

    c- Rash develops into eschar

    d- Culture is a diagnostic modality

    Ans: b- Flea is a vector

    Ref: Perk- 18th/240, Panikar/6th/383


    158. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive shows growth of a hemolytic colonies. On gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:

    a- Bacitracin

    b- Novobiocin

    c- Optochin

    d- Oxacillin

    Ans: c- Optochin

    Ref: Panikar/7th/216


    159. BCYC is used for separation of -

    a- Streptococcus

    b- Listeria

    c- Legionella

    d- Leptospira

    Ans: c- Legionella

    Ref: Jawetz 22nd/270


    160. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by-

    a- Microaerophilic streptococcus

    b- Streptococcus viridans

    c- Streptococcus pyogenes

    d- Peptostreptococcus

    Ans: a- Microaerophilic streptococcus

    Ref: Internet


    161. When urine is heated to 45 centigrade, a precipitate is formed, when further heated to 80 centigrade, the precipitate starts dissolving again. The precipitate reforms on cooling is -

    a- albumin

    b- Bence-Jones protein

    c- Presence of phosphate in urine

    Ans: b- Bence-Jones protein

    Ref: Panikar/6th/85


    162. Which complement is involved in common pathway of complement activation?

    a- C4

    b- C3

    c- C5

    d- Properdin B

    Ans: b- C3

    Ref: Harrison 16th /1915, Panikar/6th/104

    25.05.2007

    PSYCHIATRY

    163. The drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder is -

    a- Olanzepin

    b- Fluoxetin

    c- Haloperidol

    d- Thioridazine

    Ans: b- Fluoxetin

    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 100, Kaplan - 7th p-209


    164. Delusion is a disorder of -

    a- Thought

    b- Perception

    c- Insight

    d- Cognition

    Ans: a- Thought

    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-86


    165. Most common symptom of alcohol withdrawl is -

    a- Bodyache

    b- Tremor

    c- Diarrhoea

    d- Rhinorrhoea

    Ans: b- Tremor

    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - 40, Kaplan - 7th p-84



    166. All of the following are included in diagnosis of Bipolar disorder-

    a- Mania alone

    b- Depression alone

    c- Mania and depression

    d- Mania and anxiety

    Ans: b- Depression alone

    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-74, Harrison /16th/2556


    167. Most common substance of abuse in India -

    a- cannabis

    b- Tobacco

    c- Alcohol

    Ans: a- cannabis

    Ref: Perk 18th/635


    168. Naltraxone is used in a case of opoid dependence to

    a- Prevent respiratory depression

    b- To treat withdrawl symptom

    c- To prevent relapse

    d- To treat overdose of opoid

    Ans: c- To prevent relapse

    Ref: Ahuja - 5th - p-46, KDT-4th/448


    PHARMACOLOGY


    169. All of the following antiepileptic drug act via Na+ channel, except

    a- Vigabatrin

    b- Topiramate

    c- Valporoate

    d- Phenetoin

    Ans: a- Vigabatrin

    Ref: Katjung 9th/387


    170. All of the following are Alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy-

    a- Chlorambucil

    b- Melphalan

    c- 5 FU

    d- Cyclophosphamide

    Ans: c- 5 FU

    Ref: Harrison /16th/471


    171. Neseritide is -

    a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)

    b- ANP
    c- has long half life

    Ans: a- Analogue of BNP (Brain natriuretic peptic)

    Ref: Katjung 9th/209


    172. A child is on b2 agonist for treatment of asthma. He may have all of the following side effect, except:

    a- Tremor

    b- Tachycardia

    c- Hyperkalemia

    d- Hypokalemia

    Ans: c- Hyperkalemia

    Ref: Katjung 9th/325.


