ALL INDIA PRE PG EXAM 2008 - questions with answers

Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by Leena., Jan 15, 2008.

  1. Leena.

    Leena. Guest

    AIPGE 2008 - questions with answers

    Psychiatry :

    1. Dementia precox was term by..

    a. Freud
    b. Bleuler
    c. Krepaelin - Ans
    d. Schnider

    2. male with headache, low mood, lethargy with a child with leukemia, hopeful about remission...

    a. depression
    b. psychoigenic headache
    c. adjustment disorder
    d.

    3. male with symptoms mimicking heart disease with normal ECG & X-ray

    a. angina pectoris
    b. panic attack
    c.
    d.

    4. PTSD all seen except

    a. hallucinations
    b. hyperarousal
    c. numbness of emotions
    d. flashbacks

    5. 1st investigations for erectile dysfunction?

    a. sildenafil citrate test
    b. cavernosometry
    c. doppler (?)
    d.

    6. not used in anxiety

    a. risperidone
    b.
    c.
    d.

    Radiology
    7. best view for c1-c2

    a. AP
    b. odontoid
    c. oblique
    d. lateral

    8. rib notching is seen in

    a. coarctation of aorta
    b. marfan's
    c.
    d.

    9. most sensitive phase to radiotherapy

    a. G2M
    b.
    c.
    d.

    10. Best for GFR measurement

    a. DTPA
    b. DMSA
    c.
    d.

    11. Fraying of anterior ends of ribs

    a. scurvy
    b. rickets
    c.
    d.

    12. not seen in Tb

    a. a. pulled up caucum
    b. apple core appearance
    c.
    d.

    13. specific for aortitis

    a. calcification of ascending aorta
    b. calcification of descending aorta
    c.
    d.

    14. photoelectric effect

    a. interacts with electron in outermost orbit
    b. interacts with bound electrons
    c. does not interact
    d.

    15. earliest sign in pulmonary venous hypertension

    a. pleural effusion
    b. cephalization of veins
    c. Kerly B lines

    16. 1st sign of LA enlargement

    a. posterior displacement of esophagus
    b. widening of carinal angle
    c. upper displacement of left bronchus
    d. double contour of right border

    17. contrat allergy asso with?

    a. anaphylactoid reactions
    b. IgE mediated reactions
    c.
    d.

    Anaesthesia
    18. train of four asso with...

    a. mechanical ventilation
    b. nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
    c.
    d.

    19. propofol not true is ...

    a. contraindicated in porphyria
    b.
    c.
    d.

    20. flase about fluranes is...

    a. sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isopfulrane
    b.
    c.
    d.

    21. flumazenil is...

    a. reverse agonist
    b. antagonist
    c. partial agonist
    d.

    skin...
    22. male with patchy loss of scalp hair, eyebrows & beard with grey hair...

    a. alopecia aereata
    b. anagen effluvium
    c. telogen effluvium
    d. anrogenic alopecia

    23. DOC for pregnant woman in 2nd trimister with pustular psoriasis

    a. prednisolone
    b. dapsone
    c. acitretin
    d. methotrexate

    24. female with oral lesions...

    a. pemphigus vulgaris
    b.
    c.
    d.

    25. what is not true about syphilis?

    I don't remember the options exactly...

    26. DOC for tertiary syphilis

    a. procaine penicillin
    b. benzathine penicilline
    c.
    d.

    27. Dharmendra index && jopling's calssification for...

    a.Tb
    b. leprosy

    28. DOC for lepra II rections..

    a. thalidomide
    b. corticosteroids
    c. clofazimine
    d.

    orthopaedics
    29. Pollicisation...

    a. reconstruction of thumb
    b. shortening of finger
    c.
    d.

    30. best test for acute knee injury

    a. Lachman's test
    b. McMurrey's test
    c. Apley's test
    d.

    31. Coronary ligament is...

    a. b/w menisci at anterior ends
    b. b/w menisci at posterior ends
    c. b/w menisci & tibial condyle
    d. b/w menisci & femoral condyle

    32. repair is better than removal in meniscal injury...

    a. outer injury
    b. middle
    c. inner
    d. at junction with cruciate ligaments

    33. knee locking in standing position is...

    a. internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
    b. internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
    c. external rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
    d. external rotation of femur over stabilized tibia

    34. patient with HIV on protease inhibitor with limitation of abduction & internal rotation of hip...

    a. osteonecrosis of hip
    b.
    c.
    d.

    35. false about myositis ossificans progressiva (child with heterotopic ossifications....)

    a. pneumonia is common
    b. life longetivity is normal
    c.
    d.

    36. most common site for autologs BG...

    a. iliac crest
    b.
    c.
    d.

    37. false about charcot's joint in diabetic...

    a. limitation of movements with bracing
    b. arthrodesis
    c. total ankle replacement
    d. arthrocentesis

    38. false about TB osteomyelitis

    a. aundant periosteal reaction
    b. sequestrum seen
    c. signs of inflammation are less common
    d.

    pediatrics...
    39. lowest recurrence in bed wetting..

    a. bed alarms
    b. desmopressine
    c. imipramine
    d.

