All India Pre PG Exam - Previous Years Questions Papers

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    AIPGE 2004 Questions

    1. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?

    1. Neurosurgery.
    2. Day care surgery. .
    3. Patients with coronary artery disease,
    4. In neonates.

    2. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents shou.ld be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children ?

    1. Enflurane.
    2. Isoflurane.
    3. Sevoflurane.
    4. Desflurane.

    3. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except:

    1. Carotid sinus massage.
    2. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV.
    3. Direct current cardioversion.
    4. VerapamilS mg IV.

    4. A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid has block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis

    1. Amniotic fluid embolism.
    2. Lignocaine toxicity.
    3. Hypocalcemia. .
    4. Hypokalemia.

    5. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearl11 and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:

    1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves.
    2. A tight cast or dressing.
    3. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
    4. Tourniquet pressure.

    6. A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likelv diaQnosis of this infant is:

    1. TetrologyofFallot.
    2. Transposition of great vessels.
    3. Truncus Arteriosus.
    4. Tricusnid Atresia.

    7. The first costochondral joint is a:

    1. Fibrous joint.
    2. Synovial joint.
    3. Syndesmosis.
    4. Svncendrosis.

    8. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?

    1. Atropine sulphate eye ointment.
    2. Dexamethasone eye drops.
    3. Pilocarpine eye drops.
    4. Lignocaine eye drops.

    9. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:

    1. Klinefelter syndrome.
    2. Turner syndrome.
    3. Cri du chat syndrome.
    4. Noonan syndrome.

    10. Which of the following is the feature of y chromosome ?

    1. Acrocentric.
    2. Telocentric.
    3. Submetacentric.
    4. Metacentric.

    11. Shine -Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

    I. AUG codon.
    2. UAA codon.
    3. UAG codon
    4. UGA codon

    12. Which of the following is a membrane- bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP ?

    1. Tyrosine kinase. .
    2. Polymerase.
    3. ATP synthase.
    4. Adenlylate cyclase. .,

    13. A small Ca2+binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as:

    1. Cycline.
    2. Calmodulin.
    3. Collagen.
    4. Kinesin.

    14. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:

    I. DNA polymerase.
    2. RNA polymerase.
    3. Reverse transcriptase.
    4. Phosphokinase.

    15. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:

    I. Intron.
    2. Exon.
    3. Plasmid.
    4. TATA box.

    16. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except :

    I. It is devoid of perichondrium.
    2. It has a rich nerve supply.
    3. It is avascular.
    4. It lacks the capacity to regenerate.

    17. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except :

    I. Lymph nodes.
    2. Spleen. .
    3. Thymus..,
    4. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes.

    18. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except:
    1. Lateral cutaneus nerve ofthigh.,
    2. Ilioinguinal nerve.
    3. Subcostal nerve.
    4. Iliohypogastric nerve.

    19. Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
    1. Isthmus of uterine tube.
    2. Inferior port of anal canal.
    3. Big toe.
    4. Penile urethra.,

    20. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features except:
    1. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.t
    2. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus.
    3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.
    4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus.

    21. Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, j sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:

    1. 46, XYY.
    2. 46, XY. .
    3. 46, XXY.
    4. 46, X.

    22. Kinky -hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother’s brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the’possible mode of inheritance in her family ?

    1. X-Iinked recessive.
    2. X-Iinked dominant. ..
    3. Autosomal recessive.
    4. Autosomal dominant.

    23. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea fi.equently. These – symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy produ~ts. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient ?

    1. a-amylase.
    2. beta-galactosidase. .
    3. a-glucosidase.
    4. Sucrase.

    24. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
    1. Chylomicrons.
    2. VLDL.
    3. LDL.
    4. HDL.

    25. The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have:

    1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
    2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
    3. A disulphide loop.
    4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic ammo acIds. .

    26. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:

    1. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is higher than normal ~
    2. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is lower than normal. ,
    3. Less pyruvate is formed.
    4. Less A TP is generated.

    27. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:

    1. DNA polymerase II. â€
    2. DNA polymerase I.
    3. DNA exonuclease.
    4. DNA ligase. ,

    28. RNA polymerase does not require:

    I. Template (ds DNA).
    2. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP).
    3. Divaient metal ions (Mn2+, Mg2+).
    4. Primer. .

    29. Radio isotopes are used in the following -techniques except:

    1. Mass spectroscopy.
    2. RIA.
    3. ELISA. ,
    4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.

    30. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of:

    1. Primary structure.
    2. Secondary structure..
    3. Tertiary structure.
    4. Quaternary structure.

    31. In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma ?

    1. Bound to neurophysin-I.
    2. Bound to neurophysin-Il.
    3. Bound to plasma albumin.
    4. Free form.

    32. A 45-year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or c Impalpable pulses in the feet, besides c gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as, follows: ,
    Parameters

    Fasting

    1 hr

    2hr

    Blood glucose[mg/dl]

    155

    270

    205

    Urine glucose

    -ve

    +++

    ++

    Ketone bodies

    -ve

    -ve

    -ve

    Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned’case:

    1. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes me.llitus. .
    2. She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
    3. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation.
    4. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.

    33. A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptives tor many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression. irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dl. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and

    cholesterol in serum.

    All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except:

    1. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion. .
    2. Neurological symptoms by decreased -I synthesis of biogenic amines.
    3. Decreased hemoglobi11level.
    4. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level.

    34. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum ?

    1. Inositol triphosphate.
    2. Parathyroid hormone.
    3. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol. .;
    4. Diacyl glycerol. .

    35. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body’s ability to handle oxidative stress?

    1. Calcium.
    2. Iron.
    3. Potassium.
    4. Selenium. .

    36. In which of the following conditions the ~ level of creatinine kinase-l increases ?

    I. Myocardial Ischemia..
    2. Brain Ischemia.
    3. Kidney damage.
    4. Electrical cardioversion.

    37. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to:

    I. Clathrin. .
    2. Pepsin.
    3. Laminin.
    4. Ubiquitin. .

    38. Which of the following can be a homologous . substitution for valine in hemoglobin?

    I. Isoleucine.-
    2. Glutamic acid.-.
    3. Phenylalanine.
    4. Lysine.

    39. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?

    I. Proteases.
    2. Proteosomes.
    3. Templates.
    4. Chaperone~

    40. C)rtochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins?

    I. Quaternary structure.-.
    2. Tertiary structure.
    3. Amino acid sequence..-
    4. Loop and turn segments.

    41. A highly.ionized drug:

    1. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys..
    2. Crosses the placental barrier easily.
    3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
    4. Is highly protein bound.

    42. The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:

    I. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect.
    2. Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant eff~ct. ./ 3. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity. .
    4. Presence of H. influenza type B component increases its immunogenicity.

    43. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except:

    I. To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015.
    2. To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births.
    3. To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate ; to 100 per 100,000 live births-
    4. 100 percent registration of births deaths, marriages and pregnancies.

    44. The following statements are true about Intra uterine devices (IUD) except:

    I. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD.
    2. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu- T 200 are similar. â€
    3. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days.
    4. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years.

    45. All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except:

    1. Latent period.
    2. Period of communicability.
    3. Serial interval.
    4. Generation time.

    46. “Five clean practices†under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except:

    1. Clean surface for delivery.
    2. Clean hand of the attendant.
    3. New blade for cutting the cord.
    4. Clean airway.

    47. The current recommendation for breast- feeding is that:

    1. Exclusive. breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
    2. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods. .
    3. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days.
    4. The baby should be allowed to breast- feed till one year of age.

    48. According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below:

    1. 1%.
    2. 5%.
    3. 8%.
    4. l0%.

    49. The following statements about breast milk are true except:

    I. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months. .
    2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%.
    3. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow’s milk.
    4. It provides about 65 K cals per I 00 ml.

    50. All of the following statements about leprosy are true except:

    I. MultibacilIary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches.
    2. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy.
    3. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment tor 6 months or more.
    4. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than I per 10,000 population.

    51. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was 5 introduced following the recommendation of;

    1. Srivastava Committee..
    2. Bhore Committee.
    3. Kartar Singh Committee.
    4. Mudaliar Committee.

    52. The usefulness of a ’screening test’ in a community depends on its:

    I. Sensitivity. .
    2. Specificity.
    3. Reliability.
    4. redictive value. .

    53. It the grading of diabetes is classified as “mild,’ ‘.moderate†and .’severe†the scale of measurement used is;

    1. Interval.
    2. Nominal. . .;
    3. Ordinal. ..
    4. Ratio.

    54. If preval~ce of diabetes is 10%, the ~ty that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:

    I. 0.01.
    2. 0.03.
    3.0.001..
    4. 0.003.

    55. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence

    of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:

    1. Cross-sectional study.
    2. Retrospective cohort study.
    3. Concurrent cohort study.
    4. Case-control study.

    56. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is:

    1. Mass Miniature Radiography. .
    2. Sputum examination..
    3. Tuberculin Test.
    4. Clinical examination.

    57. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre . She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to:

    1. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain [0 her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she deiivers in [he meantime.t
    2. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnan~y.
    3. Given one dose ofTT and explain that it \V'ill not be useful for this pregnancy.
    4. Give her anti-[etanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine.

    58. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the follo\V'ing except: ,

    1. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption. .
    2. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 per cent of caloric intake.
    3. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake.
    4. Reduction of cholesteTol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day.

    59. Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except:

    1. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies.
    2. Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services.
    3. Reduce [he under five mortality to half.
    4. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections.

    60. A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?

    1. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia.
    2. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care.
    3. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens.
    4. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose ofan antibiotic. .

    61. A 3 Y2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the . following is the best vaccination advice to such a child ?

    1. BCG, DPT h OPV h and DPT 2, OPV 2 after 4 weeks. .
    2. BCG, DT h OPV h measles, vitamin A.
    3. BCO, DPT1, OPVh measles, vitamin A.
    4. DT h DT 2 and booster after I year.

    62. The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the population being tested:

    Screening Disease Z Total Test

    Results Yes No

    Positive 400 200 600

    Negative 100 600 700 Total 500 800 1300

    } The specificity of the screening test is :

    J 1. 70%. \ 2. 75%. 3. 79%. 4. 86%.

    63. If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:

    1. Original std. Deviation x 10..
    2. Originalstd. Deviation/lO.
    3. Original std. Deviation -10.
    4. Original std. Deviation it self.

    64. Arlt's line is seen in:

    tSi' ernal keratoconjunctivitis.
    2. rygium.
    3. Oc lar pemphigoid.
    4. Trachoma",

    65. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mmHg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be:

    1. Symmetrical.
    2. Positively skewed.
    3. Negatively skewed. I
    4. Either positively or negatively skewed, depending on the Standard deviation.

    66. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year . Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermo- epidermal junction. The most probable

    diagnosis is:

    1. Pemphigus vulgaris.
    2. Bullous pemphigoid./
    3. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
    4. Nummular eczema.

    67. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Fixed drug erllption.
    2. Lichen planus.
    3. Urticaria pigmentosa~
    4.. Urticarial vasculitis.. !

    68. A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:

    1. Seborrheic dermatitis.
    2. Atopic dermatitis.""'
    3. Airborne contact dermatitis.
    4. Nummular dermatitis.

    69. All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except :

    1. Breast milk.
    2. Insect bite.""
    3. Transplacental spread.
    4. Droplet infection.

    70. Contre-coup injuries are seen in:

    I. Brain.+
    2. Heart.
    3. Liver. .
    4. Pancreas.

    71. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding oUt base deficit /access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood'?

    I. Red ford nomogram.
    2. DuBio's nomogram.
    3. Goldman constant field equation.
    4. Siggaard-Andersen nomogram.'./

    72. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all the following chemical tests for blood excep~:

    I. Benzedine test.
    2. Phenophthalein test.
    3. Orthotoluidine test.
    4. Teichmann's test.

    73. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except:

    I. Blood grouping.
    2. m..A typing.
    3. Preciptin test"
    4. DNA fingerprinting.

    74. In which of the following conditions post- mortem caloricity may be seen in death due to:

    I. Massi ve haemorrhage.
    2. Cyanide poisoning.
    3. Corrosive poisoning.
    4. Septicemia. ./

    75. Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by:

    I. Potassium cyanide.
    2. Phophorus.
    3. Aniline dyes.
    4. Carbon monoxide.

    76. A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:

    I. Grievous. t'
    2. Simple./
    3. Dangerous.
    4. Serious.

    77. A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is:

    I. Alcohol intoxication.
    2. Carbamates poisoning.
    3. Organophosphorous poisoning.-
    4. Datura poisoning./

    78. A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped trom the jail. A'dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is .the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by:

    1. Blood Grouping.
    2. DNA Profile.
    3. Anthropometry...
    4. ll.A typing.

    79. Which of the fol1owin!! is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level ?

    1. Cavett's test.
    2. Breath alcohol analyzer.
    3. Gas liquid chromatography.
    4. Thin layer chromatography.

    80. The cephalic index of Indian population is between:

    I. 70-75.
    2. 75-80.
    3. 80-85.01
    4. 85-90.

    81. A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateralconductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigation~ reveal total leukocyte count I2()()()/mm , red cell casts in the urine and I2,()()()/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?

    I. Henoch -Schonlein purpura.
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
    3. Wegener's granulomatosis.
    4. Disseminated tuberculosis.

    82. A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the fol1owing investigations will be useful in differential

    diagnosis except:

    1. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood.
    2. Serum ACE levels.
    3. CECT of chest.
    4. Gallium scan.

    83. A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on 88. treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except:

    1. Weight gain of 5 kg.
    2. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L.
    3. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 ~g/dL.
    4. Lymphadenopathy.

    84. A known sputum positive pulmonary 89 tuberculosis patient currently on INH, . rifampicin, p}Tizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100/~ and viral load was more th-an 50,000 copies/mI. Which of the following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided:

    I. Indinavir.
    2. amlvu in.
    3. Ritonavir.
    4. Efavirenz. .

    85. An 18-yr-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is: 91.

    1. Wegener's granulomatosis.
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
    3. Takayasu's arteritisv
    4. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

    86. A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenolThoea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis ? 92.

    1. Turner syndrome~
    2. Stein-Leventhal syndrome~
    3. Premature ovarian failure)
    4. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.

    87. A 28-year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years ), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrohoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 93. mm ofHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation ?

    1. Serum electrolytes.
    2. Plasma cortisol. .
    3. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis.
    4. T3, T4 and TSH.

    88. A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm I sI hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?

    1. Nutritional rickets.
    2. Renal rickets. "
    3. Hyperparathyroidism
    4. Skeletal dysplasia.

    89. All of the following are associated with low ~ complement levels except: ! 1

    I. Lupus nephritis.
    2. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis.
    3. Diarrhea-associatedhemolytic uremic !syndrome.
    4. Post-intections glomerulonephritis.

    90. All are true regarding idiopathil: edema of women except:

    1. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention.
    2. It is not related to menstrual cycles.J
    3. There is increased water retention in upright position.
    4. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some ;

    91. Estimation of the follo"wing hormones is 1 useful while investigating a case of j gynaecomastia except: !

    1 I. Testosterone.
    2. Prolactin.
    3. Estradiol.
    4. Luteinizing hormone.

    92. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as: :

    I. Jod -Basedow effect..
    2. Wolff-Chaikoff effect. ..
    3. Thyrotoxicosis factitia.
    4. de Quervain's thyroiditis. 1

    93. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is I characterized by the presence of all the Ifollowing except:

    I. Red cell casts.
    2. Acanthocytes.
    3. Crenated red cells.
    4. Dysmorphic red cells.

    94. Which one of the following is true regarding i HIV infection:

    I. Following needle stick injury infectivity f is reduced by administration of ~ nucleoside analogues.
    2. C?4 counts are the best predictors of , disease progression.
    3. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients.
    4. In latent phase HIV is minimal replication.

    95. All of the following are true about amiodarone induced thyroid dysfunction except:

    I. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas. v
    2. Hypothyroidism is more common in men.
    3. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity.
    4. Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of serum T 4 levels.

    96. All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except:

    I. Pulsus paradoxus.
    2. Diastolic coilapse of right ventricle on - echocardiogram.
    3. Electrical altemans.
    4. Kussmaul.s sign.,

    97. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except:

    1"" L.. aptopn .
    3. Methyldopa.
    4. Hydralazine.

    98. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral steno~is with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was:

    1. Verapamil.
    2. Digoxin.
    3. Grvedilol.
    4. Propranolol.

    99. The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is:

    .T:.
    2~ .01.
    3. TSH.J
    4. Thyroglobulin.

    100. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of:

    1. Iron deficiency anemia.
    2. Anemia of chronic disease.
    3. Hemochromatosis..;
    4. Lead poisoning.

    101. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC'is most likely characterized by:

    1. Significant numbers of schistocytes.
    2. A brisk reticulocytosis..
    3. Decreased coagulation factor levels.,
    4. Significant thrombocytopenia.

    102. A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Acute pyogenic meningitis.
    2. Herpes simplex encephalitis.
    3. Neurocysticercosis.
    4. Carcinomatous meningitis..t

    103. A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of Mees. lines in the nails :md rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is:

    1. Lead.
    2. A1.senic/
    3. Thallium.
    4. Mercury.

    104. A 10 month old child presents with two weeks. history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:

    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    2. Cryp.tococcus neofonnans.
    3. Listeria monoc.yto,genes.
    4. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    105. All are the features of absence seizures except:

    1. Usually seen in childhood.
    2. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG.
    3. Postictal confusion. J
    4. Precipitation by hyperventilation.

    106. All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except:

    1. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.
    2. Acute intermittent porphyria../
    3. Lead intoxication.
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    107. The first investigation of choice in a patient I with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage r~; should be: ,

    1. Non-contrast computed tomography~
    2. CSF examination.
    3. Magnetic resonance imaging(MRI).
    4. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography.

    108. A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and ~ hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis:

    1. Hb electrophoresis. .
    2. Peripheral smear examination.
    3. Osmotic fragility test.
    4. Bone marrow examination

    109. A 5 year old child presents with history of i'Ji fever off-and-on for past 2 weeks and -C" petechial spots allover the body and f~ increasing pallor for past I month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely ,,:j: diagnosis is:

    1. Acute leukemia.
    2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
    3. Hypersplenism. .
    4. Aplastic anemia.

    110. A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe Pallor. Investigations showed Hb -3.8 gm %; MCV-:- 58 fl; MCH -19.4 pg/ cell. Blood film shows osmatic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Iron deficiency anemia.
    2. Acute lymphoblastic anFmia.
    3. Hemoglobin D disease
    4. Hereditary spherocytosis:

    III. A 20 year-old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent:

    1. O 157:H7{ 2. O 159:H7. 3. O 107:H7. 4. O 55:H7.

    112. Haemophilus injluenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a two-year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-Iactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation is:

    1. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination"
    2. Ciprofloxacin.
    3. Third-generation cephalosporin.
    4. Vancomycin.

    113. A 30 year-old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic. occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount -- from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:

    I. Listeria lIlonocytogenes..J
    2. Corynebacterium sp.
    3. Enterococcus sp.
    4. EI)'sipelothri.\ rhusiopathiae.

    114. The most common agent associated with .neonatal bacterial meningitis is:

    I. Haelllophilus injluenzae type b.
    2. Neisseria lIleningitidis.
    3. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    4. Streptococcus agalactiae.

    115. In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except:

    1. Vibrio cholerae.
    2. Shigella sp.
    3. Vibrio parahaelllolyticus.
    4. Staphylococcus aureus.

    116. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:

    1. Hepatitis B virus.
    2. Hepatitis C virus.
    3. Hepatitis E virus./
    4. Hepatitis A virus.

    117. An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrahges. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis:

    I. Herpes simple_, virus.
    2. Human herpes virus 8.
    3. Cytomegalovirus. ,/
    4. Epstein-Barr(EB) vints.

    118. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except:

    I. Myocarditis. 2. Pleurodynia. . 3. Herpangina. 4. Hemorrhagic fever. ../

    119. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?

    I. Yellow fever is endemic in India.
    2. Dengue virus has only one serotype;
    3. Kyasanur Forest dise'Jse (KFD) is transmitted by ticW
    4. Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever .

    120. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except:

    1. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen.
    2. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings.
    3. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture.1
    4. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) andibodies in a single serum specimen.

    121. All of the following statements are true regarding potiovirus except:

    I. It is transmitted by feco-oral route.
    2. Asymptomatic infections are common in children.
    3. There is a single serotype causing infectiorfl:'
    4. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity.

    122 An infant develops cough and fever. The X- ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except:

    1. Parainfl[tenza viruses.
    2. Influenza virus A.
    3. Respiratory syncytial virus.
    4. Mumps virus.

    123. Which of the following viruses is common cause of viral encephalitis ?

    1. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
    2. Japanese encephalitis virus.
    3. Nipah virns.
    4. Cytomegalovirus

    24. A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the Ist day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion I year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of r3- haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent ?

    1. Streptococcus pyogenes.
    2. Streptococcus agalactiae. .;
    3. Peptostreptococci.
    4. Enterococcus faecium.

    25. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by anew resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely' combination that was given?

    1. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
    2. Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
    3. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
    4. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin.

    126. A farmer presenting with fever'Off-and-on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except:

    1. Standard Agglutination test.
    2. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test.
    3. Complement fixation test.
    4. Coomb's test..I

    127. A man, after. skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is:

    1. Clostridilt/1l tetani.
    2. Listeria monocytogenes.
    3. Bacillus anthracis. .;
    4. Actinomyces sp.

    128. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis:

    1. Cholera toxin.
    2. Shiga toxin.
    3. Pertussis toxin}
    4. LT ofenterotoxigenic E.coli.

    129. A 20 years old ma.le patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows ~m vegative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for cuiture wouid be:

    1. Thayer-Martin Medium."'
    J 2. Blood agar with X & V factors.
    3. Chocolate agar with isovitale X.
    4. Tellurite blood agar .

    130. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except:

    1. CFA-l. 2. P1- Pili. 3. CS-2. 4. K88.

    131. All of the following conditions are risk factor fL)r urinary tract infections in pregnancy except:

    1. Diabetes mellitus.
    2. Hypertension../
    3. Sickle cell disease..
    4. Vesicoureteral reflux.

    132. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester?

    1. Hepatitis B virus.~
    2. Syphilis.
    3. Toxoplasmosis.
    4. Rubella.,}

    133. All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except:

    1. Prostaglandin E2. "
    O. _.xytocm.
    3. Progesterone.~
    4. Misoprostol.

    134. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except:

    1. Biparietal diameter. -
    2. Head cirumference.
    3. Transcerebellar diameter.,
    4. Femer length.

    135. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogens in post menopausal women except:

    I. Reduces fracture rates."'
    2. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia.
    3. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis.
    4. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma.

    136. Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of preghancy is:

    I 63 days
    2. 70 days
    3. 88 days.
    4. 120 days.

    137. Anti-D prophylaxis should be 'given in all of ~ the following conditions except:

    1."Medicai abortion for 63 days pregnancy.
    2. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks.
    3. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks.
    4. Manual removal of Placenta.

    138. A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by cesarean section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula ?

    I. Urethr'..)vaginal.
    2. Vesico-vaginaJ..
    3. (Vesico-uterine.
    4. Uretero uterine.

    139. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 week of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome

    I. Triple screen test.
    2. Amniocentesis.
    3. Chorionic villous biopsy.
    4. Ultrasonography

    140. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:

    I. Direct fluorescent antibody test.
    2. Enzyme immunoassay.
    3. Polymerase chain reaction.
    4. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells

    141. A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by:

    I. intravenous frusemide.
    2. Saline infusion.
    3. Amniocentesis.
    4. Artificial rupture of membranes.

    42. The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is: ,,;'

    I. Suprapubic needle aspiration.'
    2. Midstream clean catch.
    3. Foley's catheter.
    4. Sterile speculum.

    43. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility ", and hirsuitism ?

    I. Polycystic ovaries.
    2. Endometriosis.
    3. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
    4. Turner's Syndrome.

    44. Screening by using maternal seru fetoproteins helps to detect all following except:

    I. Neural tube defects.
    2. Duodenal Artesia.
    3. Talipes equinovarus:.
    4. Omphalocele.

    45. Which of the following is not an indic Amiphosphoiipid anribody resring:

    I. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnanc)' losses.
    2. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents.
    3. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia.
    4. Gestational Diabetes.,

    146. A fifty year oid woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals a ulcerative growth in pyloric region of o stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:

    I. Malignant ovarian tumor
    2. Carcinoma in the small intestine.
    3. Carcinoma body uterus.
    4. Carcinoma stomach with Krukenberg's ./ tumor.

    47. Which ~f the following t~sts ?n. m~ter~al ~ serum IS most useful In dIstInguIshIng '"'~._, between open neural tube defects and ventral 1~. wall defects in a fetus? ,

    I. Carcinoembryo antigen.
    2. Sphingomyelin.
    3. Alpha-feto prote~
    4. Pseudocholinesterase.

    48. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy'?

    I, Serum iron.
    2, Serum ferritin.
    3, Serum transferrin.
    4. Serum iron binding ca~acity.

    49. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?

    I. Atrophic vaginitis:J
    2. Candidal vaginitis.
    3. Trichomonas vaginitis,
    4. Gardnerella vaginitis.

    50. Which is the most chemotherapeutic agent in Leiomyosarcoma '?

    I. Adriamycinl 2. Doxorubicin. 3. Methotrexate. 4. Cisplatin.

    51. In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between containing clear fluid. This condition is called as :

    I. Delayed union.
    2. Slow union.
    3. Non union.
    4. Pseudarthrosis. .

    52. All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except :

    I. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon.
    2. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy(RSD).
    3. Carpal tunnel syndrome.
    4. Carpal instability. .

    53. In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following situations except :

    I. Old ununited fractures.
    2. Non-articular fracture.
    3. Fracture e.xtending to coronoid process.
    4. Elderly patient.

    54. Aseptic loosening in cemented total hip replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response to :

    I. Titaneum debris.
    2. High density polythene debris. .
    3. N, N- Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)~
    4. Free radicals.

    155. Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of the following parts of the vertebra except:

    I. Body.
    2. Lamina.
    3. Spinous process. .,
    4. Pedicle.

    156. An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:

    I. Burger's disease.
    2. Gout.
    3. Lumbar canal stenosis.
    4. Stress fracture. ...

    157. In which of the following locations there is collection of pus in the quinsy?

    I. Peritonsillar space..
    2. Parapharyngeal space.
    3. Retropharyngeai space.
    4. Within the tonsil.

    158. Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise from :

    1. Mucous glands.
    2. Sebaceous glands. "
    3. Taste buds.
    4. Minor salivary glands.

    159. Which of the follo\\ing statements best represents Bel.1's paralysis ?

    1. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis.
    2. Combined paralysis of the facial, Trigeminal, and abducens nerves.
    3. Idiopathic ipsiiateral paralysis of the facial nerve::'
    4. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye.

    160. Meniere's disease is characterized by:

    1. Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus.
    2. Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache.
    3. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache.
    4. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss.

    161. For which of the fo1.1owing diseases the enzyme replacement therapy is available ?

    1. Albinism. .
    2. Niemann-Pick disease.
    3. Metachromatic leukodystrophy.
    4. Gaucher disease.

    162. Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?

    1. Triple tes/,
    2. a-fetoprotein.
    3. Karyotyping.
    4. 13-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

    163. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by all of the following except:

    1. Chronic sinopulmonary disease.
    2. Decreased levels of a-fetoprotein.../
    3. Chromosomal breakage.
    4.. IgA deficiency.

    164. Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months- 12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except:

    1. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
    2. Neisseria meningitidis.
    3. Hemophilus injluenzae type B.
    4. Listeria monoc)'togenes..;

    165. All of the following are neural tube defects except:

    1. Myelomeningocele. !
    2. Anencephaly. !
    3. Encephalocele:
    4. Holoprosencephaly,!

    166. All of the following can cause a white pupillary reflex e~ept:

    I. Retinoblaston:ta. ..1
    2. Cataract. 1
    3. Retrolental fibroplasia.
    4. Glaucoma.1/

    167. Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except:

    1. Chronic renal failure.
    2. Hypothyroidism.
    3. Protein energy malnutrition(PEM).
    4. Congenital adrenal hyperplasial

    168. All of the following are ~ssential features of attention deficit hyperactivity disease(ADHD) except:

    1. Lack of concentration.
    2. Impulsivity.
    3. Mental retardation. .
    4. Hyperactivity. !

    169. A two-month old child is able to:

    1. Showa positive parachute protective reflex.
    2. Hold head steady in a seated position.
    3. Lift head and chest off a flat surface with extended elbows.
    4. Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral suspension.

    170. One intern calculated the concentration of 02 in blood as 0.0025 mVml of blood. Considering atmospheric pressure as 760mm Hg, how much approx. O2 tension could have been in the blood?

    1. 40 mmHg. 2. 60 mmHg. 3. 80 mmHg. 4. 100 mmHg.

    171. Drug implicated for prolonging a premature baby is:

    1. Domperidone.
    2. Metoclopramide.
    3. Cisapride.J
    4. Omeprazole.

    172. A iO-month-old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child ? "'

    I. 2 lakh units intramuscular (IM) on day 0, 14. J
    2. I lakh units IM on day 0, 14.
    3. 2 lakh units IM on day 0, land 14.J
    4. 1 lakh units IM on day 0, I and 14.

    173. A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labor. Therapy \\ith anienatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus m!lY be given in all of the following conditions except:

    1." Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hr.
    2. Pregnancy-induced hypertension.
    3. Diabetes mellitus. ./
    4. Chorioamnionitis.

    174. Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a ~ treatment for all except: '.

    1. Osteopetrosis':
    2. Adrenoleukodystrophy.
    3. Hurler's syndrome.
    4. Hemochromatosis.

    175. Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except:

    1. Hodgkin's disease.v
    2. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
    3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
    4. Multiple myeloma.

    176. HBAIC level in blood explains :

    1. Acute rise of sugar .
    2. Long term status of blood sugar .
    3. Hepatorenal syndrome.
    4. Chronic pancreatitis.

    177. Which of the following about hapten ?

    1. It induces brisk immune response.
    2. It needs carrier to induce immune response. J
    3. It is a T-independent Antigen.
    4. It has no association with MHC.

    178. To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong ?

    1. Kinin system.
    2. Cytokines.,.
    3. Chemokine&V
    4. Arachidonic acid metabolites.

    179. The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane is :

    1. Laminin. '
    2 . 1 ronectln.
    3. Collagen type 4: J
    4. Heparan sulphate.

    180. Which of the following is,\ procoagulation protein ?

    1. Thrombomodulin.
    2. Protein C.
    3. Protein S.
    4. Thrombin../

    181. To which of the following events the good outcome in Neuroblastoma is associated with ;

    1. Diploidy.
    2. N-myc amplification.
    3. Chromosome I p deletion.
    4. Trk A expression,r

    182. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant metabolic disorder ?

    1. Cystic fibrosis.
    2. Phenylketoniria.
    3. a-l antitrypsin deficiency.
    4. Familial hypercholesterolemi.

    183. The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's disease :

    I. Neurofibrillary tangles.
    2. Senile {neuritic) plaques.
    3. Amyloid angiopathy.
    4. Lewy bodies)

    184. Which/of the following is an antiapoptotic gene 1

    I. C-myc.
    2. P53.
    3. bcl-2.
    4. bax.

    185. Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome {MDS) ?

    I. Trisomy 8.
    2. 2Oq -~
    3. 5q.
    4. monosomy 7.

    186. All of the following are the good prognostic features for Hodgkin's disease except :

    I. Haemoglobin > 109/dl.
    2. WBC count < 15000/mm3.
    3. Absolute lymphocyte count <600/ul.
    4! Age <45 yrs.

    187. All of the following statements are true about sickle cell disease except :

    I. Patient may require frequent blood transfusions.
    2. Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before 3 years of age.
    3. There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and polymerization ofHbS.
    4~atient presents early in life before .6 months of age.

    188. Which of the following gene defects is associated with development of Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid ?

    1. Ret proto Oncogene.
    2. F AP gene.
    3. Rb gene.
    4. BRCA I gene.

    189. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is:

    1. Tongue.
    2. Floor of mouth.
    3. Alveobuccal complex.
    4. Lip.

    190. The most common histologic type of Thyroid cancer is :

    1. Medullary tYP7.
    2. Follicular tYPe.
    3. Papillary type.
    4. Anaplastic type.

    191. A 40 year old man presented with painless haematuria. Bimnual examination revealed a ballottable mass over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done and. the mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage ~.Dd necrosis were frequent. Cytogenetic anal'YSlSof this mass is likely to reveal the abnormality of :

    1. Chromosome I.
    2. Chromosome 3.
    3. Chromosome 11.'
    4. Chromosome 17.

    192. A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic ! examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal :

    1. Edema in between normal myofibres.
    2. Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils. v
    3. Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue.
    4. Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages.

    193. Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic Atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltraton by Anaplastic cells, which are also present in the papillary and reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is :

    1. Melanoma, Clark level IV.~
    2. Congenital melanocytic nevus.
    3. Dysplastic nevus.
    4. Melanoma, Clark level III.

    194. Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ from those in ceroid histiocytosis by staining positive for :

    I. Lipids.
    2. Phospholipids.
    3. Acid fast stain.
    4. Iron.

    195. All of the following statements about Hairy cellleukaeumia are true except :

    1. Splenomegaly is conspicuous.
    2.,1 Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes.
    3. Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP).
    4. The cells express CD25 consistently.

    196. A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional lability has a golden brown discoloration of Descement's membrane. The most likely diagnosis is :

    1. Fabry's Disease.
    2. Wilson Disease. v
    3. Glycogen storage disease.
    4. Acute rheumatic fever .

    197. Serum C3 is persistently low in the following . except:

    1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
    2. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
    3. Lupus nephritis.../
    4. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis.

    198. Persistent vomiting most likely causes :

    1. Hyperkalaemia.
    2. Acidic urint: ex.l:retion.
    3. Hypochloraemia.v
    4. Hyperventilation.

    199. A 70 year old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years presents with a six months history of a large, fungating, soft papaillary lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show benign appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the subjacent tissues. The most likely diagnosis is :

    1. Squamous cell papilloma.
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma~
    3. Verrucous carcinoma.
    4. Malignant mixed tumour.

    200. An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (lgG levels 1.5g/dl). Bone ~. marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The ~ most likely diagnosis is: ;.\

    1. Multiple myeloma.
    2. Indolent myeloma
    3. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance.
    4. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.

    201. All of the following anticancer agents cause bone marrow depression except:

    1. Chlorambucil.
    2. Daunorubicin.
    3. Doxorubicin.
    4. Flutamide../

    202. Morphine can be used in conditions except:

    1. Head injury.
    2. Asthma..
    3. Hypothyroidism.
    4. Diabetes.1

    203. Clinically significant drug interaction occurs Detween pyridoxine and all the following drugs except:

    1. Isoniazid.
    2. Cyclosporine.
    3. Levodopa..
    4. Hydralazine..

    204. All of the following statements about an alpha- glucosidase inhibitor are true except:

    1. Reduces intestinal absorption of carbohydrates.
    2. Effe{;tive in both type I and 2 diabetes mellitus.
    3. ~ypoglycerI1ia is a common and serious sIde effect.
    4. Can be used with other oral hypoglycemic agents.

    205. Which one of the following statements about biguanides is not true?

    I. Do not stimulate insulin release.
    2. Decrease hepatic glucose production.
    3. Renal dysfunction is. not a contraindication for their use.
    4. Can be combined with sulfonylureas.

    206. Which of the following statements is not true about tacrolimus?

    I. It is a macrolide antibiotic:
    2. It is indicated for the prophylaxis of." organ transplant rejection.
    3. Glucose intolerance is a well recognized side effect. ..
    4. It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug...{

    207. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except:

    1. Acute decompensated heart failure.
    2. Hypotension.
    3. Hypertension.
    4. Erectile dysfunction.

    208. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of chronic amiodarone therapy:

    I. Pulmonary fibrosis.
    2. Hypothyroidism.
    3. Hyperthyroidism. -'
    4. Systemic lupus erythematosus.

    209. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drugs ethical clearance is not required?

    1. Phase J..I 2. Phase II. 3. Phase III. 4. Phase IV.

    210. Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.?

    1. Zalcitabine. 2. Lamivudine.1 3. Nevirapine. 4. Didanosine.

    2.1I. Which of the followingantimicrobiaIs has antipseudomonal action:

    1. Cefpodoxime proxetil. ,
    2. Ceforanide.
    3. Cefot.etan.l
    4. Cefoperazone.

    212. Which of the following statements is not true regarding sultonamides:

    1. Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastro intestinal tract.
    2. Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration.
    3. Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus.
    4. Sulfonamides are of value in treatme!}t of infections due to Nocardia species.

    213. Which of the following does not bind to GABA receptor chloride channels ?

    1. Ethanol.
    2. Alphaxolone.
    3. Zolpidem.
    4. Buspirone:

    214. A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this combination incorrect:

    1. Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action.
    2. Combination of these two drugs produces serious side effects like agranulocytosis.
    3. Ranitidine decreases the gast7c pH so sucralfate is not able to act.
    4. Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine.

    215. A 30 year old pregnant woman developed tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs should not be used:

    1. INH.
    2. Rifampicin.
    3. Streptomycin.
    4. Ethambutol.

    216. Which of the following tluoroquinolones does not require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of <50 mglmin. ?

    1. Ciprotloxacin. 2. Trovatloxacin. 3. Lometloxacin.,I' 4. Spartloxacin.

    217. Patients suffering from multidrug resistant tuberculosis can be treated with all the following drugs except:

    1. Tobramycin..I
    2. A.k._.ml acln.
    3. Ciprotloxacin.
    4. Clarithromycinr

    218. All the following statements regarding interactions of levodopa are correct except:

    1.( In parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy.
    2. It is a prodrug.
    3. Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
    4. Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential.

    219. Which of the following actions is ascribed to de.Jt.a type of opioid re{;eptors?

    1. Supraspinal analgesrs.
    2. Respiratory depression. /
    3.. Euphoria.
    4..lReduced intestinal motility.

    220. HAL is useful in treating poisoning due to all except:

    1. Lead.
    2. Organic mercury.
    3.-.JCadmium.
    4. Arsenic.

    221. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is:

    1. ./Glycine.
    2. Acetylcholine.
    3. Aspartate.
    4. Glutamate.

    222. During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the:

    I.'\\Beginning of systole.
    2..;End of isovolumetric contraction.
    3. End of diastole.
    4. End of diastasis.

    223. The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because:

    I. The plasma oncotic pressure is high.
    2. There is renal compensation.
    3. Increased cardiac output.
    4;; There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure.

    224. The consequences of Rh incompatibility are not serious during first pregnancy because:

    I. Antibodies are not able to cross placenta.
    2. Antibody titer is very low during primary immune response.
    3. IgG generated is ineffective against foetal red cells.
    4. Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoiesis.

    225. The biood in the vessels normally does IlOt clotbecause:

    I. Iitamin K antagonists are present in plasma.
    2. Thrombin has a positive feedback on piasminogen.
    3. Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions.
    4. Vascujar endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocaly.x.

    226. In right mjddle ear pathology Weber's test will be:

    I. Normal.
    2. Centraised.
    3. Lateraiised to right side.
    4. Lateralised to left side.

    227. The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the fOllowing except:

    I. Increasing the frequency of activation of 'motor UnIts.
    2. Increasing the number of motor units activated.
    3. Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons.
    4. Recruiting larger motor units.

    28. During acclimatization to high altitude all of the following take place except:

    I. Increase in minute ventilation.
    2. Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors.
    3. Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia.
    4. Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

    !29. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of:

    I. Neuromusculer junction.
    2. Sarcolemmal proteins.
    3
    4. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness.

    230. A 37 year old multipara construction labourer has a blood picture showing hypochromic anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:

    1. Iron deficiency.
    2. Folic deficiency.
    3. Malnutrition.
    4.v'Combined iron and folic acid deficiency.

    231. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:

    I. Shrug the shouiders.
    2.'1/ Raise the arm above the head on the affected side.
    3. Touch the opposite shoulder.
    4. Lift a heavy object from the ground.

    232. Sertoli cells have receptors for : .

    1. Inhibin.
    2. Luteinising hormone.
    3. Follicle stimulating hormone.
    4. Melatonin.

    233. Before the onset of puberty. the GnRH neurons are under the inhibitory control of:

    1.Glycine.
    2.uGlutamate.
    3. Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA).
    4. Beta-endorphin.

    234. The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as:

    I. Choroid plexus.
    2. .Tuberal plexus.
    3. Pampiniform plexus.
    4. Pectiniform septum.

    235. The enzyme associated with the conversion of ;: androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian , follicle is:

    1. Desmolase.
    2. Isomerase.
    3. Aromatase
    4. Hydroxylase.

    236. MS. B, a 27-year-old nurse had extracurricular interest in trekking and painting. She broke up relationship with her boy friend. Two months later she lost interest in her hobbies and was convinced that she would not be able to work again. She thought life was not worth living and has consumed 60 tablets of phenobarbitone to end her life. She is most likely suffering from:

    1. Adjustment disorder.
    2. Conversion disorder.
    3. Depressive disorder
    4. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

    237. Signs of organic brain damage are evident on: -

    1. Bender Gestalt Test.
    2. Rorschach Test.
    3. Sentence Completion Test
    4. Thematic Apperception Test.

    238. A 25-year old housewife came to the Psychiatry oul palienl d~parlmenl (OPD) complaining that her nose was longer than usual. She felt that her husband did not like her because of the deformity and had developed relationship with the neighboring girl. Further she complained that people made fun of her. It was not possible to convince her that there was no deformity. Her symptoms include:

    1. Delusion.
    2. Depersonalization.
    3. Depression.
    4. ' Hallucination.

    239. A 40-year old man presents to casualty with "'", history of regular and heavy use of alcohol for " ten years and morning drinking for one year . The last alcohol intake was three days back. There is no history of head injury or seizures. On examination, there is no icterus, sign of hepatic encephalopathy or focal neurological sign. The patient had coarse tremors, visual hallucinations and had disorientation to time. 4i

    " Which of the following is the best medicine to be prescribed for such a patient ?