    173. All of the following insulin preparation are short acting except

    a- Insulin lispro

    b- Insulin aspart

    c- Insulin glargine

    d- Lente insulin

    Ans: c- Insulin glargine

    Ref: Katjung 9th/699


    174. Which of the following is a side effect of b2 agonist?

    a- Hypoglycemia

    b- Hypomagnesemia

    c- Hypophosphatemia

    d- Hypokalemia

    Ans: d- Hypokalemia

    Ref: Katjung 9th/325, Harrison /16th/476, 561


    175. High dose Methotrexate is given in -

    a- Osteosarcoma

    b- Chondrosarcoma

    c- Ewing’s sarcoma

    d- Retinoblastoma

    Ans: a- Osteosarcoma

    Ref: Katjung 9th/907, Harrison /16th/476, 561


    176. Which of the following drug is not used in erectile dysfunction -

    a- PGE 1

    b- Apomorphine

    c- Phenylephrine

    d- Valadalafil

    Ans: c- Phenylephrine

    Ref: Katjung 9th/189


    178. Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH is -

    a- Cyclophosphamide

    b- Vincristine

    c- Visblastine

    d- D-carbazine

    Ans: b- Vincristine

    Ref: Harrison /16th/2102


    179. Which one of the following anticancer drugs causes hypercoagulability syndrome?

    a- Carbomustine

    b- 5FU
    c- L-asparaginase

    d- Melphalan

    Ans: c- L-asparaginase

    Ref: Katjung 9th/905


    180. Drug causing maximum peripheral neuropathy is -

    a- Zidovudine

    b- Lamivudine

    c- Stavudine

    d- Didanosine

    Ans: d- Didanosine

    Ref: Katjung 9th, Harrison /16th/2505, 1128


    181. Which one of the following antiplatelet is a prodrug -

    a- Aspirin

    b- Dipyridamol

    c- Ticlopidine

    d- Clopidogrel

    Ans: c- Ticlopidine

    Ref: KDT 4th pg-21, Goodman-Gillman 10th p-1535


    182. Filgrastim is used in -

    a- Neutropenia

    b- Malaria

    c- Anemia

    d- Filaria

    Ans: a- Neutropenia

    Ref: Katjung 9th /539


    183. Finasteride acts by -

    a- Alpha blockade

    b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition

    c- Selective alpha blockade

    d- Acts by blocking androgen receptor

    Ans: b- 5 alpha reductase inhibition

    Ref: Katjung Pharmacology 9th/1030, 146


    184. True about Heparin is all except -

    a- Causes Alopecia

    b- Acts through AT III

    c- Increased Lipoprotein lipase

    d- Causes Hypokalemia

    Ans: d- Causes Hypokalemia

    Ref: Katjung 9th/545-548, Harrison /16th/261


    185. Which antitubercular drug is responsible for imparting orange colour to urine =

    a- Rifampicin

    b- Pyrazinamide

    c- Ethambutol

    d- Isoniazid

    Ans: a- Rifampicin

    Ref: Perk 18th/152


    186. All are non-selective b blockers without any additional action except-

    a- Carvedilol

    b- Betaxolol

    c- Carteolol

    d- Labetalol

    Ans: b- Betaxolol

    Ref: Katjung 9th/150


    187. Which one of the following is not an antiepileptic -

    a- Phenobarbitone

    b- Carbamazepine

    c- Phenytoin

    d- Flunarizine

    Ans: d- Flunarizine

    Ref: Katjung 9th/277


    188. True about octreotide -

    a- Is active orally

    b- Is a growth hormone agonist

    c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea

    Ans: c- Decreases secretory diarrhoea

    Ref: Katjung 9th/1048


    189. Which of the following acts by hypomethylation -

    a- Gemcitabine

    b- 5 FU

    c- Decitabine

    Ans: c- Decitabine

    Ref: Harrison /16th/641


    190. Antidote for mushroom poisoning is -

    a- Neostigmine

    b- Physostigmine

    c- Amyl Nitrae

    d- Atropine

    Ans: d- Atropine

    Ref: Katjung 9th/117


    191. Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal mucosa is-

    a- PGE2

    b- PGE1

    c- PGD2

    d- PGI2

    Ans: b- PGE1

    Ref: Katjung 9th/299


    192. A patient presented with pain abdomen, constipation, and blue line on gums. The treatment of choice will be -

    a- Desferroxamine

    b- Penicillamine

    c- BAL

    d- Ca EDTA

    Ans: d- Ca EDTA

    Ref: Katjung 9th/973, Harrison /16th/2578


    193. Antipseudomonal antibiotic is -

    A- Cipofloxacin

    b- Cefaclor

    c- Vancomycin

    Ans: A- Cipofloxacin

    Ref: Katjung 9th/884, Harrison /16th/838



    194. A patient on aspirin will have -

    a- Increased PT
    b- Increased aPTT