    40. repeat Q - neonatal alveolar proteinosis

    41. repeat Q - investigation for 2 days child with no passage of meconium.. barium enema

    42. repeat Q - neonate with congenital diaphragmatic hernia with distress.. nasogastric aspiration (according to speed solution - confirm presence of ET)

    43. repeat Q - bronchiolitis obliterans

    44. child with meconuria & absent anus

    a. anoplasty
    b. transverse colostomy
    c. sigmoid colostomy

    45. child with distended abdomen with gas under diaphragm..

    a. perforation of stomach
    b. necrotising enterocolitis/pneumatosis cystosis intestinalis
    c.
    d.

    46. right sided aortic arch a/w..

    a. TOF
    b. corrected TGA (it was not uncorrected TGA where it is seen)
    c.
    d.

    47. False about PDA

    a. 2-3 times commoner in males ( female:male 2:1)
    b. ligation is surgery
    c. more in immature infants (not remember exactly)
    d.

    48. CNS damage in which congenital intrauterine infection?

    a. rubella & CMV
    b. rubella & toxoplasmosis
    c. CMV & toxoplasmosis

    49. MC seizure.. repeat Q

    a. subtle

    50. false about cerebellar astrocytoma...

    a. low grade more common in children
    b. commonly infratentorial
    c. seen more commonly in 1st 2 decades
    d. (answer?)

    51. 6 yr child with recurrent gross hematuria for 2 yrs

    a. IgA nephropathy
    b. wilm's
    c.
    d.

    52. MCC of developmental delay... repeat Q - constitutional

    53. not included in IMNCI

    a. malaria
    b. neonatal tetanus
    c. otitis media

    54. coarctatoin of aorta a/w - repeat Q - bicuspid aortic valve

    55. Rx of perforated necrotizing colitis..

    a. conservative
    b. excision of segment with anastomosis
    c.
    d.

    56. Gomez classification false is..

    a. based on height
    b. 50% Boston standards
    c.
    d.

    Obs & Gyn..
    57. not a cause of recurrent abortion.. repeat Q - TORCH

    58. DOC for sever HT in preeclampsia

    a. labetalol
    b. methyldopa
    c.
    d.

    59. Investigation for endosalpingitis..

    a. leproscopy
    b. hysteroscopy
    c.
    d.

    60. 1st sign of puberty in girls - repeat Q - thelarche

    61. virus asso with Ca cervix..

    a. HPV
    b. HIV
    c.
    d.

    62. false about Ca cervix..

    a. common at squamocolumnar junction.
    b. CT is the investigation of staging
    c.
    d.

    63. Rx of 55 yr female with simple hyperplasia endometrium with atypia..

    a. hysterectomy
    b. MPA
    c. LNG IUCD
    d.

    64. All seen in antiphospholipid antibody except..

    a. pancytopenia
    b. venous thrombosis
    c. recurrent abortions
    d. pulmonary hypertension

    65. Contraindication of vaginal delivery after C/S..

    a. classical C/S
    b. no h/o vaginal delivery
    c. breech
    d.

    66. all form from mullerian duct except..

    a. ovary
    b. uterus
    c. fallopian tube
    d.

    67. All true about androgen insensitivity syndrome except..

    a. XY genotype
    b. pubic hair abundant
    c.
    d.

    68. Heparin in pregnancy supplemented with..

    a. Ca
    b. Zn
    c. Cu
    d.

    69. Drugs in PPH except..

    a. misoprostol
    b. syntocinon
    c. syntometrin
    d. mifepristone

    70. M/A for clomipohene citrate..

    a. removes FEEDBACK by estrogen at hypothalamus
    b.
    c.
    d.

    71. All are tocolytics except..

    a. ritodrine
    b. salbutamol
    c. may be the answer
    d. or may be this!!!

    72. MCC of placenta accreta..

    a. C/S
    b. curettage
    c. placenta previa
    d.

    73. not diagnosed by chorionic villous biopsy..

    a. NTD
    b.
    c.
    d.

    74. MC reversal of TL with..

    a. isthmo-isthmic anastomosis
    b. isthmo-ampullary anastomosis
    c. cornual obstruction
    d.

    75. Least falilure with..

    a. fallope ring
    b. bipolar cautery
    c. unipolar cautery
    d.

    76. Active management of labout a/e..

    a. unterotonic within 1 minute of delivery
    b. immediate cuting & ligation of cord
    c. massage of fundus
    d. controlled cord traction

    77. Induction at term not done in..

    a. preecplampsia
    b. DM
    c. heart disease
    d.

    78. true about umbilical artery doppler..

    a. decrese S/D ration in mothers taking nicotine

    79. mother with previous child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.. anyone remembers the exact question?

    80. calender method.. please help...

    81. true about lactation mastitis..

    a. [/b]can lead to abscess & I & D may be required
    b. E.coli most common organism
    c. infection from GIT of neonate
    d.