    1. lazepam.
    2. Haloperidol.
    3. Imipramine.
    4. Naltrexone.

    240. A 30-year old unmarried woman from a low socio-economic status family believes that a rich boy st:aying in her neighborhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effort to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She. however. remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering from:

    I. Delusional disorder.
    2. Depression.
    3. Mania.
    4. Schizophrenia.

    241. A 39-year-old carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour he develops confusion. vomiting. and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the Emergency out patient. He should be given:

    1. Naloxone.
    2. Diazepam.
    3. Flumazenil.
    4. Ethyl alcohol.

    242. A 34-year-old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past ten years. One evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had tachycardia. shallow .breathing. constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Wh.ich of the following is the best treatment for him ?

    1. Buprenorphine. 2. Flumazenil. 3. Methadone. 4. Naloxone../

    243. The Non-REM (NREM) sleep is associated with:

    1. Frequent dreaming.

    2. Frequent penile erections. 3. Increased blood pressure. 4.INight terrors.

    244. A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at and talk about him. He is even scared of going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from:

    1. A.. .nxlety neurosis.
    2. Manic Depressive Psychosis.
    3. Adjustment reaction.
    4. Schizophrenia.

    245. A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in th
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    245. A 41 year old woman working as an Executive Director is convinced that the management has denied her promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work and manages the household. She is suffering from:

    1. Paranoid Schizophrenia..
    2. Late onset Psychosis.
    3. Persistent Delusional Disorder.
    4. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.

    246. A patient is suspected to have vestibular Shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is:

    1. Contrast enhanced CT scan.
    2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI(
    3. SPECT.
    4. PET scan.

    247. In scurvy all the following radiological signs are seen except:

    1. Pelican spur .
    2. Soap bubble appearance.
    3. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis.
    4. FrenkeI’s line.

    248. On radiography widened duodenal ‘C. loop with irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal barium series is most likely due to:

    I. Chronic pancreatitis.
    2. CarcInoma head of pancreas.
    3. Duodenal ulcer.
    4. Duodenal ileus.

    249. A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first:

    1. Pulmonary artery.
    2. Bronchial artery~
    3. Pulmonary vein.
    4. Superior vena cava.

    250. In which of the following a ‘Coeur en Sabot’ shape of the heart is seen: .

    I. Tricuspid atresia.
    2. Ventricular septal defect.
    3. Transposition of great arteries.
    4. Tetralogy of Fallot,

    51. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be:

    1. Lung Ventilation -pert’usion scan. ,
    2. PuLmonary arteriography.
    3. Pulmonary venous wedge angiography.
    4. Echocardiography.

    52. Which of the’following brain tumors does not spread via CSF’?

    1. Germ cell tumours.
    2. .Medulloblastoma.,
    3. CNS Lymphoma.
    4. Craniopharyngoma.

    53. Which of the following is not an indication of RT in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid:

    1. Invol vement of deep lobe.
    2. 2nd hisotolgically benign recurrence.
    3. Microscopically positive margins.
    4. Malignant transformation.

    54. Which of the following is the most penetration beam’?

    1. Electron beam.
    2. 8 MV photons.
    3. 18 MV photons..
    4. Proton beam.

    55. The radiation tolerance of whole liver is : .

    I. 15 Gy.
    2. 2OG.
    3. 40 Gy.
    4. 45 Gy.

    56. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is :

    I. Radiotherapy.
    2. Chemotherapy.
    3. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy.
    4. No treatment. .

    57. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?

    I. Head and neck.
    2. Stomach..
    3. Colon.
    4. Soft tissue sarcomas.

    258. A 55-year-old male presented with painless terminal hematuria. Cystoscopic examination revealed a solitary papillary tumor. Histopathological examination of completety resected tumor is suggestive of grade III transitional cell carcinoma with no muscle in.vasion. Further management of this patient is best done by:

    I. Just follow up.
    2. Intravesical chemotherapy.
    3. Intravesical BCG.
    4. Cystectomy!

    259. A 20-year-old male presented with chronic constipation, headache and palpitations. On examination he had marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated corneal nerve. . fibers and a nodule of 2×2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of:

    I. Sporadic medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
    2. Familial medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
    3. MEN IIA.
    4. MEN lIB.â€

    260. A 60-year-old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumour of 5×5 cm in upper lobe and I. . another 2×2 cm size tumour nodule in mjddle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is:

    1. Radiotherapy.
    2. Chemotherapy.
    3. Surgery.
    4.. Supportive treatment.

    261. Polychromatic luster is seen in:

    1. Complicated cataract:-
    2. Diabetes mellitus.
    3. Post radiation cataract.
    4. Congenital cataract.

    262. In which of the following conditions, severe : itching of the eye with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy with symptoms aggravating in summer season is most likely present?

    1. Trachoma. -
    2. Vernal keratoconjunct1 vitis.
    3. Acute conjunctivitis.
    4. Blepharitis.

    263. Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily acts by:

    I. Decreasing aqueous humour formation.
    2. Increasing uveoscleral outflow.
    3. Releasing pupillary block.
    4. Increasing trabecular outt1O\~

    264. Maximum densiy of goblet cells is seen in:

    I. Superior conjunctiva .
    2. Inferior conjunctiva.,
    3. Nasal conjunctiva.
    4. Temporal conjunctiva.

    265. The most common condition of inherited blindness due to mitochondri~1 chromosomal anomaly is:

    I. Retinopathyofprematurity.
    2. Leber’s Hereditary Optic neuropathyâ€!
    3. Retinitis pigmentosa.
    4. Retinal detachment.

    266. A two week old child presents with unilateral cataract. Which of the following statement represents the best management advice :

    I. The best age to operate him to g, the best visual results is four weeks.
    2. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four months.
    3. The best age to operate him to get the best visual results is four years.
    4. The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is required.

    267. “Photo dynamic therapy†is used in the eye for “vi the following disease:

    I. Cataract.
    2. Glaucoma.
    3. Uveitis.
    4. Wet A1\1D (Age related macular degeneration).

    268. .-\.Jl are ocular emergencies except:

    I. Angle closure glaucoma.
    2. Central serous retinopathy.
    3. Retinal detachment.
    4. Central retinal arterial occlusion.

    269. A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is:

    I. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.
    2. Buphthalmos.
    3. Congenital dacryocystitis!
    4. Encysted mucocele.

    270. Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated with Marfan’s syndrome:

    I. Microcornea.
    2. Microspherophakia.
    3. Megalocornea. ~
    4. Ectopia lentis

    271. All of the following are hormonal agents used against breast cancer except:

    I. Letrazole.
    2. Exemestane.
    3. Taxol.v
    4. Tamoxifen.

    272. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?

    I. Ceftriaxone.
    2. Ciprofloxacin.
    3. Doxycycline.
    4. Minocycline.

    273. Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around:

    I. 2 months of age.
    2. 6 months of age.’
    3. 12 months of age.
    4. 24 months of age.

    274. The short bowel syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

    I. Diarrhea.
    2. Hypogastrinemiaf
    3. Weight loss.
    4. Steatorrhoea.

    275. The Couinaud.s segmental nomenclatu based on the position of the:

    I. Hepatic veins and portal veirr!
    2. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts.
    3. Portal vein and biliary ducts.
    4. Porta! vein and hepatic anery.

    276. Regarding gas gangrene. one of the following is correct:

    I. ~t is d~e.to Clostridium Botulinum ~~,.~~â€(~ mfectlon. t
    2. Clostridial species are gram-negative ci; spore fonning anaerobes.
    3. The clinical features are due to the release of protein endotoxin. .
    4. Gas is invariably present in the muscle compartments.v

    277. In neonatal cholestasis, if the serum gama- ;:â€"â€" glutamyl-transpeptidase (gamma GTP) is 1t’4 more than 600 IU/L the most likely diagnosis -:21 IS:

    I. neonatal hepatitis.
    2. choledochal cyst.
    3. sclerosing cholangitis.
    4. biliaryatresia. ./

    278. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left.

    1. Atlanto-occipital joint.-
    2. Atlanto-axial jointv
    3. C2-C3 joint.
    4. C3-C4 joint.

    279. All of the following are significant risk factors for colonic carcinoma in an adenomatous polyp except :

    1. Pedunculated polyp.
    2. Villous histology.
    3. Size >2cm.
    4. .Atypia.

    280. In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site of obstruction in the portal system is in the:

    1. Hepatic vein.
    2. Post sinusoidal.
    3. Extra hepatic portal vein.
    4. Sinusoids.

    281. Which one of the following preservatives is used while packing catgut suture’?

    1. Isopropyl alcohol.J
    2. Colloidal iodine.
    3. Glutaraldehyde.
    4. Hydrogen peroxide.

    282. Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatraemia ?

    1. Gastric fistula.
    2. Excessive vomiting.
    3. Excessive Sweating. .
    4. Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration.

    283. In Budd Chiari syndrome. the site of venous thrombosis is:

    1. infrahepatic inferior vena cava.
    2. infrarenal inferior vena cava.
    3. hepatic veins
    4. portal vein.

    284. Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis?

    1. alcoholic pancreatitis.
    2. gall stone pancreatitis.
    3. post operative pancreatitis.
    4. idiopathic pancreatitis.

    285. Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except:

    1. Lung.
    2. Liver.
    3. Pancreas.
    4. Spleen. ,

    286. Chronically Iymphoedematous limb is predisposed to all of the following except:

    1. thickening of the skin.
    2. recurrent soft tissue infections.
    3. Marjolin’s ulcer. .
    4. sarcoma.

    287. The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is: “‘

    I. Jejunum.
    2. Ileum..
    3. Transverse colon.
    4. Sigmoid colon.

    288. Injection sclerotherapy is ideal for the following :

    1. External haemorrhoids. ,
    2. Internal haemorrhoids.
    3. Prolapsed haemorrhoids.
    4. Strangulated haemorrhoids.

    289. For a rectal carcinoma at 5cm from the anal verge the best acceptable operation is:

    1. Anterior resection.
    2. Abdomino-perineal resection. .
    3. Posterior resection.
    4. Local resection.

    290. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated with:

    1. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroidâ€
    2. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.
    3. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid.
    4. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid.

    291. Whi man

    1. Loss of diurnal variation.

    2. Increased ACTH.

    3. Increased plasma Cortisol.

    4. Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol.

    292. Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached through:

    I. Neck.o
    2. Chest.
    J 3. Combined cervico-thoracic route.
    4. Thoracoscopic.

    293. The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ~ ability equivalent to adult’s kidney by:

    I. One year of age.

    2. Eighteen months of age..

    3. Three to six months of age.

    4. Just before puberty. ;;1,T7

    294. A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be:

    i. Craniopharyngioma.
    2. Prolactinoma. ,
    3. Meningioma.
    4. Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage.

    295. Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower end of femur must include:

    I. Radiotherapy -amputation – chemothe.rapy. 2
    . Surgeryalone.
    3. Chemotherapy-limb salvage surgery- “, chemotherapy.
    4. Chemotherapy + radiotherapy.

    296. Which of the following is not a feature of acute pancreatitis?

    I. III defined outline of the pancreas.
    2. Enlargement of the pancreas.
    3. P()Qr contrast enhancement.
    4. Dilated main pancreatic duct. .

    297. The most common malignant tumor of adult males in india is:

    v I. Oropharyngeal carcinoma. .
    2. Gastric carcinoma.
    3. Colo-rectal carcinoma.
    4. Lung cancer .

    298. Which of the following is classic CT appearance of an acute Subdural hematoma:

    I. Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion.â€
    2. Cresent-shaped hypodenselesion.
    3. Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion.
    4. Lentiform-shaped hypodense lesion.

    299. The management of fat embolism includes all the following except:

    I. Oxygen.
    2. Heparinization.
    3. Low Molecular weight dextran.
    4. Pulmonary Embolectomy.

    300. First treatment of rupture of varicose veins at the ankle should be:

    I. Rest in prone position of patient.
    2. Application of a tourniquet proximally.
    3. Application of a tourniquet distally.
    4. Direct Pressure and Elevation. .
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    AIPPGE - 2005 previous Year Questions Paper

    AIPGE 2005 complete 300 Questions

    1. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
    1. In a difficult intubation
    2. In a cardiopulmonary resuscitation
    3. In a child undergoing an elective / routine eye surgery.
    4. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity.

    2. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
    1. Ketamine
    2. Ondansetron
    3. Propofol.
    4. Dexamethasone.

    3. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure:
    1. Sevoflurane
    2. Thiopentone sodium
    3. Lignocaine
    4. Propofol
    4. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:

    1. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)

    2. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)

    3. Pressure support ventilation (PSV)

    4. Assist – control ventilation (ACV)

    5. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are;

    1. Gram positive organisms

    2. Gram negative organisms

    3. Mycoplasma

    4. Virus infections

    6. A Lower Segment Caesarean Section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques anaesthesia except:

    1. General anaesthesia

    2. Spinal anaesthesia

    3. Caudal anaesthesia

    4. Combined Spinal Epidural

    7. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during anaesthesia is:

    1. Jackson Rees modification of Ayres T Piece.

    2. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit.

    3. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister.

    4. Bains circuit.

    8. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:

    1. Increased RV/TLC

    2. Reduced FEV1/FVC

    3. Reduced FEV25-75.

    4. Increased FRC.

    9. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?

    1. Ondansetron.

    2. Metoclopramide

    3. Sodium citrate.

    4. Atropine.

    10. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?

    1. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands.

    2. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids.

    3. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5 mg, Prednisolone daily.

    4. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks.

    11. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:

    1. Median Nerve.

    2. Flexor pollicis longus.

    3. Flexor carpi radialis.

    4. Flexor digitorum superficialis.

    12. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except;

    1. Femoral vein

    2. Inguinal ligament

    3. Femoral artery

    4. Lacunar ligament.

    13. All of the following statements regarding vas deference are true except:

    1. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla.

    2. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine.

    3. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring.

    4. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum.

    14. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:

    1. Carries secretomotor fibers to slubmandibular gland.

    2. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa

    3. Is a branch of facial nerve.

    4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

    15. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is?

    1. Xenograft

    2. Autograft

    3. Allograft

    4. Isograft.

    16. The type of joint between the sacrum and coccyx is a:

    1. Symphysis

    2. Syostosis

    3. Synchondrosis

    4. Syndesmosis

    17. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following geatures, except that it:

    1. Is the widest and most dilatable part.

    2. Presents a concavity posteriorly.

    3. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate.

    4. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall.

    18. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:

    1. Pubic rami

    2. Alae of ileum

    3. Acetabula

    4. Ischial tuberosities.

    19. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except;

    1. External iliac.

    2. Internal iliac.

    3. Superficial inguinal.

    4. Deep inguinal

    20. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except;

    1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.

    2. Calcification and ossification.

    3. Vasculogenesis and erosion.

    4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.

    21. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:

    1. Entire prostate gland.

    2. Lateral lobes.

    3. Median lobe.

    4. Posterior lobes.

    22. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:

    1. Internal iliac lymph nodes.

    2. Bulb of the penis.

    3. Prostate.

    4. Seminal vesicle when enlarged.

    23. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:

    1. Upper border of the rib.

    2. Lower border of the rib.

    3. In the center of the intercostals space.

    4. In anterior part of intercostals space.

    24. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as:

    1. Transduction.

    2. Transformation.

    3. Transcription.

    4. Integration.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 465, 55

    25. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:

    1. Interphase.

    2. Metaplase.

    3. G1 phase.

    4. Telophase.

    26. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:

    1. Hg A.

    2. Hg F.

    3. Hg B.

    4. Hg A2.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 134, Table 11.1

    27. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except:

    1. Intermediate filaments.

    2. Actin.

    3. Tubulin.

    4. Myosin.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 13

    28. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:

    1. Kidney.

    2. Liver

    3. Spleen

    4. Bone marrow.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 477 (you are free to have your answer)

    29. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:

    1. Myc.

    2. Fos.

    3. Ras.

    4. Rb.

    30. HIV can be detected and confirmed by:

    1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

    2. Reverse Transcriptase – PCR

    3. Real Time PCR

    4. Mimic PCR.

    Refer Harrison 15th Edition Chap 309

    31. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?

    1. CO2

    2. O2

    3. NO

    4. N2

    32. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:

    1. Adrenalin

    2. Growth Hormone.

    3. Insulin

    4. Thyroxine.

    33. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme:

    1. Glucokinase.

    2. Hexokinase.

    3. Enolase.

    4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 272

    34. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:

    1. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein.

    2. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase.

    3. Activation of GTPase.

    4. Active absorption of NaCl.

    Refer Ganong 19th Edition Page 42

    35. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells:

    1. Increased cell density.

    2. Increased requirement for growth factors.

    3. Alterations of cytoskeletal structures.

    4. Loss of anchorage.

    36. Osteoclasts are inhibited by:

    1. Parathyroid hormone.

    2. Calcitonin.

    3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.

    4. Tumor necrosis factor.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 507

    37. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:

    1. IgM antibodies.

    2. Lysozyme.

    3. Mast cells.

    4. IgA antibodies.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 397 (Lysozymes to cannot be ignored)

    38. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is:

    1. Ames test.

    2. Redox test.

    3. Bacteriophage.

    4. Gene splicing.

    39. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is:

    1. LD-1

    2. LD-2

    3. LD-3

    4. LD-5

    Refer Chaterjee 4th Edition Page 572 and 2nd Edition Pages 264 and 967

    40. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in:

    1. The synthesis of clotting factors.

    2. Post translational modifications.

    3. Antioxidant mechanisms.

    4. The microsomal hydroxylation reactions.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Pages 155 and 157

    41. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as:

    1. Ligases.

    2. Oxido-reductases.

    3. Transferases.

    4. Dipeptidases.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 111

    42. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in:

    1. Cell motility.

    2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.

    3. Exocytosis.

    4. Cell shape.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edition Page 29, Fig 1.26

    43. A highly ionized drug:

    1. Is excreted mainly by the kidney.

    2. Can cross the placental barrier easily.

    3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.

    4. Accumulates in the cellular lipids.

    Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 750

    44. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is:

    1. Lysine.

    2. Histidine.

    3. Tyrosine.

    4. Proline.

    Refer Harper 24th Edition Page 25

    45. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:

    1. Dissolved CO2

    2. Carbonic acid

    3. Carbamino-hemoglobin

    4. Bicarbonate.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 674

    46. ‘Endemic Dissease’ means that a disease:

    1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.

    2. Is constantly present in a given population group.

    3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.

    4. Is prevalent among animals.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 86

    47. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?

    1. Cause specific death rate.

    2. Case fatality rate.

    3. Standardized mortality ratio.

    4. Five year survival.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 52

    48. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?

    1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.

    2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.

    3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD.

    4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 289

    49. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:

    1. Tetracycline.

    2. Co-trimoxazole.

    3. Doxycycline.

    4. Furazolidone.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 181

    50. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella except:

    1. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth.

    2. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months.

    3. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract.

    4. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 128-129

    51. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:

    1. 1800

    2. 2100

    3. 2300

    4. 2900

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 461

    52. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except:

    1. Intermittent irrigation.

    2. Paris green.

    3. Gamusia affinis.

    4. Malathion.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 579

    53. All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases except:

    1. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals.

    2. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.

    3. It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.

    4. In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 95

    54. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders control programme is:

    1. Prevalence of goiter among school children.

    2. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women.

    3. Neonatal Hypothyroidism.

    4. Iodine level in soil

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 467 (I believe in Park !!)

    55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:

    1. Yellow.

    2. Black.

    3. Red.

    4. Blue.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 598

    56. WHO defines adolescent age between:

    1. 10-19 years of age.

    2. 10-14 years of age.

    3. 10-25 years of age.

    4. 9-14 years of age.

    Refer Nelson 15th Ed, Table 15.1

    57. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows.


    Test result
    Disease


    Present
    Absent

    +
    180
    400

    -
    20
    400



    What is the percent prevalence of disease?

    1. 0.20

    2. 2.

    3. 18.

    4. 20.

    58. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:

    1. Phosphatase test.

    2. Standard plate count.

    3. Coliform count.

    4. Methylene blue reduction test.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 477

    59. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:

    1. 27

    2. 30

    3. 33

    4. 36

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 317

    60. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:

    1. Bleeding

    2. Pain

    3. Pelvic infection

    4. Ectopic pregnancy.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 365

    61. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:

    1. Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity.

    2. Give ARV.

    3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.

    4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 220

    62. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg. and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:

    1. Very severe disease.

    2. Severe Pneumonia.

    3. Pneumonia.

    4. No Pneumonia.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 142 Table 4

    63. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?

    1. 1998

    2. 2000

    3. 2001

    4. 2003

    Refer the Act

    64. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in:

    1. 1996

    2. 1993

    3. 1998

    4. 1994

    Refer the Act

    65. Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power?

    1. Reward

    2. Coercive

    3. Legitimate.

    4. Efferent.

    Refer : Study Material for Training of Medical Officers – PHC

    66. The standard normal distribution:

    1. Is skewed to the left

    2. Has mean = 1.0

    3. Has standard deviation = 0.0

    4. Has variance = 1.0

    67. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min:

    1. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.

    2. The girls have healthy lungs.

    3. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.

    4. All the PEFR must be less than 340 1/min.

    68. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:

    1. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B)

    2. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B)

    3. Prob (A) = Prob (B)

    4. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1

    69. Total Cholesterol level = a+b (Calorie intake) + C (physical activity) +d (body mass index); is an example of:

    1. Simple linear regression

    2. Simple curvilinear regression

    3. Multiple linear regression

    4. Multiple logistic regression.

    70. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl:

    1. 9.0

    2. 10.0

    3. 2.0

    4. 1.0

    71. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:

    1. Sensitivity

    2. Specificity

    3. Positive predictivity

    4. Negative predictivity.

    72. Infant mortality does not include:

    1. Early neonatal mortality.

    2. Perinatal mortality.

    3. Post neonatal mortality.

    4. Late neonatal mortality.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page 415

    73. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed?

    1. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.

    2. A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.

    3. A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.

    4. About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa.

    74. All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:

    1. Selenium sulphide.

    2. Ketoconazole.

    3. Griseofulvin.

    4. Clotrimazole.

    75. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Erythema annulare centrifugum.

    2. Granuloma annulare.

    3. Annular lichen planus.

    4. Tinea cruris.

    76. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Pityriasis versicolor.

    2. Pityriasis alba.

    3. Pityriasis rosea.

    4. Pityriasis rubra pilaris.

    77. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:

    1. Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy.

    2. Psoriasis in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis.

    3. Moderate arthritis.

    4. Extensive lesions.

    78. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:

    1. Acne vulgaris.

    2. Rosacea.

    3. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.

    4. Polymorphic light eruption.

    79. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Pityriasis alba.

    2. Indeterminate leprosy.

    3. Morphoca.

    4. Calcium deficiency.

    80. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Behcet’s syndrome.

    2. Herpes genitalis.

    3. Fixed drug eruption

    4. Pemphigus vulgaris.

    81. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:

    1. Close shot entry.

    2. Close contact exit.

    3. Contact shot entry.

    4. Distant shot entry.

    Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 249. Remember that there will be no Tattooing AROUND the wound in Contact Shot or Exit Shot

    82. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to:

    1. Formaldehyde and formic acid.

    2. Acetaldehyde.

    3. Pyridine.

    4. Acetie acid.

    Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 354

    83. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination except:

    1. Nail clippings.

    2. Hair samples.

    3. Bone biopsy.

    4. Blood sample.

    Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 497

    84. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom?

    1. Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plant.

    2. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium.

    3. Acid diagestion technique is used to extract diatoms.

    4. Presence of diatoms in the femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water.

    Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 294 (Diatoms have chlorophyll)

    85. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except:

    1. Exhumation cases.

    2. Dowry deaths within 5 years of marriage.

    3. Murder cases.

    4. Death of a person in police custody.

    Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 6

    86. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:

    1. Characteristic bitter lemon smell.

    2. Congested organs.

    3. The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour.

    4. Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach.

    Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 492 (read this page before arguing about the answer)

    87. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is:

    1. Cementum apposition.

    2. Transparency of root.

    3. Attrition.

    4. Root resorption.

    Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 63

    88. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:

    1. 7 years.

    2. 12 years.

    3. 16 years.

    4. 21 years.

    Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 63

    89. The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:

    1. Dactylography.

    2. Scars.

    3. Anthropometry.

    4. Handwriting.

    Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 66

    90. The most common pattern of fingerprint is:

    1. Arch.

    2. Loop.

    3. Whorl.

    4. Composite.

    Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 67

    91. A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC – 12000 Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR – 49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC – 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Polyarteritis nodosa.

    2. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.

    3. Wegener’s granulomatosis.

    4. Mixed cryoglobulemia.

    92. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption?


    1. Giardia lamblia.

    2. Ascaris lumbricoides.

    3. Necater Americana.

    4. Ancylostoma duodenale.


    93. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:

    1. Hyperparathyroidism.

    2. Steroid use.

    3. Fluorosis.

    4. Thyrotoxicosis.

    94. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following except:

    1. Sarcoidosis.

    2. Silicosis.

    3. Berylliosis.

    4. Bronchogenic carcinoma.

    95. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:

    1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

    2. Parthyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)

    3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6)

    4. Calcitonin.

    96. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except:

    1. Dehydration.

    2. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.

    3. Gaisbock syndrome.

    4. High altitude.

    97. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except:

    1. Early repolarization variant

    2. Constrictive pericarditis.

    3. Ventricular aneurysm.

    4. Prinzmetal angina.

    98. 5’ – Nucleotidase activity is increased in:

    1. Bone diseases.

    2. Prostate cancer.

    3. Chronic renal failure.

    4. Cholestatic disorders.

    99. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:

    1. 20-40 mg/dl

    2. 40-70 mg/dl

    3. 70-90 mg/dl

    4. 90-110 mg/dl.

    100. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:

    1. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen.

    2. The excess a-globin form insoluble precipitates.

    3. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues.

    4. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta.

    101. Cluster headache is characterized by all except:

    1. Affects predominantly females.

    2. Unilateral headache.

    3. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life.

    4. Associated with conjunctival congestion.

    102. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:

    1. Elevated serum A Ch-receptor binding antibodies.

    2. Repetitive nerve stimulation test.

    3. Positive edrophonium test.

    4. Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography.

    103. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except:

    1. Myelopathy.

    2. Optic atrophy.

    3. Peripheral neuropathy.

    4. Myopathy.

    104. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except:

    1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

    2. Locked – in state.

    3. Creutzfoldt – Jackob disease.

    4. Hepatic encephalopathy.

    105. All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except:

    1. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

    2. Episodic ataxia type 1.

    3. Familial hemiplegic migraine.

    4. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1.

    106. According to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) a verbal score of 1 indicates:

    1. No response.

    2. Inappropriate words.

    3. Incomprehensible sounds.

    4. Disoriented response.

    107. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?

    1. Taenia solium.

    2. Acant amoeba.

    3. Naegleria.

    4. Trichinella spiralis.

    108. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest x-ray showed left pleural effusion.

    Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    1. Acute aortic dissection.

    2. Acute myocardial infarction.

    3. Rupture of the esophagus.

    4. Acute pulmonary embolism.

    109. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?

    1. Subacute combined degeneration.

    2. Picks disease.

    3. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.

    4. Alzheimer’s disease.

    110. Which one of the following drugs is ‘Topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’?

    1. Doxorubicin.

    2. Irinotecan.

    3. Etoposide.

    4. Vincristine.

    111. Study the following carefully:


    Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is:

    1. Autosomal recessive type.

    2. Autosomal dominant type.

    3. X Linked dominant type.

    4. X Linked recessive type.

    112. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:

    1. Thrombocytopenia.

    2. Small-vessel vasculitis.

    3. Disseminated gonococcal infection.

    4. Acute meningococcemia.

    113. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is:

    1. Mitral valve repair of replacement.

    2. No treatment.

    3. ACE inhibitor therapy.

    4. Digoxin and diuretic therapy.

    114. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:

    1. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.

    2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.

    3. Ultrasound.

    4. Quantiative computed tomography.

    115. Nevirapine is a:

    1. Protease inhibitor.

    2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.

    3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.

    4. Fusion inhibitor.

    116. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except:

    1. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea.

    2. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

    3. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.

    4. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common cause of travelers diarrhoea.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 279

    117. The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except:

    1. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei.

    2. The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria.

    3. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.

    4. The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 322

    118. The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:


    1. Escherichia coli.

    2. Streptococcus agalactiae.

    3. Neisseria meningitidis.

    4. Listeria monocytogenes.


    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 204 and Nelson 16th Ed, Pages 540, 751

    119. All of the following Vibrio sp. Are halophilic, except:


    1. V. cholerae.

    2. V. parahaemolyticus.

    3. V. alginolyticus.

    4. V. fluvialis.


    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 316


    120. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:


    1. Neisseria meningitides.

    2. Salmonella typhi.

    3. Streptococcus pyogenes.

    4. Legionella pneumophila.


    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 224, 295, 409

    121. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by:

    1. Grams stain.

    2. India ink preparation.

    3. Giemsa stain.

    4. Methanamine – Silver stain.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 621

    122. In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?

    1. Optic radiation.

    2. Optic tract.

    3. Cerebellum.

    4. Pulvinar.

    123. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except:

    1. Tissue culture.

    2. Embryonated eggs.

    3. Animals.

    4. Chemicaly defined media.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 438

    124. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranses that:

    1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.

    2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.

    3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.

    4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 599 – 601

    125. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:

    1. High OX-2.

    2. High OX-19.

    3. High OX-K.

    4. High OX-19 and OX-2.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 418

    126. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with:

    1. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

    2. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.

    3. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.

    4. Chronic granulomatous disease.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 156

    127. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick?

    1. Japanese encephalitis.

    2. Dengue fever.

    3. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).

    4. Yellow fever.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 531

    128. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except:


    1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

    2. Legionella pemmophila.

    3. Human Corona virus.

    4. Klebsiella pneumoniae.


    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 397 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 255

    129. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?

    1. IgG1.

    2. IgG2.

    3. IgG3.

    4. IgG4.

    Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 100


    130. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except:

    1. Endemic trachoma.

    2. Inclusion conjunctivitis.

    3. Lymphogranuloma venereum.

    4. Community acquired pneumonia.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424

    131. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except:

    1. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene.

    2. It is normally present in human faeces.

    3. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is the alpha toxin.

    4. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 249

    132. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:

    1. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    2. Streptococcus agalactiae.

    3. Cryptococcus neoformans.

    4. Listeria monocytogenes.

    Refer Harrison 15th Edition Page 309

    133. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs†i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:

    1. Leptospirosis.

    2. Plague.

    3. Melioidosis.

    4. Rodent-bite fever.

    Refer Park 18th Edition Page and Anathanarayanan 7th Ed, page 332 (I prefer Melioidosis)

    Till there is a solid reference, Please consider this question as “wrong†while calculating your “netâ€

    134. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Compylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample:

    1. Temperature of 42°C and microaerophilic.

    2. Temperature of 42°C and 10% carbon dioxide.

    3. Temperature of 37°C and microaerophilic.

    4. Temperature of 37°C and 10% carbon dioxide.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 406. I prefer Choice 2

    135. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:

    1. Fifteen serovars have been identified as human pathogens.

    2. Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta.

    3. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen.

    4. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.

    Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424. I prefer Choice 3

    136. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:

    1. Echogenic foci in heart.

    2. Hyperechogenic bowel.

    3. Choroid plexus cysts.

    4. Nuchal edema.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 687

    Nuchal Edema 38 % Risk, Hyperechogenic bowel 11 % risk and Choroid plexus cyst 0 % risk according to Williams

    137. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:

    1. Australia.

    2. Asia.

    3. North America.

    4. Western Europe.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 206

    138. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:

    1. Interspinous diameter.

    2. Diagonal conjugate.

    3. True conjugate.

    4. Intertuberous diameter.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 96

    139. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:

    1. Choriocarcinoma.

    2. Dysgerminoma.

    3. Embryonal cell tumor.

    4. Malignant Teratoma.

    Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 345

    140. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:

    1. Coarctation of aorta.

    2. Fallot’s tetrology.

    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.

    4. Transposition of great arteries.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 296 and Williams 21st Edition Page 1188

    141. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:

    1. IUCD.

    2. Depoprovera.

    3. Diaphragm.

    4. Oral contraceptive pills.

    Refer Williams 20th Edition Page 1211

    142. The karyotype of a patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is:

    1. 46xx.

    2. 46xy.

    3. 47xxy.

    4. 45xo.

    Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 396

    143. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic Pregnancy:

    1. Methothrexate.

    2. Misoprostol.

    3. Actinomycin-D.

    4. RU 486

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 202 and Williams 20th Edition Page 624

    144. The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is?

    1. 8 -10 weeks.

    2. 10 -12 weeks

    3. 12 – 14 weeks.

    4. 14 – 16 weeks.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 113

    145. Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?

    1. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.

    2. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.

    3. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.

    4. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 112 and also Williams clearly gives that MSAFP is used for Screening even though AF AChe is more specific

    146. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:

    1. 2.5 cm.

    2. 3.0 cm.

    3. 3.5 cm.

    4. 4.0 cm.

    Refer Williams 21st Edition Page 701

    147. Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by:

    1. NESTROFT Test.

    2. Hb A1 C estimation.

    3. Hb electrophoresis.

    4. Target cells in peripheral smear.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 292 and Nelson 16th Ed, Page 1484

    148. All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:

    1. Maternal obesity.

    2. Prolonged Pregnancy.

    3. Previous large infant.

    4. Short Stature.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 340 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 80.2

    149. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?

    1. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.

    2. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.

    3. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants.

    4. Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 316 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 360

    150. All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:

    1. Anemia.

    2. Pregnancy induced hypertension.

    3. Maternal heart disease.

    4. Gestational diabetes.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 497 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 82.4

    151. Misoprostal has been found to be effective in all of the following except:

    1. Missed abortion.
    2. Induction of labour.
    3. Menorrhagia.
    4. Prevention of post-partum hemorrhage (PPH).

    Refer KD Tripathi 5th Ed, Page 163

    152. All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:

    1. Androgens.
    2. Raloxifene.
    3. Isoflavones.
    4. Tibolone.

    Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 279

    153. In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:

    1. Serum HCG.
    2. Serum alphafetoprotein.
    3. Serum lactic dehydrogenase.
    4. Serum inhibin.

    Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 345 and Robbins 7th Ed Page 1101 and Harrison 15th Ed Chapters 97, 328, 336

    154. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:

    1. Hepatitis -B.
    2. Cholera.
    3. Rabies.
    4. Yellow fever.

    Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 226

    155. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea in India is:

    1. Endometrial tuberculosis.
    2. Premature ovarian failure.
    3. Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
    4. Sheehan’s syndrome.

    Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 130

    156. In Klippel-Feil syndrome, the patient has all of the following clinical features except:

    1. Low hair line.
    2. Bilateral Neck webbing.
    3. Bilateral shortness of sterno mastoid muscles.
    4. Gross limitations of neck movements.

    157. The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is:

    1. Fibrous Ankylosis.
    2. Bony-Ankylosis.
    3. Pathological dislocation.
    4. Chronic osteomyelitis.

    158. In Radionuclide imaging the most useful radio pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is:

    1. Gallium 67 (67Ga)
    2. Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc)
    3. Technetium-99m (99m Tc)
    4. Technetium-99 m linked to methylene disphosphonate (99mTc-MDP)

    159. Heberden’s arthropathy affects:

    1. Lumbar spine.
    2. Symmetrically large joints.
    3. Sacroiliac joints.
    4. Distal interphalangeal joints.

    160. Subtrochanteric fractures of femur can be treated by all of the following methods except:

    1. Skeletal traction on Thomas’ splint.
    2. Smith Petersen Nail.
    3. Condylar blade plate.
    4. Ender’s nail.

    161. All of the following are true about fracture of the atlas vertebra, except:

    1. Jefferson fracture is the most common type.
    2. Quadriplegia is seen in 80% cases.
    3. Atlantooccipal fusion may sometimes be needed.
    4. CT scans should be done for diagnosis.

    162. A 30-year-old man had road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:

    1. Pneumonia
    2. Congestive heart failure.
    3. Bronchial asthma.
    4. Fat Embolism.

    163. A 45-year-old was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?

    1. Primary Osteoarthritis.
    2. Avascular necrosis.
    3. Tuberculosis.
    4. Aluminum toxicity.

    164. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except:

    1. Superior thyroid artery.
    2. Anterior Ethmoidal artery.
    3. Occipital artery.
    4. Posterior auricular artery.

    165. All are true for Gradenigo’s syndrome except:

    1. It is associated with conductive hearing loss.
    2. It is caused by an abscess in the petrous apex.
    3. It leads to involvement of the Cranial nerves V and VI.
    4. It is characterized by retro-orbital pain.

    166. The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:

    1. Hoarseness.
    2. Haemoptysis.
    3. Cervical lymph nodes.
    4. Stridor.

    167. Abbey-Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:

    1. Buccal mucosa.
    2. Lip.
    3. Tongue.
    4. Palate.

    168. Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

    1. Type I Thyroplasty.
    2. Type 2 Thyroplasty.
    3. Type 3 Thyroplasty.
    4. Type 4 Thyroplasty.

    169. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen?

    1. Adenocarcinoma.
    2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
    3. Basal cell Adenoma.
    4. Squamous cell carcinoma.

    170. Use of seigel’s speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:

    1. Magnification.
    2. Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane.
    3. Removal of foreign body from the ear.
    4. As applicator for the powdered antibiotic of ear.

    171. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on:

    1. Cord blood.
    2. 24 hours after birth.
    3. 48 hours after birth.
    4. 72 hours after birth.

    172. A child with recurrent urinary tract infections is most likely to show:

    1. Posterior urethral valves.
    2. Vesicoureteric reflux.
    3. Neurogenic bladder.
    4. Renal and ureteric calculi.

    173. The appropriate approach to a neonate presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 of life is:

    1. Administration of vitamin K.
    2. Investigation for bleeding disorder.
    3. No specific therapy.
    4. Administration of 10ml/kg of fresh frozen plasma over 4 hours.

    174. Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

    1. Hydrocortisone.
    2. Prednisolone.
    3. Fludrocortisone.
    4. Dexamethasone.

    175. The coagulation profile in a 13-year-old girl with menorrhagia having von-Willebrands disease is:

    1. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT.
    2. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT.
    3. Prolongation of both PT and PTT.
    4. Prolongation of thrombin time.

    176. All of the following are true about manifestations of vitamin E deficiency, except:

    1. Hemolytic anemia.
    2. Posterior column abnormalities.
    3. Cerebellar ataxia.
    4. Autonomic dysfunction.

    177. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:

    1. Genomic imprinting.
    2. Mosaicism.
    3. Anticipation.
    4. Nonpenetrance.

    178. The chances of having an unaffected baby, when both parents have achondroplasia, are:

    1. 0%
    2. 25%
    3. 50%
    4. 100%

    179. All of the following therapies may be required in a 1 hour-old infant with severe birth asphyxia except:

    1. Glucose
    2. Dexamethasone.
    3. Calcium gluconate.
    4. Normal saline.

    180. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is:

    1. Takayasu disease.
    2. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease)
    3. Henoch Schonelin purpura.
    4. Polyarteritis nodosa.

    181. A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 x 109/L, which included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD 19, CD10, CD22 and CD20.

    Which one of the following statements in not true about this disease?

    1. Eosinophils are not of the neoplastic clone.
    2. t(5:14) rearrangement may be detected in blasts.
    3. Peripheral blood wosinophilia may normalize with chemotherapy.
    4. Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts and the eosinophils.

    182. Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of:

    1. Thrombotic microangiopathy.
    2. Proliferative glomerulonephritis.
    3. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
    4. Minimal change disease.

    183. The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is known as:

    1. Kiel classification.

    2. REAL classification.

    3. WHO classification.

    4. Rappaport classification.

    184. One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infectious enteritis is:

    1. Lactase.
    2. Trypsin.
    3. Lipase.
    4. Amylase.

    185. A new born presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which one of the following rectal biopsy findings is most likely to be present?

    1. Fibrosis of submucosa.
    2. Hyalinisation of the muscular coat.
    3. Thickened muscularis propria.
    4. Lack of ganglion cells.

    186. All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except:

    1. Presence of interstitial inflammation.
    2. Predominance of alveolar exudates.
    3. Bronchiolitis.
    4. Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall.

    187. Aschoff’s nodules are seen in:

    1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
    2. Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
    3. Rheumatic carditis.
    4. Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis.

    188. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by:

    1. Type I pneumoncytes.
    2. Type II pneumocytes.
    3. Clara cells.
    4. Bronchila epithelial cells.

    189. Which one of the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma?

    1. Ulcerative colitis.
    2. Crohn’s disease.
    3. Diverticular disease.
    4. Ischaemic colitis.

    190. Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following except:

    1. Malignant hypertension.
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
    3. Diabetic glomerulosclerosis.
    4. Aschoff’s nodule.

    191. All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury, except:

    1. Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix.
    2. Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
    3. Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane.
    4. Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum.

    192. Which of the following statements pertaining to leukemia is correct?

    1. Blasts of acute myeloid leukemia are typically sudan black negative.
    2. Blasts of acute lymphoblastic leukemia are typically myeloperoxidase positive.
    3. Low leucocyte alkaline phosphatase score is characteristically seen in blastic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia.
    4. Tartarate resistant acid phosphatase positivity is typically seen in hairy cell leukemia.