    c- Increased BT

    d- Increased Thrombine time

    Ans: c- Increased BT

    c- Coronary heart disease


    195. All are true about clonidine, except -

    a- Causes dry mouth

    b- Prazosine antagonizes it action

    c- Stimulates parasympathetic outflows

    d- Alpha adrenergic agonist

    Ans: b- Prazosine antagonizes it action

    Ref: Katjung Pharma 9th/166


    196. All are true for immunosuppressant except -

    a- Tacrolimus inhibits calcinemin pathway

    b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase

    c- Prednisolone is used inregimen of transplant rejection

    d- Sirolimus acts through T cell modification

    Ans: b- Mycophenolale acts by inhibiting GMP dehydrogenase

    Ref: Katjung 9th/941, 942, 589, 590


    197. A child was given leukotrience receptor antagonist for prophylaxis of asthma. The drug is:

    a- Monteleukast

    b- Zileuton

    c- Nedocromil

    Ans: a- Monteleukast

    Ref: Katjung 9th/330,331


    198. All of the following antiplatelet drug acts as GP IIb-IIIa antagonist except -

    a- Clopidogrel

    b- Abciximab

    c- Eptifibatide

    d- Trilofiban

    Ans: a- Clopidogrel

    Ref: Katjung 9th/554, 555






    GYNAE AND OBS.


    199. Commonest cause of postmenopausal bleeding is -

    a- Ca cervix

    b- Ca endometrium

    c- Ca fallopian tube

    d- Estrogen use

    Ans: b- Ca endometrium

    Ref: COGDT- page-920


    200. Most common Serotype of HPV associated with invasive cervical carcinoma is -

    a- HPV 16

    b- HPV 18

    c- HPV 32

    d- HPV 36

    Ans: a- HPV 16

    Ref: Harrison /16th/1056, 1057


    201. In pregnancy, with hypothyroidism not seen in

    a- PIH

    b- Preterm

    c- Poly hydramnios

    d- Recurrent abortions

    Ans: c- Poly hydramnios

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/290


    202. Fibroid causes all of the following except-

    a- Menstrual irregularities

    b- Amenorrhoea

    c- Abdominal lump

    d- Infertility

    Ans: b- Amenorrhoea

    Ref: page - 342 Shaw’s Gynae.


    203. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all except -

    a- Utero Sacal ligament

    b- Broad ligment

    c- Pubocervical ligament

    d- Mackenrodt ligament

    Ans: b- Broad ligment

    Ref: BDC 3rd/320


    204. Ovarian tumor which most commonly undergoes torsion is -

    a- Benign cystic teratoma

    b- Dysgerminoma

    c- Endomentriod cyst

    Ans: a- Benign cystic teratoma

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/310


    205. Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in -

    a- 32 weeks

    b- 36 weeks

    c- During labour

    d- Just after delivery

    Ans: d- Just after delivery

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/53


    206. In Bishop scoring all are included except -

    a- Effacement of cervix

    b- Dilatation of cervix

    c- Descent of head

    d- Interspinous diameter

    Ans: d- Interspinous diameter

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/522


    207. Perinatal transmission of hepatitis B in maximum, when infection in mother occurs in -

    a- At implantation

    b- 1st trimester

    c- 2nd trimester

    d- 3rd trimester

    Ans: d- 3rd trimester

    Ref: Dutta OBS. p-292


    208. A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for-

    a- Maternal PIH

    b- Gestational diabetes

    c- Thyroid disorder

    d- Hypertension

    Ans: b- Gestational diabetes

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/287, CMDT 2005- p-753.


    209. The shape of Nulliparous cervics is -

    a- Circular

    b- Transverse

    c- Longitudanal

    d- Fimbriated

    Ans: a- Circular

    Ref: Shaw’s Gynae. 13th/8


    210. Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma is-

    a- Lung

    b- Liver

    c- Vagina

    d- Bone

    Ans: a- Lung

    Ref: Novak’s gyn.


    211. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except -

    a- Always associated with breech

    b- Spontaenous resolution in most cases

    c- Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth

    d- Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly

    Ans: a- Always associated with breech

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/486, Nelson/17th/2288.