    82. Woman with Bartholin's cyst.. treatment..

    a. marsupialization
    b.
    c.
    d.

    Surgery..
    83. investigation for nutcracker esophagus..

    a. barometry
    b. barium swallow
    c.
    d.

    84. male with blunt injury to abdomen hypotensive responding to in fluids, mild tenderness in epigastrium

    a. observation
    b. further imaging of upper abdomen
    c.
    d.

    85. not a landmark for facial nerve - parotid surfery

    a. digastric
    b. omohyoid
    c. retrograde from facial nerve
    d.

    86. 45 yr female with gall stone 1.5 cm solitary ..

    a. cholecystectomy oinly if she develops biliary colic
    b. lap cholecystectomy immediately
    c. lap cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months
    d. open cholecystectomy even if she is asymptomatic after 2 months

    87. not done in torsion of testis - repeat Q - antibiotics & analgesics

    88. hepatic resection.. which Couinods segments.. don't remember exactly

    89. splenectomy in ITP, platelet infusion given at..

    a. immediately after ligating splenic vein
    b. immediately after removal of spleen
    c. after incision
    d.

    90. ureter stone pain d/t..

    a. intramural irritation
    b. renal capsular tension d/t back pressure
    c. exaggerated peristalsis
    d.

    91. epispadias a/w..

    a. separation of pubic symphysis
    b.
    c.
    d.

    92. 40 yr male with dilated esophagus on barium, non-progressive dysphaigia for liquid & solids..

    a. achalasia cardia
    b.cancer at cardia
    c. ca oesophagus
    d.

    93. MC thyroid carcinoma..

    a. papillary
    b. follicular
    c. anaplastic
    d. lymphoma

    94. 25 yr female with blood from single duct in brest..

    a. microdocectomy
    b. MRM
    c.
    d.

    95. diffuse axonal injury most common at..

    a. junction of grey & white matter
    b.
    c.
    d.

    96. best method for urine collection - repeat Q - suprapubic aspiration

    97. all helpful to d/d cystitis & chronic pyelonephritis except..

    a. bacterial ct > 10 8
    b. loss of concentrating ability
    c. WBC casts
    d.

    [snip]. TRUS in prostate most useful for..

    a. guided biopsy
    b.
    c.
    d.

    99. alcoholic with stones in pancreas..

    a. lateral pncreatojejunostomy
    b. excision of pancreas
    c. d.

    100. male with injury to lower CBD ends, duodenum & head of pancreas.. treatment is..

    a. Whipple's operation
    b. roux-en-y anastomosis
    c.
    d.

    101. not a complication of hemithyroidectomy..

    a. wound hematoma
    b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
    c. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsy
    d. hypocalcemia

    102. most preferred route for acute pancreatitis..

    a. parenteral
    b. gastrostomy
    c. jejnostomy
    d.

    103. male with crypt abscess & crypt ulcers.. diagnosis..

    a. Crohn's
    b. ulcerative colitis
    c.
    d.

    104. definition of penetrating neck trauma..

    a. disruption of platysme
    b. 2 cm deep
    c.
    d.

    105. false about vovulus is..

    a. sigmoid is more common
    b. sigmoidoscopy is contraindicated
    c. h/o pain releived by passage of flatus
    d.

    106. Abbey flap for..

    a. lip
    b. tongue
    c.
    d.

    107. MC posterior mediastinal tumour..

    a. teratoma
    b. neurofiboma
    c. lymphoma
    d.

    108. there was other Q on mediastinal lesion.. as far as I remember, answer was neuroenteric cyst.. please help..

    109. best guide to operate in blunt thorax trauma

    a. thoracostomy tube output
    b. symptoms
    c.
    d.

    110. there was a Q on management of acute cholecystitis.. please help..

    111. Nigro regimen..

    a. CT & RT as alternate to surgery
    b.
    c.
    d.

    112. Anal fissure best diagnosed by..

    a. anoscopy
    b. history & visual examination
    c.
    d.

    medicine Tue Jan 15, 2008 5:04 pm (2 hours ago) #17

    113. not true about congenital adrenal hyperplasia

    a. 21 hydroxylase defi is the most common cause
    b. females present with ambiguous genitalia
    c. males present with precoucious puberty
    d. hypokalemic alkalosis seen

    114. DOC for CML..

    a. imatinib
    b.
    c.
    d.

    115. MC pancreatic tumour in MEN 1..

    a. gastrinoma
    b. insulinoma
    c. glucagonoma
    d.

    116. best investigation for intersitial lung disease..

    a. HRCT
    b.
    c.
    d.

    117. investigation for 20 yr female with mild jaundice with spherocytes.. repeat Q - Coomb's test

    118. Pick bodies formed of..

    a. tau
    b. ubiquitin
    c. alpha-synnuclein
    d. beta synnuclein

    119. dying back neuropathy..

    a. arsenic
    b. GBS
    c. DM
    d. porphyria

    120. true about extramedullary tumour a/e..

    a. can lead to Brown-Sequard syndrome
    b.
    c.
    d.