    193. In which of the following conditions bilateral contracted kidneys are characteristically seen?

    1. Amyloidosis.
    2. Diabetes mellitus.
    3. Rapidly progressive (Crescentic) glomerulonephritis.
    4. Benign nephrosclerosis.

    194. All of the following CSF findings are present in tuberculous meningitis, except:

    1. Raised protein levels.
    2. Low Chloride levels.
    3. Cob web formation.
    4. Raised sugar levels.

    195. All of the following vascular changes are observed in acute inflammation, except:

    1. Vasodilation.
    2. Stasis of blood.
    3. Increased vascular permeability.
    4. Decreased hydrostatic pressure.

    196. The subtype of Hodgkin’s disease, which is histogenetically distinct from all the other subtypes, is:

    1. Lymphocyte predominant.
    2. Nodular sclerosis.
    3. Mixed cellularity.
    4. Lymphocyte depleted.

    197. In apoptosis, Apaf-1 is activated by release of which of the following substances from the mitochondria?

    1. Bcl-2
    2. Bax.
    3. Bcl-XL
    4. Cytochrome C.

    198. Which type of amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein?

    1. Familial Mediterranean fever.
    2. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy.
    3. Dialysis associated amyloidosis.
    4. Prion protein associated amyloidosis.

    199. In familial Mediterranean fever, the gene encoding the following protein undergoes mutation:

    1. Pyrin.
    2. Perforin.
    3. Atrial natriuretic factor.
    4. Immunoglobulin light chain.

    200. Which of the following statements is not true?

    1. Patinets with IgD myeloma may present with no evident M-spike on serum electrophoresis.
    2. A diagnosis of plasma cell leukemia can be made if circulating peripheral blood plasmablasts comprise 14% of peripheral blood white cells in a patient with white blood cell count of 11 x 109/L and platelet count of 88 x 109/L.
    3. In smoldering myeloma plasma cells constitute 10-30% of total bone marrow cellularity.
    4. In a patient with multiple myeloma, a monoclonal light chain may be detected in both serum and urine.
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    AIPGE - 2005

    next 100 questions


    201. In-situ DNA nick end labeling can quantitate:

    1. Fraction of cells in apoptotic pathways.
    2. Fraction of cells in S phase.
    3. p53 gene product.
    4. bcr/abl gene.

    202. Which one of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver diseae?

    1. Aminotransaminase.
    2. Alkaline Phosphatase.
    3. Bilirubin.
    4. Albumin.

    203. Which one of the following stains is specific for Amyloid?

    1. Periodic Acid schif (PAS)
    2. Alzerian red.
    3. Congo red.
    4. Von-Kossa,

    204. Which one of the following diseases characteristically causes fatty change in liver?

    1. Hepatitis B virus infection.
    2. Wilson’s disease.
    3. Hepatitis C virus infection.
    4. Chronic alcoholism.

    205. A 48-year-old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months. On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlared and spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 40 x 109/L, which included 80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lumphoid cells were positive for CD19, CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC-7.

    The histopathological examination of the lymph node in this patient will most likely exhibit effeacement of lymph node architecture by:

    1. A pseudofollicular pattern with proliferation centers.
    2. A monomorphic lymphoid proliferation with a nodular pattern.
    3. A predominantly follicular pattern.
    4. A diffuse proliferation of medium to large lymphoid cells with high mitotic rate.

    206. The following drugs have significant drug interaction with digoxin, except:

    1. Cholestyramine.
    2. Thiazide diuretics.
    3. Quinidine.
    4. Amlodipine.

    207. One of the following is not true about nesiritide:

    1. It is a brain natriuretic peptide analogue.
    2. It is used in acutely decompensated heart failure.
    3. It has significant oral absorption.
    4. It has a short half-life.

    208. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus except:

    1. Multiple sclerosis.
    2. Head injury.
    3. Histiocytosis.
    4. Viral encephalitis.

    209. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:

    1. Anticholinergics.
    2. Levodopa.
    3. Selegiline.
    4. Amantadine.

    210. Which one of the following is used in therapy of Toxoplasmosis?

    1. Artensenuate.
    2. Thiacetazone.
    3. Ciprofloxacin.
    4. Pyrimethamine.

    211. The following statements regarding finasteride are true except:

    1. It is used in the medical treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
    2. Impotence is well documented after its use.
    3. It blocks the conversion of dihydrotestosterone to testosterone.
    4. It is a 5-a reductase inhibitor.

    212. Eternacept acts by one of the following mechanisms:

    1. By blocking tumor necorosis factor.
    2. By blocking bradykinin synthesis.
    3. By inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase-2.
    4. By blocking lipoxygenase.

    213. All of the following are the disadvantages of anesthetic ether, except:

    1. Induction is slow.
    2. Irritant nature of ether increases salivary and bronchila secretions.
    3. Cautery can not be used.
    4. Affects blood pressure and is liable to produce arrhythmias.

    214. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of:

    1. Ceftriaxone.
    2. Phenobarbitone.
    3. Ampicillin.
    4. Sulphonamide.

    215. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to:

    1. Cavernous sinus.
    2. Apex of orbit.
    3. Brainstem.
    4. Base of skull.

    216. All of the following are topically used sulphonamides except:

    1. Sulphacetamide.
    2. Sulphadiazine.
    3. Silver sulphadiazine.
    4. Mafenide.

    217. Oculogyric crisis is know to be produced by all of the following drugs except:

    1. Trifluoperazine.
    2. Atropine.
    3. Perchlorperazine.
    4. Perphenazine.

    218. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine?

    1. Proproanolol.
    2. Sumatriptan.
    3. Domperidone.
    4. Ergotamine.

    219. Inverse agonist of benzodiazepine receptor is:

    1. Phenobarbitone.
    2. Flumazenil.
    3. Beta-Carboline.
    4. Gabapentin.

    220. The group of antibiotics which possess additional anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory activities is:

    1. Tetracyclines.
    2. Polypeptide antibiotics.
    3. Fluoroquinolones.
    4. Macrolides.

    221. With which of the following theophylline has an antagonistic interaction?

    1. Histamine receptors.
    2. Bradykinin receptors.
    3. Adenosine receptors.
    4. Imidazoline receptors.

    222. One of the following is not penicillinase susceptible:

    1. Amoxicillin.
    2. Penicillin G.
    3. Piperacillin.
    4. Cloxacillin.

    223. Which one of the following is best associated with Lumefantrine?

    1. Antimycobacterial.
    2. Antifungal.
    3. Antimalarial.
    4. Antiamoebic.

    224. Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility?

    1. Glycopyrrolate.
    2. Atropine.
    3. Neostigmine.
    4. Fentanyl.

    225. Which one of the following is the fastest acting inhalational agent?

    1. Halothane.
    2. Isoflurane.
    3. Ether.
    4. Sevoflurane.

    226. The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for the stimulus of:

    1. Color contrast.
    2. Luminance contrast.
    3. Temporal grequency.
    4. Saccadic eye movements.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 163

    227. The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project to the following layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus:

    1. Layers 2,3 & 5.
    2. Layers 1,2 & 6.
    3. Layers 1,4 & 6.
    4. Layers 4,5 & 6.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 163

    228. All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in:

    1. Hepatic circulation
    2. Cutaneous circulation
    3. Cerebral microcirculation.
    4. Renal circulation.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 546

    229. S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it:

    1. Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously.
    2. Has rich sympathetic innervations.
    3. Has poor cholinergic innervations.
    4. Generates impulses at the highest rate.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 549

    230. The first physiological response to high environmental temperature is:

    1. Sweating
    2. Vasodilatation.
    3. Decrease heat production.
    4. Non-shivering thermogenesis.

    Refer Guyton 10th Edtion Page 827

    231. All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibres except:

    1. Increased venous tone.
    2. Increased total blood volume.
    3. Increased negative intrathoracic pressure.
    4. Lying-to-standing change in posture.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 574

    232. The vasodilatation produced by carbon dioxide is maximum in one of the following:

    1. Kidney
    2. Brain
    3. Liver
    4. Heart.

    Refer Guyton 10th Edtion Page 709

    233. Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?

    1. The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption.
    2. Majority of facultative reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule.
    3. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent.
    4. 20% of water is always reabsorbed irrespective of water balance.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 717

    234. Urinary concentrating ability of the kidney is increased by:

    1. ECF volume contraction.
    2. Increase in RBF.
    3. Reduction of medullary hyperosmolarity.
    4. Increase in CFR.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 717

    235. Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the:

    1. Arteries.
    2. Arterioles.
    3. Capillaries.
    4. Venules.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 589

    236. In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?

    1. Anaemia.
    2. CO poisoning.
    3. Moderate exercise.
    4. Hypoventilation.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 694

    237. Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the following except:

    1. Crush nerve
    2. Fetal development.
    3. Senescence.
    4. Neuropraxia.

    238. With which one of the following Lower motor neuron lesions are associated?

    1. Flaccid paralysis.
    2. Hyperactive stretch reflex.
    3. Spasticity.
    4. Muscular incorrdination.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 206

    239. Aspermia is the term used to describe:

    1. Absence of semen.
    2. Absence of sperm in ejaculate.
    3. Absence of sperm motility.
    4. Occurrence of abnormal sperm.

    Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 215

    240. Which of the following statements can be regarded as primary action of inhibin?

    1. It inhibits secretion of prolactin.
    2. It stimulates synthesis of estradiol.
    3. It stimulates secretion of TSH.
    4. It inhibits secretion of FSH.

    Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 436 Fig 23.22

    241. A 40-year-old male, with history of daily alcohol consumption for the last 7 years, is brought to the hospital emergency room with acute onset of seeing snakes all around him in the room, not recognizing family members, violent behavior and tremulousness for having missed the alcohol drink since 2 days, Examination reveals increased blood pressure, tremors, increased psychomotor activity, fearful affect, hallucinatory behavior, disorientation, impaired judgment and insight.

    He is most likely to be suffering from:

    1. Alcoholic hallucinosis.
    2. Delirium tremens.
    3. Wernicke encephalopathy.
    4. Korsakoff’s psychosis.

    Refer Ahuja 4th Ed, Page 36

    242. A 45-year-male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:

    1. Korsakoff’s psychosis.
    2. Wernicke encephalopathy.
    3. De Clerambault syndrome.
    4. Delirium tremens.

    Refer Ahuja 4th Ed, Page 36

    243. A 25-year-old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies:

    1. Exposure and response prevention.
    2. Systematic desensitization.
    3. Assertiveness training.
    4. Sensate focusing.

    Refer

    1. Essentials of Psychiatry, 4th Edition, Bhatia, Page 13.17
    2. Kaplan and Saddock synopsis of psychiatry, 622-623, Ninth Edition
    3. Guidelines for treatment of OCD, John S. March, MD, MPH; Allen Frances, MD; Daniel Carpenter, PhD; David A. Kahn, MD


    244. An 18 year old boy came to the psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling changed from inside. He described himself as feeling strange as if he is different from his normal self. He was very tense and anxious yet could not point out the precise change in him. This phenomena is best called as:

    1. Delusional mood.
    2. Depersonalization.
    3. Autochthonous delusion.
    4. Over valued idea.

    Refer Essentials of Psychiatry, 4th Edition, Bhatia, Page 4.11

    245. The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that:

    1. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin.
    2. The former cause tardive dyskinesia.
    3. The former are available as parenteral preparations.
    4. The latter cause substantial sedation.

    Refer Harrison 15th Ed, Chap 385

    246. Dry mouth during antidepressant therapy is caused by blockade of:

    1. Muscarininc acetylcholine receptors.
    2. Serotonergic receptors.
    3. Dopaminergic receptors.
    4. GABA receptors.

    Refer KDTripathi 5th Edition Page 397,409

    247. All of the following are hallucinogens, except:

    1. LSD
    2. Phenylcyclidine.
    3. Mescaline.
    4. Methylphendate.

    Refer KDTripathi 5th Edition Page 403

    248. An 18 year old student complains of lack of interest in studies for last 6 months. He has frequent quarrels with his parents and has frequent headaches. The most appropriate clinical approach would be to:

    1. Leave him as normal adolescent problem.
    2. Rule out depression.
    3. Rule out migraine.
    4. Rule out an oppositional defiant disorder.

    249. Perseveration is:

    1. Persistent and inappropriate repetition of the same thoughts.
    2. When a patient feels very distressed about it.
    3. Characteristic of schizophrenia.
    4. Characteristic of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)

    Refer Essentials of Psychiatry, 4th Edition, Bhatia, Page 10.4 and Appendix I Page 26

    250. One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:

    1. Symptoms do not normally reflect understandable physiological or pathological mechanism.

    2. Physical symptoms are prominent which are not explained by organic factors.

    3. Personality traits are significant.

    4. Symptoms run a chronic course.

    Refer Essentials of Psychiatry, 4th Edition, Bhatia, Page 13.19 and 14.3 and Ahuja Page 4th Ed, Page 91 and 97

    251. Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes’ disease?

    1. Plain X-ray.

    2. Ultrasonography (US)

    3. Computed Tomography (CT)

    4. Magnetic Resonanc Imaging (MRI)

    252. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except:

    1. Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size.

    2. Pulmonary veins not distended.

    3. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary arteries.

    4. Dilatation of central pulmonary arteries.

    253. In which one of the following conditions the Sialography is contraindicated?

    1. Ductal calculus.

    2. Chronic parotitis.

    3. Acute parotitis.

    4. Recurrrent sialadenitis.

    254. The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:

    1. Sphenoid sinus.

    2. Frontal sinus.

    3. Cribriform plate.

    4. Tegmen tympani.

    255. Which of the following is the most common renal cystic disease in infants is?

    1. Polycystic kidnesy.

    2. Simple renal cyst.

    3. Unilateral renal dysplasia.

    4. Calyceal cyst.

    256. The most common type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:

    1. Supracardiac

    2. Infracardiac.

    3. Mixed.

    4. Cardiac.

    257. Which one of the following is the most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain?

    1. Putamen/external capsule.

    2. Pons.

    3. Ventricles.

    4. Lober white matter.

    258. Which one of the following is the most preferred route to perform cerebral angiography?

    1. Transfemoral route.

    2. Transaxillary route.

    3. Direct carotid puncture.

    4. Transbrachial route.

    259. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?

    1. Fibrosarcoma.

    2. Osteosarcoma.

    3. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma.

    4. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.

    260. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant?

    1. Iodine- 125.

    2. Palladium – 103.

    3. Gold – 198.

    4. Caesium – 137.

    261. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification on CT scan.

    1. Ependymoma.

    2. Meduloblastoma.

    3. Meningioma.

    4. CNS lymphoma.

    262. The technique employed radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as:

    1. Arc technique.

    2. Modulation.

    3. Gating.

    4. Shunting.

    263. In which of the following diseases, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure?

    1. Prostate cancer.

    2. Lung cancer.

    3. Colon cancer.

    4. Ovarian cancer.

    264. Gamma camera in Nuclear Medicine is used for:

    1. Organ imaging

    2. Measuring the radioiactivity.

    3. Monitoring the surface contamination.

    4. RIA.

    265. At t=0 there are 6×1023 radioactive atoms of a substance, which decay with a disintegration constant (l) equal to 0.01/sec. What would be the initial decay rate?

    1. 6×1023.

    2. 6×1022.

    3. 6×1021.

    4. 6×1020.

    266. An 18 year old boy comes to the eye casualty with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no perforation but there is hyphaema. The most likely source of the blood is

    1. Iris vessels.

    2. Circulus iridis major.

    3. Circulus iridis minor.

    4. Short posterior ciliary vessels.

    267. A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

    1. Vitreous haemorrhage.

    2. Optic atrophy.

    3. Developmental cataract.

    4. Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma.

    268. The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is:

    1. Congenital cataract.

    2. Retinoblastaoma.

    3. Endophthalmitis.

    4. Coats disease.

    269. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except:

    1. Keratoconus.

    2. Herpes simplex keratitis.

    3. Leprosy.

    4. Neurofibromatosis.

    270. Under the WHO ‘Vison 2020’ programme, the ‘SAFE’ strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases?

    1. Trachoma.

    2. Glaucoma.

    3. Diabetic retinopathy.

    4. Onchocerciasis.

    271. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?

    1. IgA.

    2. IgG.

    3. IgM.

    4. Ig E.

    272. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

    1. Miosis.

    2. Enophthalmos.

    3. Ptosis.

    4. Cycloplegia.

    273. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:

    1. 3rd cranial nerve.

    2. 4th cranial nerve.

    3. 5th cranial nerve.

    4. 6th cranial nerve.

    274. Which of the following statement is true regarding Acanthamoeba keratistis?

    1. For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient afar plate.

    2. the causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil.

    3. Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host.

    4. Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life-cycle.

    275. A 30-year-old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. At 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about two minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

    1. Hypermetropia

    2. Presbyopia

    3. Accommodative inertia.

    4. Cycloplegia.

    276. Contact lens wear is proven to have deleterious effects on the corneal physiology which of the following statements is incorrect in connection with contact lens wear?

    1. The level of glucose availability in the corneal epithelium is reduced.

    2. There is a reduction in hemidesmosome density.

    3. There is increased production of CO2 in the epithelium.

    4. There is a reduction in glucose utilization by corneal epithelium.

    277. Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of :

    1. Intermittent claudication.

    2. Distal ischaemia affecting the skin of the toes.

    3. Arteriovenous Fistula

    4. Back pain.

    278. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:

    1. Breast abscess.

    2. Fibroadenoma.

    3. Duct Papilloma.

    4. Fat Necrosis of Breast.

    279. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is:

    1. Ipsilateral papillary dilatation.

    2. Contralateral papillary dilatation.

    3. Altered mental status.

    4. Hemiparesis.

    280. In which of the following conditions splenectomy is not useful?

    1. Hereditary spherocytosis.

    2. Porphyria.

    3. Thalassemia.

    4. Sickle cell disease with large spleen.

    281. The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents.

    1. External hemorrhoids.

    2. Internal hemorrhoids.

    3. Prolapsed hemorrhoids.

    4. Strangulated hemorrhoids.

    282. In which of the following locations, Carcinoid tumor is most common?

    1. Esophagus.

    2. Stoamch.

    3. Small bowel.

    4. Appendix.

    283. Pancreatitis, pituitary tumor and phaeochromocytoma may be associated with:

    1. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid.

    2. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

    3. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid.

    4. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid.

    284. Gardener’s syndrome is a rare herediatary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by:

    1. Polyposis colon, cancer thyroid, skin tumours.

    2. Polyposis in jejunum, pituitary adenoma and skin tumours.

    3. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumorus in the skin.

    4. Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and skin tumours.

    285. The most common cancer affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Channai is:

    1. Cervical cancer.

    2. Ovarian cancer.

    3. Breast cancer.

    4. Uterine cancer.

    286. All of the following are true for patients of ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), except:

    1. They may develop biliary cirrhosis.

    2. May have raised alkaline phosphatase.

    3. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma.

    4. PSC reverts after a total colectomy.

    287. Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF).

    1. Fibrosis in and around the portal tracts.

    2. Thrombosis of the medium and small portal vein branches.

    3. Non specific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the portal tracts.

    4. Bridging fibrosis.

    288. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is:

    1. Oesophagitis.

    2. Aspiration pneumonitis.

    3. Volvulus.

    4. Esophageal stricture.

    289. Patients of rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with:

    1. Colostomy.

    2. Primary repair.

    3. Colporrhaphy.

    4. Anterior resection.

    290. A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management?

    1. Immediate anterior decompression.

    2. Cervical traction followed by instrument fixation.

    3. Hard cervical collar and bed rest cervical laminectomy.

    4. Cervical laminectomy.

    291. Which of the following catheter materials is most suited for long-term use is?

    1. Latex.

    2. Silicone.

    3. Rubber.

    4. Polyurethane.

    292. The main site of bicarbonate reabsorption is:

    1. Proximal convoluted tubule.

    2. Distal convoluted tubule.

    3. Cortical collecting duct.

    4. Medullary collecting duct.

    Refer Nelson 15th Ediotion Chap 49 and 53

    293. Which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy?

    1. Dorsal venous complex.

    2. Inferior vesical pedicle.

    3. Superior vesical pedicle.

    4. Seminal vesicular artery.

    294. The most common cause of renal scarring in a 3 year old child is:

    1. Trauma.

    2. Tuberculosis

    3. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis.

    4. Interstitial nephritis.

    295. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:

    1. X-ray KUB region.

    2. Ultrasonogram.

    3. Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen.

    4. Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen.

    296. Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?

    1. AFP

    2. LDH

    3. HCG
    4. CEA

    297. Which one of the following is the common cause of congential hydrocephalus is?

    1. Craniosynostosis.
    2. Intra uterine meningitis.
    3. Aqueductal stenosis.
    4. Malformations of great vein of Galen.

    298. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best diagnosed by:

    1. Ultrasonography.
    2. IVU.
    3. DTPA renogram.
    4. Creatinine clearance.

    299. The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:

    1. Malignant teratoma.
    2. Neuroblastoma.
    3. Wilms’ tumor.
    4. Hepatoblastoma.

    300. The most common presentation of a child with Wilms’ tumor is:

    1. An asymptomatic abdominal mass.
    2. Haematuria.
    3. Hypertension.
    4. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary.
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    All India PG Entrance Exam 2006

    All India PG Entrance Exam 2006 - Complete 300 Questions

    1. All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except:
    1. No creases on sole.
    2. Abundant lanugo.
    3. Thick ear cartilage.
    4. Empty scrotum.

    2. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except :
    1. Stand alone.
    2. Play peek a boo.
    3. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger.
    4. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes.

    3. The following are characteristic of autism except :
    1. Onset after 6 years of age.
    2. Repetitive behaviour.
    3. Delayed language development.
    4. Severe deficit in social interaction.

    4. The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6- year-old girl with iron deficiency is:
    1. Increased reticulocyte count.
    2. Increased hemoglobin.
    3. Increased ferritin.
    4. Increased serum iron.

    5. A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is :
    1. Congenital aortic stenosis.
    2. Coarctation of aorta.
    3. Patent ductus arteriosus.
    4. Congenital aortoiliac disease.

    6. All of the following statements regarding subendocardinal infarction are true, except :
    1. These are multifocal in nature.
    2. These often result from hypotension or shock.
    3. Epicarditis is not seen.
    4. These may result in aneurysm.

    7. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except :
    1. Transmission may be as an Autosomal dominant trait.
    2. Majority of the case present with features of mitral regurgitation.
    3. The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration.
    4. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan Syndrome.

    8. The following diseases are associated with Epstein “ Barr virus infection, except :
    1. Infectious mononucleosis.
    2. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis.
    3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
    4. Oral Hairy leukoplakia

    9. Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to :
    1. Inadequate dietary intake.
    2. Defective intestinal absorption.
    3. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum.
    4. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine.

    10. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is :
    1. Histological grade of the tumour.
    2. Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis.
    3. Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors.
    4. Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene.

    11. Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with :
    1. Small cell carcinoma.
    2. Respiratory bronchiolitis.
    3. Emphysema.
    4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia.

    12. The tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is :
    1. Leiomyosarcoma.
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma.
    3. Basal cell carcinoma.
    4. Angiosarcoma.

    13. The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is :
    1. Apocrine DCIS.
    2. Neuroendocrine DCIS.
    3. Well differentiated DCIS.
    4. Comedo DCIS.

    14. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the :
    1. Parotid salivary gland.
    2. Minor salivary glands.
    3. Submandibular salivary gland.
    4. Sublingual salivary gland.

    15. All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except :
    1. It generally presents in elderly patients.
    2. There is often an association with HHV-8.
    3. The proliferating cells are NK cells.
    4. Patients are commonly HIV positive.

    16. Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except :
    1. CD 23.
    2. CD 20.
    3. CD 5.
    4. CD 43.

    17. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing :
    1. Tubercular lymphadenitis.
    2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid.
    3. Plasmacytoma.
    4. Aneurymal bone cyst.

    18. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except :
    1. CD 45 RO.
    2. CD 43.
    3. Myeloperoxidase.
    4. Lysozyme.

    19. B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia in :
    1. Presenting at a younger age.
    2. Having a lower total leucocyte count.
    3. Having prominent lymphadenopathy.
    4. Having a shorter survival.

    20. Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi?
    1. The intraocular pressure is increased.
    2. Calcification of the lens is common.
    3. Sclera is thickened.
    4. Size of the globe is reduced.

    21. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma?
    1. Has a peak incidence in first decade.
    2. Arises from oligodendrocytes.
    3. Causes meningeal hyperplasia.
    4. Is associated with type I neurofirbromatosis.

    22. Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition ?
    1. Lattice dystrophy.
    2. Granular dystrophy.
    3. Macular dystrophy.
    4. Fleck dystrophy.

    23. In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs?
    1. Actinic Keratoses.
    2. Seborrheic keratoses.
    3. Molluscum contagiosum.
    4. Basal cell carcinoma.

    24. Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma?
    1. Paneth cell metaplasia.
    2. Pyloric metaplasia.
    3. Intestinal metaplasia.
    4. Ciliated metaplasia.

    25. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension?
    1. Chronic liver failure.
    2. Ascites.
    3. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
    4. Encephalopathy.

    26. Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of :
    1. Tonic-clonic seizure.
    2. Absence seizure.
    3. Myoclonic seizure.
    4. Simple partial seizure.

    27. Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate?
    1. It is an intravenous anesthetic.
    2. It precipitates coronary insufficiency.
    3. It inhibits cortisol synthesis.
    4. It causes pain at site of injection.

    28. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
    1. Norfloxacin.
    2. Streptomycin.
    3. Doxycycline.
    4. Cefotaxime.

    29. Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin?
    1. Cephalexin.
    2. Cloxacillin.
    3. Piperacillin.
    4. Dicloxacillin.

    30. The following statements regarding benzodiazephines are true except:
    1. Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors.
    2. They have active metabolites.
    3. Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being.
    4. Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes.

    31. One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect:
    1. It is a prodrug.
    2. It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase.
    3. It also inhibits calcineurin.
    4. Selectivity inhibits lymphocyte proliferation.

    32. All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except
    1. Inhibition of ovulation.
    2. Prevention of fertilization.
    3. Interference with implantation of fertilized ovum.
    4. Interference with placental functioning.

    33. Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism?
    1. Phenytoin.
    2. Gabapentin.
    3. Phenobarbitone.
    4. Primidone.

    34. Which one of the following drugs causes constipation?
    1. Propranolol.
    2. Verapamil.
    3. Nitroglycerin.
    4. Captopril.

    35. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma:
    1. Latanoprost.
    2. Brimonidine.
    3. Acetazolamide.
    4. Dorzolamide.

    36. Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status?
    1. Sodium valproate.
    2. Phenobarbitone.
    3. Carbamazepine.
    4. Phenytoin.

    37. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
    1. Phenylpropanolamine.
    2. Terfenadine.
    3. Quinidine.
    4. Fenfluramine.

    38. All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except :
    1. Bacterial meningitis.
    2. Rickettsial Infection.
    3. Syphilis.
    4. Anthrax.

    39. All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except:
    1. Hypokalemia.
    2. Hypothermia.
    3. Hypomagnesemia.
    4. Hypocalcemia.

    40. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?
    1. Atracurium.
    2. Vecuronium.
    3. Rocuronium.
    4. Doxacurium.

    41. Which enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline?
    1. Monoamine Oxidase.
    2. Alcohol dehydrogenase.
    3. Phjosphodiesterase.
    4. Cytochrome P-450.

    42. Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
    1. Procaine.
    2. Bupivacaine.
    3. Lignocaine.
    4. Mepivacaine.

    43. The following are the benozodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver disease, except:
    1. Lorazepam.
    2. Oxazepam,
    3. Temazepam.
    4. Diazepam.

    44. Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catecholamines?
    1. Isoflurane
    2. Ether.
    3. Halothane.
    4. Propofol.

    45. Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure?
    1. Rapacurium
    2. Pancuronium
    3. Atracurium
    4. Rocuronium

    46. Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of :
    1. Estradiol.
    2. Luteinizing hormone.
    3. Progesterone.
    4. Follicle stimulating hormone.

    47. Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex in :
    1. Layer 1.
    2. Layer 2 & 3.
    3. Layer 4.
    4. Layer 5 & 6.

    48. The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with :
    1. Ocular dominance.
    2. Orientation.
    3. Color processing.
    4. Saccadic eye movements.

    49. The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of :
    1. Movement, depth and flicker.
    2. Color vision, shape and fine details.
    3. Temporal frequency.
    4. Luminance contrast.

    50. A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of the following physiological events will manifest in such situation?
    1. The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases.
    2. The cardiac output decreases.
    3. Black out occurs.
    4. The cerebral arterial pressure rises.

    51. In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is :
    1. Shivering.
    2. Vasoconstriction.
    3. Release of thyroxine.
    4. Piloerection.

    52. The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in:
    1. Locus coeruleus.
    2. Dorsal raphe.
    3. Lateral hypothalamic area.
    4. Hippocampus.

    53. The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by:
    1. Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa.
    2. Sensing of Cl+ concentration in macula densa.
    3. Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa.
    4. Opening up of voltage gated Na+ channels in afferent arteriole.

    54. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is :
    1. Medullary hperosmolarity.
    2. Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb.
    3. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels.
    4. Urea recycling.

    55. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis?
    1. Kidneys.
    2. Skin.
    3. Intestines.
    4. Lungs.

    56. Testosterone production is mainly contributed by:
    1. Leydig cells.
    2. Sertolie cells.
    3. Seminiferous tubules.
    4. Epididymis.

    57. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?
    1. Gastric juice.
    2. Pancreatic juice.
    3. Bile in gall bladder.
    4. Saliva.

    58. The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon:
    1. Integrity of reflex are.
    2. Muscle power.
    3. Type of muscle fibres.
    4. Joint movements in physiological range.

    59. The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is :
    1. Tympanic reflex.
    2. Withdrawal reflex.
    3. Neck righting reflex.
    4. Labyrinthine reflex..

    60. The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington’s disease are due to the loss of :
    1. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system.
    2. Intrastriatal cholinergic system.
    3. GABA-ergic and choloinergic system.
    4. Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system.

    61. All of the following are part of the treatment of Lithium toxicity, except:
    1. Treating dehydration.
    2. Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate.
    3. Hemodialysis.
    4. Using an antagonist.

    62. All are side effects of Clozapine except:
    1. Granulocytopenia.
    2. Seizures.
    3. Sedation.
    4. Extrapyramidal side effects

    63. Pavlov’s experiment is an example of:
    1. Operant conditioning.
    2. Classical conditioning.
    3. Learned helplessness.
    4. Modelling.

    64. Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of :
    1. Anorexia Nervosa.
    2. Seasonal Affective Disorder.
    3. Schizophrenia.
    4. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder.

    65. The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is :
    1. Hypotension.
    2. Akathisia.
    3. Dryness of mouth.
    4. Tic disorder.

    66. Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is best described as :
    1. Twilight State.
    2. Oneroid state.
    3. Stupor.
    4. Delirium.

    67. Loosening of association is an example of :
    1. Formal thought disorder.
    2. Schneiderian first rank symptoms.
    3. Perseveration.
    4. Concrete thinking.

    68. Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of:
    1. Involutional melancholia.
    2. Aty[pical depression.
    3. Somatized depression
    4. Depressive stupor.

    69. Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of:
    1. Depression.
    2. Dissociation.
    3. Delusions.
    4. Dementia.

    70. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except :
    1. Late onset.
    2. Married.
    3. Negative symptoms.
    4. Acute onset.

    71. The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:
    1. Ventricular septal defect.
    2. Right ventricular hypertrophy.
    3. Atrial septal defect.
    4. Pulmonary stenosis.

    72. Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumours?
    1. Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases.
    2. Bilateral in upto 10% cases.
    3. Teratomas are more common than seminomas.
    4. Usually present after 50 years of age.

    73. The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:
    1. Neurofibroma.
    2. Meningioma.
    3. Cavernous haemangioma.
    4. Schwannoma.

    74. In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged:
    1. Ventricular septal defect.
    2. Atrial septal defect.
    3. Aorto-pulmonary window.
    4. Patent ductus arteriosus.

    75. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of :
    1. Kidney.
    2. Bronchus.
    3. Breast.
    4. Prostate.

    76. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
    1. Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16mm.
    2. Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16mm.
    3. Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16mm.
    4. Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16mm.

    77. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is :
    1. Multislice CT.
    2. Echocardiography.
    3. Nuclear scan.
    4. MRI.

    78. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
    1. A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%.
    2. Presence of collaterals.
    3. A systolic pressure gradient > 20mm Hg across the lesion.
    4. Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery.

    79. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
    1. White matter.
    2. Grey matter.
    3. Thalamus.
    4. Basal ganglia.

    80. The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is :
    1. Subarachnoid space.
    2. Basal ganglia.
    3. Cerebellum.
    4. Brainstem.

    81. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
    1. Bidirectional Glem shunt.
    2. Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt.
    3. IVC occusion.
    4. Coarctation of aorta.

    82. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:
    1. Intravenous urography.
    2. Computed tomography.
    3. Ultrasound.
    4. Magnetic Resonance Imaging.

    83. All of them use non-ionizing radiation, except:
    1. Ultrasonography.
    2. Thermography.
    3. MRI.
    4. Radiography.

    84. Mixed tumours of the salivary glands are:
    1. Most common in submandibular gland.
    2. Usually malignant.
    3. Most common in parotid gland.
    4. Associated with calculi.

    85. In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of opposite breast?
    1. Adenocarcinoma-poorly differentiated.
    2. Medullary carcinoma.
    3. Lobular carcinoma.
    4. Comedo carcinoma.

    86. A malignant tumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is:
    1. Wilm’s tumour.
    2. Neuroblastoma.
    3. Adrenal gland tumours.
    4. Granulosa cell tumour of ovary.

    87. When carcinoma of stomach develops secondarily to pernicious anemia, it is usually situated in the :
    1. Pre Pyloric region.
    2. Pylorus.
    3. Body.
    4. Fundus.

    88. With regard to the malignant behaviour of leiomysarcoma, the most important criterion is :
    1. Blood vessel penetration by tumour cells.
    2. Tumour cells in lymphatic channels.
    3. Lymphocyte infiltration.
    4. The number of mitoses per high power field.

    89. The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is:
    1. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
    2. Carcinoma parotid.
    3. Dysgerminoma.
    4. OSteogenic sarcoma.

    90. Ina suspected of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except:
    1. Detection of adenexal lesion.
    2. Characterization of the lesion.
    3. Staging.
    4. Assess resectability.

    91. In which of the following age group Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) are most common?
    1. 2-10.
    2. 15-20.
    3. 25-40.
    4. >50.

    92. A patient with leukemia on chemotheraphy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of following is the clinical diagnosis?
    1. Appendictis.
    2. Leukemic colitis.
    3. Perforation peritonitis.
    4. Neutropenic colitis.

    93. All of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liver secondaries, except:
    1. Ultrasonic waves.
    2. Cryotherapy.
    3. Alcohol.
    4. Radiofrequency.

    94. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except:
    1. Phosphorus-32.
    2. Strontium-89.
    3. Iridium-192.
    4. Samarium-153.

    95. Phosphorous-32 emits:
    1. Beta particles.
    2. Alfa particles.
    3. Neutrons.
    4. X-rays.

    96. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is:
    1. Within 10 days.
    2. Within 2 weeks.
    3. Within 3 weeks.
    4. Any time after surgery.

    97. The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infraction, is approximately:
    1. 0-5%.
    2. 5-15%.
    3. 20-30%.
    4. 30-40%.

    98. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer:
    1. 131I.
    2. 99mTc.
    3. 32p.
    4. 131I-MIBG.

    99. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
    1. Chest X-ray.
    2. MRI.
    3. CT scan.
    4. Bone scan.

    100. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
    1. Electron.
    2. Proton.
    3. Helim ion.
    4. Gamma(ï§) “ Photon.

    101. Which of the following is not a major criteria for dignosis of multiple myeloma?
    1. Lytic bone lesions.
    2. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy.
    3. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
    4. ˜M’Spike > 3g% for 1g G, >2g% for 1g A.

    102. The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is:
    1. Abdomino perennial resection.
    2. Laser fulgaration.
    3. Chemoradiotherapy.
    4. Platinum based chemotheraphy.

    103. The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is:
    1. 5 times.
    2. 10 times.
    3. 15 times.
    4. 20 times.

    104. The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:
    1. 1 disc diameter.
    2. 2 disc diameter.
    3. 3 disc diameter.
    4. 4 disc diameter.

    105. The most common cause of vitreous haemorrhage in adults is :
    1. Retinal hole.
    2. Trauma.
    3. Hypertension.
    4. Diabetes.

    106. The retina receives its blood supply from all except:
    1. Posterior ciliary artery,
    2. Central retinal artery.
    3. Retinal arteries.
    4. Plexus of zinn & Haller arteries.

    107. Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally?
    1. Gentamycin.
    2. Vancomycin.
    3. Dexamethasone.
    4. Ceftazidime.

    108. Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in :
    1. Marfan’s syndrome.
    2. Homocystinuria.
    3. Hyperlusinaemia
    4. Ocular trauma.

    109. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
    1. Latanoprost.
    2. Timolol.
    3. Brimonidine,
    4. Dorzolamide.

    110. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?
    1. Itraconazole.
    2. Natamycin.
    3. Nystatin.
    4. Fluconazole.

    111. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
    1. Levobunolol.
    2. Bimatoprost.
    3. Brinzolamide.
    4. Brimonidine.

    112. In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery?
    1. Fuch’s heterochromic cyclitis.
    2. Juvenile rheumatopid arthritis.
    3. Psoriatic arthritis.
    4. Reiter’s syndrome.

    113. A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination:
    1. As early as feasible.
    2. After 5 years.
    3. After 10 years.
    4. Only after visual symptoms develop.

    114. SAFE Strategy is recommended for the control of ?
    1. Trachoma.
    2. Glaucoma.
    3. Diabetic retinopathy.
    4. Cataract.

    115. As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity <6/60 in better eye)?
    1. 1.38%
    2. 1.49%
    3. 1.72%
    4. 1.8%

    116. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
    1. School teachers.
    2. Medical officers of health centres.
    3. Ophthalmologists.
    4. Health assistants.

    117. According to the World Health Organization, the definition of blindness is:
    1. Visual acuity <6/60 in the better eye with available correction.
    2. Visual acuity <3/60 in the better eye with available correction.
    3. Visual acuity <6/60 in the better eye with best correction.
    4. Visual acuity <3/60 in the better eye with best correction.

    118. The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is :
    1. Cataract.
    2. Conjunctivitis.
    3. Refractive error.
    4. Trachoma.

    119. A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram positive round to oval cells, 12-14ï in size. The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely aetiological agent?
    1. Aspergillus.
    2. Rhizopus.
    3. Candida.
    4. Fusarium.

    120. The most common malignancy found in Marjolin’s ulcer is:
    1. Basal cell carcinoma.
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma.
    3. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma.
    4. Neurotrophic malignant melanoma.

    121. Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because of :
    1. Fungal infection.
    2. Blood borne infection (intravascular)
    3. Infection introduced from outside (extravascular)
    4. Both intravascular & extravascular infection.

    122. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is :
    1. Ultrasonography.
    2. Computed tomography.
    3. Magnetic resonance imaging.
    4. Arteriography.

    123. The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistuala is:
    1. Bacterial infection.
    2. Fungal infection.
    3. Blunt trauma.
    4. Penetrating trauma.

    124. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrance:
    1. Thyrochyoid.
    2. Criciothyroid.
    3. Crico-tracheal.
    4. Crisosternal.

    125. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in the common bile duct?
    1. Can present with Charcot’s Triad.
    2. Are suggested by a bile duct diameter >6mm of ultrasound.
    3. ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is now the standard treatment.
    4. When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T-tube can be removed after 3 days.

    126. Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre-maligant?
    1. Juvenile polyps.
    2. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
    3. Villous adenomas.
    4. Tubular adenomas.

    127. A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. Th most likely organism is:
    1. Escherichia coli.
    2. Bacillus fragilis.
    3. Streptococcus viridans.
    4. Pseudomonas aerogenosa.

    128. Biliary stricture developing after Laparascopic cholecystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct?
    1. Upper.
    2. Middle.
    3. Lower.
    4. All sites with equal frequency.

    129. Apart from Escherichia Coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is:
    1. Bacteroides.
    2. Klebsiella
    3. Peptostreptococcus.
    4. Pseudomonas.

    130. The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the anal canal is :
    1. Abdomino perineal resection.
    2. Primary radiotherapy.
    3. Combined radio-and chemotheraphy.
    4. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excision.

    131. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except:
    1. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life.
    2. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline.
    3. Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice.
    4. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue.

    132. Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance haemodialysis ?
    1. Non-dominant extremity.
    2. Upper limb.
    3. Radio-cephalic AV fistula.
    4. Sapheno-femoral fistula.

    133. Which of the following drugs is not a part of the ˜Triple Therapy’ immunosuppression for post renal transplant patients?
    1. Cyclosporine.
    2. Azathioprine.
    3. FK 506.
    4. Prednisolone.

    134. Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale?
    1. Eye opening.
    2. Motor response.
    3. Pupil size.
    4. Verbal response.

    135. Allen’s test is useful in evaluating:
    1. Thoracic outlet compression.
    2. Presence of cervical rib.
    3. Integrity of palmar arch.
    4. Digital blood flow.

    136. Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of:
    1. Endothelial cells.
    2. Collagen fibers.
    3. Smooth muscle cells.
    4. Elastic fibers.

    137. Dacron vascular graft is :
    1. Nontextile synthetic.
    2. Textile synthetic
    3. Nontextile biologic.
    4. Textile biologic.