    212. An ovarian cyst was identified in immediate postpartum period, the timing of surgery will be -

    a- 2 weeks

    b- 6 weeks

    c- 8 weeks

    d- Immediately

    Ans: d- Immediately

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/310


    213. In sterilization operation (Tubectomy), the site which is commonly preferred is -

    a- Ampulla

    b- Infundibulum

    c- Isthmus

    d- Cornua

    Ans: c- Isthmus

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/553


    214. Which of the following the most common cause of persistant trophoblastic disease, after H. Mole is -

    a- Invasive mole

    b- Choriocarcinoma

    c- Placental site trophoblastic tumor

    Ans: a- Invasive mole

    Ref: Novak’s/13th/1361, 1359


    215. In which of the following conditions external cephalic verson is not done -

    a- Primigravida

    b- PIH

    c- Flexed breech

    d- Prematurity

    Ans: b- PIH

    Ref: COGDT-9th page-379


    216. In a IUGR baby the Doppler finding which will most significantly predict the intra uterine deaths of the foetus -

    a- Reverse diastolic flow

    b- Absence of diastolic flow

    c- Presence of diastolic flow

    d- Decreased diastolic flow

    Ans: a- Reverse diastolic flow

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/464, 110, 32


    217. Caudal regression syndrome is associated with -

    a- NIDDM

    b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus

    Ans: b- Gestational Diabetes mellitus

    Ref: COGDT


    218. The shape of cervical canal suggesting preterm delivery is -

    a- T shaped

    b- Y shaped

    c- U shaped

    d- O shaped

    Ans: c- U shaped

    Ref: Williams and internet.


    219. Technique of aspiration of sperm for invitro fertilization -

    a- MESA

    b- TESA
    c- GIFT
    d- ZIFT

    Ans: a- MESA

    Ref: Internet.



    220. Increased fetal Nuchal transluscency at 14 weeks is seen in -

    a- Down’s syndrome

    b- Esophageal atresia

    c- Turner’s syndrome

    Ans: a- Down’s syndrome

    Ref: DUTTA 6th/645.


    MEDICINE


    221. Which of the following syndrome is not associated with AML -

    a- Tuner’s syndrome

    b- Patau’s syndrome

    c- Klinfelter’s syndrome

    d- Down’s syndrome

    Ans: a- Tuner’s syndrome


    222. Nevirapine is-

    a- NRTI

    b- NNRTI
    c- Protease inhibitor

    d- Fusion inhibitor

    Ans: a- NRTI

    Ref: Harrison 16th


    223. Which amyloid is found in the kidney of patient who have been on long term dialysis-

    a- A β2 M

    b- AL

    c- β2 microglobulin

    d- Transthyretin

    Ans: c- β2 microglobulin

    Ref: H/16th/2024, 2025.


    224. All of the following disease have Autosomal dominant mode of inheritance except:

    a- Marfan’s syndrome

    b- ADPKD
    c- Fabry’s disease

    d- Huntington’s disease

    Ans: c- Fabry’s disease

    Ref: H/15th/386


    225. HRT is helpful in all except:

    a- Vaginal atrophy

    b- Flushing

    c- Coronary heart disease

    d- Carbamazipine

    Ans: c- Coronary heart disease

    Ref: Harrison’s 16th/30


    226. Which Anti-epileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy -

    a- Phenobarbitone

    b- Phenytoin

    c- Valproate

    d- Carbamazipine

    Ans: a- Phenobarbitone

    Ref: CGODT/9th/431


    227. Which one of the following is a Leukotrience receptor antagonist-?

    a- Zileuton

    b- Zafirlukast

    c- Fluticasone

    Ans: b- Zafirlukast

    Ref: Katjung 9th/330-331


    228. Erythropoietin is increased in all except-

    a- Hepatocellular carcinoma

    b- Renal cell carcinoma

    c- Cerebellar hemangioblastoma

    d- Pancreatic carcinoma

    Ans: d- Pancreatic carcinoma

    Ref: Harrison 16th/627, H/15th/635.