    121. poorest prognosis in AML..

    a. monosomy 7
    b. no cytogenentic abnormality
    c. t (15;17)
    d.

    122. cellular BM with pancytopenia a/e - repeat Q - dyserythropoietic anemia

    123. All transretinoic acid for - repeat Q - acute promyelovytic anemia

    124. which type of hypertriglyceridemia.. VLDL & chylomicron remnants..

    a. I
    b. IIa
    c. IIb
    d. III

    125. male with sudden death at basketball found hypertrophied septum.. repeat Q - HOCM

    126. Conn's syndrome mostly d/t..

    a. adrenal hyperplasia
    b. adrenal carcinoma
    c. adrenal adenoma
    d.

    127. Megaloblastic anemia should be treated with folic acid & vit B12 because..

    a. folic acid alone causes improvement of symptom but worsening of neurolifical symptoms
    b.
    c.
    d.

    128. there was a Q on Cushing's syndrome.. can anyone help?

    129. Causative for rheumatoid arthritis..

    a. mycoplasma
    b.
    c.
    d.

    If EBV was amongst the options, it would be the preferred answer..

    130. causative of Crohn's disease...

    a. mycobacterium paraTb
    b.
    c.
    d.

    131. Ttrue about Kawasaki's disease..

    a. 25% have coronary artery aneurysm
    b.
    c.
    d.

    132. All true about conus syndrome except..

    a. saddle anesthesia
    b. flexor planter reflex
    c. absent knee & ankle jerks
    d.

    133. HBs positive HBe negative asymptomatic male.. repeat Q - observation

    Ophthalmology
    134. Sarcoidosis associated with..

    a. band keratopathy
    b.
    c.
    d.

    135. PHPV asso with..

    a. Patau syndrome
    b. Down
    c.
    d.

    136. NF-1 asso with

    a. choroidal hemangioma
    b. glaucoma - reference - khurana
    c.
    d.

    137. Intractable glaucoma a/w..

    a. multiple melanomas on anterior iris
    b. proliferation of epithelium on anterior iris
    c. proliferation of pigmented epithelium on posterior iris
    d. swollen lens

    138. Osteosarcoma in retinoblastoma d/t a/e..

    a. RT
    b. CT
    c. mutation in p53
    d. mutation in Rb

    139. MIP 26 in lens - function..

    a. water transport
    b. proteoglycan assembly
    c.
    d.

    140. not seen in photoreceptor matrix..

    a. metalloproteinase
    b.
    c.
    d.

    141. final centre for horizontal movements of eye..

    a. abducent nucleus
    b. trochlear nucleus
    c. oculomotor nucleus
    d. vestibular nucleus

    142. MCC of ocular morbidity in india..

    a. refractive errors
    b. cataract
    c.
    d.

    ENT
    143. male with dull TM, deafness & tinnitus, type B curve & neck mass..

    a. Ca nasopharynx
    b. Ca middle ear
    c. Tb
    d.

    144. Nasal septum not contributed by..

    a. lacrimal
    b. sphenoid
    c. ethmoid
    d. palatine

    145. loss of sensation in external auditory canal.. Histelberger sign..

    a. Bell's palsy
    b. acoustic neuroma
    c.
    d.

    146. true about allergic fungal sinusitis a/e

    a. CT shows hyperdense
    b. orbital penetration
    c. type 1 hypersensitivity
    d.

    147. singer woman with singer's nodes with h/o reflux..

    a. voice therapy & PPI
    b. laryngomicroscopic excision
    c.
    d.

    148. Cochlear implant placed at..

    remember it was not hearing aid, itr was cochlear implant

    a. horizontal semicircular canal
    b. round window
    c. oval window
    d.

    149. age for bilateral external canal atresia with microtia..

    a. < 1 yr
    b. 5 yrs
    c. puberty
    d.

    SPM
    150. MCC of maternal mortality in India..

    a. haemorrhage
    b. anemia
    c. sepsis
    d.

    151. definition of low vision

    a. best corrected 6/60 to 3/60
    b. best corrected 6/60 to 6/18
    c.
    d.

    152. nutritional surveillance.. please help..

    153. among the following false is..

    a. health is central responsibility
    b. Alma-ata declaration
    c. intelligence regulation act
    d.

    154. psychrometer used for..

    a. air velocity
    b. humidity
    c. radiant heat
    d.

    155. transmitted by soft tick

    a. KFD
    b. relapsing fever
    c. tick typhus
    d.

    156. demarcation line in iceberg disease

    a. symptomatic & asymptomatic
    b. diagnosed & undiagnosed
    c. apparent & unapperent
    d.

    157. Isolation not useful for all except..

    a. mumps
    b. measles
    c. hepatitis A
    d. pneumonic plague

    158. false about live vaccine is..

    a. single dose gives lifelong immunity
    b. two live vaccines can't be given together (remember MMR)
    c.
    d.