    138. Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious person is :
    1. 8
    2. 3
    3. 15
    4. 10

    139. Mycotic abscesses are due to:
    1. Bacterial infection
    2. Fungal infection.
    3. Viral infection.
    4. Mixed infection.

    140. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time is:
    1. Transcranial.
    2. Tranethmoidal
    3. Transphenoidal.
    4. Transcallosal.

    141. The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) is:
    1. 270 to 285.
    2. 300 to 320.
    3. 350 to 375.
    4. 200 to 250.

    142. Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors?
    1. Astrocytomas.
    2. Medulloblastomas.
    3. Neurofibromas.
    4. Ependymomas.

    143. Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy?
    1. Glioma.
    2. Pituitary adenoma.
    3. Meningioma.
    4. Neurofibroma

    144. The requirement of potassium in a child is :
    1. 1-2 mEq/kg.
    2. 4-7 mEq/kg.
    3. 10-12 mEq/kg.
    4. 13-14 mEq/kg.

    145. The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is :
    1. Arterio-venous malformation.
    2. Cavernous Angioma.
    3. Aneurysm.
    4. Hypertension.

    146. Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in :
    1. Cerebellar hemisphere
    2. Thalamus.
    3. Temporal lobe.
    4. Parietal lobe.

    147. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by :
    1. Vagus nerve.
    2. Facial nerve.
    3. Trigeminal nerve.
    4. Glossopharyngeal nerve.

    148. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:
    1. Lower border of L1.
    2. Lower border of L3.
    3. Lower border of S1.
    4. Lower border of L5.

    149. Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of :
    1. External carotid artery.
    2. Internal maxillary artery.
    3. Superficial temporal artery.
    4. Middle cerebral artery.

    150. Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa?
    1. Binge eating.
    2. Amennorhea.
    3. Self perception of being ˜fat’.
    4. Under weight.

    151. An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except:
    1. An Autosomal dominant disorder.
    2. An Autosomal recessive disorder.
    3. A polygenic disorder.
    4. A vertically transmitted disorder.

    152. The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (ï¢) “ globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except:
    1. Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization.
    2. Southem blot analysis.
    3. DNA sequencing.
    4. Northern blot analysis.

    153. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except:
    1. A chromosomal syndrome.
    2. A teratogenic syndrome.
    3. A Mendelian syndrome.
    4. A polygenic syndrome.

    154. In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case ?
    1. Autosomal dominant.
    2. Autosomal recessive.
    3. X-linked dominant.
    4. X-linked recessive.

    155. Mitochondrial DNA is :
    1. Closed circular.
    2. Nicked circular.
    3. Linear.
    4. Open circular.

    156. Polar bodies are formed during :
    1. Spermatogenesis.
    2. Organogenesis.
    3. Oogenesis.
    4. Morphogenesis.

    157. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:
    1. Amniotic fluid.
    2. Maternal blood.
    3. Chorionic villi.
    4. Fetal blood.

    158. The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as :
    1. p and q arms.
    2. m and q arms.
    3. q and p arms.
    4. l and s arms.

    159. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
    1. Uncondensed.
    2. Condensed.
    3. Overcondensed.
    4. Partially condensed.

    160. Microsatellite sequence is:
    1. Small satellite.
    2. Extra chromosomal DNA.
    3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA.
    4. Looped-DNA.

    161. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except :
    1. Germinal
    2. Somatic.
    3. Haemopoetic.
    4. Tumour.

    162. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except :
    1. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath.
    2. B cells.
    3. Antigen presenting cells.
    4. Vascular sinus.

    163. All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except
    1. Induction of thymic involution
    2. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells
    3. Functional thyroid
    4. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis

    164. Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except:
    1. Inflamed pelvic appendix
    2. Inflamed ovaries
    3. Stone n pelvic Ureter
    4. Pelvic abscess

    165. A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?
    1. Damage to scalenus medius
    2. Injury to suprascapular nerve
    3. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
    4. Spread of infection to shoulder joint

    166. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children?
    1. Methyoxyflurae
    2. Sevoflurane
    3. Desflurane
    4. Isoflurane

    167. Which of the following anesthetic agents doesn’t trigger malignant hyperthermia?
    1. Halothane
    2. Isoflurane
    3. Suxamethonium
    4. Thiopentone

    168. Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
    1. Maintenance of a patent airway
    2. To provide positive pressure ventilation
    3. Pulmonary toilet
    4. Pneumothorax

    169. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?
    1. Sodium nitroprusside
    2. Hydralazine
    3. Mephenteramine
    4. Esmolol

    170. Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?
    1. Thiopentone
    2. Suxamethonium
    3. Atropine
    4. Pethidine

    171. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
    1. Meiosis
    2. exopthalmus
    3. Nasal congestion
    4. Conjuctival redness

    172. Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery?
    1. Morphine
    2. Ketamine
    3. Propofol
    4. Diazepam

    173. Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between:
    1. Aorta to Pulmonary artery
    2. Aorta to Pulmonary vein
    3. Subclavian artery to Pulmonary vein
    4. Subclavian vein to artery

    174. A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding post operative pain relief which one of the following is recommended:
    1. No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to immaturity of nervous system
    2. Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
    3. Spinal narcotics via intrathecal route
    4. Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage

    175. A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsiilectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5ºC and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
    1. Surgery should be cancelled.
    2. Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
    3. Should get x-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
    4. Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic

    176. A common feature of all serine proteases is:
    1. Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
    2. Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
    3. Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residues
    4. Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site

    177. During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments?
    1. DNA Polymerase I
    2. DNA Polymerase II
    3. DNA Polymerase III
    4. RNA Polymerase I

    178. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:
    1. Oxidase
    2. Hydrolase
    3. Peroxidase
    4. Dehydrogenase

    179. Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5' TTAAGCTAC 3’?
    1. 5’ GTACGCTTAA 3’
    2. 5’ AATTCGCATG 3’
    3. 5’ CATGCGAATT 3’
    4. 5’ TTAAGCGTAC 3’

    180. Base substitution mutatins can have be following molecular consequences except:
    1. Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino acid
    2. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
    3. Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
    4. Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon

    181. Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
    1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
    2. Homocysteine methyl transferase
    3. Glycogen synthase
    4. G-6-P dehydrogenase

    182. The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following functions except:
    1. Promotion of cell cycle progression
    2. Inhibition of apoptosis
    3. Promotion of DNA repair
    4. Promotion of nuclear transcription

    183. The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:
    1. Of its large size
    2. The vesicle looses its clathrin coat
    3. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
    4. Of the basic pH of the vesicle

    184. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is:
    1. Alanine
    2. Methionine
    3. Arginine
    4. Glutamine

    185. All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl “ CoA, except:
    1. Methionine
    2. Isoleucine
    3. Valine
    4. Histidine

    186. The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP but to generate heat is:
    1. Adrenal gland
    2. Skeletal muscle
    3. Brown adipose tissue
    4. Heart

    187. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
    1. VLDL
    2. Chylomicrons
    3. HDL
    4. LDL

    188. All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin, except:
    1. Adenylate cyclase
    2. Glycogen synthase
    3. Guanylyl cyclase
    4. Hexokinase

    189. The sigma (ï³) subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase:
    1. Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin
    2. Is inhibited by ï¡-amanitin
    3. Specifically recognizes the promoter site
    4. Is part of the core enzyme

    190. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base:
    1. mRNA
    2. tRNA
    3. rRNA
    4. snRNA

    191. There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the:
    1. Amino acid sequence
    2. Ligand binding residues
    3. Structure
    4. Environment

    192. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo “ or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?
    1. Denatured state
    2. Molecular aggregation
    3. Precipitation
    4. Quaternary structure

    193. Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence?
    1. Methionine
    2. Aspartic acid
    3. Valine
    4. Arginine

    194. The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from different species shows many variations. Most of these variations are found:
    1. Randomly
    2. Only in helical regions
    3. Only in strand regions
    4. Mainly in loop regions

    195. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is:
    1. Globular
    2. Fibrous
    3. Stretch of beads
    4. Planar

    196. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails is to:
    1. Facilitate double blinding
    2. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
    3. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
    4. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment

    197. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:
    1. Achieve comparability between study and control groups
    2. Avoid observer bias
    3. Avoid subject bias
    4. Avoid observer and subject bias

    198. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying:
    1. Efficacy
    2. Effectiveness
    3. Efficiency
    4. Effect modification

    199. Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease?
    1. Apolipoproteins
    2. VLDL
    3. HDL
    4. Total liproproteins

    200. The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is:
    1. 150 KCals
    2. 200 KCals
    3. 300 KCals
    4. 550 KCals
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    All India PG Entrance Exam 2006

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    201. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below.
    Disease
    Test result Present Absent
    + 180 400
    ï€ 20 400
    Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that population
    1. 45
    2. 31
    3. 95
    4. 50

    202. Physical quality of life index is measured by all except:
    1. Infant mortality
    2. Life expectancy at age one
    3. Literacy
    4. Per capita income

    203. All the statements are true about standardization except:
    1. Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations
    2. The national population is always taken as the standard population
    3. For Direct Standardization, age specific rates of the study population are applied to that of the standard population
    4. For Indirect Standardization, age specific rates of the standard population are applied to that of the study population

    204. All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except:
    1. Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar
    2. Investigator’s bias is minimized by double blinding
    3. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis
    4. The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from he analysis.

    205. Study the following table carefully and answer the following question:
    Disease
    Test result Present Absent
    + 40 225
    ï€ 10 225
    What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test?
    1. 45
    2. 20
    3. 80
    4. 50

    206. Pre-treatment evaluation for Lithium therapy should include:
    1. Fasting blood sugar
    2. Serum creatinine
    3. Liver function tests
    4. Platelet count

    207. According to the World Health Report 2000, India’s health expenditure is:
    1. 4.8% of G.D.P.
    2. 5.2% of G.D.P.
    3. 6.8% of G.D.P.
    4. 7% of G.D.P.

    208. The premium of the œCommunity based Universal Health Insurance Scheme  launched during 2003-04 ranges from
    1. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven
    2. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.3 per day for a family of seven
    3. Rs.2 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven
    4. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.7 per day for a family of seven

    209. In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?
    1. 1994
    2. 1996
    3. 2000
    4. 2002

    210. Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is:
    1. 6.0
    2. 6.5
    3. 7.8
    4. 10.5

    211. A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Congenital syphilis
    2. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
    3. Scabies
    4. Psoriasis

    212. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in:
    1. Lichen planus
    2. Psoriasis
    3. Tinea unguium
    4. Alopecia areata

    213. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
    1. Slit lamp examination of eye
    2. Measurement of intraocular tension
    3. Examination of fundus
    4. Retinal artery angiography

    214. A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be:
    1. Acitretin
    2. Isotretinoin
    3. Doxycycline
    4. Azithromycin

    215. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, ‘V’ area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:
    1. Skin biopsy
    2. Estimation of IgE levels in blood
    3. Patch test
    4. Intradermal prick test

    216. Finger Print Bureau was first established in:
    1. England
    2. China
    3. India
    4. Singapore

    217. Spalding’s sign occurs after:
    1. Birth of live foetus
    2. Death of foetus in uterus
    3. Rigor mortis of infant
    4. Cadaveric spasm

    218. Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and recognized by MCI are registered in:
    1. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    2. Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    3. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
    4. Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

    219. Scab or Crut of abrasion appears brown:
    1. Between 12-24 hours
    2. Between 2-3 days
    3. Between 4-5 days
    4. Between 5-7 days

    220. Which of following tests is used to detect semen?
    1. Phenolphthalein test
    2. Reine’s test
    3. Barberio’s test
    4. Paraffin test

    221. The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the following
    1. Coeliac disease
    2. Crohn’s disease
    3. Ulcerative colitis
    4. Tropical sprue

    222. The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Cancer of stomach
    3. Duodenal lymphoma
    4. Peptic ulcer disease

    223. Which of the following parasitic infestation can led to malabsorption syndrome?
    1. Amoebiasis
    2. Adcariasis
    3. Hookworm infestation
    4. Giardiasis

    224. Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia:
    1. Diarrhoea
    2. Polyuria
    3. Depression
    4. Vomiting

    225. Joint erosions are not a feature of:
    1. Rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Psoriasis
    3. Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
    4. Systemic lpus erythematosus

    226. Nevirapine is a:
    1. Protease inhibitor
    2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    4. Fusion inhibitor

    227. Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with:
    1. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
    2. Mixed connective tissue disease
    3. CREST syndrome
    4. Polymyositis

    228. A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3gm/dl, serum calcium 12.6mg/dl, phosphate-2.5mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase-100u/l, serum albumin-3 gm/dl, globulin-7.1gm/dl and urea-178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Lung cancer
    2. Disseminated tuberculosis
    3. Multiple myeloma
    4. Osteoporosis

    229. All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except:
    1. Nelfinavir
    2. Saquinavir
    3. Abacavir
    4. Ritonavir

    230. Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis?
    1. Neck muscle involvement
    2. Extraocular muscle involvement
    3. Dysphagia
    4. Abdominal muscle involvement

    231. All of the following are the known causes of osteroporosis except:
    1. Flurosis
    2. Hypogonadism
    3. Hyperthyroidism
    4. Hyperparathyroidism

    232. A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follows:
    PFT Observed Predicted
    FVC 2.63 2.82
    FEV1 88% 80%
    DLCO 5.26 16.3
    What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
    1. Interstitial lung disease
    2. Pulmonary artery hypertension
    3. Congestive heart failure
    4. Bronchiectasis

    233. Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis:
    1. Staphylococcus albust
    2. Streptococcus faecalis
    3. Salmonella typhi
    4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    234. All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except:
    1. Prolonged PR interval
    2. Prolonged QRS interval
    3. Prolonged QT interval
    4. Ventricular asystole

    235. Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except:
    1. Atherosclerosis
    2. Fibromuscular dysplasia
    3. Takayasu’s arteritis
    4. Polyarteritis nodosa

    236. Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following, except:
    1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
    2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    3. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
    4. Ventricular septal defect

    237. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except:
    1. Increased waist-hip ratio
    2. Hyperhomocysteinemia
    3. Decreased fibrinogen levels
    4. Decreased HDL levels

    238. All of the following may occur in Down’s syndrome except:
    1. Hypothyroidism
    2. Undescended testis
    3. Ventricular septal defect
    4. Brushfield’s spots

    239. All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except:
    1. Kussmaul’s sign
    2. Pulsus paradoxus
    3. Electrical alternans
    4. Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram

    240. A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Turner’s syndrome
    2. Mullerian agenesis
    3. Testicular feminization syndrome
    4. Premature ovarian failure

    241 The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is:
    1. Seizure
    2. Anxiety
    3. Hypotension
    4. Loose stools

    242 A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte is:
    1. Hyponatremia
    2. Hypocalcemia
    3. Hypokalemia
    4. Hypomagnesemia

    243 All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibting cell wall synthesis, except:
    1. Carbapenems.
    2. Monobactams
    3. Cephamycins
    4. Nitrofurantoin

    244 A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. his blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture?
    1. Pasturella spp.
    2. Francisella spp.
    3. Bartonella spp.
    4. Brucella spp.

    245 Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species?
    1. M.tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.bovis to the humans.
    2. M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis.
    3. M.africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source.
    4. M.marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy.

    246 A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen:
    1. Albert staining.
    2. Zeihl Neelson staining
    3. Mc Fadyean’s staining
    4. Wayson staining

    247 A 40 years old women presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervical os on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except:
    1. Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli.
    2. Absence of Lactobacilli.
    3. Abundance of polymorphs.
    4. Presence of clue cells.

    248 A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be cansative agent:
    1. Rickettsia typhi.
    2. Rickettsia rickettsiae
    3. Rickettsia prowazekii.
    4. Rickettsia akarai.

    249 A diabetic patient developed cellutitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antiboditics will be appropriate except.
    1. Vancomycin
    2. Imipenem
    3. Teichoplanin
    4. Linezoiid

    250 A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except:
    1. TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother.
    2. TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant
    3. VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and mother.
    4. Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her delivery.

    251 At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a pregnant patient?
    1. First trimester
    2. Second trimester
    3. Third trimester
    4. Puerperium.

    252 which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury?
    1. Vaginal hysterectomy
    2. Abdomainal hysterectomy.
    3. Wertheim’s hysterectomy
    4. Anterior colporraphy.

    253 The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome:
    1. 17-OH Progesterone
    2. Follicular stimulating hormone
    3. Lutenising hormone
    4. Thyroid stimulating hormone

    254 which vitamin deficient is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytion therepy for Epilesy?
    1. Vitamin B6
    2. Vitamin B12
    3. Vitamin A.
    4. Folic Acid

    255 Which of the following ovarian tumour is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy?
    1. Serous Cystadenoma
    2. Mucenous Cystadenoma
    3. Dermois cyst
    4. Theca Lutein Cyst

    256 Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
    1. Anencephaly
    2. Inencephaly
    3. Microcephaly
    4. Holoprosencephaly.

    257 The most common cause of tubal block in India is:
    1. Gonorrhoea infection
    2. Chlamydia infection
    3. Tuberculosis
    4. Bacterial Vaginosis

    258 The following complications dueing pregnancy increase the risk of Post Partum Haemorrhage (PPH) except:
    1. Hypertension
    2. Macrosomia
    3. Twin pregnancy
    4. Hydramnios.

    259 Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except:
    1. Fetal distress.
    2. Hematuria
    3. Fresh bleeding per vaginum
    4. Passage of meconium

    260 which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?
    1. Elevated LH hormone
    2. Can cause infertility
    3. May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test.
    4. Results in postdated pregnancy.

    261 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestral releasing intra-uterine system?
    1. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia.
    2. This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy.
    3. this method is useful for the treatment of Endometerial hyperplasia
    4. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially.

    262 All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin - releasing IUDs, except:
    1. Reduced retrograde menstruation
    2. Decreased ovulation
    3. Thickened cervical mucus
    4. Decidual changes in the endometrium.

    263 Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except.
    1. Delaying / inhibiting ovulation
    2. Inhibiting fertilization
    3. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg.
    4. Interrupting an early pregnancy.

    264 Misoprostol is a:
    1. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
    2. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
    3. Prostaglandin antagonist
    4. Antiprogestin.

    265 Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph nodes, except:
    1. Parameterial lymph nodes.
    2. Deep inguinal lymph nodes.
    3. Obtruator lymph nodes
    4. Ext. iliac lymph nodes.

    266. The treatment for a case of virilising adrenal hyperplasia is:
    1. Estrogens
    2. Antiandrogens
    3. ACTH.
    4. Cortisone.

    267 A primigravida presents to casually at 32wks. gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements, She should be managed by:
    1. Immediate caesarean section
    2. Immediate induction of labour
    3. Tocolytic therapy
    4. Magnesium sulphate therapy

    268 The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is:
    1. Pap smear
    2. Fractional curettage
    3. Transvaginal ultrasound
    4. CA-125 estimation

    269 In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of metastasis to ovary is the least?
    1. Carcinoma cervix
    2. Carcinoma endometrium
    3. Carcinoma fallopian tube
    4. Uterine sarcoma

    270 The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of pregnancy is:
    1. Triple marker estimation
    2. Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement
    3. Chorionic villus sampling
    4. Amniocentesis

    271 Calcitonin is secreted by:
    1. Thyroid gland
    2. Parathyroid gland
    3. Adrenal glands
    4. Ovaries

    272 Which of the following is an intraarticular tendon?
    1. Sartorius
    2. Semitendinosus
    3. Anconeus
    4. Popliteus

    273 which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion:
    1. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
    2. Giant cell tumor
    3. Fibrous cortical defect
    4. Simple bone cyst

    274 Bisphosphonates act by:
    1. Increasing the osteoid formation.
    2. Increasing the mineralisation of osteoid.
    3. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone.
    4. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion.

    275 All the statements are true about exotosis, except:
    1. It occurs at the growing end of bone.
    2. Growth continues after skeletal maturity.
    3. It is covered by cartilaginous cap.
    4. Maligant transformation may occur.

    276 Rugger Jersey Spineâ is seen in:
    1. Fluorosis
    2. Achondroplasia
    3. Renal Osteodystrophy.
    4. Marfan’s Syndrome.

    277 Brown tumours are seen in:
    1. Hyperparathyroidism.
    2. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
    3. Osteomalacia
    4. Neurofibromatosis

    278 All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia (DDH) of the hip, except:
    1. It is more common in females.
    2. Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH.
    3. The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction.
    4. Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor.

    279 All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except:
    1. Preganglinoic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions.
    2. Erb’s palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder.
    3. In Klumpke’s palsy, Horner’s syndrome may be present on the ipsil
    4. Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglinoic and postganglinoic lesions.

    280 The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is:
    1. Manipulation by mother.
    2. Manipulation and Dennis Brown splint.
    3. Manipulation and Casts.
    4. Surgical release.

    281 The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to:
    1. Sensori-neural hearing loss.
    2. Secondary Cholesteatoma.
    3. Tympanoscelerosis.
    4. Tertiary cholesteatoma.

    282 A 30 year old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophelebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?
    1. Intact canal wall mastiodectomy.
    2. Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty.
    3. Canal wall down mastoidectomy.
    4. Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration.

    283 Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?
    1. Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane
    2. Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic membrane.
    3. Partial fixation of the stapes foorplate.
    4. Ottitis media with effusion.

    284 During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through:
    1. Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve.
    2. Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve.
    3. Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus.
    4. Through olfactory area.

    285 Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates ?
    1. Impedance audiometry.
    2. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA).
    3. Free field audiometry.
    4. Behavioral audiometry.

    286 The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is :
    1. Influenza virus.
    2. Para influenza virus.
    3. Rhinovirus.
    4. Respiratory syncytial virus.

    287 Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an infant incubator?
    1. Radiation.
    2. Evaporation.
    3. Convection.
    4. Conduction.

    288 Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of the following features except:
    1. Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies.
    2. Onset occurs at 4-12wk of age.
    3. Intracranial hemorrhage can occur.
    4. Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role.

    289 Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific for maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
    1. Transposition of great arteries
    2. Caudal regression
    3. Holoprosencephaly.
    4. Meningmyelocele.

    290 the prognosis of rhabdomysarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
    1. Orbit
    2. Para testicular
    3. Extremity
    4. Urinary bladder.

    291 Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?
    1. Ewing’s sarcoma.
    2. Retinoblastoma.
    3. Osteosarcoma
    4. Neuroblastoma.

    292 The most common second malignancy in survivors of retinoblastoma is:
    1. Thyroid cancer.
    2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    3. Optic glioma.
    4. Osteosarcoma.

    293 The most important determinant of prognosis in Wilms tumor
    1. Stage of disease.
    2. Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 1p.
    3. Histology.
    4. Age less than one year at presentation.

    294 The finnish type of cogential nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations affecting the following protein.
    1. Podocin
    2. Alpha-actinin
    3. Nephrin
    4. CD2 activated protein.

    295 Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, except:
    1. Nail patella syndrome
    2. Distal renal tubular acidosis.
    3. Bartter syndrome.
    4. Alport syndrome.

    296 With reference to mumps which of the following is true?
    1. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis.
    2. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids.
    3. The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement.
    4. Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility.

    297 A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Constitutional delay in growth.
    2. Genetic short stature.
    3. Primordial dwarfism.
    4. Hypopituitarism.

    298 Drug induced lupus can be identified by
    1. Anti-histone antibodies.
    2. Double stranded DNA antibodies.
    3. Antinuclear antibodies.
    4. Anti-SM antibodies.

    299 The process underlying differences in expression of a gene, according to which parent has transmitted, is called:
    1. Anticipation
    2. Mosaicism
    3. Non-penetrance
    4. Genomic imprinting.

    300 the sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourished children) is:
    1. 90mmol/L.
    2. 60mmol/L
    3. 45mmol/L
    4. 30mmol/L
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    AIPGE - 2007 Questions

    1. Hemidesmosone is located in
    a Homey cefl ayer b. Granular ceB layer
    c. Squamous cefl ayer d. Basal cell layer
    2. Darier’s sign is seen in
    a. Urticaria pigmentosa b. Papular urticaria
    c. Solar urticaria d. Darier’s disease
    3. Ecthyma Gangrenosurn is caused by
    a. Streptococcui b. Saphylococcui
    c. Pseudornonas d. Clostridium
    4. Griseofulvin is not useful in
    a. Tinec capitis b. Tineo cruris
    c. Tinea versicolor d. Tineo pedis
    5. Scl-70 antibody is characteristic of
    a. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus b. Scleroderma
    c. Dermatomyositis d. Sjogren’s Syndrome
    6. The duration of symptoms needed to diagnose the major depressive disorder s
    a. 2 days b. 2 weeks c. I week d. 2 months
    7. The single most reliable risk factor for assessment of a patient3s future suicida
    a. Single status b. Previous suicide attempts
    c. Depressive disorder d. Excessive use of alcohol
    8. While decisions of any variety can occur in major depressive disorder, the rncs c:z
    delusions are
    a. Mood - congruent b. Mood - incongruent
    c. Mood - controlling d. Mood - unrelated
    9. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is considered the best in treatment c schizophrenia?
    a. Qlanzapine b. Clozapine c. Resperidone d. Chlorprornaz
    10. Which of the following are not the features of Good prognosis in Schizophren a
    a. Late onset b. Acute onset
    c. Presence of Mood symptoms d. Poor social support

    11. The following is not a feature of acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    a. Normal 03 b. Hypertension
    c. Elevated blood urea and creatinine d. Increased ASO titre
    12. Hypochromic Microcytic blood picture is seen in all the following conditions EXCEPT
    a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Lead poisoning
    c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Sideroblastic anemias
    13. Indications for Bag and Mask Resuscitation in Newborn are
    a. Cyanosis and Tachycardia
    b. Tachycardia and Rapid Breathing
    c. Cyanosis and Bradycardia
    d. Absent Respirations and Heart Rate below 100 I mm
    14. Drugs implicated in producing Pseudotumour Cerebri include all EXCEPT
    a. Penicillin b. Naladixic Acid c. Tetracyclines d. Nitrofurantion
    15. The commonest microorganisms causing pneumonia in cystic fibrosis are the following
    EXCEPT
    a. Staphylococcus Aureus b. Pseudomonas Aeroginosa
    c. Mycoplasma Pneumoniae d. Burkholderia cepacia
    16. Which ONE of the following is considered abnormal in a neonate
    a. Erythema Toxicum b. Mongolian spot
    c. Caput succedaneum d. Jaundice within the first 24 hours
    17. The vitamin A prophylaxis recommended for children between ito 6 years
    a. One lakh IU Oral vitamin A every 6 months
    b. Two lakhs IU Oral vitamin A every 6 months
    c. Two Iakhs Oral once a year
    d. One lakh IU Oral vitamin A once a year
    18. Pulmonary blood flow is decreased in
    a. Ventricular septal defect b. Atrial septal defect
    c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Truncus arteriosus
    19. In children the most commonly recognized form of familial hyperlipidemia is
    a. hypertriglyceridemia b. hypercholesterolemia
    c. hyperchylomicronemia d. combined hyperlipidemia
    20. The following are causes of prolonged unconjugated hyper bilirubinaemia in the newt
    EXCEPT:
    a. Breast milk jaundince b. Neonatal hepatitis
    c. Hypothyroidism d. Hemolyfic disease of the new born

    21. Which malignancy would occur in long standing multinodular goiter:
    a. Papillary Ca b. Follicular Ca c. Anaplastic Ca d. Medullary Ca
    22. Indication for surgery in benign prostatic hypertrophy are all EXCEPT:
    a. Prostatism b. Chronic retention
    c. Hemorrhage d. Enlarged prostate
    23. Preservation of ilionguinal nerve is an important step inguinal in hernia operation while
    a. Incising the sub-cutaneous tissue
    b. Incising the extra oblique aponeurosis
    c. Incising the cremasteric fascia
    d. Isolating the sac
    24. Most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction is:
    a. Adhesions b. Volvulus c. Inguinal hernia d. Internal hernias
    25. Association of Carcinoma gall bladder with gall stones is about:
    a. 50% b. 70% c. 90% d. 20%
    26. Surgery for Ranula involves
    a. incision and drainage
    b. Excision of cyst
    c. Excision of affected sublingual salivary gland
    d. Excision of cyst and affected sublingual salivary gland
    27. In chronic Lymphocytic Thyroiditis
    a. Surgery is indicated in the majority of cases
    b. Thyroid antibody estimation is useful in a few cases
    c. FNAC is the most appropriate investigation
    d. there is no role of steroid therapy in the management
    28. Complications of gallstones include the following except for,
    a. Acute gastritis b. Intestinal obstruction
    c. Obstructive Jaundice d. Acute Pancreatitis
    29. Cardinal features of Intestinal Obstruction are as follows except for
    a. Abdominal pain b. Vomiting
    c. Diarrhoea d. Distension of abdomen
    30. Renal cell carcinoma
    a. Rarely presents with haematuria
    b. Pyrexia is not a feature
    c. Tumor thrombus in Renal vein is characteristic
    d. Is commonly seen in children

    31. Classic diagnostic point for an uncomplicated indirect inguinal hernia is
    a. impulse on coughing b. positive deep ring occlusion test
    c. groin swelling d. reduceability
    32. Commonest benign tumor of parotid salivary gland is
    a. haemangioma
    b. lymphoma
    c. mixed parotid tumor (pleomorphic adenoma)
    d. Warthin’s tumor
    33. Boundaries of Hesselbacrs triangle include the three EXCEPT
    a. Lateral border of rectus sheath b. Spermatic cord
    c. Inguinal ligament d. Inferior epigastric artery
    34. In Richter’s hernia the sac contains
    a. Greater omentum b. Caecum
    c. Part of the small gut wall d. Spleen
    35. Which of the following is NOT an indication for parentral nutrition
    a. lleus b. Severe Pancreatitis
    c. Colocutaneous fistula d. Massive bowel resection
    36. Which of the following is NOT a congenital sinus?
    a. Pilonidal b. Umbilical c. Urachal d. Sacral
    37. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Phyllodes tumor
    a. Quadrantectomy b. Enucleation
    c. Wide Local excision d. Simple mastectomy
    38. Treatment of choice for Annular Pancreas is
    a. Gastro jejunastomy b. Pancreatectomy
    c. Whipple’s procedure d. Duodeno duodenostomy
    39. All of the following are synonyms for Renal Cell Carcinoma EXCEPT
    a. Adenocarcinoma of the Kidney b. Hypernephroma
    c. Grawitz tumor d. Transitional cell tumor of Kidney
    40. 121. Vicryl, the commonly used suture material is a:
    a. Homopolymer of polydioxaone b. Co-polymer of glycolide an lectide
    c. Homopolymer of glycolide d. Homopolymer of lactide

    41. The commonest cause of massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding is
    a. Esophageal varices b. Erosive gastritis
    c. Gastric carcinoma d. Peptic ulcer
    42. A 15 year old boy is admitted with a history and physical findings consistent with appendicitis. Which of the following findings is most likely to be positive?
    a. Pelvic crepitus b. Iliopsoas sign c. Murphy’s sign d. Flank ecchymosis
    43. The peak flow rate which indicates the degree of bladder outlet obstruction should be
    a. less than 100 ml per sec b. less than 50 ml per sec
    c. less than 25 ml per sec d. less than 15 ml per sec
    44. The treatment of Cholecysto enteric fistula following ulceration of gallstones
    through the gall bladder into the duodenum
    a. Excision of the track and closure of the fistula
    b. Divert the bile of another anastomosis
    c. Cholecystectomy & primary repair of the bowel
    d. Radical excision of all related structures and reconstruction
    45. Which of the following nerves is sacrificed in Patey’s mastectomy?
    a. Axillary nerve b. Thoracodorsal nerve
    c. Long thoracic nerve d. lntercostobrachial nerve
    46. Commonest intra-abdominal tumor below 2 years of age:
    a. Neuroblastoma b. Wilm’s tumour
    c. Hepatoblastoma d. Lymphoma
    47. Commonest presentation of bilateral ureteric stones calculi:
    a. CRF b. UTI c. Pain d. Hematuria
    48. Invertogram is taken after:
    a. 2 Hrs b. 4 Hrs c. 6 Hrs d. 8 Hrs
    49. Ormond’s disease is:
    a. Idiopathic lymphadenopathy b. Idiopathic pericarditis
    c. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis d. Idiopathic mediastinitis
    50. Commonest cause for hyperparathyroidism is:
    a. Single Adenoma b. Multiple Adenoma
    c. Single gland hyperplasia d. Multiple gland hyperplasia

    51. AN the following are used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome EXCEPT
    a. Tinel’s sign b. Phalen’s Test
    c. Adson Test d. Electrodiagnostic Test
    52. Developmental disorders involving cartilage abnormalities
    a. Oilier’s Disease b. Ehlers — Danlos syndrome
    c. Osteogenesis imperfecta d. Larsen’s syndrome
    53. First step in a case of pelvic fracture in casualty
    a. Catheterise bladder b. Take X-ray
    c. Treat Shock d. Apply external fixator
    54. Distended bladder, incontinence of urine and priapism are
    a. Signs of injury to Urethra b. Signs of injury to Caudaequina
    c. Signs of injury to pelvis d. Signs of injury to Spinal cord
    55. Tennis elbow is manifested by pain and tenderness over:
    a. Medial epicondyle of lumerus b. Lateral epicondyle of lumerus
    c. Olecranan process d. None of the above
    56. Shoulder dislocation is reduced by
    a. Stimson’s manoeuvre b. Kocher’s manoeuvre
    c. Kite’s manoeuvre d. Putti-Platt’s manoeuvre
    57. Non union is a common complication in all of the following fractures EXCEPT
    a. Fracture neck of femur b. Fracture scaphoid
    c. Fracture lower third of tibia d. Trochanteric fractures
    58. Extracapsular fracture neck of femur is likely when there is external rotation of limb of
    a. 15 Degree b. 25 Degree c. 40 Degree d. 90 Degree
    59. Commonest site of chondroblastoma
    a. Ephyphysis b. Diaphysis c. Metaphysis d. Soft tissue
    60. Shoveller’s fracture is
    a. Fracture of spinous process b. Fracture of distal radius
    c. Fracture of tibial spine d. Fracture of Cl body

    61. Rollover phenomenon n speech audiology is seen in:
    a. Cochlear lesions b. Retro cochlear lesions
    c. Lesion of inferior collicullus d. Lesion in medial geniculate body
    62. The most common cause of cerebro spinal Otorrhoea is
    a. Rupture of Tympanic membrane b. Fracture of Petrous ridge
    c. Fracture of mastoid air cells d. Fracture Parietal bone
    63. The quality of voice in a patient with gross adenoids hypertrophy is described as
    a. Hoarse b. Rhinolalia clausa
    c. Rhinolalia Aperta d. ‘Hot Potato’ voice
    64. Answer the following assertion and reasoning questions by selecting
    a. If statement 1 and 2 are true and 2 is the correct explanation for 1
    b. If statement 1 and 2 are true and 2 is not the correct explanation for 1
    c. If statement 1 is true and 2 is false
    d. If statement 2 is true and 1 is false
    Statement 1: Nominal Dysphasia is a feature of temporal lobe abscess
    Statement 2: It involves speech area of the dominant cerebral hemisphere
    65. The inner ear is a derivative of
    a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm c. Mesoderm d. Neural crest cells
    66. The organism causing ulcus serpens is a
    Pseudomonas b. Aspergillus
    c. Pneumococcus d. Gonococcus
    67. Retrolental fibroplasias is also known as
    a. Mature retinopathy b. Retinopathy of prematurity
    c. Postmature retinopathy d. Hypermature retinopathy
    68. Cherry red spot at Macula is seen in all EXCEPT
    a. Tay sachs Disease b. Ocular albinism
    c. Niemann pick disease d. Generalized gangliosidosis
    69. Fleischer’s ring on cornea is associated with
    a. Wilson’s disease b. Keratoconus
    c. Minor trauma of cornea d. Pterygium
    70. Gold standard in measuring intraocular pressure is
    a. Schiotz tonometer b. Applanation tonometer
    c. Air puff tonometer d. Pulsaid tonometer

    71. Enteroclysis is synonymous with
    a. Hypotonic duodenography b. Barium meal follow through
    c. Small bowel enema d. Large bowel Barium enema
    72. Rugger-Jersy Spine is typically seen in
    a. Sickle cell anemia b. Rickets
    c. Renal Osteodystrophy d. Acromegaly
    73. Bilateral pleural calcification is seen in
    a. Empyema b. Hemothorax c. Pleurisy d. Asbestosis
    74. Rachitic Rosary in Rickets is seen in
    a. Ribs b. Hands c. Pelvis d. Skull
    75. Putty Kidney is typically seen in
    a. Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Hypernephroma
    d. Neuroblastoma
    76. Prilocaine
    a. Is an amino ester
    b. Is used in eutectic mixtures
    c. Is not metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
    d. is the LA of choice in labour analgesia
    77. Ether was first successfully administered on October 1 6’ 1946 by
    a. W T G Morton b. Horace Wells c. John Snow d. Humphry Davy
    78. Which of the following is a co-axial breathing circuit?
    a. Magill’s circuit b. Bain’s circuit c. JRMATP circuit d. Circle system
    79. Thiopentone
    a. 2.5% in aqueous solution has a pH of approximately 10.5
    b. is metabolized only by the Kidney
    c. is an oxybarbitu rate
    d. is unstable in solution if it is kept for 24 hours
    80. The following structure is traversed during midline lumbar epidural puncture
    a. Ligament flavum b. Ligamentum denticulum
    c. Posterior longitudinal ligament d. Anterior cruciate ligament

    81. All the following are causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
    EXCEPT:
    a. Intra uterine death b. Missed abortion
    c. Abruptio Placentae d. Multiple pregnancy
    82. The retraction ring of Bandi’s is seen in case of:
    a. Preterm labour b. Retained Placenta
    c. Atonic PPH d. Obstructed labour
    83. The first stage of labour includes all the following events EXCEPT:
    a. Effacement of Cervix b. Dilatation of Cervix
    c. Crowning of the Foetal head d. Descent of the head
    84. The presence of decubitus ulcer in a case of prolapse uterus indicates:
    a. Trauma b. Circulatory disturbance
    c. Infection d. Malignancy
    85. The following about the Labia Minora are true EXCEPT
    a. Thin folds of skin with enclosed veins
    b. Lie on the medial aspect of the Labia Majora
    c. Contain Sebaceous Glands & hair follicles
    d. They are erective during sexual activity
    86. The pressure on the urinary bladder is more common with
    a. Cervical myomata b. Intamural fibroids
    c. Submucous fibroids d. Subseous fibroids
    87. The percentage of water in Liquor Amnii
    a. 42% b. 64% c. 76% d. 99%
    88. Incidence of scar rupture in a subsequent pregnancy in case of Lower Segment Cesarean
    Section (LSCS) is
    a. 2% b. 4% c. 6% d. 8%
    89. Which of the following is the commonest fistula as a complication of obstructed labor?
    a. Vesico — Vaginal Fistula b. Uretro — Vaginal Fistula
    c. Uretro — Abdominal Fistula d. Vesico — Cervical Fistula
    90. Perinatal morality rate is the number of still births plus neonatal deaths
    a. per 1 ,000 total births b. per 1,000 live births
    c. per 10,000 total births d. per 10,000 live births

    91. MultNoad — 375 needs replacement every
    a. 5 years b. 3 years c. 1 year d. 4 years
    92. Commonest site of ectopic pregnancy is
    a. Fallopian tube b. Ovary c. Cervix d. Broad ligament
    93. The staging of Gestational Trophoblastic tumors is based on
    a. the extent of anatomical spread of the disease
    b. the extent of the histologic spread of the disease
    c. the extent of the lymphatic spread of the disease
    d. the extent of the hematologic spread of the disease
    94. Under MTP Act, termination of pregnancy is permitted upto
    a. 28 weeks of pregnancy b. 12 weeks of pregnancy
    c. 20 weeks of pregnancy d. 6 weeks of pregnancy
    95. WHO in which year conceived the idea of Safe Motherhood Initiative at a conference in
    Nairobi, Kenya
    a. 1987 b. 1980 c. 1990 d. 1997
    96. The most consistent symptom of fibroid uterus is
    a. Menorrhagia b. Dysmenorrhoea
    c. Retention of urine d. Constipation
    97. Curdy white vaginal discharge is a characteristic feature of
    a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Chlamydial infection
    c. Trichomoniasis d. Candidiasis
    98. The cardiac disease most commonly associated with pregnancy is
    a. Aortic stenosis b. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
    c. Mitral stenosis d. Coarctation of aorta
    99. Fetal lung maturation is assured by measurement of
    a. Lecithin b. Prostaglandin
    c. Sphingomyelin d. Phosphatidyglycerol
    100. The best predictor of ovulation is
    a. Estrogen peak b. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH> surge
    c. Onset of the LH surge d. Preovulatory rise in progesterone

    101. Floor of Fossa ovalis of the interatrial septum formed by:
    a. Septum Secundum b. Septum primum
    c. Septum Intermedium d. Membranous part of the Septum
    102. The following arteries are related to the superior border of pancreas EXCEPT
    a. Coeliac trunk b. Left gastric artery
    c. Common hepatic artery d. Splenic artery
    103. Brush border of coloumnar epithelium is tightly packed
    a. Tonofibrills b. Microtubules c. Microvilli d. Stereocilia
    104. In a Karyo type the ‘i†chromosome belongs to the group
    a. D b. E c. F d. G
    e
    105. The classical hip pain is felt over the area of distribution of all the nerves EXCEPT s
    a. Sciatic nerve b. Femoral nerve
    c. Obturator nerve d. Femoral nerve
    106. The magnocellular pathway for vision receive signals from:
    a. X retinal ganglion cells b. Y retinal ganglion cells
    c. Colorblobs d. Brodmann’s area 17
    107. Vasopressin secretion is increased by
    a. Increased effective osmotic pressure of plasma
    b. Decreased effective osmotic pressure of plasma
    c. Increased extracellular fluid volume
    d. Alcohol
    108. In eukaryotes segments of genes that diatate the formation of proteins are broken into
    a. exons b. introns c. spliceasomes d. transcodon
    109. The venous system can act as a reservoir for peripheral blood chiefly because of the:
    a. inherent distensibility of the venous wall
    b. Absence of smooth muscle fibers in the venous wall
    c. Superficial location of the veins
    d. Large volume capacity
    110. Spontaneous respiration ceases after
    a. transection of the brainstem above the pons
    b. transection of the brainstem at the caudal end of the medulla
    c. bilateral vagotomy
    d. bilateral vagotomy combined with transaction of the brainstem at the superior border