    229. An adult man has an urethral discharge. The gram stain of the discharge does not reveal any organism. Which one of the following culture methods may isolate the organism-?

    a- Mc Coy culture

    b- Blood agar

    c- Chocolate agar

    d- Cetrimide agar

    Ans: a- Mc Coy culture

    Ref: Harrison 16th/764, 1012


    230. Reflux Nephropathy with nephritic range proteinuria commonly occurs in a patient with

    a- Nodular glomerulosclerosis

    b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

    c- Membranous glomerulosclerosis

    d- Minimum change disease

    Ans: b- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1686.


    231. Which of the following drugs is not useful for MRSA-?

    a- Cefaclor

    b- Ciprofloxacin

    c- Cotrimoxazole

    d- Vancomycin

    Ans: a- Cefaclor

    Ref: Harrison 16th/821, KDT/5th/659.


    232. Which bacteria acts by the mechanism of cyclical AMP Activation-

    a- CI.Difficile

    b- V.Cholerae

    c- B.Cereus

    d- B.Fragilis

    Ans: b- V.Cholerae

    Ref: H/16th/755


    233. A 45 yrs old male presented with a history of vomiting of 500ml of blood 24 hours back, BP 90/60, Pulse 110bpm, and splenomegaly 5cms below the costal margin. Most probable diagnosis is-

    a- Duodenal ulcer

    b- Portal hypertension

    c- Gastric ulcer

    d- Erosive gastritis

    Ans: b- Portal hypertension

    Ref: Harrison 16th/235 and 1863


    234. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes except

    a- Contact with infected placenta

    b- Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms

    c- Person to person transmission

    d- Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol

    Ans: c- Person to person transmission

    Ref: Harrison 16th/914


    235. All of the following drugs are used to treat H.Pylori infection except

    a- Omeprazole

    b- Amoxycillin

    c- Oxytetracyclin

    d- Bismuth compound

    Ans: c- Oxytetracyclin

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1754


    236. A patient presented with cough and expectroration. The sputum culture shows gram negative organism which grows only on charcoal extract agar. The organism is-

    a- Listeria Monocytogenes

    b- Legionella

    c- M. Catarrhalis

    d- B. Psudomallei

    Ans: b- Legionella

    Ref: Harrison 16th


    237. In hereditary spherocytosis, membrane defect occurs due to all except-

    a- Glycophorin C

    b- Ankyin

    c- Band 3 ion exchanged protein

    d- Pallidin

    Ans: a- Glycophorin C

    Ref: Harrison 16th/608, 609.


    238. CANCA is directed against -

    a- Myeloperoxidase

    b- Proteinase 3

    c- Lactoferrin

    d- Elastase

    Ans: b- Proteinase 3

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1959


    239. Which of the following disease causes decrease in both VC and TLC?

    a- Sarcoidosis

    b- Cystic fibrosis

    c- Bronchial asthma

    d- Bronchiactasis

    Ans: a- Sarcoidosis

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-2023


    240. All of the following investigations are done for diagnosis of multiple myeloma. Except-

    a- ESR

    b- X-ray

    c- Bone marrow biopsy

    d- Bone scan

    Ans: d- Bone scan

    Ref: H/16th/


    241. Pancytopenia with hypercellular bone marrow is seen in -

    a- Thalassemia

    b- PNH
    c- G-6 PD deficiency

    d- Myelodysplasia

    Ans: b- PNH

    Ref: Harrison 16th/617


    242. Which lab. Test is used for Dubin Johnson Syndrome-

    a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein

    b- Transaminase

    c- Gamma glutamyl transferase test

    d- Alkaline phosphatase

    Ans: a- Bromoslphalein/sulphobromophthalein

    Ref: Internal medicine II pg-1820.


    243. Not seen in raised ICT -

    a- Headache

    b- Visual blurring

    c- Abducent nerve palsy

    d- Paraparesis

    Ans: d- Paraparesis

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-1632/1633


    244. Most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in adult is -

    a- SLE

    b- Wegner’s granulomatosis

    c- Amyloidosis

    d- Diabetes mellitus

    Ans: d- Diabetes mellitus

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-1684.


    245. The following electrolyte abnormality will be found in a patient of chronic renal failure except -

    a- Hypocalcemia

    b- Hypophosphatemia

    c- Increased BUN
    d- Hyperkalemia

    Ans: b- Hypophosphatemia

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1655/1656.