    159. vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is..

    a. MMR
    b.
    c.
    d.

    160. ferrugenous bodies in..

    a. asbestosis
    b. silicosis
    c.
    d.

    161. standard deviation is for..

    a. chance varience
    b. dispersion
    c.
    d.

    162. KAP studies started after..

    a. HIV
    b. cancer
    c.
    d.

    163. MC occupational cancer..

    a. skin
    b. bladder
    c. lung
    d.

    164. not transmitted by soil..

    a. brucellosis
    b. coccidiodomycosis
    c. tetanus
    d.

    165. all important for noncommunicable disease except..

    a. dose response relation
    b. specificity of asso
    c. strength of asso
    d. temporal asso

    ref - Park

    166. current list does not include

    a. vital stats
    b. medical education
    c. prevention of spread of communicable disease
    d.

    167. all zoonosis except..

    a. AIDS
    b.
    c.
    d.

    168. CHC is

    a. 1st referral
    b 2nd referral
    c. 3rd referral
    d.

    169. complete family size..

    a. total fertility rate
    b.
    c.
    d.

    170. equal interview time eliminates..

    a. Berksonian bias
    b. recall bias
    c. selection bias
    d. interviewer bias

    171. Delphi's method for?

    Forensic
    172. diphtheria like colitis in ascending & trnasverse colon caused by..

    a. lead
    b. aarsenic
    c.
    d.

    173. abortion sticks - mechanism - repeat Q - stimulation of uterine contraction

    174. male from West Bengal with hyperkeratosis, transverse nail lines..

    a. chronic arsenic poisoning
    b.
    c.
    d.

    175. suffocation a/e..

    a. choking
    b. throttling
    c. gagging
    d. smothering

    176. polychlorinated hydrocarbon is..

    a. parathiuon
    b. malathion
    c. diazinon
    d. dieldrin/eldrin

    177. alkanization of urine..

    a. barbiturates
    b. amphetamina
    c. alcohol
    d.

    178. Corporo basal index for..

    a. race
    b. sex
    c. age
    d.

    179. false negative hydrostatic test in live born..

    a. atelectasis
    b. meconium aspiration
    c. emphysema
    d.

    180. fatty liver cased by..

    a. arsenic
    b. aconite
    c.
    d.

    181. test for vaginal cells collected for investigation for rape..

    a. Lugol's iodine
    b.
    c.
    d.


    Pharmacology
    182. all used for bladder spasm post-op except..

    a. oxybutynin
    b. ipratropium
    c.
    d.

    183. DOC for diphtheria..

    a. erythromycin
    b.
    c.
    d.

    184. tiotropium used for a/e..

    a. urinary retention
    b.
    c.
    d.

    185. M/A for paclitaxel..

    a. topoisomerase inhibitor
    b. polymerization of tubules
    c.
    d.

    186. M/A of pralidoxime - repeat Q - reactivation of cholinesterase

    187. Antipseudomonal penicillin is..

    a. piperacillin
    b. amoxycillin
    c. ampicillin
    d.

    188. immunomodulator for genital warts is..

    a. imiquimod
    b.
    c.
    d.

    189. not an antifungal...

    a. caspofungin
    b. undecyclinic acid
    c. ciclopirox
    d. clofasimine

    190. which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis.

    a. doxycycline
    b. cefotetan
    c.
    d.

    191. all cause discolouration of urine except..

    a. rifampin
    b. quinine
    c.
    d.

    192. nephrotoxic drug is.

    a. streptomycin
    b.
    c.
    d.

    193. phase II trials for

    a. maxximal tolerated dose
    b. efficacy
    c. lethal dose
    d.

    194. DOC for SVT

    a. verapamil
    b. diltiazem
    c.
    d.

    195. false about erythropoietin..

    a. decrease reticulocyte count
    b. hypertension
    c. decrease transfusion requirement
    d.

    196. poplypeptide with antitumour activity

    a. bleomycine
    b. aspartame
    c.
    d.

    197. therapeutic index for - repeat Q - safety

    198. detoxification of drugs all except..

    a. cytochrome oxidase
    b. cytochrome p 450
    c. methylation
    d.

    199. probiotics useful for..

    a. necrotizing enterocolitis

    200. all gause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency except..

    a. CQ
    b. quinine
    c. primaquine
    d. pyrimethamine

    201. Torsades de pointes caused by..

    a. quinidine
    b.
    c.
    d.

    202. leucovorin used with..

    a. methotrexate
    b.
    c.
    d.

    203. Tacrolimus does not cause..

    a. hirsuitism (reef - KDT)
    b. nephrotoxicity
    c. neurotoxicity
    d. DM

    204. there was a Q on Rx of resistant falciperum malaria in child.. don't remember exactly.. please help..

    Microbiology
    205. false about v cholerae O 139 - repeat Q - expresses O1

    206. false abt yaws..

    a. by t. pertenue
    b. sexually transmitted
    c.
    d.

    207. pneumocystic jiroveki.. don't remember the questions exactly.. help..