    1 11. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:
    a. Primary deficit in the carbonic acid
    c. Primary deficit in the bicarbonate
    b. Primary excess of bicarbonate
    d. Primary excess of carbonic acid
    112. The amino acid Cysteine is formed from:
    a. Tryptophan b. Methionine
    C, Valine
    d. Proline
    113. Which one of the following vitamins has antioxidant property?
    a. Vitamin K
    b. Vitamin C
    c. Vitamin D
    d. Vitamin B
    114. Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen
    a. Liver
    c. Skeletal muscle
    b. Kidney
    d. Cardiac muscle
    115. Fatty acid entry in to mitochondria requires
    a. Fatty acid binding protein
    C. Creatine
    b. Carnitine
    d. Creatinine
    116. Which of the following statement is true of Ketorolac
    a. Has potent anti-inflammatory activity
    b. Its analgesic efficacy is equal to morphine in post operative pain
    c. Is used as preanaesthetic analgesic
    d. It interacts with opioid receptor
    117. Which of the following statement is NOT correct of Tardive dyskinesia
    a. It is an unwanted effect of antipsychotics
    b. Levodopa exacerbate the symptoms
    c. Antimuscarine drug reduces its severity
    d. Often diazepam is used to bring improvement
    1 18. Which one of the following H1 blockers is non-sedating?
    a. Diphenydramine b. Chlorpheniramine
    c. Loratadine d. Promethazine
    119. Third generation cephalosporins include all the following EXCEPT
    a. Ceftizoxime b. Cefoperazone c. Cefoxitin d. Cefixime
    120. Flutamide is a
    a. Anti-convulsant
    c. Anti-progestin
    b. Anti-androgen
    d. Anti-estrogen

    121. All these drugs EXCEPT one cross the blood brain barrier:
    a. Morphine b. Dopamine c. Propronolol d. Ether
    122. Thiazide diuretics do not produce ONE of the adverse effects:
    a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperuricemia
    123. Allopurinol is most likely to potentiate the pharmacological action of
    a. 5-fluorouracil b. Bleomycin
    c. 6-mercaptopurine d. Doxorubicin
    124. A patient presents with Zollinge-Ellison syndrome due to gastrinoma. He has two bleeding ulcers and diarrhea. A drug that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+ATPase in gastric parietal
    cells is:
    a. Cimetidine b. Cisapride c. Glycopyrollate d. Omeprazole
    125. The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated red cells in the marrow, anemia and
    reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependent side effects is of K
    a. Azithromycin b. Chloramphenicol
    c. Clindamycin d. Doxycycline
    126. Chrome Urethral obstruction due to benign prostatic Hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma:
    a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Atrophy d. Dysplasia
    127. Ascitis in active Portal Cirrhosis is due to:
    a. Portal Hypertension b. Hypoproteinaernia
    c. Sodium retension d. AU of the Above
    128. Leukemogenesis by HTVL-1 virus has been attributed to which of the foHowing viral
    genes?
    a. gag b. tax c. po d. env
    129. Which one of the following disorders is not grouped under monoclonal gammopathies?
    a. Burkitt lymphoma b. Multiple myeloma
    c. Heavy chain disease d. Primary Amyloidosis
    130. The commonest type of glomerulonephritis causing nephrotic syndrome in children is
    a. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
    b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    c. Minimal change disease
    d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

    131. Defective phagolysosome formation is a featureof:
    a. Chronic granulomatous disease
    c. Ataxia telangiectasia
    132. Fibrolamellar type of hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with all the following
    features EXCEPT that:
    a. It occurs in young adults
    b. It is more common in females
    c. It has no association with cirrhosis liver
    d. It has a better prognosis
    133. The most important factor related to the prognosis of breast cancer is
    a. Presence of activated oncogenes b. The histological type
    c. The size of the tumor d. Status of axillary lymph nodes
    134. In primary atypical pneumonia the inflammatory exudate is seen in
    a. Alveolar Lumen b. Bronchioles
    c. Pleura d. Alveolar Interstitium
    135. All the following enzymes act as free radical scavenging systems EXCEPT
    a. Catalase b. Superoxide dismutase
    c. Glutathione peroxidase d. Xanthine oxidase
    136. Asymptomatic carriage of Listeria in humans is:
    a. Upto 5% b. 15 — 20% c. 30 — 40%
    137. Epitope binding floor of the MHC molecule consists of
    a. Alpha helices
    c. Alpha and beta 1 chain
    138. Draughtsman appearance phenomenon is a characteristic feature of
    a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus agalectiae
    c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Streptococcus viridans
    139. An example of yeast is
    a. Candida albicans b. Cryptococcus neoformans
    c. Penicillium marneffei d. Aspergillus tumigatus
    140. Effect of Antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT
    a. Lyses Gram Negative Bacilli
    b. Enhances Phagocytosis
    c. Increase in the frequency of Lysogeny
    d. Inhibits bacterial Adherence to Mucosal cells
    b. Chediak — Higashi syndrome 1. Fanconi anaemia
    d. Not present
    b. 8 stranded beta pleated structure
    d. Beta 2 microglobulin

    141. The most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is:
    a. Trichomonas Vaginalis b. Chlamydia trachomatis
    c. Ureaplasma urealyticum d. Escherichia coli
    142. Detection of antibodies to arc 5 antigen is done to diagnose:
    a. Cysticercosis b. Hydatid cyst disease
    c. Brucellosis d. Cryptococcosis
    143. The binding site for complement on the IgG molecule is in the
    a. VL domain b. CL domain c. CH1 domain d. CH2 domain
    144. CAMP teset is used to detect infection caused by
    a. Streptococcus equisimilis b. Streptococcus agalactiae e
    c. Streptococcus viridans d. Streptococcus pyogenes S
    k
    145. NIH swab is used for the recovery of eggs of
    a. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Enterobius vermicularis
    c. Ascaris lumbriocoides d. Trichinella spiralis
    146. The Commonest type of abrasion seen in Road Traffic Accidents is
    a. Scratch abrasion b. Grazed abrasion
    c. Contact abrasion d. Imprint abrasion
    147. In a case of Disputed Paternity, Father’s blood group is A, Mother’s blood group is B, the
    child’s blood is
    a. A only b. B only c. AB only d. A, B, AB or 0
    148. For DNA test liquid blood is preserved in
    a. Sodium citrate b. Pot oxalate c. EDTA d. Sodium Fluoride
    149. The route of Administration for Amyl Nitrate in cyanide poisoning is
    a. Intra Muscular b. Intra Venous c. Sub Dermal d. Inhalation
    150. Caput succedaneum in a new born is
    a. Collection of blood under the pericranium
    b. Collection of sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp
    c. Oedema of the scalp due to grip of forceps
    d. Varicose veins in the scalp

    151. Administrative Unit of the ICDS Project in rural areas is
    a. PHC b. Community Development Block
    c. Zilla Parishad d. Gram Panchayat
    152. Late foetal deaths and early neonatal deaths are considered together in which of the
    following indices?
    a. Infant mortality rate b. Perinatal mortality rate
    c. Still birth rate d. Post neonatal mortality rate
    153. In which of the diseases Herd Immunity cannot protect the individual
    a. Tetanus b. Diphtheria c. Polimyelities d. All of the above
    154. Human Development Index includes
    a. Infant Mortality Rate b. Life Expectancy at birth
    c. Net Reproduction Rate d. No. of years of disability
    155. The first country in South East Asia Region (SEAR) to report AIDS was -
    a. Sri Lanka b. India c. Thailand d. Bangladesh
    156. The fourth stage of demographic cycle is
    a. Declining b. Early expanding
    c. High stationary d. Low stationary
    157. The latrine intended for camps of long duration is a
    Shallow trench latrine b. Borehole latrine
    c. Water Seal latrine d. Deep trench latrine
    158. Pasteurization of milk is an example of
    a. Absolute disinfection b. Precurrent disinfection
    c. Concurrent disinfection d. Terminal disinfection
    159. Pap smear test for detection of Carcenoma of Cervix is which level of prevention
    a. Primordial b. Primary c. Secondary d. Tertiary
    160. Approximate magnitude of completed family size is denoted by
    a. Total fertility rate b. Total marital fertility rate
    c. General fertility rate d. General marital fertility rate

    161. A person who has lost his foot in an accident and is not able to walk is an example of
    a. disease b. disability c. impairment d. handicap
    162. National population policy 2000 aims to achieve all EXCEPT
    a. Targets to be achieved by the year 2010
    b. Reduction of IMR to less than 30 live births /1000 live births
    c. Reduction of MMR to less than 100 live births / 1000 live births
    d. Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy
    163. As per the most common classification of Triage system that is internationally accepted, the colour code that indicates high priority treatment or transfer is
    a. Black b. Yellow c. Red d. Blue
    164. When the economic benefits of any programme are compared with the cost of the
    programme it is called
    a. Cost-benefit analysis b. Cost-effective analysis e
    c. Cost-Accounting d. Input-output analysis S
    165. The association between low birth weight and maternal smoking during pregnancy can be studied by obtaining smoking histories from women at the time of their visit and then subsequently correlating birth weight with smoking histories. What type of study is this?
    a. Clinical trial b. Cross-sectional c. Prospective d. Case-control
    166. Panel discussion can be defined as
    a. Series of speeches
    b. Discussion by 4 — 8 qualified persons
    c. Groups describing individual experiences
    d. Stage wise formatted teaching
    167. In management “goal†refers to
    a. Planned end point of all activity
    b. Discrete activity
    c. Ultimate desired state towards which objectives & resources are directed
    d. Analysis of health situation
    168. After Ovulation Cervical Mucus thickens and lessens in quantity under the influence of
    a. Progesterone b. Oestrogen c. L.H d. h.C.G
    169. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) occurs
    a. Due to Lepromin test reaction b. In those with tuberculoid leprosy
    c. As a reaction to multi drug therapy d. In those with lepromatous leprosy
    170. Cluster testing is the term used during
    a. UIP Survey for Polio
    b. Screening for STD’s
    c. Exposing the body for Hypopigmented patches
    d. Testing contacts of Typhoid cases [PTO

    171. Which of these is NOT an essential Amino Acid?
    a. Histidine b. Homocysteine c. Lysine d. Valine
    172. Type A (Augmented) adverse drug reactions are characterized by aN EXCEPT
    a. Qualitatively abnormal responses to the drug
    b. Predictable from the drug’s known pharmacological or toxicological effects
    c. Generally dose-dependent
    d. Usually common
    173. The most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding is:
    a. Gastric Carcinoma b. Mallory-Weiss tear
    c. Peptic Ulcer d. Gastric erosions
    174. Aplastic anemia is characterized for Multiple myeloma is:
    a. Manifests as anemia, bleeding & infection
    b. Pancytopenia
    c. High reticulocyte count
    d. Hypocellular bone marrow
    175. You find a person in front of you on the street having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure.
    Your approach would be:
    a. To give a key chain or iron rod in the persons hand
    b. To move the person away from danger
    c. To give Intravenous Diazepam
    d. Insert a mouth gag
    176. Troponin ‘T’ test is used in the diagnosis of:
    a. Cerebral Infarction b. Myocardial Infarction
    c. Pulmonary Infarction d. Splenic Infarction
    177. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome is due to
    a. Beta-Cell islet tumour b. Non Beta Cell islet tumour
    c. Carcinoma d. Glucaganoma
    178. Radical cure of plasmodium vivax is by
    a. Chioroquine b. Tetracycline c. Primaquine d. Artesunate
    179. Following conditions produce communicating hydrocephalus EXCEPT
    a. Tubercular meningitis b. Aqueduct stenosis
    c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage d. Sarcaoidosis
    180. Drugs which produces gynaecomastia are EXCEPT
    a. Cimetedine b. Digoxin c. Cortisol d. Spiranolactone

    181. The most striking and earliest feature of chronic infection is
    a. Growth retardation b. Weight loss
    c. Muscle wasting d. Anemia
    182. Diurnal variation in Peak expiratory flow rate is a characteristic feature of
    a. Bronchial asthma b. Chronic bronchitis
    c. Emphysema d. Interstitial fibrosis
    183. The following are signs of serious Aspirin poisoning EXCEPT
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Renal failure
    c. Convulsions d. Respiratory depression
    184. Atrioventricular node is supplied by
    a. Right coronary artery b. Left anterior descending artery e
    c. Posterior interventricular artery d. Left coronary artery S
    185. Which of the following is not a feature of Normal pressure hydrocephalus k
    a. Gait apraxia b. Dementia c. Delirium d. Urinary incontinence
    186. Which of the following conditions is the most common complication of radioiodine
    treatment of Graves’disease?
    a. Thyroid storm b. Subacute thyroiditis
    c. Thyroid cancer d. Hypothyroidism
    187. The triad of diabetes, gallstones and steatorrhea is associated with which one of the
    following tumors?
    a. Gastrinomas b. Somastostatinomas
    c. VlPmas d. Glucagonomas
    188. In “Mallory Weiss Syndrome†the tear in the mucosa is on
    a. Stomach b. Small Intestine c. Colon d. Oesophagus
    189. Which of the following is not a characteristic presentation of Osteomalacia in adults?
    a. Bowing of the tibia b. Pseudotractures
    c. Long bone pain d. Proximal muscle weakness
    190. An important feature of an exudative pleural effusion is
    a. Pleural fluid Serum protein ratio > 0.5
    b. Pleural fluid Serum LDH ratio < 0.6
    c. Normal Glucose levels
    d. High Amylase levels in pleural fluid

    191. Which of these is NOT a AIDS-defining disease:
    a. Oral hairy leukoplakia b. Oesophageal Candidiasis
    c. Primary cerebral lumphoma d. Chronic mucocutaneous Herpes simplex
    192. Rhematoid factor:
    a. Is antibody of lgG class directed against 1gM
    b. Positive test virtjally diagnostic of Rheumatoid arthritis
    c. Occurs in wide variety of other conditions
    d. Low titres is associated with poor prognosis
    193. Wasting and fasciculation of the tongue is seen in all these conditions EXCE.Ti
    a. Motor neuron disease b. Pseudo-bulbar palsy
    c. Syringobulbia d. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
    194. The most common congenital heart disease is:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Pulmonary stenosis
    c. Patent ductus arterijsus d. \lentricular septal defect
    195. Which of these diseases presents as Hypotension?
    a. Pheochromocytoma b. Addison’s disease
    c. Primary Hyperaedosteronisrn d. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    196. Which one of the following tests is not applicable for confirming brain death?
    a. Pupillary reflex b. Corneal reflex
    c. Plantar reflex d. Vestibulo ocular reflex
    197. In Type 1 DM which autoantibody is associated?
    a. GAD b, GABA c. ANA d. TPO
    198. Following are intrahepatic presinusoidal causes for portal hypertension EXCEPT:
    a. Anabolic steroids b. Myeloproliferative diseases
    c. Sarcoidosis d, Vinyl chloride
    199. Following are the systemic complication of inflammatory bowel diseases EXCEPT
    a. Erytherna nodosum b. Episcleritis
    c. Acute glomerulonephritis d. Acute immune hepatitis
    200. Hyperkalaemia is a feature in following condition EXCEPT:
    a. Insulin deficiency b. Calcitonin deficiency
    c. Aldosterone deficiency d. Severe obesity
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    AIPGMEE 2007 Mcqs - Subjectwise with Answers

    AIPGMEE 2007 Mcqs - Subjectwise with Answers part 1

    Anaesthesiology Mcqs

    Question 48: Centrineuraxial (spinal or epidural) anaesthesia is contraindicated in all except ?
    A) Platelets < 80,000
    B) Patient on aspirin
    C) Patient on oral anticoagulants
    D) Patient on I.V. Heparin
    Answer: B) Patient on aspirin

    Question 52: A child undergoing surgical procedure, (on ventilator) anaesthetized with atracurium and propofol, wakes up with body pain 12 hours later (or develops seizures after 2 days). Cause of body pain is ?
    A) adverse effect of propofol
    B) accumulation of Laudanosine
    Answer: B) accumulation of Laudanosine

    Question 224: In Caudal block for infant which is Contraindicated ?
    A) remifentanil
    B) sufentanil
    C) morphine
    D) butorphanol
    Answer: C) morphine

    Anatomy Mcqs

    1: All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except ?
    A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
    B) Mucosa is smooth
    C) It is lined by transitional epithelium
    D) It is derived from the absorbed part of the mesonephric duct / It is a remnant of mesonephric duct opening into posterior urogenital sinus
    Answer: A) Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature

    2: Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except ?
    A) Azygous vein
    B) Aorta
    C) Thoracic duct
    D) Greater splanchnic nerve
    Answer: D) Greater splanchnic nerve

    8: Movement of pronation & supination occur in all of the following joints except ?
    A) Middle radio-ulnar joint
    B) Superior radio-ulnar joint
    C) Inferior radio-ulnar joint
    D) Radio carpal joint
    Answer: D) Radio carpal joint

    54: The anatomical structure passing from left to right are all except ?
    A) Left brachiocephalic vein
    B) Hemiazygous vein
    C) Left gonadal vein
    D) Left renal vein
    Answer: C) Left gonadal vein

    67: True statement regarding Posterior cruciate ligament is ?
    A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
    B) intrasynovial
    C) attached to lateral femoral condyle
    D) relaxed in full flexion
    Answer: A) prevents posterior dislocation of tibia

    69: A typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic vertebra by ?
    A) Foramen transversarium
    B) Trianglular vertebral canal
    C) Heavy vertebral body
    D) Superior facet on upper surface of body
    Answer: A) Foramen transversarium

    70: Most common site of morgagni hernia is ?
    A) Left anterior
    B) Right posterior
    C) Right anterior
    D) Left posterior
    Answer: C) Right anterior

    Meralgia parasthetica occurs due to the involvement of ?
    A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
    B) Medial cutaneous nerve
    C) Sciatic nerve
    D) Sural nerve
    Answer: A) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

    121: Supports of Uterus are all except (all of the following structures prevent prolapse of the uterus except) ?
    A) Uterosarcal ligament
    B) Broad ligament
    C) Mackenrodt's ligament
    D) Levator ani
    Answer: B) Broad ligament

    125: Nerve not involved in entrapment ?
    A) Femoral
    B) Median
    C) Ulnar
    D) Lateral cutaneous nerve
    Answer: A) Femoral

    156: Porto-systemic shunt is not seen in ?
    A) Liver
    B) Spleen
    C) Anorectum
    D) Gastroesophageal junction
    Answer: B) Spleen

    161: Which of these parts of vertebral canal will show concavity
    A) Cervical
    B) Thoracic
    C) Sacral
    D) Coccyx
    Answer: A) Cervical

    189: Posterior communicating artery is a branch of ?
    A) Internal carotid
    B) External carotid
    C) Middle cerebral
    Answer: A) Internal carotid

    197: Which of this bears maximum force generated during mastication ?
    A) Pterygomaxillary
    B) Nasomaxillary
    C) Zygomaxillary
    Answer: C) Zygomaxillary

    201: Which of the following is not a branch of the cavernous segment of internal carotid artery?
    A) Meningeal branch
    B) Ophthalmic artery
    C) Hypophyseal branch
    Answer: B) Ophthalmic artery

    266: In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal membrane, urine drains into ?
    A) Deep perineal pouch
    B) Superficial perineal pouch
    Answer: B) Superficial perineal pouch

    Biochemistry Mcqs

    Question 94: Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by ?
    A) Myoinositol
    B) Choline
    C) Taurine
    D) Na-K ATPase
    Answer: A) Myoinositol

    Question 112: Northern blot is used for analysis of ?
    A) mRNA expression
    B) DNA
    C) Protein
    Answer: A) mRNA expression

    Question 140: All are true about proteoglycans except ?
    A) Contains amino sugars
    B) Contains small amounts of water
    C) Forms structural elements in connective tissue
    D) Chondroitin sulphate is an example
    Answer: B) Contains small amounts of water

    Question 150: Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in ?
    A) Vitreous humour
    B) Cornea
    C) Blood vessels
    D) Synovial fluid
    Answer: A) Vitreous humour

    Question 165: Dinitrophenol causes ?
    A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
    Answer: A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation

    Question 171: For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
    A) centrifugation
    B) densitometry
    C) electrophoresis
    D) chromatography
    Answer: B) densitometry

    Question 180: Blackening of urine occurs in ?
    A) Alkaptonuria
    B) Phenylketonuria
    C) Maple syrup urine disease
    D) Isovaleric aciduria
    Answer: A) Alkaptonuria

    Question 227: Oxygen dependent killing is done through ?
    A) NADPH Oxidase
    B) Superoxide dismutase
    C) Catalase
    D) Glutathione peroxidase
    Answer: A) NADPH Oxidase

    Question 231: All are true for m-rna except ?
    A) Capping helps in attachment of m-rna to 40s ribosome
    B) In Eukaryotes is regulated by GTP to GDP transformation
    C) The first Amino acid is Methionine
    D) Synthesized from dna 3' - 5'
    Answer: C) The first Amino acid is Methionine

    Question 232: HMP shunt occurs in ?
    A) Cytosol
    B) Mitochondria
    C) Endoplasmic reticulum
    Answer: A) Cytosol

    Question 233: LAC OPERON... ?
    A) negative regulation
    B) positive regulation
    Answer: A) negative regulation

    Question 234: HMP Shunt Oxidase phase generates ?
    A) Ribose
    B) NADPH
    Answer: B) NADPH

    Question 235: All of the following act on the nucleus via transcription factors ?
    A) Insulin
    B) Retinoid
    C) Vitamin D
    Answer: A) Insulin

    Question 236: When urine is heated to 45'C a precipitate is formed. When further heated to 80'C the precipitate starts redissolving. The precipitate reforms on cooling. What is it ?
    A) Albumin
    B) Bence-Jones protein
    Answer: B) Bence-Jones protein

    Question 237: Regarding triacylglycerol metabolism in adipocytes all are true except ?
    A) Storage form of lipids in body
    B) Glycerol kinase
    C) Metabolised by lipoprotein lipase
    Answer: B) Glycerol kinase

    Question 238: Metalloproteins are involved in ?
    A) Degradation of extracellular proteins
    Answer: A) Degradation of extracellular proteins

    Question 241: Biotin is useful in ?
    A) alpha-keto acid carboxylase deficiency
    B) multiple carboxylase deficiency
    Answer: B) multiple carboxylase deficiency

    Question 242: Study of gene expression is called ?
    A) Genomics
    B) Proteonomics
    Answer: A) Genomics

    Question 290: All are true regarding Oxygenases except ?
    A) Incorporates 1 atom of O2 molecule
    B) Incorporates both the atoms of molecular O2
    C) Required for reactions like hydroxylation
    D) Carboxylation reaction
    Answer: D) Carboxylation reaction

    Community Medicine Mcqs

    Question 16: True regarding BCG vaccina is ?
    A) DANSIH 1331 strain
    B) Distilled water is used as diluent
    C) Spirit is used for cleaning the skin
    Answer: A) DANSIH 1331 strain

    Question 20: Results of a test were given as Very Satisfied, Satisfied, Dissatisfied & Very Dissatisfied. It represents ?
    A) Nominal data
    B) Ordinal data
    C) Interval data
    D) Ratio
    Answer: B) Ordinal data

    Question 35: True about cluster sampling is all except ?
    A) Sample size same as simple random sampling
    B) Rapid method of sampling
    Answer: B) Rapid method of sampling

    Question 46: The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ?
    A) Ground nut oil
    B) Palm oil
    C) Margarine
    D) Soyabean oil
    Answer: D) Soyabean oil

    Question 79: Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by lice ?
    A) Relapsing fever
    B) Q fever
    C) Trench fever
    D) Epidemic typhus
    Answer: B) Q fever

    Question 131: Case finding in RNTCP is based on ?
    A) Sputum culture
    B) Sputum microscopy
    C) X-ray chest
    D) Mantoux test
    E) PCR
    Answer: B) Sputum microscopy

    Question 148: Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water ?
    A) Chlorometer
    B) Horrocks apparatus
    C) Berkefield filter
    D) Double pot method
    Answer: B) Horrocks apparatus

    Question 149: PQLI includes all except ?
    A) Infant mortality rate
    B) Life expectancy at 1 year
    C) Literacy rate
    D) Per capita Income
    Answer: D) Per capita Income

    Question 152: Universal immunization programme doesnt include ?
    A) Tetanus toxoid
    B) MMR
    C) DPT
    Answer: B) MMR

    Question 175: Herd immunity, all are true except ?
    A) Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
    B) Influenced by immunization
    C) Depends on presence of alternate host
    D) Herd immunity is constant
    Answer: D) Herd immunity is constant

    Question 182: Breast milk differs from Cow's milk in that it has ?
    A) More lactose
    B) More proteins
    C) More iron
    Answer: A) More lactose

    Question 190: What is analytical test you use for the study in which you
    A) Student T test
    B) Chi square test
    C) Paired T test
    D) Bland & altman analysis
    Answer: B) Chi square test

    Question 196: Smoking is associated with 85% more risk of developing carcinoma. It denotes ?
    A) Relative risk
    B) Absolute risk
    C) Attributable risk
    D) Odds ratio
    Answer: C) Attributable risk

    Question 202: All can be incinerated except ?
    A) Human anatomical waste
    B) Biotechnology waste
    C) Solid waste
    D) Cytotoxic drugs
    E) Waste sharps
    Answer: E) Waste sharps

    Question 204: Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be given by ?
    A) Goitre in pregnant women
    B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
    C) Urinary iodine
    Answer: B) Neonatal thyroxine levels

    Question 205: You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know ?
    A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
    B) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
    C) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
    D) Relative risk of SLE in those patient
    Answer: A) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

    Question 207: Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of differences in ?
    A) Causes of death
    B) Numerators
    C) Age distributions
    D) Denominators
    Answer: C) Age distributions

    Question 287: All of the following are measures carried out for erradication of neonatal tetanus except ?
    A) Maternal TT immunization
    B) 5 cleans practice
    C) Administration of immunoglobulin to neonate
    D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns
    Answer: D) Administration of penicillin to all newborns

    Question 294: Randomization is done to ?
    A) remove selection bias
    B) so that the groups are comparable
    Answer: B) so that the groups are comparable


    Dermatology Mcqs

    Question 73: Pityriasis rosea, true is ?
    A) Self limiting
    B) Chronic relapsing
    C) Life threatening infection
    D) Caused by dermatophytes
    Answer: A) Self limiting

    Question 74: An infant ( or 3 year old child) with erythrematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of asthma. Probable diagnosis is ?
    A) Airborne contact dermatitis
    B) Atopic dermatitis
    C) Seborrhic dermatitis
    D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
    Answer: B) Atopic dermatitis

    Question 115: Tuberculide is seen in ?
    A) Lupus vulgaris
    B) Scrofulaceum
    C) Lupus scrofilecium
    Answer: C) Lupus scrofilecium

    Question 179: Which of the following statements regarding Lepromin test is not true ?
    A) It is negative in most of the children in first 6 months of life
    B) It is a diagnostic test
    C) Helps to classify leprosy
    D) BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive
    Answer: B) It is a diagnostic test


    Embryology Mcqs

    Question 90: Primordial germ cells are derived from ?
    A) Ectoderm
    B) Mesoderm
    C) Endoderm
    Answer: B) Mesoderm


    Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Mcqs

    Question 5: A patient presenting with history of abdominal pain, constipation. On examination he has blue line on gums. Treatment of choice is ?
    A) Ca-EDTA
    B) BAL
    C) Desferroxamine
    D) Penicillamine
    Answer: A) Ca-EDTA

    Question 85: Burtonian's line is seen in ?
    A) Lead poisoning
    B) Mercury poisoning
    C) Phosphorus poisoning
    D) Zinc poisoning
    Answer: A) Lead poisoning

    Question 91: Spalding's sign is seen in ?
    A) Mummification
    B) Maceration
    C) Saponification
    D) Putrifaction
    Answer: B) Maceration

    Question 92: Acrodynia is seen in ?
    A) Phenol poisoning
    B) Mercury poisoning
    C) Carbolic acid poisoning
    D) Lead / Arsenic poisoning
    Answer: B) Mercury poisoning

    Question 93: Mercury causes nephrotoxicity by involving ?
    A) PCT
    B) DCT
    C) Loop of Henle
    D) Collecting duct
    Answer: A) PCT

    Question 136: Antidote for Mushroom poisoning is ?
    A) Neostigmine
    B) Physostigmine
    C) Amyl nitrate
    D) Atropine
    Answer: D) Atropine

    Question 139: Which is not an aryl phosphate OP (organophosphate) ?
    A) Parathion
    B) Malathion
    C) tik20
    D) Follidol
    Answer: B) Malathion


    Gynaecology Mcqs

    (Single Best Answer) Question 7: Commonest cause of post menopausal bleeding is ?
    A) Ca endometrium
    B) Ca cervix
    C) Ca vulva
    Answer: B) Ca cervix

    Question 43: Which IUCD lasts for 10 years ?
    A) Nova T
    B) Cu T 380A
    C) Multiload Cu 250
    Answer: B) Cu T 380A

    Question 44: OCPs are useful in all except ?
    A) Endometriosis
    B) Ca Endometrium
    C) Ca Breast
    Answer: C) Ca Breast

    Question 45: Fibroid causes all of the following except ?
    A) Menstrual irregularities
    B) Infertility
    C) Abdominal Mass
    D) Amenorrhoea
    Answer: D) Amenorrhoea

    Question 87: Serotype of HPV associated with invasive carcinoma cervix ?
    A) HPV 16
    B) HPV 18
    C) HPV 32
    D) HPV 36
    Answer: A) HPV 16

    Question 88: Technique of aspiration of sperm from testis used in ART ?
    A) TESA
    B) MESA
    C) GIFT
    D) ZIFT
    Answer: A) TESA

    Question 117: Most common ovarian tumor to undergo torsion ?
    A) Dysgerminoma
    B) Benign Cystic Teratoma
    C) Endometriod cyst
    D) Serous / Mucinous Cystadenoma
    Answer: B) Benign Cystic Teratoma

    Question 120: HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
    A) Vaginal atrophy
    B) Flushing
    C) Osteoporosis
    D) Coronary Heart Disease
    Answer: D) Coronary Heart Disease

    Question 168: Persistent GTT evolves to ?
    A) Choriocarcinoma
    B) Invasive
    Answer: A) Choriocarcinoma

    Question 209: Antihormone used in infertility ?
    A) Clomiphene citrate
    B) Tamoxifen
    Answer: A) Clomiphene citrate

    Question 299: Most common site of metastasis of choriocarcinoma ?
    A) Lung
    B) Vagina
    Answer: A) Lung


    Medicine Mcqs

    Question 4: Filgrastim is used in the treatment of ?
    A) Neutropenia
    B) Filaria
    C) Malaria
    Answer: A) Neutropenia

    Question 25: Leprosy affects all except ?
    A) Uterus
    B) Ovary
    C) Eyes
    D) Nerves
    Answer: A) Uterus

    Question 32: Which of the following investigations is least useful in multiple myeloma ?
    A) Urine proteins
    B) Xray
    C) Bone marrow biopsy
    D) Bone scan
    Answer: D) Bone scan

    Question 33: Cat eye syndrome is associated with ?
    A) Partial trisomy 21
    B) Partial trisomy 18
    C) Partial trisomy 13
    D) Partial trisomy 22
    Answer: D) Partial trisomy 22

    Question 34: Millard Gubler Syndrome all are true except ?
    A) 5th nerve palsy
    B) 6th nerve palsy
    C) 7th nerve palsy
    D) Contralateral hemiplegia
    Answer: A) 5th nerve palsy

    Question 36: Dubin Johnson syndrome, test used is ?
    A) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
    B) Bromosulphthalein test
    C) Hippurate test
    D) Transaminase
    Answer: B) Bromosulphthalein test

    Question 39: CSF picture in Tubercular meningitis ?
    A) increased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
    B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
    C) decreased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
    D) decreased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
    Answer: B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes

    Question 40: Findings in DIC include all except ?
    A) increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
    B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
    C) increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes
    D) increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets
    Answer: B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III

    Question 47: True regarding Endemic Typhus is ?
    A) Man is the only reservoir
    B) Flea is a vector
    C) Rash develops into an eschar
    D) Culture is a diagnostic modality
    Answer: B) Flea is a vector

    Question 49: A patient is in septicaemic shock. Which vassopressor drug is preferred ?
    A) Epinephrine
    B) Norepinephrine
    C) Phenylephrine
    D) Ephedrine
    Answer: B) Norepinephrine

    Question 55: Which of the following diseases cause decreased VC and decreased TLC ?
    A) Sarcoidosis
    B) Cystic fibrosis
    C) Bronchial asthma
    D) Bronchiectasis
    Answer: A) Sarcoidosis

    Question 60: A young man with chronic small bowel diarrhoea, duodenal biopsy shows IgA anti-human tissue transglutimase (TTG), and IgA anti-endomysial antibodies. Which of the following is the next step ?
    A) Rectal biopsy
    B) A trial of gluten free diet
    C) Colonoscopy
    Answer: B) A trial of gluten free diet

    Question 81: Chronic carriers are seen in all except ?
    A) Measles
    B) Typhoid
    C) Hepatitis B
    D) Gonorrhoea
    Answer: A) Measles

    Question 83: A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on Ceftazidime and Amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was restarted but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely orgainsm causing the infection is ?
    A) Staphylococcus aureus
    B) Viridans streptococci
    C) Enterococcus faecalis
    D) Coagulase positive staphylococcus
    Answer: C) Enterococcus faecalis

    Question 84: Brucella is transmitted by all of the following means except ?
    A) Man to man transmission
    B) Through placenta of animals
    C) Aerosol
    D) Eating uncooked food
    Answer: A) Man to man transmission

    Question 95: All are seen in raised ICT except ?
    A) Headache
    B) Visual blurring
    C) Abducens palsy
    D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia
    E) Papilloedema
    Answer: D) Paraparesis / Hemiplegia

    Question 96: Mycosis fungoides, which is not true ?
    A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
    B) Pautrier's Microabscess
    C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment
    D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation
    Answer: C) Indolent course and easily amendable to treatment

    Question 108: An elderly male (70 year old) patient presented with high grade fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is ?
    A) H. influenzae
    B) Moraxella catarrhalis
    C) Legionella
    D) Burkholderia capacia
    Answer: C) Legionella

    Question 109: A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand, which turned into ulcer. Which will best help in the demonstration of organisms from smear made from the pustule ?
    A) Trichrome methylene blue
    B) Carbol Fuschin
    C) Acid Fast Stain
    D) Calcoflour White
    E) Geimsa
    Answer: A) Trichrome methylene blue

    Question 119: All the drugs can be used in treatment of H. pylori infection except ?
    A) Omeprazole
    B) Amoxycillin
    C) Metronidazole
    D) Oxytetracycline
    E) Bismuth
    Answer: D) Oxytetracycline

    Question 134: A person with previously normal Hb with sudden hemorrhage will have all except ?
    A) Recticulocytosis
    B) High PCV
    C) Low MCV
    D) Thrombocytosis
    Answer: A) Recticulocytosis

    Question 135: Drug used in obesity are all except ?
    A) Sibutramine
    B) Orlistat
    C) Olestra
    D) Neuropeptide y analogue
    Answer: D) Neuropeptide y analogue

    Question 138: Seizure & jitteriness can be differentiated on all except ?
    A) Gaze
    B) Autonomic Disturbance
    C) Sensitivity to stimulus
    D) Frequency of seizure
    Answer: D) Frequency of seizure

    Question 151: All are true about Benedict's syndrome except ?
    A) Cause 3rd cranial nerve palsy
    B) involvement of penetrating branches of basilar artery
    C) involvement of pons
    D) Contralateral hemiplegia
    Answer: C) involvement of pons

    Question 155: Least common complication of measles ?
    A) SSPE
    B) Diarrhoea
    C) Pneumonia
    D) Otitis media
    Answer: A) SSPE

    Question 162: Investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis ?
    A) Rectal biopsy
    Answer: A) Rectal biopsy

    Question 166: Cherry red spot in all except ?
    A) Neimann pick disease
    B) Krabbe disease
    C) Multiple sulfatase deficiency
    D) Type 2 glycogenesis
    Answer: B) Krabbe disease

    Question 176: In MEN 1, most common is ?
    A) Insulinoma
    B) Gastrinoma
    C) Glucagonoma
    Answer: B) Gastrinoma

    Question 183: Basal ganglia calcification is not seen in ?
    A) Birth Anoxia
    B) Hypoparathyroidism
    C) Wilsons disease
    Answer: A) Birth Anoxia

    Question 184: ECG manifestations of hypokalemia include ?
    A) Tall t waves
    B) PR prolongation with ST depression
    C) Flattening of P wave
    D) Broard QRS
    Answer: B) PR prolongation with ST depression

    Question 185: Treatment of acute neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy is ?
    A) MDT
    B) MDT + Steroid
    C) Steroid
    D) MDT + Thalidomide
    Answer: B) MDT + Steroid

    Question 194: BMI of Obese ?
    A) 20
    B) 30
    C) 40
    D) 50
    Answer: B) 30

    Question 213: Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is ?
    A) Lupus nephritis
    B) Diabetes
    C) Amyloid
    D) Drugs
    Answer: B) Diabetes

    Question 215: All of the following cause hypophosphatemia except ?
    A) Diabetic ketoacidosis
    B) Acute renal failure
    C) Hyperalimentation
    D) Respiratory Alkalosis
    Answer: B) Acute renal failure

    Question 217: Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently associated with ?
    A) anti-histone antibodies
    B) anti-ro antibodies
    C) anti-centromere antibodies
    D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies
    Answer: A) anti-histone antibodies

    Question 218: Which is not a feature of pontine stroke ?
    A) Quadriparesis
    B) Pin point pupil
    C) Palatal palsy
    D) Hyperpyrexia
    Answer: C) Palatal palsy

    Question 219: Polycythemia is caused by all except ?
    A) Cerebellar hemangioblastoma
    B) Hypernephroma
    C) Pancreatic carcinoma
    D) Hepatoma
    Answer: C) Pancreatic carcinoma

    Question 220: 30 years old lady, atrial fibrillation with Mitral Regurgitation, comes in with syncope and regular pulse of 55 / min. Most probable cause is ?
    A) Digoxin toxicity
    B) Cerebral infarct
    Answer: A) Digoxin toxicity

    Question 221: Burrowing ulcer is caused by ?
    A) microaerophilic streptococcus
    B) streptococcus viridans
    C) streptococcus pyogenes
    D) peptostreptococci
    Answer: A) microaerophilic streptococcus

    Question 226: A patient has H. pylori infection. He recieved drugs after that. H. pylori is detected by ?
    A) Rapid urease test
    B) Urea breath test
    C) Endoscopic biopsy
    Answer: B) Urea breath test

    Question 228: A 30 years old man presents with generalised oedema, haematuria, hypertension and subnephrotic proteinuria (< 2 gm ). Urine examination shows microscopic haematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased. He is positive for anti hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) PSGN
    B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia
    C) Lupus nephritis
    D) MPGN
    Answer: B) Mixed cryoglobulinemia

    Question 243: Methotrexate is used in the treatment of ?
    A) Rhabdomyosarcoma
    B) Osteosarcoma
    C) Multiple myeloma
    Answer: B) Osteosarcoma

    Question 245: All are true for immunosupressants except ?
    A) Tacrolimus inhibits calcineurin pathway
    B) Steriods inhibit ?
    C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
    Answer: C) Mycophenolate acts by inhibiting guanosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

    Question 251: True regarding rabies ?
    A) Negri bodies
    B) Only motor involvement
    C) Positive strand RNA virus
    Answer: A) Negri bodies

    Question 253: The following are associated with AML except ?
    A) Turner's syndrome
    B) Down's syndrome
    C) Patau's syndrome
    D) Klinefelter's syndrome
    Answer: A) Turner's syndrome

    Question 258: Most effective strategy under eradication of cogenital rubella syndrome is to immunize ?
    A) All Adolescents
    B) All pregnant women in 2nd trimester
    C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group
    Answer: C) all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group

    Question 261: Cardiomyopathy is not seen in ?
    A) Friedrich's ataxia
    B) Duchenne dystrophy
    C) Lowe's syndrome
    Answer: C) Lowe's syndrome

    Question 262: Minor Criteria for Rheumatic Fever is ?
    A) Rising ASO titre
    B) Throat culture
    C) Fever
    Answer: C) Fever

    Question 264: Changes in congestive cardiac failure are all except ?
    A) Increased Right atrial pressure
    B) Edema
    C) Decreased Sodium
    D) ??
    Answer: D) ??

    Question 268: Treatment of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is ?
    A) Proton pump inhibitors
    B) H2 blockers
    C) Gastrectomy
    D) Octreotide
    Answer: A) Proton pump inhibitors

    Question 276: In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall infarction, best treatment of choice is ?
    A) Angiography with angioplasty
    B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
    C) Dopamine
    D) Streptokinase
    Answer: B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)

    Question 277: Which of the following is not true regarding Brown-Sequard syndrome ?
    A) Contralateral spinothalamic tract involvement
    B) Ipsilateral loss of motor power
    C) Contralateral posterior column involvement
    Answer: C) Contralateral posterior column involvement

    Question 279: Drug not used in erectile dysfunction is ?
    A) Phenylephrine
    B) Testosterone
    C) Alprostadil
    Answer: A) Phenylephrine

    Question 283: Non used in controlling heart rate ?
    A) Encainide
    B) Procainamide
    C) Verapamil
    D) ??
    Answer: D) ??