    246. Drug used in obesity are all except:

    a- Sibutramine

    b- Oralistat

    c- Neuropeptide Y analog

    d- Olestra

    Ans: c- Neuropeptide Y analog

    Ref: H/16th /249, Katjung /238.


    247. All are true about Raynaund’s disease except:

    a- Good Prognosis

    b- More in female

    c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive

    d- Raynound’s phenomenon test is positive

    Ans: c- Antinuclear antibody test is positive

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1489.


    248. Non specific esterase is seen in all except:

    a- AML M3

    b- AML M4

    b- AML M5

    d- AML M6

    Ans: d- AML M6

    Ref: Internal references, www.Pubmed.com , Wintrobes hematology/2064.


    249. Anaphylactic reaction or immediated hypersensitivity is mediated by-

    a- IgG

    b- IgE

    c- IgM

    d- IgA

    Ans: b- IgE


    250. About Arthus reaction true is -

    a- A delayed type hypersensitivity

    b- A systemic immune complex

    c- A localized immune complex deposition disease

    d- Mediated by antibody

    Ans: c- A localized immune complex deposition disease


    251. Not involved in entrapment neuropathy as -

    a- Ulnar

    b- Median

    c- Femoral

    d- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

    Ans: c- Femoral

    Ref: Harrison 16th/2499, Maheswari/2nd/257.


    252. About S4 (4th heart sound), true statement is -

    a- Can be heard by unaided ear

    b- More than 20 Hz

    c- Heard during ventricular filling phase

    d- Heard during ventricular ejection phase

    Ans: c- Heard during ventricular filling phase

    Ref: Joules constant /5th/198, H/16th/1308.


    253. A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA antihuman tissue transglutaminase, and IgA antiendomysial antibody. What should be the next step?

    a- Rectal biopsy

    b- A trial of guiten free diet

    c- Colonoscopy

    d- Trial of proton pump inhibitors

    Ans: b- A trial of guiten free diet

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1770/1771.


    254. Treatment of choice for Zollinger Ellison syndrome is -

    a- Octreotide

    b- Gastrectomy

    c- H2 blocker

    d- Protein pump inhibitor

    Ans: d- Protein pump inhibitor

    Ref: Harrisons


    255. Cardiomyopathy is seen in all except

    a- Fredrich’s ataxia

    b- Duchene muscular dystrophy

    c- Lowe syndrome

    d- Type II glycogen storage disease

    Ans: c- Lowe syndrome

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1408.


    256. All of the following are features of pontine hemorrhage except

    a- Quadriparesis

    b- Pinpoint pupil

    c- Hyperpyrexia

    d- Involvement of vagus nerve

    Ans: d- Involvement of vagus nerve

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1630.


    257. Which of the following statements is true about high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)?

    a- Not exacerbated by exercise

    b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction

    c- Occurs only in unacclimatized person

    d- Leads to low cardiac output

    Ans: b- Related to pulmonary vasoconstriction

    Ref: Harrison 16th


    258. In acute hemorrhage not seen is -

    a- Increased reticulocyte count

    b- Increased PCV
    c- Increased MCV

    d- Thrombocytosis

    Ans: c- Increased MCV

    Ref: Basis/7th/624.


    259. Changes seen in CCF is all except:

    a- Increased right atrial pressure

    b- Edema

    c- Increased serum sodium level

    Ans: c- Increased serum sodium level

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-256.


    260. Finding in DIC, includes all except -

    a- Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombine III, increased Thrombine-antithrombine complex

    b- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Increased Thrombine-Antithrombine complex

    c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III

    d- Increased FDP, Increased PT, Decreased platelet

    Ans: c- Increased FDP, Normal PT, Increased Antithrombine III

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-684.


    261. About Benedict’s syndrome, all are true except:

    a- Causes 3rd CN palsy

    b- Involve penetrating branches of basilar artery

    c- Involve pons

    d- Contralateral athetosis and chorea

    Ans: c- Involve pons

    Ref: Internal medicine pg-174.


    262. A patient with antibodies to DNA is suffering from manifestations of Kidney, liver, skin problems. The probable diagnosis is:

    a- Systemic sclerosis

    b- Wegner’s granulomatosis

    c- SLE

    d- Rheumatoid arthritis

    Ans: c- SLE

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1962, 1963.