    208. prion is ..

    a. infectious
    b.
    c.
    d.

    209. cross reaction with synovial fluid - which streptococcal antigen?

    a. carbohydrate
    b. capsular hyaluronic acid
    c.
    d.

    210. H5N1 is..

    a. bird flu
    b.
    c.
    d.

    211. does not cause biliary obstruction..

    a. ascaris
    b. ankylostoma
    c. & d. - liver flukes

    212. false about gram positive cocci..

    a. most enterococci are sensitive to penicillin
    b. staph saprophytics causes UTI in females
    c.
    d.

    213. all cause meningitis in elderly except..

    a. HSV 2
    b. GNB
    c. pneumococci
    d. listeria

    (I went for HSV 2 but surprised to see HSV a common cause of viral meningitis in Harri.. now not sure abt ans)

    214. most resistant to antisetics..

    a. cyst
    b. spores
    c. prions
    d. fungi

    215. not true about measles.. don't remember options.. help..

    patho
    216. haemodialysis asso amyloidosis - beta-2 microglobulin

    217. cold haem,aglutinin is asso with..

    a. anti IgM
    b. anti IgG
    c. anti IgA
    d. Donath Landsteiner Ab

    218. Whipple disease - Pathology

    a. infiltration of histiocytes in lamina propria
    b. granuloma in lamina propria
    c.
    d.

    219. mutation for congenital nephrotic syn

    a. nephrin
    b. podocin
    c. alpha 4 actinin
    d.

    220. false abt p53..

    a. arrests cel cycle at G1
    b. 53 kD protein
    c. wild type a/w tumours
    d/

    221. markers for Hodgkin's disease.

    a. CD 15 & 30
    b.
    c.
    d.

    222. repeat Q of genomic imprinting

    223. factor which causes cross linking & stabilization of clot..

    a. factor XIII
    b.
    c.
    d.

    224. cytogenetics for synovial cell sarcoma..

    a. t(X;18)
    b.
    c.
    d.

    225. HMB 45 tumour marker for..

    a. malignant melanoma
    b.
    c.
    d.

    226. Rh factor is

    a. antibody
    b. mucopolysaccharide
    c.
    d.

    227. not a malignancy..

    a. chloroma
    b. fibromatosis
    c. Askins tumour
    d.

    228. thrombphlemitis not a/w malignancy of

    a. prostate
    b. lung
    c. GIT
    d. pancreas

    229. growth factor receptor for oncogenes..

    a. myc
    b. fos
    c. sis
    d.

    230. repeat Q of neutrophilic killing of bacteria by reactive oxygen species by NADPH oxidase

    231. delayed prolonged bleeding by..

    a. histamine
    b. endothelial retraction
    c. IL 1
    d.

    232. MC BT reaction..

    a. febrile nonhemolytic reaction
    b.
    c.
    d.

    233. there was a Q on GVHD.. help..

    234. sarcolemmal proteins a/e

    a. perlecan
    b. dystrophin
    c.
    d.

    235. bradykinin causes..

    a. pain at site of inflammation
    b.
    c.
    d.

    236. neutral substances transported across membrane by which protein..

    a. ionophores
    b. porins
    c.
    d.

    237. ringed sideroblasts seen in .

    a. myelodysplastic syndrome

    238. rossettes are characteristic in

    a. retinoblastoma

    239. all seen in malignant hypertension except...

    a. hyaline arteriosclerosis
    b.
    c.
    d.

    240. a Q on APCs - antigen presenting cells.. help..

    241. crescentic nephritis seen in.. help..

    242. proliferative changes seen in..

    a. mesangiocapillary GN
    b.
    c.
    d.

    243. all seen in hemochromatosis except..

    a. hypogonadism
    b. arthropathy
    c. skin pigmentation / DM (?)
    d. desferroxamine is the treatment of choice

    Biochemistry
    244. saturated FA highest in..

    a. soyabean oil
    b. groundnut oil
    c. palm oil
    d.

    245. G-6-Pase absent in..

    a. liver
    b. muscle
    c.
    d.

    246. phosphorylase b in inactivated state d/t

    a. ATP
    b. AMP
    c. calcium
    d.

    247. Okazaki fragments in..

    a. dsDNA replication
    b. ssDNA replication
    c.
    d.

    248. folding of proteins..

    a. chaperon
    b.
    c.
    d.

    249. intracellular protein assortment done by..

    a. Golgi apparatus
    b. lysosome
    c. mitochondria
    d. robosome

    250. required for carboxylation of clotting factors..

    a. vitamin K
    b.
    c.
    d.

    251. apoprotein C function..

    a. activates lipoproptein lipase
    b.
    c.
    d.

    help...

    252. basement membrane degeneration by - repeat Q - metalloproteinase

    253. ATP does not form in..

    a. glycolysis
    b. Kreb's cycle
    c. HMP shunt
    d.

    254. patient with hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia in between meals.. Von Gierke disease

    255. all bind to thrmbin except?

    help...