    Question 284: True regarding Kawasaki's disease are all except ?
    A) Presence of fever
    B) Associated with rash
    C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis
    D) Inflammed oral mucosa
    Answer: C) Associated with purulent conjunctivitis

    Question 288: All of the following are true for promyelocytic except ?
    A) Associated with DIC
    B) Translocation 15.17
    C) Retinoids are used for treatment
    D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive
    Answer: D) CD Marker CD15 and 34 positive

    Question 297: All are true regarding Oxygen toxicity except ?
    A) It causes retinal blindness
    B) It causes pulmonary edema
    C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity
    D) Oxygen will cause convulsions
    Answer: C) Less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicity


    Microbiology Mcqs

    Question 6: All are true regarding Chlamydia pssitacci except ?
    A) Transmitted by parrots
    B) Causes community acquired pneumonia
    C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis
    D) Tetracycline is the treatment of choice
    Answer: C) Causes inclusion conjunctivitis

    Question 41: Which of this is not true about Vibrio O139 ?
    A) Can cause disease indistinguishable from Vibrio O1
    B) Was fist isolated in chennai
    C) has O-antigen polysaccharide capsule
    Answer: B) Was fist isolated in chennai

    Question 42: Which of this is not true about Vibrio cholerae ?
    A) Nonhalophilic
    B) Can be grown in ordinary media
    C) Can survive outside the body
    Answer: C) Can survive outside the body

    Question 78: Which of the following act by increasing cAMP / adenylate cyclase ?
    A) Vibrio cholerae
    B) Staphylococcus aureus
    C) E. coli, heat stable toxin
    D) Salmonella
    Answer: A) Vibrio cholerae

    Question 80: Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia ?
    A) Has biphasic life
    B) Elementary body is metabolically active
    C) Reticulate body undergoes binary fission
    D) Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion
    Answer: B) Elementary body is metabolically active

    Question 102: Which of the following is not useful for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) ?
    A) Cefaclor
    B) Cotrimoxazole
    C) Ciprofloxacin
    D) Vancomycin
    Answer: A) Cefaclor

    Question 104: With reference to Bacteriodes fragilis, the following statements are true except ?
    A) Bacteroides fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
    B) Bacteriodes fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
    C) The LPS formed by Bacteriodes fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxins
    D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia
    Answer: D) Shock and DIC are common in Bacteriodes bacteremia

    Question 105: A person from village is complaining of developement of pustules of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains which were alpha hemolytic colonies and catalase negative, identified as group A streptococci. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism ?
    A) Bile solubility
    B) Optochin sensitivity
    C) Bacitracin sensitivity
    D) Novobiocin sensitivity
    Answer: C) Bacitracin sensitivity

    Question 106: A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination, abundant pus cells were found on gram stain but no organisms were seen. Which method would be best used for culture ?
    A) Mc Coy cell line
    B) Thayer Martin Medium
    C) L.J. Medium
    D) Levinthal medium
    Answer: A) Mc Coy cell line

    Question 107: Which one of the following is true ?
    A) Agar has nutrient properties
    B) Chocholate medium is selective medium
    C) Addition of selective substances in a solid medium is called enrichment media
    D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium
    Answer: D) Nutrient broth is a basal medium

    Question 114: BCYE is used for ?
    A) Legionella
    B) Streptococcus
    Answer: A) Legionella


    Obstetrics Mcqs

    Question 12: Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is maximum when infection in mother occurs in ?
    A) At implantation
    B) 1st trimester
    C) 2nd trimester
    D) 3rd trimester
    Answer: D) 3rd trimester

    Question 17: A child has TGA. The mother should be investigated for ?
    A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes
    B) Maternal PIH
    C) Heart Disease
    Answer: A) Maternal Gestational Diabetes

    Question 29: The shape of nulliparous cervix is ?
    A) Circular
    B) Longitudinal
    C) Transverse
    D) Fimbriated
    Answer: A) Circular

    Question 30: The shape of cervical canal leading to preterm delivery is ?
    A) T shaped
    B) Y shaped
    C) U shaped
    D) O shaped
    Answer: C) U shaped

    Question 72: Premature baby of 34 weeks was delivered, baby had bullous lesions on the body and Xray shows periostitis. What is the next Investigation ?
    A) VDRL for mother and baby
    B) ELISA for HIV
    C) PCR for TB
    D) Hepatitis surface antigen for Mother
    Answer: A) VDRL for mother and baby

    Question 100: Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with ?
    A) Recurrent abortions
    B) Polyhydramnios
    C) PIH
    D) Preterm labour
    Answer: B) Polyhydramnios

    Question 126: Dexamethasone is given to mother in third trimester ?
    A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
    Answer: A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity

    Question 164: In Bishop's score all are included except ?
    A) Effacement of Cervix
    B) Dilatation of Cervix
    C) Station of head
    D) Interspinous diameter
    Answer: D) Interspinous diameter

    Question 191: Sterlization is commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube ?
    A) Ampulla
    B) Infundibulum
    C) Isthmus
    D) Cornua
    Answer: C) Isthmus

    Question 212: External cephalic version is contraindicated in ?
    A) Anemia
    B) Flexed Breech
    C) PIH
    Answer: C) PIH

    Question 256: Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in ?
    A) 32 weeks
    B) 36 weeks
    C) During labour
    Answer: C) During labour

    Question 257: An ovarian cyst is identified in the immediate post-partum period. What should be the timing of surgery ?
    A) 2 weeks
    B) 6 weeks
    C) 8 weeks
    D) Immediately
    Answer: D) Immediately

    Question 269: Blood flow waveform in uterine arteries during contraction which predict IUGR ?
    A) diastolic notch
    B) diastolic flow reversal
    C) low diastolic flow
    D) low systolic flow
    Answer: C) low diastolic flow
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    AIPGMEE 2007 Mcqs - Subjectwise with Answers part 2

    AIPGMEE 2007 Mcqs - Subjectwise with Answers part 2

    Ophthalmology Mcqs

    Question 13: Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following conditions ?
    A) Morning Glory Syndrome
    B) Nanophthalmia
    C) Coloboma of retina
    D) Optic nerve agenesis
    Answer: A) Morning Glory Syndrome

    Question 18: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal Dominant Trait ?
    A) Best Disease
    B) Gyrate Atrophy
    C) LMB syndrome
    Answer: A) Best Disease

    Question 147: Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy for Trachoma ?
    A) Facial cleanliness
    B) Enviornmental cleanliness
    C) Screening
    D) Antibiotics
    Answer: C) Screening

    Question 177: Which of these does not handle the free radicals in lens ?
    A) Vitamin A
    B) Vitamin C
    C) Vitamin E
    D) Catalase
    Answer: C) Vitamin E

    Question 286: All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except ?
    A) Dacryocystitis
    B) Glaucoma
    C) Malnutrition
    D) Ophthalmia neonatorum
    Answer: A) Dacryocystitis


    Orthopaedics Mcqs

    Question 3: Claw hand is caused by lesions of ?
    A) Ulnar nerve
    B) Median nerve
    C) Axillary nerve
    D) Radial nerve
    Answer: A) Ulnar nerve

    Question 99: Which tumor arises from the epiphysis ?
    A) Osteoclastoma
    B) Osteosarcoma
    C) Ewing's sarcoma
    D) Chondro myxoid fibroma
    Answer: A) Osteoclastoma

    Question 158: Burst fracture of the spine is a type of (Commonest injury causing burst fracture of the spine)?
    A) Compression fracture / injury
    B) Extension injury
    C) Direct injury
    Answer: A) Compression fracture / injury

    Question 160: Most common force involved in fracture spine is ?
    A) Flexion
    B) Extension
    C) Rotation
    D) Compression
    Answer: A) Flexion

    Question 163: Bohlers angle measure gives reference for ?
    A) Calcaneum
    B) Talus
    C) Navicular
    D) Cuboid
    Answer: A) Calcaneum

    Question 170: Tube cast is applied in fracture of ?
    A) Shoulder
    B) Hip
    C) Pelvis
    D) Knee
    Answer: D) Knee

    Question 199: Which of these muscles are involved along with osteoarthritis of knee ?
    A) Quadriceps only
    B) Hamstrings only
    C) A+B
    D) Gastrocnemius
    Answer: A) Quadriceps only

    Question 260: All are markers for osteoblastic activity except ?
    A) Alkaline phosphatase
    B) Osteocalcin
    C) Bone scan
    D) Hydroxyproline
    Answer: D) Hydroxyproline

    Question 267: In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
    A) Urethra
    B) Urinary bladder
    C) Ureter
    Answer: A) Urethra

    Question 270: Best investigation for temporal bone fracture ?
    A) CT
    B) MRI
    C) Xray
    Answer: A) CT

    Question 282: Investigation not required in osteosarcoma ?
    A) MRI femur
    B) Bone marrow biopsy
    C) CT chest
    D) Bone Scan
    Answer: B) Bone marrow biopsy

    Question 291: Pulsatile tumor is seen in ?
    A) Ewing's
    B) Osteosarcoma
    C) Chondrosarcoma
    D) Osteoclastoma
    Answer: D) Osteoclastoma


    Otorhinolaryngology Mcqs

    Question 128: Rhinolalia clausa is caused by all except ?
    A) Allergic rhinitis
    B) Palatal palsy
    C) Adenoids
    Answer: B) Palatal palsy

    Question 157: Rhinophyma is ?
    A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands
    B) Hyperplasia of the sweat glands
    Answer: A) Hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands

    Question 211: Acoustic neuroma, first nerve to get involved is ?
    A) 5
    B) 7
    C) 10
    D) 9
    Answer: A) 5

    Question 225: Commonest site for CSF rhinorrhoea is ?
    A) Ethmoid sinus
    B) Frontal sinus
    C) Petrous
    D) Sphenoid sinus
    Answer: A) Ethmoid sinus

    Question 271: Brown's sign is seen in ?
    A) Glomus tumor
    B) Acoustic neuroma
    C) Otosclerosis
    Answer: A) Glomus tumor


    Paediatrics Mcqs

    Question 11: A 6 year old child with IQ 50 can do which of the following ?
    A) Identify colors
    B) Read a sentence
    C) Ride a bicycle
    D) Draw / Copy a triangle
    Answer: A) Identify colors

    Question 19: What is Pentalogy of Fallot ?
    A) TOF with ASD
    Answer: A) TOF with ASD

    Question 23: Commonest childhood malignancy is ?
    A) Leukemia
    B) Neuroblastoma
    C) Lymphoma
    D) Wilm's tumor
    Answer: A) Leukemia

    Question 56: Meningitis in 1 year old is caused by ?
    A) H. influenzae
    B) Listeria
    C) E. coli
    D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    Answer: D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

    Question 110: A 1 year old child with bronchial asthma. Treatment of choice is ?
    A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist
    B) Oral Ketotifen
    C) Oral LT2 receptor antagonist
    D) Oral Theophyllin
    Answer: A) Inhaled shortacting B2 agonist

    Question 153: Moro's reflex disappears by ?
    A) 3 months
    B) 5 months
    C) 7 months
    Answer: A) 3 months

    Question 159: Earliest milestone to be achieved is ?
    A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
    B) Pincer grip
    C) Crawling
    D) Creeping
    Answer: A) Mirror Gazing / Playing

    Question 208: Reflex not present at birth is ?
    A) asymmetric neck reflex
    B) tonic neck reflex
    C) rooting reflex
    D) crossed extensor reflex
    Answer: A) asymmetric neck reflex

    Question 216: Best indicator of long term nutritional status of a child ?
    A) Body weight
    B) Mid arm circumference
    C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)
    D) linear growth
    Answer: C) Weights for height (Rate of increase of height and weight)

    Question 240: Most common cause of growth delay is ?
    A) Constitutional delay
    B) Growth hormone deficiency
    C) Cretinism
    Answer: A) Constitutional delay

    Question 280: Child with URTI presents with stridor which decreases on lying down position. The most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Acute epiglottitis
    B) Croup
    C) Laryngotracheobronchitis
    D) Retropharyngeal abscess
    Answer: C) Laryngotracheobronchitis

    Question 293: Which of the following is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) ?
    A) Capnography
    B) Impedance pulmonometry
    C) Nasal temperature
    Answer: B) Impedance pulmonometry

    Question 298: Child has started mouthing object, shows likes/dislikes and does not developed stranger anxiety. What is the age ?
    A) 3 months
    B) 5 months
    C) 7 months
    D) 9 months
    Answer: C) 7 months


    Pathology Mcqs

    Question 15: Non Specific Esterase (NSE) is seen in ?
    A) AML 3
    Answer: A) AML 3

    Question 37: Patient's PT given, control PT given, ISI was given as 1.4. How will you calculate INR ?
    A) Patient's observed PT (in seconds) / Calculated mean normal PT (in seconds)
    B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4
    C) (pts PT/PT control)1/1.4
    Answer: B) (pts PT/PT control)1.4

    Question 51: Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all except ?
    A) Common ALL subtype
    B) pre-B ALL
    C) Hyperploidy
    D) Female gender
    Answer: B) pre-B ALL

    Question 57: An inheritance chart for disease. Options were ?
    A) Mitochondrial inheritance
    B) X linked dominant
    C) Autosomal dominant
    D) Autosomal recessive
    Answer: A) Mitochondrial inheritance

    Question 58: Which one of the following is not a Thyroid Cancer ?
    A) Follicular
    B) Anaplastic
    C) Insular
    D) Merkel
    Answer: D) Merkel

    Question 82: Serum differs from plasma in all except ?
    A) Fibrinogen
    B) Factor VIII
    C) Factor VII
    D) Factor V
    Answer: C) Factor VII

    Question 98: Which amyloid is found in the kidney in patients who have been on dialysis ?
    A) Beta2 microglobulin
    Answer: A) Beta2 microglobulin

    Question 113: All are autosomal dominant except ?
    A) Marfan's syndrome
    B) Fabry's sydrome
    C) Huntingon's Chorea
    D) ADPKD
    Answer: B) Fabry's syndrome

    Question 124: Which of the following is an immunohistochemical marker for Paget's disease of the breast ?
    A) s100
    B) hmb 45
    C) synaptophysin
    D) CEA
    Answer: A) s100

    Question 130: Anaphylactic reaction (Type I hypersensitivity) is mediated by ?
    A) IgG
    B) IgM
    C) IgD
    D) IgE
    Answer: D) IgE

    Question 132: Arthus reaction is ?
    A) Antibody mediated
    B) systemic immune complex deposition disease
    C) localised immune complex deposition disease
    D) delayed hypersensitivity reaction
    Answer: C) localised immune complex deposition disease

    Question 133: Viral cells specifically killed by ?
    A) Cytotoxic T cells
    B) Neutrophils
    C) Complement
    D) Natural Killer cells
    Answer: D) Natural Killer cells

    Question 154: Indicator for CSF leak ?
    A) Beta 2 transferrin
    B) Beta protein trace
    C) Dye test
    Answer: A) Beta 2 transferrin

    Question 167: Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except ?
    A) ankyrin
    B) spectrin
    C) anion exchanger
    D) glycophorin 2
    Answer: D) glycophorin 2

    Question 178: Which of these investigations is helpful in heterophoric calcification ?
    A) Alkaline phosphatase
    B) Calcium
    C) Acid phosphatase
    D) Phosphorus
    Answer: B) Calcium

    Question 200: Absolute indication for bone marrow biopsy ?
    A) Plasmacytosis
    B) Leukemia
    C) Megaloblastic anemia
    D) Gaucher's disease
    E) Aplastic anemia
    Answer: C) Megaloblastic anemia

    Question 210: Pancytopenia with bone marrow hypercellularity is seen in ?
    A) G6PD deficiency
    B) Myelodysplasia
    C) PNH
    D) Megaloblastic anemia
    E) Aplastic anemia
    Answer: C) PNH

    Question 214: cANCA is associated with antibodies to ?
    A) Proteinase 3
    B) Myeloperoxidase
    C) Lactoferrin
    Answer: A) Proteinase 3

    Question 254: Iron deficiency anaemia is associated with ?
    A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
    B) Decreased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
    C) Normal TIBC, decreased Ferritin
    D) Normal TIBC, increased Ferritin
    Answer: A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin

    Question 255: AIHA is mostly associated with ?
    A) B cell lymphomas
    B) T cell lymphomas
    C) Histiocytosis
    D) Myeloid disorders
    Answer: A) B cell lymphomas

    Question 259: Bernard Soulier Syndrome is associated with all except ?
    A) increased platelet size
    B) reduced platelet count
    C) ristocetin is normal
    D) ADP is normal
    Answer: C) ristocetin is normal

    Question 265: FAB L3 refers to ?
    A) pre-B ALL
    B) T cell ALL
    C) B cell ALL
    D) Mixed ALL
    Answer: C) B cell ALL

    Question 272: Immediate response to tissue injury ?
    A) Neutropenia
    B) Neutrophilia
    C) Monocytosis
    Answer: B) Neutrophilia

    Question 273: A patient with antibodies to DNA, suffering from manifestations of kidney, liver, skin. Probable diagnosis is ?
    A) Systemic sclerosis
    B) SLE
    C) Wegner's Granulomatosis
    D) Rheumatoid arthritis
    Answer: B) SLE

    Question 274: A 55 year old male presents with TLC 1,00,00; 80% Lymphocytes; 20% Polymorphs. Diagnosis is ?
    A) CLL
    B) HIV
    C) TB
    Answer: A) CLL

    Question 275: Autosomal recessive trait is seen in child inspite of normal parents due to ?
    A) Uniparental disomy
    B) Mosaicism
    Answer: A) Uniparental disomy


    Pharmacology Mcqs

    Question 9: Nevirapine is ?
    A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
    B) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
    C) Protease inhibitor
    D) Nucleotide inhibitor
    Answer: A) Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

    Question 10: Nesiritide is a ?
    A) Brain natriuretic peptide
    Answer: A) Brain natriuretic peptide

    Question 21: Which of the following anticancer drugs causes hyperviscocity syndrome ?
    A) Vinblastine
    B) L-asparaginase
    C) 5-FU
    Answer: B) L-asparaginase

    Question 22: Chemotherapeutic agent causing SIADH as a side effect is ?
    A) Vincristine
    B) Cyclophosphamide
    C) 5-FU
    D) Bleomycin
    E) Gemcitabine
    Answer: A) Vincristine

    Question 28: Finasteride acts via ?
    A) Alpha blockade
    B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
    C) Selective alpha-1 blockade
    D) Androgen receptor antagonism
    Answer: B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition

    Question 50: Which antiepileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy ?
    A) Phenobarbitone
    B) Phenytoin
    C) Carbamazepine
    D) Valproic acid
    Answer: A) Phenobarbitone

    Question 59: Which one of the following is not an alkylating agent ?
    A) 5 Flurouracil
    B) Busulphan
    C) Cyclophosphamide
    D) Cyclosporine
    Answer: A) 5 Flurouracil

    Question 101: One of the following is not a prodrug ?
    A) Enalapril
    B) Dipivefrine
    C) Levodopa
    D) Captopril
    Answer: D) Captopril

    Question 111: Maximum Peripheral Neuropathy is caused by ?
    A) Zidovudine
    B) Stavudine
    C) Lamivudine
    D) Didanosine
    Answer: D) Didanosine

    Question 127: All of the insulin preparations are short and rapidly acting except ?
    A) insulin lispro
    B) insulin aspart
    C) insulin glargine
    D) lente insulin
    Answer: C) insulin glargine

    Question 129: True about octreotide ?
    A) Is orally active
    B) Used in secretory diarrhoea
    Answer: B) Used in secretory diarrhoea

    Question 137: All are true about clonidine except ?
    A) Stimulates parasympathetic outflow
    B) Causes dry mouth
    C) Prazosin antagonizes its action
    D) Alpha adrenergic agnoist
    Answer: C) Prazosin antagonizes its action

    Question 143: Botulinum toxin acts on all sites except ?
    A) Neuromuscular junction
    B) Peripheral ganglia
    C) Postganglionic nerve endings
    D) CNS
    Answer: D) CNS

    Question 169: Patient on aspirin will have ?
    A) increased PT
    B) increased APTT
    C) increaed BT
    D) increased thrombin time
    Answer: C) increaed BT

    Question 181: Orange red coloured urine is seen in ?
    A) INH
    B) Pyrazinamide
    C) Rifampicin
    D) Ethambutol
    Answer: C) Rifampicin

    Question 222: Which of the following is not an antiepileptic ?
    A) Phenobarbitone
    B) Carbamazepine
    C) Phenytoin
    D) Flunarizine
    Answer: D) Flunarizine

    Question 223: Which of the following antiepileptic does not act through Na+ channels ?
    A) Phenytoin
    B) Valproic acid
    C) Vigabatrin
    D) Lamotrigine
    Answer: C) Vigabatrin

    Question 239: Which of the following acts by hypomethylation ?
    A) Decitabine
    B) Gemcitabine
    C) 5-FU
    Answer: A) Decitabine

    Question 244: Anti-pseudomonas antibiotic ?
    A) Cefaclor
    B) Ciprofloxacin
    Answer: B) Ciprofloxacin

    Question 246: All are nonselective beta blockers without any additional action except ?
    A) Carvedilol
    B) Betaxolol
    C) Carteolol
    D) Labetalol
    Answer: B) Betaxolol

    Question 247: Prostaglandin that helps in protecting Gastrointestinal mucosa is ?
    A) PGF2
    B) PGE1
    C) PGD2
    Answer: B) PGE1

    Question 248: The side effects of Heparin are all except ?
    A) Alopecia
    B) Hypokalemia
    C) Hypersensitivity
    D) Thrombocytopenia
    Answer: B) Hypokalemia

    Question 249: The following is not a GP IIb / IIIa inhibitor ?
    A) Dipyridamole
    B) Abciximab
    C) Eptifibatide
    D) Tirofiban
    Answer: A) Dipyridamole

    Question 250: Which of the following is associated with DIC ?
    A) Vincristine
    B) Gemcitabine
    C) L-asparaginase
    D) Busulphan
    Answer: C) L-asparaginase

    Question 252: Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?
    A) Zafirlukast
    B) Zilueton
    Answer: A) Zafirlukast

    Question 263: Which of the following antiplatelets is a prodrug ?
    A) Aspirin
    B) Dipyridamole
    C) Ticlopidine
    D) Clopidogrel
    Answer: B) Dipyridamole

    Question 278: All of the following are side effects of beta agnoists except ?
    A) Tachycardia
    B) Tremor
    C) Hyperkalemia
    D) Hyperglycemia
    Answer: C) Hyperkalemia


    Physiology Mcqs

    Question 14: Papez circuit in limbic system involves ?
    A) Anterior thalamic nucleus
    B) Anterior hypothalamic nucleus
    C) Posterior hypothalamic nucleus
    Answer: A) Anterior thalamic nucleus

    Question 24: Leukotriene receptor inhibitor ?
    A) Montelukast
    B) Zilueton
    Answer: A) Montelukast

    Question 38: Conversion of short term memory to long term memory occurs in ?
    A) Frontal cortex
    B) Hippocampus
    C) Amygdala
    Answer: B) Hippocampus

    Question 141: Enzyme not stable at acidic pH are all except ?
    A) Trypsin
    B) Chymotrypsin
    C) Pepsin
    D) Carboxypeptidase
    Answer: C) Pepsin

    Question 144: Site of RBC formation in 20 year old healthy male ?
    A) Flat bones
    B) Long bones
    C) Liver
    Answer: A) Flat bones

    Question 146: Mechanism of cellular memory & learning include all except ?
    A) increase and decrease in neurotransmitter release as in learning and habituation
    B) increase in number of synapses, increase in number of synaptic terminals, increases in number of dendrites
    C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex
    D) allocation of specialized nerve cells as occurs in hippocampus
    Answer: C) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex

    Question 173: Hormone not secreted by kidney ?
    A) Angiotensin 1
    B) 1, 25 Di hydroxy cholecalciferol
    C) Erythropoietin
    D) Renin
    Answer: A) Angiotensin 1

    Question 174: Broca's area is involved in ?
    A) Word formation
    B) Word interpretation
    Answer: A) Word formation

    Question 186: Agranular Endoplasmic Reticulum produces / synthesizes ?
    A) Proteins
    B) Lipids
    C) Vitamins
    D) Carbohydrates
    Answer: B) Lipids

    Question 188: 'd' (delta) waves are found in ?
    A) Deep sleep
    B) Awake
    Answer: A) Deep sleep

    Question 192: When a person ascends to obtain max benefit from ?
    A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise
    B) increase work load and decrease duration of exercise
    C) decrease work load and inhaling oxygen
    Answer: A) decrease work load and increase duration of exercise

    Question 195: Factor present in final common complement pathway ?
    A) C4
    B) C3
    C) C5
    D) Protein B
    E) C2
    Answer: C) C5

    Question 198: True regarding S4 is ?
    A) can be heard by unaided ear
    B) more than 20 hz
    C) due to ventricular filling
    D) due to ventricular ejection
    Answer: C) due to ventricular filling

    Question 229: Heart muscle all true except ?
    A) Acts as syncytium
    B) has multiple nuclei
    C) has gap junctions
    Answer: B) has multiple nuclei

    Question 230: Regarding gastrointestinal motility all are true except ?
    A) completely independent of stomach influence
    B) depends on CCK
    Answer: A) completely independent of stomach influence

    Question 289: What is the difference between sexual maturity in boys and girls at puberty ?
    A) Inc inhibin
    B) Spurt of FSH
    Answer: A) Inc inhibin


    Psychiatry Mcqs

    Question 75: Drug of choice for OCD ?
    A) Imipramine
    B) Fluoxetine
    C) Chlorpromazine
    D) Benzodiazepine
    Answer: B) Fluoxetine

    Question 76: Naltrexone is used in opioid addiction because ?
    A) To treat withdrawal symptoms
    B) To treat overdose of opioids
    C) To prevent relapse
    D) Has addiction potential
    Answer: C) To prevent relapse

    Question 77: Delusion is a disorder of ?
    A) Thought
    B) Perception
    C) Insight
    D) Cognition
    Answer: A) Thought

    Question 103: A 3 year old child with normal developmental milestones but delayed speech, difficulty in communication, concentration and not making friends. The most likely diagnosis is ?
    A) Autism
    B) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
    C) Specific learning disability
    D) Mental retardation
    Answer: A) Autism

    Question 187: Not included in Diagnosis of bipolar disorder ?
    A) Mania alone
    B) Mania and Depression
    C) Depression alone
    D) Mania and Anxiety
    Answer: D) Mania and Anxiety

    Question 203: Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome is ?
    A) Tremors
    B) Diarrhoea
    C) Lacrimation
    Answer: A) Tremors


    Radiodiagnosis Mcqs

    Question 27: Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 wks is seen in ?
    A) Down's syndrome
    B) Esophageal atresia
    C) Turner's syndrome
    Answer: A) Down's syndrome

    Question 62: A newborn has congenital heart failure, not improving with treatment. He has bulging anterior fontanelles with a bruit on auscultation. On trans fontanelle USG a hypoechoic midline mass is seen with dilated lateral ventricles. Most probable diagnosis is ?
    A) Vein of galen malformation
    B) Medulloblastoma
    C) Arachnoid cyst
    D) Encephalocele
    Answer: A) Vein of galen malformation

    Question 64: Unconscious male with external injuries, CT Shows multiple spotty hemorrhages and full basal cisterns. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
    A) Diffuse axonal injury
    B) Brain contusions
    C) Subdural hematoma
    D) Multiple infarcts
    Answer: A) Diffuse axonal injury

    Question 65: A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of lower limbs, difficulty in micturition, CT shows intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The diagnosis is ?
    A) Meningioma
    B) Intradural Lipoma
    C) Neuroepithelial Cyst
    D) Dermoid Cyst
    Answer: A) Meningioma

    Question 89: Isotope used in radioisotope scanning is ?
    A) I 131
    B) I 123
    C) I 125
    D) I 127
    Answer: A) I 131

    Question 116: A 7 year old body with xray features of codman's triangle and sunray appearance, most probably has ?
    A) Osteoclastoma
    B) Chondrosarcoma
    C) Osteosarcoma
    Answer: C) Osteosarcoma

    Question 206: A patient presented with unilateral progressive proptosis, increased on bending forward and compressible, on auscultation no bruit is heard. Usg shows hyper echoic mass with acoustic shadow. The likely diagnosis is ?
    A) AV malformation
    B) Orbital varix
    C) Neurofibromatosis
    D) Orbital encephalocele
    Answer: B) Orbital varix

    Question 292: Radiocontrast is contraindicated in all except ?
    A) Renal failure
    B) Patient on metformin
    C) Dehydration
    D) Obesity
    Answer: D) Obesity


    Radiotherapy Mcqs

    Question 118: Radiosensitive tumor ?
    A) Dysgerminoma
    Answer: A) Dysgerminoma

    Question 172: Which waves are not used for deep tumors / Which is not a deep
    A) Short wave diathermy
    B) Infrared
    C) Ultrasonic
    D) Microwave
    Answer: B) Infrared


    Surgery Mcqs

    Question 26: A 50 year old man with family history of carcinoma prostate wants to do screening. The most sensitive test is ?
    A) Digital rectal examination
    B) Serum PSA
    C) Both A + B Combined
    D) Endorectal coil MRI with T1 and T2 weighed images
    Answer: C) Both A + B Combined

    Question 31: Which of the statements related to gastric injury is untrue ?
    A) Mostly related to penetrating trauma
    B) Treatment is simple debridement and suturing
    C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury
    D) Heals well and fast
    Answer: C) Blood in stomach always related to gastric injury

    Question 53: Trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VIIth nerve. Which is true ?
    A) Longitudinal Fracture
    B) Transverse Fracture
    C) Always associated with CSF leak
    D) The paralysis of VIIth is always complete
    Answer: B) Transverse Fracture

    Question 61: Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in head injury ?
    A) Glasgow coma scale
    B) Age
    C) Bleeding on CT
    Answer: A) Glasgow coma scale

    Question 63: To expose the coeliac axis, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta in a case of abdominal trauma, which is done ?
    A) Left median visceral rotation
    B) Right median visceral rotation
    C) Cranial visceral rotation
    D) Caudal visceral rotation
    Answer: A) Left median visceral rotation

    Question 66: Which of the following is not premalignant ?
    A) Puetz Jegher's syndrome
    B) Juvenile polyp
    C) FAP
    D) Gardner's syndrome
    Answer: B) Juvenile polyp

    Question 68: SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) tumor all are true except ?
    A) Always associated with breech extraction
    B) Spontaneous resolution in most cases
    C) 2/3rd have palpable neck mass at birth
    D) Uncorrected cases develop phagiocephaly
    Answer: A) Always associated with breech extraction

    Question 86: A patient presented with RTA with fracture pelvis, few drops of blood passed per urethrally without passage of urine, and palpable bladder. The likely cause is ?
    A) Ureteral injury
    B) Urethral injury
    C) Bladder rupture
    D) Urine extravasation to peritoneum
    Answer: B) Urethral injury

    Question 97: A 45 year old male presents with a history of vomiting of 500 ml of blood 24 hrs back, 90/60 BP, 110 / min pulse rate, and splenomegaly 5 cms below the costal margin. Most probable diagnosis is ?
    A) Duodenal ulcer
    B) Portal hypertension
    C) Gastric ulcer
    D) Erosive gastritis
    Answer: B) Portal hypertension

    Question 122: A 60 year old smoker came with history of painless gross hematuria for one (or two) day. Most logical (or diagnostic) investigation would be ?
    A) Urine routine and microscopy
    B) Plain Xray KUB
    C) USG KUB
    D) Urine for malignant cytology
    Answer: D) Urine for malignant cytology

    Question 123: Branchial cyst, which is true ?
    A) Cysts are more common than sinuses
    B) Sinus should always be operated
    C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system
    D) Cause dysphagia and hoarseness
    Answer: C) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial system

    Question 142: True about pilonidal sinus ?
    A) Common in females
    B) Congenital
    C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus
    D) Hair follicles can be demonstrated in the sinus wall
    Answer: C) Treatment of choice is excision of sinus

    Question 145: Most common addiction (substance abuse) in India ?
    A) Smoking / Tobacco
    B) Alcohol
    C) Cannabis
    Answer: A) Smoking / Tobacco

    Question 193: In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for emergency laparotomy should be ?
    A) Paramedian incision
    B) Midline incision
    C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
    D) Subcostal incision
    Answer: B) Midline incision

    Question 281: All are true for Raynaud's disease except ?
    A) More common in women
    B) Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
    C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies
    D) Good prognosis
    Answer: C) Associated with the presence of antinuclear antibodies

    Question 285: Regarding gynaecomastia, false statement is ?
    A) May regress spontaneously
    B) May regress after discontinuing the offending drug
    C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated
    D) Associated with liver failure
    Answer: C) Subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated

    Question 295: True regarding Thyroid lymphoma is ?
    A) It is more common in women than in men
    B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints
    Answer: B) Respiratory difficulty, cough and dysphagia also can occur as presenting complaints

    Question 296: An old man with type 2 DM presents with complaints of dribblnig of urine, urge incontinence, incomplete voiding, etc. The most common probable cause is ?
    A) BPH
    B) Neurogenic bladder
    Answer: B) Neurogenic bladder
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    AIPGMEE 2008 Mcqs with Correct Answers

    AIPGMEE 2008 Mcqs with Correct Answers

    Question 1: Best mode of investigation for Interstitial lung disease is ?
    A) MRI
    B) HRCT
    C) Xray
    D) Ventilation-Perfusion Scan
    Answer: B) HRCT

    Question 2: Commonest cause of delay in puberty in males is ?
    A) Constitutional delay in growth
    B) Klinefelter's syndrome
    C) Noonan's syndrome
    Answer: A) Constitutional delay in growth

    Question 3: Therapeutic index is a measure of ?
    A) Toxicity
    B) Safety
    C) Efficacy
    D) Potency
    Answer: B) Safety

    Question 4: Which is contraindicated in trial of labour following Caesarian Section ?
    A) History of Classical CS
    B) Breech
    C) Xray pelivmetry not available
    D) No previous vaginal delivery
    Answer: A) History of Classical CS

    Question 5: Most successful / irreversible method of tubal ligation is ?
    A) Hulka clip
    B) Ring
    C) Unipolar cautery
    D) Bipolar cautery
    Answer: D) Bipolar cautery

    Question 6: Best anastomosis of fallopian tubes is by ?
    A) isthmic-isthmic region
    B) isthmic-ampullary
    Answer: A) isthmic-isthmic region

    Question 7: Commonest type of seizure in newborn is ?
    A) Tonic
    B) Myoclonic
    C) Subtle
    D) Clonic
    Answer: C) Subtle

    Question 8: Treatment of Type 2Lepra reaction is ?
    A) Thalidomide
    B) Steroid
    C) Chloroquine
    Answer: A) Thalidomide

    Question 9: Phase 2 trials are done to detect ?
    A) Efficacy
    B) Toxic dose
    C) Tolerance levels
    Answer: A) Efficacy

    Question 10: The most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle is ?
    A) M
    B) S
    C) G1
    D) G2/M
    Answer: D) G2/M

    Question 11: Osteosarcoma of mandible occuring as a secondary after treatment of retinoblastoma, is due to ?
    A) Mutation in Rb gene
    B) Due to Irradiation
    C) Due to Chemotherapy
    D) Mutation in p53 gene
    Answer: C) Due to Chemotherapy

    Question 12: All take part in the formation of nasal septum except ?
    A) Ethmoid
    B) Sphenoid
    C) Lacrimal
    D) Palatine
    Answer: C) Lacrimal

    Question 13: Penicillin effective against Pseudomonas is ?
    A) Piperacillin
    Answer:

    Question 14: Rib-notching on X-ray is seen in ?
    A) Co-arctation of Aorta
    B) Rickets
    C) Pulmonary AV Fistual
    Answer: A) Co-arctation of Aorta

    Question 15: Abbe Estlander Flap is used in reconstruction of ?
    A) Tongue
    B) Lip
    C) Pharynx
    D) Mandible
    Answer: B) Lip

    Question 16: Long term hemodialysis is associated with deposition of ?
    A) beta2 microglobulin
    B) transthyretin
    C) pyrin
    D) beta amyloid protein
    Answer: A) beta2 microglobulin

    Question 17: Drug used in severe hypertension in Pre eclampsia is ?
    A) Labetalol
    B) Metoprolol
    C) Alpha methyl dopa
    D) Nifedipine
    Answer: C) Alpha methyl dopa

    Question 18: Ferruginous bodies are seen in ?
    A) Asbestosis
    B) Byssinosis
    C) Silicosis
    D) Bagassosis
    Answer: A) Asbestosis

    Question 19: Which of the following is not an antifungal ?
    A) Ciclopirox
    B) Fluconazole
    C) Clofazimine
    D) Undecylenic acid
    Answer: C) Clofazimine

    Question 20: Pain in ureteric stone is due to ?
    A) Irritation of intramural ureter
    B) Increased peristalsis of ureter
    C) Stretching of renal capsule
    D) Rupture ureter with extravasation of urine
    Answer: B) Increased peristalsis of ureter

    Question 21: Ringed Sideroblasts are seen in ?
    A) AML
    B) Myelodysplastic syndrome
    Answer: B) Myelodysplastic syndrome

    Question 22: All of the following are tributaries of Cavernous sinus except ?
    A) inferior petrosal sinus
    B) superior petrosal sinus
    C) superficial middle cerebral vein
    D) deep cerebral vein
    Answer: D) deep cerebral vein

    Question 23: Blood supply to vas deferens is by ?
    A) superior vesical artery
    B) middle rectal artery
    C) inferior epigastric artery
    D) cremasteric artery
    Answer: A) superior vesical artery

    Question 24: Immunomodulator used topically in genital warts is ?
    A) Imiquimod
    B) Tacrolimus
    C) Podophyllin
    Answer: A) Imiquimod

    Question 25: Not a side effect of Tacrolimus ?
    A) Diabetes / Hyperglycemia
    B) Nephrotoxicity
    C) Neurotoxicity
    D) Hirsuitism
    Answer: D) Hirsuitism

    Question 26: Vein lying in peritoneal fold guarding the paraduodenal spaces is ?
    A) Inferior mesenteric
    B) Left colic
    C) Splenic
    D) Middle colic
    Answer: A) Inferior mesenteric

    Question 27: Migratory thrombophlebitis is NOT seen in which cancer ?
    A) Ca Lung
    B) Ca Prostate
    C) GIT Ca
    D) Ca Pancreas
    Answer: B) Ca Prostate

    Question 28: Which of the following is a sign of Aortitis ?
    A) Descending aorta calcification
    B) Ascending aorta calcification
    Answer: A) Descending aorta calcification

    Question 29: Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in Pregnancy ?
    A) MMR
    B) Rabies
    C) Hepatitis B
    Answer: A) MMR

    Question 30: Which of the following is the drug of choice for SVT ?
    A) Verapamil
    B) Diltiazem
    C) Digoxin
    D) Phenytoin
    Answer: A) Verapamil

    Question 31: Most common cause of maternal mortality in India is ?
    A) Obstetric hemorrhage
    B) Abortion
    C) Septicemia
    D) Anaemia
    Answer: A) Obstetric hemorrhage

    Question 32: Most common type of Carcinoma of Thyroid is ?
    A) Papillary
    B) Medullary
    C) Follicular
    Answer: A) Papillary

    Question 33: Soft ticks are vectors in ?
    A) KFD
    B) Relapsing Fever
    C) Indian tick typhus
    D) Tularemia
    Answer: B) Relapsing Fever

    Question 34: Basement membrane degeneration is mediated by ?
    A) Metalloproteinases
    Answer: A) Metalloproteinases

    Question 35: Treatment of choice for CML is ?
    A) Imatinib
    B) Hydroxyurea
    C) Infliximab
    D) Interferon
    Answer: A) Imatinib

    Question 36: HMB 45 ?
    A) Melanoma
    Answer: A) Melanoma

    Question 37: Diffuse Esophageal Spasm is best diagnosed by ?
    A) Endoscopy
    B) Barium meal / swallow
    C) 24 hr Esophageal manometry
    Answer: C) 24 hr Esophageal manometry

    Question 38: Carcinoma Cervix is caused by ?
    A) HIV
    B) HPV
    C) EBV
    D) Herpes Simplex
    Answer: B) HPV

    Question 39: Clomiphene citrate acts through ?
    A) blocking ER receptors
    B) blocking Negative feedback of estrogen on hypothalamus and pituitary
    C) acting synergistically with estrogen
    D) inhibit gonadotropin secretion
    Answer: B) blocking Negative feedback of estrogen on hypothalamus and pituitary

    Question 40: Which of the following is not correct regarding RDA (Recommended Daily Allowance) ?
    A) Fixed by a special group of experts
    B) Accoring to intense scientific data
    C) Applies to all healthy adults
    D) Gives required intake
    Answer: C) Applies to all healthy adults

    Question 41: Co-arctation of aorta is associated with ?
    A) Bicuspid Aortic Valve
    Answer: A) Bicuspid Aortic Valve

    Question 42: In Hodgkin's lymphoma the following is characteristic ?
    A) CD 15 and CD 30
    B) CD 10 and CD 15
    C) CD 15 and CD 20
    Answer: A) CD 15 and CD 30

    Question 43: All of the following are true about Vibrio cholerae O139 except ?
    A) It produces O1 Lipopolysaccharide
    B) It is similar to El Tor
    C) It was discovered in Chennai
    Answer: A) It produces O1 Lipopolysaccharide

    Question 44: Drug for prophylaxis against pertussis ?
    A) Erythromycin
    Answer: A) Erythromycin

    Question 45: False about PDA ?
    A) 2-3 times commoner in males
    B) Ligation is surgery
    C) More in immature infants
    Answer: A) 2-3 times commoner in males

    Question 46: Psychrometer is used for measuring ?
    A) Humidity
    B) Room temperature
    C) Air velocity
    Answer: A) Humidity

    Question 47: The term "Dementia Praecox" was given by ?
    A) Schneider
    B) Kraeplein
    C) Bleuer
    D) Freud
    Answer: B) Kraeplein

    Question 48: Cutting the part left of the falciform ligament would mean (according to Couinaud's segments ) ?
    A) removing 1 and 4a
    B) removing 1 and 4b
    C) removing 2, 3
    D) removing 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: D) removing 2, 3 and 4

    Question 49: Secondary glaucoma develops by ?
    A) Iris melanoma
    B) Melanotic deposition on anterior surface of iris
    C) Melanotic deposition in uvea...
    D) Enlargement of lens
    Answer: B) Melanotic deposition on anterior surface of iris

    Question 50: Which of these is not a digastric muscle ?
    A) Steno-cleido mastoid
    B) Omohyoid
    C) Ligament of Treitz
    D) Occipitofrontalis
    Answer: C) Ligament of Treitz

    Question 51: Anterior cruciate ligament is supplied by ?
    A) Medial genicular
    B) Descending genicular
    C) Middle genicular
    D) Superior genicular
    Answer: C) Middle genicular

    Question 52: Under physiological conditions the phosphorylase b in the muscles is under the inhibitory effect of ?
    A) ATP
    B) AMP
    C) Glucose
    D) Ca2+
    Answer: B) AMP

    Question 53: Testes should have what temperature for spermatogenesis ?
    A) Above core body temperature
    B) At core temperature
    C) Below core body temperature
    Answer: C) Below core body temperature

    Question 54: Which is correct ?
    A) Morula is surrounded by trophoblast
    B) Morula has motility to migrate down the fallopian tube
    Answer: A) Morula is surrounded by trophoblast

    Question 55: Best way to diagnose anal fissure ?
    A) Digital rectal examination and history
    B) Direct visualization / Anoscopy
    Answer: A) Digital rectal examination and history

    Question 56: Fracture of 9th and 10th ribs, Patient hemodynamically stable on IV fluids but complains of pain in left lower chest Management ?
    A) Laparotomy
    Answer: A) Laparotomy

    Question 57: Vocal cord nodules in a singer with hoarseness at typical location with acid reflux. Management ?
    A) Speech therapy + PPI
    B) Radiotherapy
    C) Excision with CO2 Laser
    Answer: A) Speech therapy + PPI

    Question 58: A case of acute calculous cholecystitis ...?
    A) Laparoscopy contraindicated in acute stage
    B) I V Antibiotics
    Answer: B) I V Antibiotics

    Question 59: A woman with 2 cm gall stone on Ultrasonography, symptoms controlled. What next ?
    A) Regular follow up
    Answer: A) Regular follow up

    Question 60: Antigen Presenting Cells ?
    A) (??)
    Answer: A) (??)