    263. Regarding Brawn-Sequard syndrome, which is not true -

    a- Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement

    b- Ipsilateral loss of motor power

    c- Contralateral posterior column with all except

    Ans: c- Contralateral posterior column with all except

    Ref: Harrison 16th/144/2440.


    264. Bernard solulier syndrome is associated with all except -

    a- Increased platelet size

    b- Decreased platelet count

    c- Normal Ristocetin test

    d- Normal ADP, test

    Ans: c- Normal Ristocetin test

    Ref: Harrison 16th/677-678.


    265. Which of the following are a minor Jone’s criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever-?

    a- fever

    b- Increased ASO titre

    c- Throat culture

    d- Rheumatic fever

    Ans: a- fever

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1978.


    266. ECG changes in hypokalemia is reflected by -

    a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression

    b- QT prolongation with T wave inversion

    c- ST elevation with T wave inversion

    d- QT prolongation with ST depression

    Ans: a- Prolongation of PR interval and ST depression


    267. About Millard-Gubler syndrome, all are true except:

    a- Vth CN palsy

    b- VIth CN palsy

    c- VIIth CN palsy

    d- Contralateral hemiplegia

    Ans: a- Vth CN palsy

    Ref: Harrison 16th/175.


    268. Iron deficiency anemia is associated with:

    a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin

    b- Decreased TIBC, decreased ferritin

    c- Normal TIBC, decreased ferritin

    d- Normal TIBC, Increased Ferritin

    Ans: a- Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin

    Ref: Harrison 16th/588, 590.


    269. Drug induced lupus is associated with:

    a- Anti RO antibody

    b- Anti centromere antibody

    c- Anti Mitochondrial antibody

    d- Antihistone antibody

    Ans: d- Antihistone antibody

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1961.


    270. The most common type of pancreatic tumor in MEN I patient-

    a- Insulinoma

    b- Gastrinoma

    c- Glucagonoma

    Ans: b- Gastrinoma

    Ref: Harrison 16th/2231/2232, CMDT - 2005/1154.


    271. The test used to confirm H.Pylori eradication after treatment is-

    a- Rapid urase test

    b- Urea breath test

    c- Endoscopic biopsy

    d- Stool antigen test/serological test

    Ans: b- Urea breath test

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1755


    272. Which of the following indicates CSF leak?

    a- β2 transferrin

    b- β protein

    c- Dyte test

    d- A β transferrine

    Ans: a- β2 transferrin

    Ref: Dhingra/3rd/202.


    273. Which one of the following investigations is done for hyperostosing of bone and joints-?

    a- Alkaline phosphatase

    b- Calcium

    c- Acid phosphatase

    d- Phosphorus

    Ans: a- Alkaline phosphatase

    Ref: Harrison 16th/2283.


    274. A 55 yrs old man presents with TLC-1 lakh, lymphocyte - 80%, Prolymphocyte - 20%. Diagnosis is -

    a- CLL

    b- HIV
    c- Tuberculosis

    d- Prolymphocytic leukemia

    Ans: a- CLL

    Ref: CMDT - 44th/492, 1286.


    275. In a patient with cardiogenic shock and Anterior wall infarct. The best treatment of choice will be -

    a- Angiography with angioplasty

    b- Intraaortic Ballon Pumb

    c- Dopamine drip

    d- Streptokinase

    Ans: a- Angiography with angioplasty

    Ref: Harrison 16th/1615.


    276. A 30yrs old man presents with generalized edema, hematuria, hypertension, and subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm). Urine examination shows microscopic hematuria, serum complement is decreased, positive for hepatitis C antibodies. Diagnosis is-

    a- Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

    b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia

    c- Lupus Nephritis

    d- MPGN

    Ans: b- Mixed cryoglobulinemia

    Ref: Harrison 16th/2011.


    277. All are associated with hypophosphatemia except:

    a- Diabetic ketoacidosis

    b- Acute renal failure

    c- Hyperalimentation

    d- Respiratory alkalosis

    Ans: b- Acute renal failure

    Ref: Harrison 16th/2242, 1652.


    278. How will you calculate INR, when the patients PT, controls PT and ISI (1.4) is given?

    a- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1.4

    b- (Patients PT/Controls PT) 1/1.4

    c- Patients PT/Calculated means normal PT

    Ans: a- (Patient

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