    256. trypsin inhibitors except..

    a. alpha - 1 AT
    b. chymotrypsin
    c. alpha -2 microglobulin

    Physiology
    257. true about heart..

    a. vagal stimulation decreases force of contraction
    b. denervated heart has more heart rate
    c.
    d.

    258. true abt lymph flow..

    a. massage of foot increases lymphatic flow
    b.
    c.
    d.

    259. one Q abt implantation.. can anyone help?

    260. secretin - true a/e..

    a. increases bicarbonate rich secretion
    b. increases bile rich secreion
    c.
    d.

    261. triple response is d/t

    a. axon reflex
    b. injury to endothelium
    c.
    d.

    262. testosterone requires..

    a. lower than core body temperature
    b. higher
    c. same
    d.

    263. all transmited by posterior column except..

    a. vibration
    b. pressure
    c. temperature
    d. position sense

    264. most active form of calcium

    a. ionic
    b.
    c.
    d.

    265. cerebral flow in exercise..

    a. does not change
    b. increases
    c. decreases
    d.

    266. there was one Q on fertilization.. help..

    267. BP by sphygmomanometer..

    a. lower than intraarterial
    b. higher than intraarterial
    c.
    d.

    Anatomy
    268. artery to vas is branch of..

    a. inferior epigastric
    b. superior vesical
    c. cremasteric
    d.

    269. pahway of sperms..

    a. straight tubules - rete testis - efferent tubules
    b.
    c.
    d.

    270. vessel supplyting cruciate ligament..

    a. descending genicular
    b. middle genicular
    c.
    d.

    271. great saphenous vein - overlying skin supplied by..

    a. sural nerve
    b.
    c.
    d.

    272. all are composite muscles except..

    a. pectineus
    b. rectus femoris
    c.
    d.

    273. all are digastric muscles except..

    a. omohyoid
    b. occipitofrontalis
    c. muscle of ligament of Treitz
    d. sternocleidomastoid

    274. vein in paraduodenal fossa..

    a. inferior mesenteric vein
    b.
    c.
    d.

    275. all true abt diploic veins except..

    a. lined by single layer endothelium supported by elastic tissue
    b. seen in cranial bones
    c. valveless
    d. seen at 8 weeks

    276. not seen in radial nerve palsy.. help..

    277. ear ossicles joints are..

    a. synovial
    b. primary cartilaginous
    c. secondary cartilaginous
    d. fibrous

    278. bronchial artery upto?

    a. tertiary bronchioles
    b. respiratory bronchioles
    c. alveolar sac
    d.

    279. facial colliculus at level of..

    a. pons
    b. medulla
    c. midbrain
    d. intrepeduncular fossa

    280. masseteric reflex - centre at..

    a. mesencephalic nucleus
    b. motor necleus
    c.
    d.

    281. not a somatic efferent..

    a. IIIrd n
    b. VIIth nerve
    c.
    d.

    282. cavernous sinus - all except..

    a. superficial middle cerebral vein
    b. deep middle cerebral vein
    c.
    d.

    283. Biondi ring tangles found in..

    a. choroidal plexus cells
    b. Golgi type II cells
    c. basket cells





    ANSWERS:-

    AIPGE 2008 - Questions with Answers

    Psychiatry :

    1. Dementia precox was term by..

    a. Freud
    b. Bleuler
    c. Krepaelin - Ans
    d. Schnider
    Ans: c

    2. male with headache, low mood, lethargy with a child with leukemia, hopeful about remission...

    a. depression
    b. psychoigenic headache
    c. adjustment disorder
    d.
    Ans: c.

    3. male with symptoms mimicking heart disease with normal ECG & X-ray

    a. angina pectoris
    b. panic attack
    c.
    d.
    Ans: B.

    4. PTSD all seen except

    a. hallucinations
    b. hyperarousal
    c. numbness of emotions
    d. flashbacks
    Ans: a.

    5. 1st investigations for erectile dysfunction?

    a. sildenafil citrate test
    b. cavernosometry
    c. doppler (?)
    d.

    6. not used in anxiety

    a. risperidone
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.
    Radiology
    7. best view for c1-c2

    a. AP
    b. odontoid
    c. oblique
    d. lateral
    Ans: b.

    8. rib notching is seen in

    a. coarctation of aorta
    b. marfan's
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.

    9. most sensitive phase to radiotherapy

    a. G2M
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.

    10. Best for GFR measurement

    a. DTPA
    b. DMSA
    c.
    d.
    Ans; a.

    11. Fraying of anterior ends of ribs

    a. scurvy
    b. rickets
    c.
    d.
    Ans: b.

    12. not seen in Tb

    a. a. pulled up caucum
    b. apple core appearance
    c.
    d.
    Ans: B.

    13. specific for aortitis

    a. calcification of ascending aorta
    b. calcification of descending aorta
    c.
    d.

    14. photoelectric effect

    a. interacts with electron in outermost orbit
    b. interacts with bound electrons
    c. does not interact
    d.
    Ans: a.