    Question 61: Nigro protocol in anal cancer ?
    A) Chemotherapy with radiation as alternative to surgery
    Answer: A) Chemotherapy with radiation as alternative to surgery

    Question 62: Not used in PPH ?
    A) Syntometrin
    B) Syntocinon
    C) Mifepristone
    Answer: C) Mifepristone

    Question 63: Management of 55 year old postmenopausal female with bleeding with histopathology showing simple hyperplasia with atypia ?
    A) Progestins
    B) MIRENA
    C) Hysterectomy
    Answer: C) Hysterectomy

    Question 64: Cytogenetic abnormality in synovial sarcoma ?
    A) t(x;18)
    B) t(x;21)
    C) t(11;14)
    Answer: A) t(x;18)

    Question 65: Congenital nephrotic syndrome is due to mutation in ?
    A) Nephrin
    B) Podocin
    Answer: A) Nephrin

    Question 66: Which of the following is supplemented in heparin therapy to pregnant women ?
    A) Calcium
    B) Folic acid
    Answer: A) Calcium

    Question 67: What is NOT seen in treatment with Erythropoietin in renal failure ?
    A) increase in Hb
    B) increase in Hematocrit
    C) decrease in reticulocytes
    D) eliminates the need for transfusion
    Answer: C) decrease in reticulocytes

    Question 68: Facial Colliculi are located at ?
    A) Interpeduncular fossa
    B) Pons
    C) Midbrain
    D) Medulla
    Answer: B) Pons

    Question 69: Which of the following does not affect embryogenesis during pregnancy ?
    A) HIV
    B) Rubella
    C) CMV
    D) Toxoplasmosis
    Answer: A) HIV

    Question 70: Dharmendra / Roedley's scale ?
    A) TB
    B) Leprosy
    Answer: B) Leprosy

    Question 71: All of the following are Zoonosis except ?
    A) HIV
    B) TB
    C) JE
    D) Plague
    Answer: A) HIV

    Question 72: Which of the following is Penetrating trauma to neck ?
    A) 2 cms deep
    B) Injury to vital structure
    C) Penetrating Platysma
    Answer: C) Penetrating Platysma

    Question 73: When to give platelets while doing splenectomy in ITP ?
    A) At the time of ligation of splenic vein
    B) After ligation of the splenic artery
    Answer: A) At the time of ligation of splenic vein

    Question 74: All of the following are drawbacks of rhythm method / calendar method of contraception except ?
    A) cannot be used when periods are irregular
    B) higher incidence of congenital malformations
    C) high failure rate of 10 per HWY
    Answer: B) higher incidence of congenital malformations

    Question 75: Most important risk factor for Placenta accreta ?
    A) Multiparity
    B) Curretage
    Answer: B) Curretage

    Question 76: In Mullerian agenesis syndrome, all are absent except ?
    A) Uterus
    B) Vagina
    C) Cervix
    D) Ovary
    Answer: D) Ovary

    Question 77: All are true regarding Testicular feminization syndrome except ?
    A) 46 XY
    B) Absent / pouch Vagina
    C) Well developed breasts
    D) Presence of Public hair (Pubic hair)
    Answer: D) Presence of Public hair (Pubic hair)

    Question 78: When abortion stick is used in vagina and cervix, mechanism of termination is ?
    A) Uterine contractions
    Answer: A) Uterine contractions

    Question 79: Ergometrine is contraindicated in ?
    A) Heart disease
    Answer: A) Heart disease

    Question 80: A Middle aged lady with small cystic mass in vulva near Bartholin's gland (? infected), pain on walking and coitus. Best managment is ? Management ?
    A) Marsupialisation
    B) Surgical excision
    C) Incision / Drainage
    D) Antibiotics
    Answer: A) Marsupialisation

    Question 81: Not a part of active management of 3rd stage of labor is ?
    A) Ergometrine within 1 min of delivery
    B) Controlled cord traction
    C) Uterine massage
    D) Clamping and cutting the cord immediately
    Answer: D) Clamping and cutting the cord immediately

    Question 82: Which of the following is not used as landmark for facial nerve in surgery ?
    A) Tragal pointer
    B) Posterior belly of digastric
    C) Inferior belly of omohyoid
    D) Retrograde dissection of peripheral branch
    Answer: C) Inferior belly of omohyoid

    Question 83: Which of the following is not a compound / composite muscle ?
    A) Biceps femoris
    B) Rectus femoris
    C) Adductor magnus
    D) Pectineus
    Answer: D) Pectineus

    Question 84: Joints between auditory / ear ossicles are of which type ?
    A) Primary cartilaginous
    B) Secondary cartilaginous
    C) Synovial
    D) Fibrous
    Answer: C) Synovial

    Question 85: A sensory supply of masseter goes ot which nucleus of trigeminal nerve ?
    A) Spinal
    B) Motor
    C) Mesencephalic
    Answer: A) Spinal

    Question 86: Most common cause of visual morbidity in India ?
    A) Refractive errors
    B) Cataract
    Answer: B) Cataract

    Question 87: All are true about YAWS except ?
    A) It is a STD
    B) It is caused by T. pallidum sp pertenue
    Answer: A) It is a STD

    Question 88: Mechanism of action of Pralidoxime ?
    A) Reactivation of choline-esterase
    Answer: A) Reactivation of choline-esterase

    Question 89: Which of the following is not a source of high energy phosphate ?
    A) TCA
    B) Glycolysis
    C) Oxidative phosphorylation
    D) HMP
    Answer: D) HMP

    Question 90: Which of the oncogenes is associated with growth factors ?
    A) fos
    B) jun
    C) mys
    D) sis
    Answer: D) sis

    Question 91: Ice-berg phenomenon represents ?
    A) apparent / inapparent
    B) symptomatic / asymptomatic
    C) diagnosed / undiagnosed
    D) case / carriers
    Answer: A) apparent / inapparent

    Question 92: "Torsades de pointes " is seen in ?
    A) Quinidine
    B) Digoxin
    C) Phenytoin
    D) Chlorthiazide
    Answer: A) Quinidine

    Question 93: Which of the following drugs is NOT contraindicated in G6PD Deficiency ?
    A) Chloroquine
    B) Quinine
    C) Primaquine
    D) Pyrimethamine
    Answer: D) Pyrimethamine

    Question 94: Thymoma is associated with ?
    A) Myasthenia gravis
    B) Hypergammaglobulinemia
    C) SLE
    D) Multiple sclerosis
    Answer: A) Myasthenia gravis

    Question 95: Ipratropium bromide is contraindicated in ?
    A) Peptic ulcer
    B) Bronchial asthma
    C) Hypertension
    D) Urinary retention
    Answer: D) Urinary retention

    Question 96: Vitamin B12 is used along with folic acid in Megaloblastic anaemia because ?
    A) Folic acid improves anaemia but not the neurological deficit
    D) B12 acts as a coenzyme for folic acid metabolism
    Answer: A) Folic acid improves anaemia but not the neurological deficit

    Question 97: Corporo-basal index is used for the estimation of ?
    A) Race
    B) Sex
    C) Age
    D) Stature
    Answer: C) Age

    Question 98: Inclusions deposited in Pick's bodies in Pick's disease is ?
    A) Hyperphosphorylated tau
    B) ubiquitin
    C) alpha-synuclein
    D) beta-synuclein
    Answer: A) Hyperphosphorylated tau

    Question 99: In MEN1, most common carcinoma seen in pancreas is ?
    A) Gastrinoma
    B) Glucagonoma
    C) Insulinoma
    D) Somatostatinoma
    Answer: A) Gastrinoma

    Question 100: Pollicization ?
    A) Surgical construction of a thumb from a finger
    Answer: A) Surgical construction of a thumb from a finger

    Question 101: Treatment for a pregnant women in second trimester, suffering from pustular psoriasis ?
    A) Retinoin
    B) Cyclosporin
    C) Methotrexate
    D) Prednisolone
    Answer: D) Prednisolone

    Question 102: Salpingitis is best detected by ?
    A) Hysterosalpingography
    B) Laparoscopy
    C) Hysteroscopy
    D) Sonosalpingography
    Answer: B) Laparoscopy

    Question 103: Cold AIHA (Cold Antibody Immune Hemolytic Anemia) is medicated by ?
    A) Anti IgM
    B) Anti IgG
    C) Donath Landstiener Ab
    D) Anti Ig A
    Answer: A) Anti IgM

    Question 104: Organism implicated in Crohn's disease is ?
    A) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
    B) Chlamydia
    C) Clostridium difficile
    D) CMV
    E) Mycoplasma
    Answer: A) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

    Question 105: Peptide which is used as anti-tumor agent ?
    A) Bleomycin
    B) Doxorubicin / Dacarbazine
    C) Valinomycin
    Answer: A) Bleomycin

    Question 106: Which of the following is not suggestive of Ileocaecal tuberculosis ?
    A) Pulled up caecum
    B) Narrow terminal ileum
    C) Apple core appearance of caecum
    D) Change in angle of ileocaecal junction
    Answer: C) Apple core appearance of caecum

    Question 107: Pancytopenia with hypercellular marrow, all except ?
    A) Congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia
    Answer: A) Congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia

    Question 108: Drug of choice in premenstrual syndrome is ?
    A) SSRI
    B) Prostaglandin inhibitor
    C) Anxiolytic
    Answer: B) Prostaglandin inhibitor

    Question 109: A female with extensive lesions / ulcers in the oral cavity ?
    A) Pemphigous vulgaris
    B) Pemphigoid
    Answer: A) Pemphigous vulgaris

    Question 110: A newborn with massive abdominal distension with gas under both diaphragm ... ?
    A) Stomach perforation
    B) Congenital pouch colon
    Answer: A) Stomach perforation

    Question 111: Which of the following drugs is nephrotoxic ?
    A) Streptomycin
    Answer: A) Streptomycin

    Question 112: An HIV patient presents with difficulty in walking and pain in the right hip on abduction and internal rotation.. ?
    A) TB hip
    B) Avascular necrosis
    C) Septic arthritis of hip joint
    Answer: A) TB hip

    Question 113: A patient with chronic pancreatitis with stones in the head of pancreas and dilated pancreatic duct. Management when pain occurs every 2 months ?
    A) Percutaneous stone removal
    B) Analgesics, medical management
    C) Surgery when analgesics dont work anymore
    Answer: B) Analgesics, medical management

    Question 114: Which of the following is not an antidepressant ?
    A) Fluoxetine
    B) Sertraline
    C) Bupropion
    D) Risperidone
    Answer: C) Bupropion

    Question 115: Flumazenil is ?
    A) Benzodiazepine antagonist
    B) Opoid antagonist
    C) Reverse agonist
    Answer: A) Benzodiazepine antagonist

    Question 116: Earliest sign in order of puberty ?
    A) Breast Budding
    Answer: A) Breast Budding

    Question 117: False regarding Volvulus is ?
    A) Sigmoidoscopy is not done
    Answer: A) Sigmoidoscopy is not done

    Question 118: Biliary obstruction is not caused by ?
    A) A. duodenale
    B) Fasciola
    C) Clonorchis
    D) Ascaris
    Answer: A) A. duodenale

    Question 119: Earliest radiological manifestation of Pulmonary venous hypertension ?
    A) Cephalization of veins
    B) Kerley B Lines
    C) Pleural effusion
    Answer: A) Cephalization of veins

    Question 120: Least relapse in nocturnal enuresis occurs with ?
    A) Bed alarms
    B) Desmopressin
    C) Imipramine
    Answer: A) Bed alarms

    Question 121: Which of the following is not seen in post traumatic stress disorder ?
    A) Hyperarousal
    B) Emotional numbing
    C) Hallucations
    Answer: C) Hallucations

    Question 122: Palpable purpura in a lady with rashes all over trunk limbs and buttocks ?
    A) Henoch Schonlein purpura
    B) Meningococcemia
    C) Sweet syndrome
    D) Hemochromatosis
    Answer: A) Henoch Schonlein purpura

    Question 123: Treatment of Bilateral microotia and external auditory canal atresia should be done ?
    A) Before 1 year
    B) Delayed till 6 years
    C) After puberty
    Answer: B) Delayed till 6 years

    Question 124: Maximum saturated fat is present in ?
    A) Palm oil
    B) Groundnut oil
    C) Sunflower oil
    D) Soyabean
    Answer: A) Palm oil

    Question 125: 18 year old boy dies suddenly while playing football. Autopsy shows thickened interventricular septum. Diagnosis ?
    A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    B) Dilated cardiomyopathy
    C) Arrythmogenic right ventricular ...
    Answer: A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

    Question 126: Live attenuated vaccine , false is ?
    A) 2 live vaccines can't be given together
    B) Give life long immunity with single dose
    C) No need of booster doses
    Answer: A) 2 live vaccines can't be given together

    Question 127: Which is false of nutritional surveillance ?
    A) It is a diagnostic method
    B) Precise weight readings required
    C) Done in all children less than 5 years
    D) Done by a trained worker
    Answer: C) Done in all children less than 5 years

    Question 128: Familial hypertriglyceridemia with Increased chylomicron and VLDL are seen in ?
    A) Type I
    B) Type 2a
    C) Type 3
    D) Type 2b
    Answer: C) Type 3

    Question 129: Completed family size indicates ?
    A) Total fertility rate
    B) General fertility rate
    C) Gross fertility rate
    Answer: A) Total fertility rate

    Question 130: Which of the following is not a mode of suffocation ?
    A) Throttling
    B) Smothering
    C) Choking
    D) Gagging
    Answer: A) Throttling

    Question 131: Photo-electric effect is ?
    A) Photon converted to 2 electrons
    B) Photon of light striking the electron in last orbit
    Answer: B) Photon of light striking the electron in last orbit

    Question 132: Chronic diarrhoea, on colonic biopsy crypt branching, crypt abscess... Most probable diagnosis is ?
    A) Ulcerative colitis
    B) Crohn's disease
    C) Collagenous colitis
    D) Microcolitis
    Answer: A) Ulcerative colitis

    Question 133: Which is not seen in haemochromatosis ?
    A) Arthritis
    B) Skin pigmentation
    C) Hypogonadism
    Answer: A) Arthritis

    Question 134: Which movement helps in locking of knee during standing ?
    A) Internal rotation of femur on fixed tibia
    B) External rotation of femur on fixed tibia
    C) Internal rotation of tibia on fixed femur
    D) External rotation of tibia on fixed femur
    Answer: A) Internal rotation of femur on fixed tibia

    Question 135: Best view for C1-C2 (T1 - T2) fracture visualization ?
    A) Odontoid view
    B) Lateral
    C) Oblique
    Answer: A) Odontoid view

    Question 136: Which of the following is not carried by posterior column of spinal cord ?
    A) Pressure
    B) Temperature
    C) Movement
    D) Vibration
    Answer: B) Temperature

    Question 137: Which of the following is correct regarding Diffuse Axonal Injury ?
    A) frontal and temporal white matter,caudate nuclei, thalamus are most commonly involved
    B) Cerebral contusion
    C) Extra dural hemorrhage
    Answer: A) frontal and temporal white matter,caudate nuclei, thalamus are most commonly involved

    Question 138: All of the following cells are found in the respiratory part of lungs except ?
    A) Clara cells
    B) Kulchitsky cells
    C) Brush
    D) Langerhans cells
    Answer: D) Langerhans cells

    Question 139: Histology of Whipple's disease ?
    A) Histiocytic infiltration of lamina propria
    B) Eosinophilic infiltration of lamina propria
    C) Granulomatous infiltration of lamina propria of jejunum
    Answer: A) Histiocytic infiltration of lamina propria

    Question 140: True about breast swelling with pain in Puerperal period ?
    A) Infected from Infant's GIT Organisms
    B) May develop abscess and require aspiration
    C) Most common causative organism is E. coli
    D) Treat with antibiotics
    Answer: B) May develop abscess and require aspiration

    Question 141: A 35 year old man with severe hair loss of scalp, eyebrows, eye lashes but with scanty grey hair. Diagnosis is ?
    A) Androgenic alopecia
    B) Telogen effluvium
    C) Alopecia areata
    D) Anagen effluvium
    Answer: C) Alopecia areata

    Question 142: Okazaki fragments ?
    A) Single Stranded DNA replication
    B) Transcription
    C) Double Stranded DNA replication
    D) Translation
    Answer: C) Double Stranded DNA replication

    Question 143: Broadening / Flaring of Anterior end of ribs is seen in ?
    A) Rickets
    B) Scurvy
    Answer: A) Rickets

    Question 144: Physiologically most active form of calcium ?
    A) Ionic
    B) Bound to carbonate
    C) Bound to albumin
    Answer: A) Ionic

    Question 145: Epispadias are commonly associated with ?
    A) Widening of symphysis
    B) Separation of symphysis
    Answer: B) Separation of symphysis

    Question 146: Which of the following is organochlorine compound ?
    A) Endrin
    B) Malathion
    C) Parathion
    D) Diazonin
    Answer: A) Endrin

    Question 147: Involvement of which of the following is not suggestive of a LOW radial nerve injury ?
    A) Extensor carpi radialis
    B) Brachioradialis
    C) Loss of finger extension
    D) Loss of sensation over dorsum of hand
    Answer: A) Extensor carpi radialis

    Question 148: Mechanism of action Neutrophil killing by producing oxygen radicals ?
    A) NADPH
    B) Oxidase
    C) Elastase
    D) Hydrase
    Answer: A) NADPH

    Question 149: Hyperkeratosis on palms and soles with transverse bands on nails ?
    A) Chronic arsenic poisoning
    B) Xeroderma pigmentosa
    Answer: A) Chronic arsenic poisoning

    Question 150: Which of the following is not a cause of meningitis in elderly ?
    A) Herpes simplex 2
    B) Listeria monocytogenes
    C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D) H influenzae
    E) Gram Negative Bacteria
    Answer: A) Herpes simplex 2

    Question 151: Not true regarding Measles ?
    A) Measles is caused by one type of strain
    B) The only source of infection is a CASE
    C) High secondary attack rate
    D) Not infectious in prodromal phase
    Answer: A) Measles is caused by one type of strain

    Question 152: A boy with history of frequent hematuria with dysmorphic red cells . Diagnosis is ?
    A) Acute glomerulonephritis
    B) IgA nephritis
    C) Ureteric calculus
    Answer: B) IgA nephritis

    Question 153: Alkalinisation of urine is useful in ?
    A) Phenobarbitone
    B) Dhatura
    C) Atropine
    D) Amphetamine
    Answer: A) Phenobarbitone

    Question 154: 25 years female with blood discharge from nipple, small nodule with single duct involvement is seen. Management ?
    A) Microdochectomy
    B) Simple mastectomy
    C) Radical duct excision
    D) Radical mastectomy
    Answer: A) Microdochectomy

    Question 155: Which is the commonest presentation of transfusion reactions ?
    A) Non-hemolytic febrile reaction
    B) Hypothermia
    C) Malarial transmission
    D) Hemolysis
    Answer: A) Non-hemolytic febrile reaction

    Question 156: True about bradykinin ?
    A) Causes pain sensation
    B) Bronchodilation
    C) Vasoconstriction
    D) Decreased capillary permeability
    Answer: A) Causes pain sensation

    Question 157: Sorting of protein is done in ?
    A) Golgi bodies
    B) Peroxisome
    C) Lysosome
    Answer: A) Golgi bodies

    Question 158: All are true about Squamous cell carcinoma of Cervix except ?
    A) Arises in squamo-columnar junction
    B) HPV 16 & 18 are associated with high risk
    C) Common symptom is post coital bleeding
    D) CT scan is not necessary for staging
    Answer: D) CT scan is not necessary for staging

    Question 159: Mother with previous history of adrenal hypertrophy. Present pregnancy advise ?
    A) Steroids before conception
    B) Check for USG sex determination and then decide
    C) Steroids just after conception
    D) Do chorionic villus sampling then give steroid
    Answer: B) Check for USG sex determination and then decide

    Question 160: Histelberger's sign is seen in ?
    A) Acoustic neuroma
    B) Cholesteatoma
    C) Facial nerve...
    D) Bells palsy
    Answer: A) Acoustic neuroma

    Question 161: A 75 year old man with conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, dull reflex on tympanic membrane, B type of curve on tympanometry, posterior triangle nodes palpable. What is the diagnosis ?
    A) Nasopharyngeal Cancer
    B) Middle ear malignancy
    Answer: A) Nasopharyngeal Cancer

    Question 162: Patient with complaints of chest pain, sweating, restlessness, brought to casualty, apprehension. ECG & X-ray normal. Asymptomatic with supportive measures in 10 mins. What is the diagnosis ?
    A) Panic attack
    B) Angina pectoris
    C) Vasovagal syncope
    D) Myocardial infarction
    Answer: A) Panic attack

    Question 163: Effect of exercise on cerebral blood flow ?
    A) No effect
    B) Increase
    C) First decrease then increase
    D) Depends on the severity of exercise
    Answer: A) No effect

    Question 164: A young male with HBsAg positivity, AST/ALT normal, HBeAg negative. Next line of management is ?
    A) Regular follow up
    B) Interferon
    C) Lamivudine
    D) Lamivudine plus Interferon
    Answer: A) Regular follow up

    Question 165: Rosettes are found in ?
    A) Retinoblastoma
    B) Neuroblastoma
    Answer: A) Retinoblastoma

    Question 166: True about Kawasaki's disease ?
    A) It is the most common small vessel (immune mediated) vasculitis in children
    B) I V Immunoglobulins is given only in cases of aneurysm
    C) Coronary artery aneurysm occurs in 25% untreated cases
    D) Diagnosed by lymph node biopsy
    Answer: C) Coronary artery aneurysm occurs in 25% untreated cases

    Question 167: Which is true regarding lymph flow ?
    A) increases by standing
    B) increases by massaging the foot
    C) increases by lifting the foot
    D) decreased in valvular incompetence
    Answer: C) increases by lifting the foot

    Question 168: Treatment of Resistant falciparum malaria in child is ?
    A) Doxycycline
    B) Tetracycline
    C) Clindamycin
    D) Chloroquine
    Answer: A) Doxycycline

    Question 169: Enteric fever is treated by all except ?
    A) Trimethoprim & Sulpamethoxazole
    B) Ciploxacin
    C) Amikacin
    Answer: A) Trimethoprim & Sulpamethoxazole

    Question 170: In acute pancreatitis, the preferred route of nutrition ?
    A) Post jejunostomy feeding tube
    B) Feeding tube
    C) Gastric tube
    Answer: A) Post jejunostomy feeding tube

    Question 171: Probiotics are used in ?
    A) Necrotizing enterocolitis
    Answer: A) Necrotizing enterocolitis

    Question 172: Male child with imperforated anus. Treatment of choice is ?
    A) Transverse colostomy
    B) Anoplasty
    C) Sigmoid colostomy
    D) Perineal exploration
    Answer: D) Perineal exploration

    Question 173: Radiocontrast reactions are mostly ?
    A) Anaphylactoid
    B) Hypersensitivity
    Answer: A) Anaphylactoid

    Question 174: Which one is water soluble ?
    A) Retinoic acid
    B) Folic acid
    Answer: B) Folic acid

    Question 175: The radioisotope used for measuring blood volume is ?
    A) Cr-51
    Answer: A) Cr-51

    Question 176: Best urine sample taken is ?
    A) Midstream
    B) Supra pubic aspiration
    Answer: B) Supra pubic aspiration

    Question 177: Right sided aortic arch is seen in ?
    A) Tetralogy of Fallot
    B) Corrected TGA
    C) Truncus arteriosus
    Answer: A) Tetralogy of Fallot

    Question 178: Best site for Bone Graft is ?
    A) Iliac crest
    Answer: A) Iliac crest

    Question 179: A woman with progressive dysphagia for liquids and solids ?
    A) Achalasia cardia
    Answer: A) Achalasia cardia

    Question 180: Transretinoic acid therapy is used in ?
    A) CML
    B) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
    Answer: B) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

    Question 181: Gumma is seen in which type of syphilis ?
    A) Tertiary
    Answer: A) Tertiary
    [Post Comments]
    (Single Best Answer) Question 182: Drug of choice in tertiary syphilis ?
    A) Procaine penicillin
    B) Benzathine penicillin
    Answer: A) Procaine penicillin

    Question 183: Which microorganism is least resistant to sterilization / disinfection / antiseptics ?
    A) Fungi
    B) Prions
    C) Cysts
    D) Spores
    Answer: B) Prions

    Question 184: Commonest occupational cancer is ?
    A) Skin
    B) Bladder
    C) Lung
    Answer: A) Skin

    Question 185: Fibrin stabilizing factor ?
    A) Factor XIII
    Answer: A) Factor XIII

    Question 186: Discolouration of urine is not seen in ?
    A) Rifampicin
    B) Quinine
    Answer: B) Quinine

    Question 187: Rh factor is ?
    A) Antibody
    B) Protein
    Answer: B) Protein

    Question 188: Concurrent list does not emcompass ?
    A) (??)
    Answer: A) (??)

    Question 189: Community Health Centre in RCH is a centre of ?
    A) Primary referral
    B) Secondary referral
    C) Tertiary referral
    D) Not a referral
    Answer: C) Tertiary referral

    Question 190: Child after delivery develops hypoxemia, no response to surfactant ... ground glass appearance... normal echo ?
    A) Proteinosis
    Answer: A) Proteinosis

    Question 191: Train of four is used in ?
    A) Weaning of ventilation
    B) Treatment of metabolic acidosis
    Answer: A) Weaning of ventilation

    Question 192: Child with posterior mediastinal cyst, vertebral body defect. What is the diagnosis ?
    A) Myelocele
    B) Bronchogenic cyst
    C) Neuroblastoma
    D) Neuroenteric cyst
    Answer: B) Bronchogenic cyst

    Question 193: True about heart ?
    A) Depolarization occurs from endocardium inwards
    B) Exercise decreases systole more than diastole
    C) Vagal stimulation causes increase force of contraction
    D) Denervation increases heart rate
    Answer: D) Denervation increases heart rate

    Question 194: Most common posterior mediastinal tumor ?
    A) Neurogenic
    Answer: A) Neurogenic

    Question 195: Most sensitive test for Acute knee injury ?
    A) Lachman
    B) Anterior Drawer
    Answer: A) Lachman

    Question 196: All are true regarding Pneumocystis jevoricci except ?
    A) Only seen in immunocompromised
    B) Most commonly associated with CMV
    Answer: A) Only seen in immunocompromised

    Question 197: All are true regarding p53 except ?
    A) Lies on chromosome 17
    B) 54 kd protein
    Answer: A) Lies on chromosome 17

    Question 198: It is better to repair than remove which menisci injury ?
    A) inner menisci injury
    B) outer
    C) middle
    D) anterior cruciate ligament with mensici
    Answer: D) anterior cruciate ligament with mensici

    Question 199: Peristent hyperplastic primary vitreous ?
    A) Down's
    B) Patau's
    C) Sturge weber
    D) Tuberous sclerosis
    Answer: B) Patau's

    Question 200: Sudden onset pain in scrotum, no fever, redness. All true except ?
    A) It torsion and not treated will lead to orchidectomy
    B) Treat with antibiotics
    Answer: B) Treat with antibiotics

    Question 201: A Man in a sad mood as his son was diagnosed with leukemia. He does not feel hopeless, communicates with people. Diagnosis is ?
    A) Depression
    B) Adjustment disorder
    Answer: A) Depression

    Question 202: Erectile dysfunction seen in OPD... ?
    A) Sildenafil citrate test
    B) Corposometry
    C) USG Duplex Scan
    Answer: C) USG Duplex Scan

    Question 203: Horizontal gaze palsy is controlled by ?
    A) Abducent
    B) Trigeminal
    Answer: A) Abducent

    Question 204: Saphenous vein region is supplied superficially by ?
    A) Sural nerve
    Answer: A) Sural nerve

    Question 205: Secretin causes ?
    A) decreased gastric juice secretion
    Answer: A) decreased gastric juice secretion

    Question 206: H5N1 Strain ?
    A) Bird flu
    Answer: A) Bird flu

    Question 207: Which of the following is a proliferating glomerulonephritis ?
    A) Membranous
    B) Focal segmental
    C) Mesangiocapillary
    Answer: A) Membranous

    Question 208: Which of the following is not a muscle protein ?
    A) Dystrophin
    B) Sarcoglycan
    C) Dystroglycan
    Answer: A) Dystrophin

    Question 209: Which of the following has worse prognosis in AML ?
    A) INV16 (Inversion 16)
    B) t(15:17)
    C) Monosomy 7
    D) Normal cytogenecity
    Answer: C) Monosomy 7

    Question 210: False about Diploic veins ?
    A) Thin walled
    B) Present in skull bones
    C) Valveless
    D) Develop by 8th week
    Answer: D) Develop by 8th week

    Question 211: WHO definition of Blindness ?
    A) Best correct 6/18 .... 3/60
    Answer: A) Best correct 6/18 .... 3/60

    Question 212: International and Indian Law, all true except ?
    A) Health Central Govt Responsibility
    B) India signitory to Alma Atta Declaration
    Answer: A) Health Central Govt Responsibility

    Question 213: A lady with jaundice and anemia. Inv. of choice ?
    A) Coomb's test
    B) Osmotic fragility
    Answer: A) Coomb's test

    Question 214: Glucose 6 phosphatase enzyme is absent in ?
    A) Liver
    B) Muscle
    Answer: B) Muscle

    Question 215: The site where the electrode of cochlear implant is attached ?
    A) Round window
    B) Oval window
    C) Horizontal semicircular canal
    Answer: A) Round window

    Question 216: A patient with gross hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia ... Diagnosis is ?
    A) von Gierke's disease
    B) Cori syndrome
    C) Pompe's syndrome
    Answer: A) von Gierke's disease

    Question 217: Calcium binding protein trigger a muscle contration ?
    A) Troponin C
    Answer: A) Troponin C

    Question 218: Fat embolism ?
    A) After 24 to 72 hrs
    Answer: A) After 24 to 72 hrs

    Question 219: Acute Pyelonephritis and uncomplication UTI are differentiated by all except ?
    A) Tamm Horsfall protein
    B) WBC casts
    C) Concentrating defect
    D) Organism Count
    Answer: D) Organism Count

    Question 220: Not an indication for inducing labour ?
    A) Postmaturity
    B) Diabetes
    C) Eclampsia
    Answer: B) Diabetes

    Question 221: Rubella associated anomaly ?
    A) PDA
    Answer: A) PDA

    Question 222: A 65 year old diabetic with decreased mobility of ankle joint and increased osteophytes... ?
    A) Bandage could be done
    B) Arthrodesis can be done
    C) Total replacement is treatment of choice
    Answer: A) Bandage could be done

    Question 223: Hydrostatic test cannot be used to detect lung maturity in ?
    A) Atelectasis of lung
    B) Emphysema
    Answer: A) Atelectasis of lung

    Question 224: Part of cell membrane allowing neutral molecules to cross is ?
    A) Porin
    B) Adenylate cyclase
    Answer: A) Porin

    Question 225: Difference in sevoflurane and desflurane ?
    A) Less cardiac depressant
    Answer: A) Less cardiac depressant

    Question 226: Blood pressure by sphygmomanometer ?
    A) Smaller than intraarterial pressure
    Answer: A) Smaller than intraarterial pressure

    Question 227: During spermatogenesis, the movement of sperm is from ?
    A) Epididymis - Rete testis - Straight tubule
    Answer: A) Epididymis - Rete testis - Straight tubule

    Question 228: Upto what level does bronchial artery supplies blood ?
    A) Respiratory bronchiole
    Answer: A) Respiratory bronchiole

    Question 229: In case of rape of a girl, which test is used on male to confirm rape ?
    A) Cells on genitals
    Answer: A) Cells on genitals

    Question 230: What is not seen in SLE ?
    A) Venous thrombosis
    B) Recurrent fetal loss
    C) Pulmonary venous hypertension
    D) Pancytopenia
    Answer: C) Pulmonary venous hypertension

    Question 231: Recurrent abortions not seen in ?
    A) TORCH
    Answer: A) TORCH

    Question 232: A boy with progressive torticollis, bilateral body lesion ... True is ?
    A) His prognosis for survival is poor
    Answer: A) His prognosis for survival is poor

    Question 233: Equal time interval prevents which bias ?
    A) Berksonian bias
    Answer: A) Berksonian bias

    Question 234: Transrectal USG in Carcinoma prostate is used to see ?
    A) Seminal vesicle
    B) Nodal status
    C) To take biopsy
    Answer: C) To take biopsy

    Question 235: Fatty liver is seen in poisoning with ?
    A) Aconite
    B) Arsenic
    C) Oxalic acid
    Answer: B) Arsenic

    Question 236: Conn's syndrome most commonly associated with ?
    A) Cortical hyperplasia
    B) Cortical Carcinoma
    C) Cortical Adenoma
    D) Pheochromocytoma
    Answer: C) Cortical Adenoma

    Question 237: Triple reflex is due to ?
    A) Axon reflex
    B) Local mediators
    Answer: A) Axon reflex

    Question 238: Extramedullary tumor. True is ?
    A) Lateral side produces Brown sequard syndrome
    Answer: A) Lateral side produces Brown sequard syndrome

    Question 239: Bloid's ring tangles are seen in ?
    A) Choroid epithelium
    B) Basket cells
    Answer: A) Choroid epithelium

    Question 240: mip-2 protein in lens ?
    A) to transfer water out
    B) proteoglycan
    Answer: A) to transfer water out

    Question 241: In rape victim, in male, what is positive ?
    A) Phenolphthalein test
    B) Lugol's iodine
    Answer: B) Lugol's iodine

    Question 242: Allergic fungal sinusitis is characterised by ?
    A) Orbital extension
    B) Hyperdense infiltrate seen on Noncontrast CT scan
    Answer: A) Orbital extension

    Question 243: Conus medullaris. All true except ?
    A) Absent ankle jerk
    B) Flexor plantar response
    C) Saddle anaesthesia
    Answer: B) Flexor plantar response

    Question 244: Gomez classification, All true except ?
    A) Height is used to grade malnutrition
    B) 72% means Grade 2
    Answer: A) Height is used to grade malnutrition

    Question 245: Which is not seen in hemithyroidectomy ?
    A) Hypocalcemia
    B) Recurrent laryngeal palsy is seen
    C) Hemorrhage
    D) Internal laryngeal nerve palsy
    Answer: A) Hypocalcemia

    Question 246: Diphtheria like colitis is seen in ?
    A) Lead
    B) Phenol
    Answer: A) Lead

    Question 247: Chorionic villous biopsy is not indicated in ?
    A) Downs syndrome
    B) Neural tube defects
    Answer: B) Neural tube defects

    Question 248: The area of the great saphenous vein in the leg is supplied by ?
    A) Femoral nerve
    B) Sural nerve
    C) Posterior tibial nerve
    Answer: A) Femoral nerve

    Question 249: Which is not included in Integrated management of childhood illness ?
    A) Otitis media
    B) Neonatal tetanus
    Answer: B) Neonatal tetanus

    Question 250: Umbilical artery doppler all true except ?
    A) Systolic / Diastolic ratio decreased due to Nicotine
    B) Systolic / Diastolic ratio increased due to Nicotine
    Answer: A) Systolic / Diastolic ratio decreased due to Nicotine

    Question 251: Which is not a histological feature of malignant hypertension ?
    A) Fibrinoid necrosis
    B) Hyaline sclerosis
    Answer: A) Fibrinoid necrosis

    Question 252: All are true about Tubercular osteomyelitis except ?
    A) Less sequestrum
    B) Always secondary infection
    C) Periosteal reaction
    Answer: C) Periosteal reaction

    Question 253: Loss of sensation in posterior wall of external auditory canal is seen in ?
    A) Vestibular schwannoma
    B) Facial nerve palsy
    C) Cholesteatoma
    D) Bell's palsy
    Answer: A) Vestibular schwannoma

    Question 254: About propofol all are true except ?
    A) Early clear headedness
    B) Kinetics governed by 3 compartment mechanism
    C) Contraindicated in porphyria
    D) Contains egg albumin
    Answer: C) Contraindicated in porphyria

    Question 255: Which is not included in Integrated Management of Childhood illness ?
    A) Otitis media
    B) Neonatal tetanus
    C) Measles
    D) Malaria
    Answer: A) Otitis media

    Question 256: Which drug interferes with protein synthesis ?
    A) Amoxycillin
    B) Penicillin
    C) Tetracycline
    Answer: C) Tetracycline
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    AIPGMEE 2009 Questions with Answers

    AIPGMEE 2009 Questions with Answers

    Question 1: Dose of which of the following may not be altered with deranged value of GFR ?
    A) Cefipime
    B) Cefoperazone
    C) Cefuroxime
    D) Tetracycline
    Answer: A) Cefipime

    Question 2: Ifosfamide belongs to which class of drugs ?
    A) Alkylating Agent
    Answer: A) Alkylating Agent

    Question 3: Which of the following reduces bone resorption as well as stimulates bone formation ?
    A) Calcitonin
    B) Teriparatide
    C) Ibandronate
    D) Strontium
    Answer: B) Teriparatide

    Question 4: Persons disability act ?
    A) Mental retardation
    Answer: A) Mental retardation

    Question 5: True about nutrition include the following except ?
    A) Vitamin A deficiency does not occur for a year or so after stopping its intake
    B) Zinc deficiency - Pulmonary fibrosis
    C) Selenium deficiency - Cardiomyopathy
    D) High Calcium in diet reduces iron absorption
    Answer: B) Zinc deficiency - Pulmonary fibrosis

    Question 6: Incidence is calculated by ?
    A) Case control studies
    B) Prospective studies
    C) Retrospective studies
    D) Case study
    Answer: B) Prospective studies

    Question 7: Focal diffuse gall bladder wall thickening with comet tail reverberation artifacts on USG is in ?
    A) Adenomyomatosis of gall bladder
    B) Ca gall bladder
    C) Adenomatous polyps
    D) Xantho granuloma
    Answer: A) Adenomyomatosis of gall bladder

    Question 8: Restless leg syndrome is caused by ?
    A) Chronic Renal Failure
    B) Hypercalcemia
    C) Hypophosphatemia
    Answer: A) Chronic Renal Failure

    Question 9: Casper Dictum ?
    A) Identification of dead body
    B) Calculation of time since death
    Answer: A) Identification of dead body

    Question 10: Psammoma bodies are seen in all except ?
    A) Follicular Ca Thyroid
    B) Papillary Ca Thyroid
    C) Serous cystadenoma of Ovary
    D) Meningioma
    Answer: A) Follicular Ca Thyroid

    Question 11: Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs due to ?
    A) Infection by the same virus again
    B) Infection by another strain of dengue virus
    C) Infection in immunocompromised
    Answer: B) Infection by another strain of dengue virus