    15. earliest sign in pulmonary venous hypertension

    a. pleural effusion
    b. cephalization of veins
    c. Kerly B lines
    Ans; b.

    16. 1st sign of LA enlargement

    a. posterior displacement of esophagus
    b. widening of carinal angle
    c. upper displacement of left bronchus
    d. double contour of right border

    17. contrat allergy asso with?

    a. anaphylactoid reactions
    b. IgE mediated reactions
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.

    Anaesthesia
    18. train of four asso with...

    a. mechanical ventilation
    b. nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
    c.
    d.
    Ans: b.

    19. propofol not true is ...

    a. contraindicated in porphyria
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.

    20. flase about fluranes is...

    a. sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isopfulrane
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans; a.

    21. flumazenil is...

    a. reverse agonist
    b. antagonist
    c. partial agonist
    d.
    Ans: b.
    skin...
    22. male with patchy loss of scalp hair, eyebrows & beard with grey hair...

    a. alopecia aereata
    b. anagen effluvium
    c. telogen effluvium
    d. anrogenic alopecia
    Ans: a.

    23. DOC for pregnant woman in 2nd trimister with pustular psoriasis

    a. prednisolone
    b. dapsone
    c. acitretin
    d. methotrexate

    24. female with oral lesions...

    a. pemphigus vulgaris
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans; a.
    25. what is not true about syphilis?

    I don't remember the options exactly...

    26. DOC for tertiary syphilis

    a. procaine penicillin
    b. benzathine penicilline
    c.
    d.
    Ans; b.

    27. Dharmendra index && jopling's calssification for...

    a.Tb
    b. leprosy
    Ans: b.

    28. DOC for lepra II rections..

    a. thalidomide
    b. corticosteroids
    c. clofazimine
    d.
    Ans; a.
    orthopaedics
    29. Pollicisation...

    a. reconstruction of thumb
    b. shortening of finger
    c.
    d.
    Ans; a.

    30. best test for acute knee injury

    a. Lachman's test
    b. McMurrey's test
    c. Apley's test
    d.
    Ans; a.
    31. Coronary ligament is...

    a. b/w menisci at anterior ends
    b. b/w menisci at posterior ends
    c. b/w menisci & tibial condyle
    d. b/w menisci & femoral condyle
    Ans; c.

    32. repair is better than removal in meniscal injury...

    a. outer injury
    b. middle
    c. inner
    d. at junction with cruciate ligaments

    33. knee locking in standing position is...

    a. internal rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
    b. internal rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
    c. external rotation of tibia over stabilized femur
    d. external rotation of femur over stabilized tibia
    Ans; a.

    34. patient with HIV on protease inhibitor with limitation of abduction & internal rotation of hip...

    a. osteonecrosis of hip
    b.
    c.
    d.

    35. false about myositis ossificans progressiva (child with heterotopic ossifications....)

    a. pneumonia is common
    b. life longetivity is normal
    c.
    d.
    Ans: b.

    36. most common site for autologs BG...

    a. iliac crest
    b.
    c.
    d.
    Ans: a.

    37. false about charcot's joint in diabetic...

    a. limitation of movements with bracing
    b. arthrodesis
    c. total ankle replacement
    d. arthrocentesis

    38. false about TB osteomyelitis

    a. aundant periosteal reaction
    b. sequestrum seen
    c. signs of inflammation are less common
    d.
    Ans: a.
    pediatrics...
    39. lowest recurrence in bed wetting..

    a. bed alarms
    b. desmopressine
    c. imipramine
    d.
    Ans: a.

    40. repeat Q - neonatal alveolar proteinosis

    41. repeat Q - investigation for 2 days child with no passage of meconium.. barium enema

    42. repeat Q - neonate with congenital diaphragmatic hernia with distress.. nasogastric aspiration (according to speed solution - confirm presence of ET)

    43. repeat Q - bronchiolitis obliterans

    44. child with meconuria & absent anus

    a. anoplasty
    b. transverse colostomy
    c. sigmoid colostomy
    Ans: c.

    45. child with distended abdomen with gas under diaphragm..

    a. perforation of stomach
    b. necrotising enterocolitis/pneumatosis cystosis intestinalis
    c.
    d.
    Ans: b.

    46. right sided aortic arch a/w..

    a. TOF
    b. corrected TGA (it was not uncorrected TGA where it is seen)
    c.
    d.
    Ans; A.

    47. False about PDA

    a. 2-3 times commoner in males ( female:male 2:1)
    b. ligation is surgery
    c. more in immature infants (not remember exactly)
    d.
    Ans; a.

    48. CNS damage in which congenital intrauterine infection?

    a. rubella & CMV
    b. rubella & toxoplasmosis
    c. CMV & toxoplasmosis

    49. MC seizure.. repeat Q

    a. subtle
    Ans; a.

    50. false about cerebellar astrocytoma...

    a. low grade more common in children
    b. commonly infratentorial
    c. seen more commonly in 1st 2 decades
    d. (answer?)
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