    Question 12: STEPS ?
    A) Risk factors for noncommunicable diseases
    Answer: A) Risk factors for noncommunicable diseases

    Question 13: Latest classification for Wilm's Tumor ?
    A) AJCC TNM
    B) CIOS
    C) CHIDC
    Answer: A) AJCC TNM

    Question 14: True about trochlear nerve is ?
    A) Longest intracranial path
    B) Only nerve on dorsal aspect of midbrain
    Answer: B) Only nerve on dorsal aspect of midbrain

    Question 15: False about neuroblastoma ?
    A) Most common intracranial solid tumor
    Answer: A) Most common intracranial solid tumor

    Question 16: A 45 year old man comes from a trip and has swollen right knee and pricking sensation in eye diagnosis is ?
    A) Reiter's syndrome
    Answer: A) Reiter's syndrome

    Question 17: A person was brought to the ER after his dinner with c/o something sticking in his throat which later progressed to dyspnoea and DIAGNOSIS IS ?
    A) Myocardial Infarction
    B) Foreign body
    Answer: B) Foreign body

    Question 18: All of the following are side effects of Valproic acid except ?
    A) Alopecia
    B) Hepatitis
    Answer: A) Alopecia

    Question 19: Systolic thrill is heard in Ist and 2nd Intercostal space in all except ?
    A) Pink tetralogy of fallot
    B) Ebstein's anomaly
    C) Pulmonary stenosis
    D) VSD
    Answer: A) Pink tetralogy of fallot

    Question 20: Which is not primary amenorrhoea ?
    A) Sheehan's syndrome
    B) Kallman's syndrome
    C) Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome
    Answer: A) Sheehan's syndrome

    Question 21: False about hemochromatosis ?
    A) Cannot be treated with phlebotomy
    Answer: A) Cannot be treated with phlebotomy

    Question 22: Milkman's fracture ?
    Answer: A)

    Question 23: Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia ?
    A) TTP
    Answer: A) TTP

    Question 24: Indian reference man ?
    A) 55 Kg
    B) 60 Kg
    C) 65 Kg
    D) 70 Kg
    Answer: B) 60 Kg

    Question 25: There were 50 patients in a ward 20 girls and 30 boys. of them 10 girls and 20 boys required surgery. what is the probablility of each patient being selected for surgery ?
    A) 2/6
    B) 3/5
    C) 6/25
    Answer: A) 2/6

    Question 26: A pilot has undergone her pre employment evaluaion and had the following test reports MCV 70, hb 11.5 SERUM FERRITIN 65 diagnosis is ?
    A) B12 deficiency
    B) Folic acid deficiency
    C) Thalassemia trait
    Answer: A) B12 deficiency

    Question 27: A 29 year old male was taking oral hypoglycemic drgs and he never had ketonuria in his life . his grandfather had diabetes and his father who is only son of his grandfather did not have the disease. the type of DM the person can never have is ?
    A) Pancreatic DM
    B) MODY
    C) Type I DM
    D) Type II DM
    Answer: A) Pancreatic DM

    Question 28: Cystic fibrosis false is ?
    A) Autosomal dominant
    Answer: A) Autosomal dominant

    Question 29: Von Hippel Lindau syndrome is not associated with which cancer ?
    A) Renal
    B) Gastric
    Answer: B) Gastric

    Question 30: A nodule of 2cm in left thyroid diagnosed as papillary ca. Treatment of choice is ?
    A) Hemithyroidectomy
    B) Total thyroidectomy
    C) Thyroidectomy with radical dissection
    Answer: B) Total thyroidectomy

    Question 31: Mammogram in adolescents is less accurate because ?
    A) Fat is more than glandular tissue
    B) Glandular tissue is more than fat
    Answer: A) Fat is more than glandular tissue

    Question 32: Disease causing modification of finger prints is ?
    A) Leprosy
    B) HIV
    Answer: A) Leprosy

    Question 33: Organ most damaged in bomb explosion ?
    A) Heart
    B) Liver
    C) Brain
    D) Skeletal muscles
    Answer: C) Brain

    Question 34: Paneth cells ?
    A) Contain Zinc
    Answer: A) Contain Zinc

    Question 35: All are pain sensitive areas of brain except ?
    A) Dural sinuses
    B) Middle meningeal artery
    C) Falx cerebri
    D) Choroid plexus
    Answer: C) Falx cerebri

    Question 36: Angiotensin II does not cause production of ?
    A) ADH
    B) Aldosterone
    Answer: A) ADH

    Question 37: Arterial wall changes in hypertension ?
    A) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
    B) Cystic Medial fibrosis
    Answer: A) Hyaline arteriosclerosis

    Question 38: Hb dissociation curve is sigmoid because ?
    Answer: A)

    Question 39: True regarding DMPA is ?
    A) Failure rate in first year is 0.3%
    B) Does not prevent endometriosis like OCPs
    Answer: A) Failure rate in first year is 0.3%

    Question 40: Contraceptive of choice in lactating female is ?
    A) Barrier
    B) Lactational amenorrhoea
    C) OCPs
    Answer: A) Barrier

    Question 41: Which nerve escapes entrapment syndrome ?
    A) Femoral
    B) Radial
    C) Ulnar
    Answer: A) Femoral

    Question 42: Intermittent claudication means ?
    A) pain in leg
    B) pain in leg on rest
    C) pain in leg only on exercise
    Answer: C) pain in leg only on exercise

    Question 43: Patient with critical leg ischemia complains of ?
    A) Rest Pain
    B) Intermittent claudication
    Answer: A) Rest Pain

    Question 44: Most common cause of death in pregnant lady is ?
    A) PPH
    B) APH
    C) Obstructed labour
    Answer: A) PPH

    Question 45: Trotter's triad ?
    Answer: A)

    Question 46: Differences between CRVO and Carotid artery occlusion are all except ?
    A) Retinal vein dilation
    B) Tortuosity of retinal veins
    C) Pressure in retinal artery
    Answer: A) Retinal vein dilation

    Question 47: Which gene mutation is not associated with colon cancer ?
    A) APC
    B) MMR - Mismatch DNA repair
    Answer: C)

    Question 48: Which of the following muscle deficiencies are more common ?
    A) Pectoralis major - polands syndrome
    Answer: A) Pectoralis major - polands syndrome

    Question 49: Which among the following is not a composite muscle ?
    A) Pectineus
    B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
    C) Biceps brachialis
    Answer: A) Pectineus

    Question 50: 2mm CIN III in one quadrant on pap smear, treatment of choice ?
    A) LEEP
    B) Cone excision
    C) Cryosurgery
    D) Hysterctomy
    Answer: A) LEEP

    Question 51: Finnish Crescentic Glomerulonephritis ?
    Answer: A)

    Question 52: Difference in expression of gene in the sibling as inherited by the father is termed as ?
    A) Mosaicism
    B) Anticipation
    C) Mutation
    Answer: A) Mosaicism

    Question 53: Most common site of subclavian artery obstruction is ?
    A) 1st part
    B) 2nd part
    C) 3rd part
    Answer: A) 1st part

    Question 54: Which is not a direct product of acetic acid in humans ?
    A) Glucose
    B) Ketone bodies
    C) Fatty acids
    D) Cholesterol
    Answer: D) Cholesterol

    Question 55: False regarding childhood Polycystic disease is ?
    A) Autosomal dominant
    Answer: A) Autosomal dominant

    Question 56: Mifepristone is used in ?
    A) Ectopic pregnancy
    B) Fibroid uterus
    C) Molar pregnancy
    Answer: B) Fibroid uterus

    Question 57: Drug to be avoided in 35 weeks pregnancy is ?
    A) High dose methotrexate
    Answer: A) High dose methotrexate

    Question 58: Increased anion gap acidosis is not seen in ?
    A) DKA
    B) LKA
    C) Diarrohea
    Answer: A) DKA

    Question 59: Laparoscopic ligation is contraindicated in ?
    A) Heart disease
    Answer: A) Heart disease

    Question 60: GIST turmos - gene expression ?
    Answer: A)
    [Post Comments]
    (Single Best Answer) Question 61: Neurofibromatosis - true is ?
    A) Autosomal dominant
    Answer: A) Autosomal dominant

    Question 62: Function of sertoli cells ?
    A) testosterone secretion
    B) seminal fluid secretion
    C) aid in spermiogenesis
    Answer: C) aid in spermiogenesis

    Question 63: Which of the following is not present in deep perineal pouch ?
    A) Sphincter urethrae
    B) Root of penis
    C) Bulbourethral glands
    Answer: A) Sphincter urethrae

    Question 64: Urogenital diaphragm is formed by ?
    A) Deep peronieal fascia
    Answer: A) Deep peronieal fascia

    Question 65: Karyotype is used for ?
    A) X linked disorders
    B) Autosomal recessive disorders
    C) Chromosomal disorders
    Answer: C) Chromosomal disorders

    Question 66: Primary defect in structure is known as ?
    A) Malformation
    B) Deformation
    C) Anomaly
    Answer: A) Malformation

    Question 67: Most common type of scarring alopecia ?
    A) Androgenic
    B) Areata
    C) Tinea capitis
    Answer: A) Androgenic

    Question 68: A 24 year old male presentin with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura, arthritis, the most probable diagnosis is ?
    A) HSP
    B) Sweet Syndrome
    C) Meningococcemia
    D) Hemochromatosis
    Answer: A) HSP

    Question 69: Organelle that plays a pivotal role in apoptosis ?
    A) Endoplasmic reticulum
    B) Golgi complex
    C) Mitochondria
    D) Nucleus
    Answer: B) Golgi complex

    Question 70: E 157 strain of E coli can be grown in ?
    A) Hoekten agar
    B) Sorbital
    Answer: A) Hoekten agar

    Question 71: Closure of Neural tube begins at ?
    A) Cervical
    B) Cephalic
    C) Podalic
    D) Lumbar
    Answer: B) Cephalic

    Question 72: Best graft for arterial replacement below inguinal ligament is ?
    A) Retrograde saphenous vein
    B) Dacron
    Answer: B) Dacron

    Question 73: Which is not an analytical study ?
    A) Case control study
    B) Cohort study
    C) Ecological studies
    D) Field trials
    Answer: A) Case control study

    Question 74: Receptors for HIV infection are ?
    A) CD 4 Helper T Cells
    Answer: A) CD 4 Helper T Cells

    Question 75: 2,3 Diphosphoglycerate in Red blood cells does not increase on stimulation to ?
    A) Chronic anemia
    B) Hypoxia
    Answer: A) Chronic anemia

    Question 76: Sickle cell Red blood cells ?
    A) stability
    B) altered function
    C) decreased oxygen carrying capacity
    D) protective against adult malaria
    Answer: D) protective against adult malaria

    Question 77: When the variables follow standard distribution ?
    A) mean = median
    B) median = variance
    C) mean = 2 median
    D) standard deviation = 2 variance
    Answer: A) mean = median

    Question 78: In which of the following condition vaginal delivery is contraindicated ?
    A) Extended breech
    B) Mento anterior
    C) Twins with one vertex and one breech
    Answer: B) Mento anterior

    Question 79: Mode of transmission of Q fever ?
    A) Ticks
    B) Mites
    C) Aerosols
    D) Mosquito
    Answer: A) Ticks
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    AIPGMEE 2010 MCQs with Answers

    AIPGMEE 2010 MCQs with Answers

    Anatomy
    1-hypogastric sheath is condensation of
    1-pelvic fascia
    2-colles fascia
    3-scarpas fascia
    4.
    ans-a

    2.urogenital diaphram is made up of a/e
    1.deep transvers perinei
    2.perineal membrane
    3.sphincter urethrae
    4.colles fascia
    ans-d

    3.relation of celiac plexus ?
    a.anterolateral to aorta
    b.posteromedial to aorta.
    c.anteromedial to lumbar sympahathetic chain
    d.posterolateral to lumbar symphathetic chain
    ans-

    4.structures passing thro foramen magnum ?
    a.vertebral artery
    b.12th N.
    C.lumbar symphathetic
    d.internal carotid art
    ans-vert art

    5.gluteus medius is supplied by
    a.superior gluteal nerve
    b.inferior gluteal nerve
    c
    d
    ans-sup glu

    6-coarctation, collateral formed by all except
    a-vertebral artery
    b-suprascapular artery
    c-pst int cost
    d-axillary
    ans-vert

    7-which of the following is composite muscle except
    a-flexor carpi ulnaris
    b-pectineus
    c-biceps
    d-flexer dig superficialis
    ans-a

    8-which tendon passes below sustentacula tali closely associated
    a-tibialis anterior
    b-tibialis posterior
    c-flexer hallucis longus
    d-
    ans-c

    9-median nerve leision at wrist cause all of the following except
    a-thenar atrophy
    b-adductor pollicis
    c-lumbricals of index
    d-lumbricals of middle
    ans-b

    10- left side SVC drains into
    1 - right atrium
    2 - left atriam
    3 - coronary sinus
    4 - pericardial space
    ans-coronary sinus

    11-shoulder abduction all except....
    a-clavi movemnt
    b-medial scapula rotation
    c-acromio clavicl jt movement
    d-humerus evelation
    ans-b

    12-lymph drainage of spongiform urethra
    1. deep inguinal LN
    2. sup inguinal
    3. int iliac
    4. ext iliac
    ans-deep ing

    13-pt rta,quadriparesis,loss of bladder bowel tone,sensory level supra sternal rr-30,hr-120
    a-medulla
    b-c1 c2
    c-c5 c6
    d-t
    ans-c5 c6

    14-mc anomaly of renal vein
    a. Supranumerary renal vein
    b. Supranumerary renal artery
    c. Double renal vein
    d. Double renal artery
    ans-b REF SYRG GUIDE GUPTA TRI Q52 PG315

    15-bronchial artery a/e
    a- helps in gas exchange
    b-shunt
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    **********Physiology
    16.1-which inhibit insulin...
    a.gasrtin
    b.secrtin
    c,adrenlin
    d-
    ans-adrenalin

    17.2.hot water bath use in intestine colic-
    a.adrenergic activation
    b.cholinergic
    c.cold receptor
    d.peritoneal worm receptor
    ans-a GANONG 507

    18.3-Non resp function of lung
    1. exchange of anions
    2. sodium exchange
    3. potassium exchange
    4. ............
    ans-b

    19.4-water mainly absorbed in which part of intestine?
    a-colon
    b-jejunum
    c-stomach
    d-ileum
    ans-jejunum.

    20.5-Action of NO on intestine?
    a-vasoconstrict
    b-vasodilatation
    c-smooth mus relaxation
    d-
    ans-C REF-GANONG P480
    21.6-in standing position venous return affected by a/e?
    a-calf mus
    b-bp
    c-tendinous fassa
    d-peforator
    ans-bp
    22.7-vit k dependent clotting factors
    a-9 10
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    23.8-low BMR is seen in
    a-obesity
    b-after feeding
    c-exercise
    d-hyperthyroid
    ans-a

    24.9-BMR depends on
    a-bsa
    b-lean body mass
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    25.10-minimal motion heart max at
    a-end sys
    b-end diastole
    c-mid systole
    d-mid diastole
    ans-D

    26.11-During Exercise the cardiac output rises upto 5 times,
    but pulmonary vascular resistance only few mm hg. Why?
    a. sympathetic stimulation causing vasodilatation
    b. opening of parallel channels
    c. pulmonary vasoconstricion
    d.
    ans-b

    27.12-INULIN NOT METABOLISED IN GIT
    A-RESISTANCE 2 GASTRIC ACID
    B-LACK OF ENZYME
    C-
    D-
    ANS- B







    ***********BIOCHEM
    28.1-sphingomelinase def
    a-neimann pick
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    29.2-rothera test
    a-ketone
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    30.3-not moving on elctrophoresis...
    a-chylomicron
    b-LDL
    c-VLDL
    d-hdl
    ans-chylomicron

    31.4-used for aneuploiidy detection a\e
    a-FISH...
    b-micro array genomic hybridisation
    c-
    d-PCR
    ans-

    32.5-prenatal diagnosis of hemophilia is made by
    1 - linkage studies
    2 - RT PCR
    3 - microarray
    4 - cynogenetics
    ans-

    33.6- to analyse gene expression which technique is used
    or for detecting genetic transfer of disease
    1 - northern blot
    2 - sourthern blot
    3 - western blot
    4 - microarray
    ans-

    34.7-multiple dc def
    a-maple syp
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    35.8-hepatomegaly,hypoglycemia not resp to epinephrine
    a-von gar
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    36.10-process in which exchange of ions in solution form with
    that on to surface form occurs in
    a. ion exchange*
    b. paper chromatography
    c.
    d-
    ans-ion exchange chromatography REF HARPER 22





    ************Pathology
    37.1-Low CSF protein is seen in a/e
    a. Infant
    b. Pseudotumor cerebri
    c. Hypothyroidism
    d. Recurrent lumbar puncture
    ans-B HARRISON 188 (INC ICT BUT CSF NORMAL)

    38.2-urea/creatine ratio 20:1 so relatively creatinine not increase in
    a lead nephropathy
    b cgn
    c myolysis
    d is prerenal failure as it is used to distinguish prerenal from postrenal failure.
    ans- d

    39.3-AFP is increased in
    1.seminoma
    2.renal cell carcinoma
    3.hepatoblastoma
    4.
    ans-hepatoblastoma

    40.4-bradykinin..
    a.pain
    b vasodil
    c.vasoconst
    d-
    ans-pain

    41.5-for typing langerhans histiocytosis
    a-cD 1a
    b-cd 20
    c-cd 3
    d-cd 30
    ans-a

    42.6-in PLASMACYTOID LYMPHOMA MAINLY SECRETES
    a-igg
    b-ig a
    c- ig m
    d-igd
    ans-C HARRISON 706

    43.7-in amylodosis which heavy chain disease WITH BENCE JONE PROTEINURIA is associated
    a-gamma
    b-labda
    c-mu
    d-
    ans-C (HARR 707)

    44.8-caspases -
    a-cell injury
    b-necrosis
    c-apoptosis.
    d-
    ans-apoptosis

    45.9-apoptosis light microscopic microscopic featue...?
    a-intact cell membrane...
    b-eosinophilic cytoplasm
    c-swelling of cell
    d-nuclear
    ans-B (ROBBINS 531)

    46.10-Down s genetics
    a-maternal...non disjunction
    b-paternal..non disjunction
    c-mosaicism
    d-
    ans-a

    47.11-CHROMOPHIL cell RCC...genetics
    a-mutn VHL gene
    b-loss of 5p
    c-loss of 3p
    d-trisomy of 7,17
    ans-d

    48.12-burkitt
    a-8:14
    b-12:21
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    49.13-mcc of abd aortic aneurysm
    a- artherosclerosi
    b-syphylis
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    50.14-hyperthalamic hypogonadotrophic in men
    a-klienfelters
    b-noonan
    c-viral orchitis
    d-kallaman
    ans-a

    51.15-lymphoplasmacytoid cells seen in
    a.mltiple myelome
    b.lymphoma
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    52.16-thrombosis in neph synd due to
    a-loss of at3
    b-protc
    c-prot s
    d-antiphospholipid antibody
    ans-a

    53.17-testicular tumour with elevated afp all poss except
    a-choricaarcinoma
    b-teratocarcinoma
    c-yolk sac carcinoma
    d-emb cell ca
    ans-A

    54.18-t(2,8) is a/s with
    1.t cell ALL
    2.b cell ALL(BURKITTS)
    3.CML
    4.CLL
    ans-b



    55.19-both mullerian and wolffian ducts never seen in
    1 ovotesticular synd
    2 gonadal dysgenesis
    3 FSH receptor defect
    4
    ans-

    56.20-A Pedigree chart regarding cystic fibrosis. Percentage of
    siblings to be a carrier ,autosomal recessive
    a)0
    b)1/2
    c)2/3
    d)1/4
    ans-b

    57.21-rb gene mutation,pt not having retinoblastoma.next most common tumor will be
    a-osteosarcoma
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    58.22-in pnh which somatic gene mutation
    a-daf
    b-mirl
    c-gpi
    d-
    ans-C(HARS 661)

    59.23-fanconis anaemia a/e
    a-ad
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    60.24-Brown tumour ass wit
    a-Hyperparathyroidism
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    61.25-Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous except
    1. wegener's granulomatosis
    2. buerger's disease
    3. takayasu's arteritis
    4. microscopic polyangitis
    ans-d

    62.26-antigen binding site in mhc1
    a-alpha beta cleft
    b-distal end of alpha sub u
    c-prox end of alpha sub u AND ALPHA2
    d-
    ans-C (ROBBINS 537)

    63.27-alfa fetoprotein inc in
    a-haptoblastoma
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    64.28-disease only occuring in male
    a-x linked res
    b-xd
    c-ad
    d-
    ans-a

    65.29-paraganglioma associatd with
    a-dense core granules
    b-mt
    c-
    d-
    ans-a







    *************MICRO
    66.1-neonatal meningitis,beta haemolysis,bacitracin registant,camp positive,
    a-s pyogenis
    b-s agalactiae
    c-s pneumoniae
    d-
    ans-b

    67.2-asthma,fila funi wit septate hyphae
    a-aspergilous
    b-candida
    c-mucor
    d-
    ans-a

    68.3-neonate+ethmoidal opaque+no growth in 1st cult,
    a, blod culture
    b.repeat culture
    c. ct
    d.
    ans-

    69.4-hyphe in nose at 45 degrees diabetic with fungal infn
    a-rhizopus
    b-mucor
    c-aspergillous
    d-
    ans-c

    70.5-vibrio eltor wrong is
    a-
    b-
    c-toxin act other than int tissue
    d-human is the only resorvoir
    ans-d

    71.6-isolation of chlamydia
    a-yolk sac inoculation
    b-immuneagglutatin
    c-
    d-pcr
    ans-a

    72.7 fungus-wall stain invariably by
    a-pas.
    b-
    c-alizarin
    d-massn trichome
    ans-A MICRO ANANTH 611

    73.8-in non mismatch transfusion done
    a-direct coomb
    b-ind
    c-doner antibody
    d-rec antibody
    ans-

    74.9-SUPERANTIGEN TRUE A/E
    A-EXFOLIATIVE TOXIN IS A SUPER ANTIGEN
    B-ENTEROTOXI
    C-TSST IS A SUPER ANTIGEN
    D-
    ANS-A




    **********PHARMA
    75.1-Pancreatitis occur with
    a)abacavir
    b)zidovudine
    c)lamivudine
    d)didanosine
    ans-didanosine

    76.2-all are drugs causin hirsutism except
    1.phenytoin
    2.danazol
    3.norethisterone
    4.flutamide
    ans-d

    77.3-Which is a ppi
    1) ranitadine
    2)
    3)
    4) omeprazole
    ans-d

    78.5.corticosteroid effective in which base/
    a.ointment
    b.cream
    c.gel
    d.lotion
    ans-A

    79.6-with rivastagmine which medicine can not b given
    a-ssri
    b-rima
    c-tca
    d-atypica anti
    ans-c

    80.7-hydantoin sydrome
    a-phenytoin
    b-alcohol
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    81.8-tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in ??
    1 - GIST
    2 - receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors
    3
    4
    ans-a

    82.9- which is incorrectly matched
    1 - phenytoin - cleft lip and palate
    2 - zidovudine -
    3 - valproate - neural tube defect
    4 -
    ans-zidovudine


    83.10-WILSON TRUE IS
    A-URINE CERULOPLASMIN IS DEC
    B-BLOOD CU DEC
    C-BLOOD CERU DEC ND URINE CUPPER INC
    D-
    ANS-C

    84.11-not prophylactic use in migraine
    a-propranolol
    b-sumatryptan
    c-
    d-
    ans-b

    85.12-histaminic+antiemetic
    a-metoclopramide
    b-dom
    c-promethazine
    d-ondansetron
    ans- c

    86.13-ampho b to be given how to decrease its toxicity
    a-liposomal
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    87.14-thalidomide not true
    a- morning sickness tt
    b-CAUSES DIARRHOEA AND EUPHORIA
    c-has been reintroduced for enl
    d-used for multiple myeloma
    ans-B

    88.15-hyperpigmntn after use for acne
    a-tetracyline
    b-doxy
    c-azitho
    d-mino
    ans-d

    89.16-narrow safety index drug...
    a-Lithium
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    90.17-Lithium teratogenicity
    a-cardac malfomation....
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    91.18-phenytoin true a/e
    a-saturable kinetics
    b-HYPOGLYCEMIA
    c-
    d-
    ans-B

    92.19-not a pyrethrum extract...?
    a-permethrin
    b-DDT
    c-
    d-
    ans-B

    93.20-mycopentalate mofetil, true a/e
    a-PRODRUG GIVE RISE TO MYCOPHENOLIC ACID
    b-active comp
    c-given along with STEROD ND CYCLOSPRN IN RENAL TRANS
    d-highly nephrotoxic
    ans-D KDT 841

    94.21-linezolid rx monitor
    a-audiometry
    b-renal function test
    c-platelet count
    d-lft
    ans-c

    95.22-carbidopa given along with levodopa
    a-prevents peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    96.23-resistance to penicillin in diffuse meningo coccemia having rash
    a-chloroamphenicol
    b-meropenem
    c-teicoplanin
    d-cipro
    ans-

    97.24-ethosuximide can be given in
    a-gtcs
    b-absence
    c-complex
    d-
    ans-b

    [snip].25-drug not given in myoclonic epilepsy
    a-topiramate
    b-zonisamide
    c-carbamazepine
    d-valproate
    ans-

    99.26-Heparin induced thrombocytemia treatment ,but notcompleted
    a-lepirudin
    b-aprotinin
    c-plasminogen
    d-
    ans-A KDT 600

    100.27-THEOPHYLLINE moa
    a-Phophodiestetase 4 inhibitor
    b-beta2 ago
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    101.28-penicillinn binding protein a/e
    a-
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    102.29-All of the following are true abt opioids except?
    a. Naloxone is short acting
    b. naltrexone used to lower craving in alsoholics
    c. Nalmefen can be used in
    d-NALMEFEN IS SHORTER ACTING THAN NALOXONE
    ans-D KDT 467

    103.30-MAO INHIBITORS NOT GIVEN ALONG WITH
    A-PETHIDINE
    B-PENTAZOCINE
    C---BUPRENORPHINE
    D-
    ANS- A


    FMT***************
    104.1-lightening flash injuries because of a/e
    1.direct effect of its current
    2.burns due to superheated light
    3.compressed air pressure before flash
    4.expanded air around flash
    ans-c

    105.2.primary impact injury common in?
    a.head
    b.abdomen
    c.legs
    d.chest
    ans-leg

    106.3-poisoning case of trmors ,incrsd salivation,blue line in gum
    a-mercury poisong
    b-pb
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    107.4-aconit
    a-incrsed bp
    b-tingling &numbness
    c-
    d-
    ans-b

    108.5-death in 3yrs of married woman
    a-176 crpc
    b-174 crpc
    c-304 ipc
    d-306 ipc
    ans-a

    109.6-[bleep] which leaves a visible mark in pathway so that person can see the
    a-tandem
    b-tracer
    c-dumdum
    d-riochet
    ans-b

    110.7-commonly used in narcoanalysis
    1. atropine sulfate
    2. scopolamine hcl
    3. opium compds
    4 morphine
    ans-b









    ***************SPM
    111.1-true about scrub typhus a/e
    1.transmitted by r.tsutsugumashi
    2.vector is trobiculid mite
    3.adult mites feed from bite of vertebral host
    4.tetracline doc
    ans-D HARS 1065

    112.2-ASHA works in
    1) village level
    2) phc level
    3) chc level
    4)
    ans-villege

    113.3-Jsy stands for
    1) janani suraksha yojana
    2) jana suraksha yojana
    3)jana swasthya yojana
    4)
    ans-a

    114.4-NPCB strategy for screening of diabetic retinopathy..
    1 - opportunistic screening
    2 - high risk screening
    3 - ophtalmoscopic eye examining by diabetologist
    4 - mass screening
    ans-

    115.5-malaria incidence ,population 165000,after jan 1st incidence
    22,prevance-220/6 month?
    a-13/1ooo000
    b-133/1000000
    c-27/1000000
    d-
    ans-b

    116.6-true +ve 40,false -ve-80 ,sensitivity?
    a-50
    b-33%
    c-
    d-
    ans-b

    117.7-to eradicate by 2015
    a-filariasis
    b-malaria
    c-tb
    d-
    ans-filaria

    118.8-movement in socio economic level../?
    a-social equality
    b-socioeconomic upliftment
    c-
    d-
    ans

    119.9-RESURGENT malaria due to except
    a-antigenic variation in parasite
    b-drug resistance
    c-change in host registance
    d-
    ans-


    120.10-perinatal mortality includes?
    a-still birth+early neon death
    b-abortion+early neon death
    c-upto 42 days
    d-
    ans-a

    121.11-mass CHEMOPROPHYLAXIS not done in
    a-yaws,.
    b-MALARIA
    c-TRACOMA
    d-LEPROSY
    ans-D

    122.12-mmr wrong statemnt
    a-rate not ratio
    b-denominator includes still nd abortion
    c-numeretor upto 42 day preg rel compl
    d-
    ans-b

    123.13-Z score is calculated for
    1. Normal distribution
    2. Binomial
    3. Chi square
    4-t
    ans-c

    124.14-ARI tuberculosis a/e
    a-currently 1.7%
    b-denotes infection prevailing beyond control measures
    c-1% = 75 cases
    d-
    ans-

    125.15-in AFP follow up for residual paralysis is done after
    1 - 20 days
    2 - 30 days
    3 - 60 days
    4 - 90 days
    ans-60 days

    126.16-Rural Urban divide not seen with?
    1 - lung cancer
    2 - tb
    3 - chronic bronchitis
    4 - mental illness
    ans-B PARK 19E 151

    127.17-community provides maximum participation in
    1 resources
    2 planning of intervention
    3
    4
    ans-

    128.18-not an element of primary health care
    a-cost effectiveness
    b-intersectorial cord
    c-provision of essential drug
    d-health education
    ans-

    129.19-newer concept of primary health care
    1 Primary health care
    2
    3
    4
    ans-

    130.20-confidence limits
    a-
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    131.21-red cross not true
    a.established in 1960 in uno
    b.size of cross equal horizantally and vertically
    c.ONLY uno members use this
    d.permission of gov of india req to use
    ANS-C

    132.22-Which was the first one to bring forward the primary health care proposal
    1. bhore committee?
    2. alma ata declaration
    3. global forum for public health o somethin like that
    4.
    ANS-B(PARK 19TH 741)

    133.23-Emotional valence
    a-belief
    b-Practise
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    134.24-difference b/w IMNCI and IMCI all except?
    a. also incudes malaria and anemia
    b. more stress on saving neonates than mild older cases
    c. 0-7
    d. on going immunization
    ans-B PARK 372

    135.25-COMMUNITY PARTICIPATION IS MAX IN
    A-COMMUNITY NEED
    B-MASS MEDIA
    C-
    D-
    ANS-









    **************MEDICINE
    136.1-serotonin syndrome caused by all except
    a-chlorpromazine
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    137.2-hyperglycemia associated with
    a-mm
    b-ewings
    c-osteosarcoma
    d-
    ans-

    138.3-truck driver patchy lung leision,DIFFUSE INTERSTITIAL INFILTRATION,non productive cough fever
    wt loss,oral white patch ,causative ageny
    a-pneumocystis
    b-tuberculosis
    c-candidiasis
    d-
    ans-A


    139.4-hypoechoic lesions in spleen with fever for 3wks,mild splenomegaly,hypoechoic
    lesion
    a-cmv
    b-toxo
    c-salmonella
    d-tb
    ans-c

    140.5-which one not a/s with thymoma
    a-siadh
    b-myasthenia gravis
    c-hypogammaglobulinemia
    d-red cell aplasia
    ans-a

    141.6-case for pco2 30 n po2 102 ph 7.4
    a-metabolic acidosis
    b-met alk
    c-rsp acidosis
    d-rsp alk
    ans-

    142.7-primary criteria for polycythemia
    a-reduced erythropoeitin
    b-jak 7
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    143.8-kayser flieshner ring
    a-wilsons
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    144.9-case of xray with ptchy fibrosis ,fibroblasts proliferation
    a-nonspecific interstitial fibrosis
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    145.10-retinoblastoma a/s wid
    a-osteosarcoma
    b-renal cell carcinoma
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    146.11-triad of gait abnorm,dementia,urinary prob
    a-normal pressure hydrocaphlus
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    147.12-Boy with seizures,BP - 200/140 in upperlimb
    femoral pulse not palpable..most likely diagnosis
    1. takayasu's aortoarteritis
    2. renal parenchymal disease
    3. grandmal seizure
    4..
    ans-a

    148.13-vaccant stare 20sec,
    a-absence seizure
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    149.14-past h/o APL synd ,tt
    a.)start low dose aspirin + lmw heparin
    b.)
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    150.15-Beck's triad seen in?
    1. constrictive pericarditis
    2. cardiac tamponade
    3. LVMI
    4...
    ans-b

    151.16-carcinoid effect on heart
    a-fibro elastic degeneration of rt ventricle
    b-tricuspid
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    152.17-mitochonrial enzyme-OF HEPATOCYTES
    a-alkaline phosphatase...
    b-alt
    c-ast
    d-ggt
    ans- AST GUPTA TRIPATHY 127

    153.18-20 yr old man is HBsAg positive.HBeAg negative
    liver enzymes SGOT, SGPT raised > 5 times the normal
    what is he suffering from?
    1. wild type HBV
    2. surface-mutant HBV
    3. PREcore-mutant HBV
    4-
    ans-C HARS 1935

    154.19-GBS except..
    a-albumino cytologic dissoc.
    b-ascending paraysis.
    c-definite sensory lesion
    d-
    ans-c

    155.20-motor neuron disease site of lesion...
    a-spnicerebellar
    b-ant. horn cell
    c-
    d-
    ans-b

    156.21-lesion to lateral cerbellum...except
    a-resting tremor....
    b-coordination
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    157.22-VZ remain latent in?
    a-trigeminal GANGLIA
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    158.23-lung ca true is
    a-70% squamous cell ca
    b-oat cell characterestic calcification
    c-hilar adenopathy by
    d-necrosis
    ans-

    159.24-true trientine.except
    a-more potent than penicillamine & orlly absorbd
    b-cause iron def anemmia which is reversible by oral iro supplement
    c-alternative to penicillamine in non tolerant
    d-not given with iron in 2 hrs
    ans-

    160.25-s3 heart sound
    a-asd, cons pericar
    b-ventricular sys phase
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    161.26-high grade fever, MRI - frontal n temporal lobe diffuse
    enhancement
    a-hsv
    b-
    c-cmv
    d-toxoplas
    ans-hsv

    162.27-carcinoid of intestine.false is
    a-rectum is least
    b-after rese 5 yr survival 60%
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    163.28-female with mid sys click on auscultation
    a- myxomatous degeneration ND mvp
    B
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    164.29-features of pseudo HYPOPARATHYROID A/E
    a. low PTH
    b. end organ resistance
    c. low calcium high phosphate
    d-
    ans-A

    165.30-fragile vegetations seen in
    a-inf endocarditis
    b-rheumatic
    c-rheumatoid
    d-sle
    ans-a

    166.31-ALLOPURINOL USED IN
    a-gout
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ANS-A

    167.32-electron micros diagnostic of
    a.alports
    b.churg struss
    c.googpas
    d.wegner
    ans-a


    168.33-parasite causing cholestasis
    a - chlonorschisis
    b-ank duodenale
    c-ascaris
    d-
    ans-A

    169.34-plasmapheresis not done in
    a-cholinergic crisis
    b-myasthenic crisis...
    c-aidp
    d-
    ans-A GUPTA MED GUIDE VOL 1 PG 517


    170.35-pt with hbsag poistive hbv no of copies 1000?
    hbeag neg, liver scan normal .diagnosis?
    a-silent carrier
    b- active case,
    c- mutated virus
    d-
    ans-

    171.36-pt had left upper limb ischemia which slowly recovered over time
    a-tia
    b-ischemic stroke
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    172.37-subararachnoid haem assesment
    a-hunt n hess
    b-gcs
    c-modified gcs
    d-
    ans-a

    173.38-rx of choice chlamydia in preg
    a-doxy
    b-tetra
    c-erythro
    d-
    ans-erythro

    174.39-adverse prognosis in a 24 yr old with head trauma?
    1.hyperglycemia
    2.hypothermia
    3.hypocapnia
    4.hemodilution
    ANS-A HARRISON 2514

    175.40-b/l uretric stones with hydronephrosis.urea 220,cr 14.1.ph 7.45
    best management in this situation
    a-haemodialysis
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    176.41-6month h/o frontal throbbing headache WITH NAUSEA AND VOMITING RELIEVED WITH SLEEP not given
    a-na valp
    b-proprn
    c-ethosuccimide
    d-
    ans-C

    177.42-raised PO4 and decreased Ca
    a-reduced pth
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    178.43-lady progressive dyspnoea,clinical exam normal,fev1/fvc=90 FVC 88
    po2 90mm,diag
    a-anxiety
    b-pulm edema
    c-primary puln hypertension
    d-ms
    ans-C

    179.44-perephheral art disease,obesity, CHD STROKE associated
    a-insulin DEF
    b-hypothyroid
    c-estrogen
    d-
    ans-A

    180.45-a pt comes with hypoglycemia. Insulin high. C – peptide normal.
    a. insulinoma
    b. sulfonylurea excess
    c. accidental insulin
    d-
    ans-a

    181.46-high idio ventricular rhythm is seen in
    a. reperfusion therapy
    b. AV Nodal Ds
    c. dilated cardiomyopathy
    d. digitalis toxicity
    ans-

    182.47-Cavitatory lesion In lung are seen in
    a. Primary pulmonary Tb
    b. Staph. aureus
    c. Pneumococcus
    d-
    ans-b

    183.48-NOT A FEATURE OF PRERENAL AZOTEMIA
    A-URINE NA+>40
    B-URINE OSM>500
    C-FRACTIONAL EXCR NA+<1
    D
    ANA-A

    184.49-NOT A FEATURE OF APLAb SYND
    A-TT ASPRIN
    B-RECURRENT FETAL LOSS
    C-
    D-
    ANS-A

    185.50-NOT A FEATURE OF APLAb SYND
    A-BLEEDING
    B-THROMBOSIS
    C-RECURRENT FOETAL LOSS
    D-
    ANS-A

    186.51-SICKLE THALASEMIA PREVENTS
    A- MALARIA
    B-
    C-
    D-
    ANS-A




    ************SUR GERY
    187.1-a patient presenting to ER after 6 hrs of RTA ,
    hemodynamically stable.FAST POSITIVE, CECT shows
    leak of contrast from spleen.and grade3 laceration
    in spleen..what is treatment ?
    1 - splenectomy
    2 - splenorraphy
    3 - splenic artery embolisation
    4 -observation
    ans-

    188.2-A lady with stab injury left HYPOCHONDRIUM .FAST positive. CECT shows a 2 cm
    left liver lobe laceration.hemodynamicaly stable.
    Laproscopy was planned.The PO2 of patient suddenly dropped after producing
    pneumoperitoneum.Most likely cause?
    1 - Air embolism through splenic artery
    2 - Diaphragmatic rent
    3 - Inferior venecava compression
    4 -
    ans-

    189.3-Bismuth-Strasburg classification of cystic duct stump blow out..
    1. grade 1
    2. grade 2
    3. grade 3
    4. grade 4
    ans-a

    190.4-most common site of urethral ca.
    a- bulbourethra
    b-memb ur
    c-pros ur
    d-ext ur meat
    ans-

    191.5-In acute renal failure pt wit normal USG,
    next investigation of choice
    a. IVU,
    b.ant pyelo
    c.Renogram
    d-retro pyelo
    ans-

    192.6-Lord plication
    a-hydrocele
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    193.7-undesended testis time of surgery around
    a-12 months
    b-24 months
    c-6 months
    d-just after birth
    ans-a

    194.8- which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver??
    1 - donor bile duct with reciepient bile duct
    2 - donor bile duct with duodenum of reciepient
    3 - donor bile duct with jejunum of reciepient
    4 - external drainage....
    ans-



    195.9-a woman present with non progressive dysphagia for solid
    barrium shows dilated oesophagus with narrowing..diagnosis?
    1 - peptic stricture
    2 - esophageal cancer
    3 - achlasia cardiac
    4 -
    ans-achalasia

    196.10-triss stands for
    a. GCS, RR, Systolic BP
    b. RS, ICS, Age
    c. RS, ICS, IRS
    d-
    ans-b

    197.11-stone hard to break
    a-ca oxalate monohydrate
    b-ca oxalate dehydrate
    c-struvite
    d-uric acid
    ans-A


    198.12 -Yeah kid with pain in left flank, rt kidney hydronephrosis.
    10mm cortical thickness
    next line of Rx would be
    1. nephrectomy
    2. pyeloplasty
    3.shunt oper
    4.
    ans-

    199.13-PCNL was done b/l at the site of 11th rib .
    most common complication in this case would be
    1. hydrothorax
    2. hematuria
    3. remnants
    4. damage to colon
    ans-

    200.14-female with recurrent hypoglycemia, glucose invariably
    touches 20 mg%, insulin remains elevated. A lesion is found
    in pancreas of 8 mm. what should be the treatment.insulinoma..?
    a-enucleation..
    b-whipples operation..
    c-enucleation+antrectomy
    d-
    ans-

    201.15-pt 1 episode of haematemesis.pancreatic tail inv.spleen inv
    ulcer in post wall of antrum,dignosed stomal tumor, treatment....?
    a-close abdomen
    b-distal gastrectomy+distal pancreatectomy+splenectomy
    c-vagotomy+antrectomy
    d-
    ans-

    202.16-rectal prolapse, reducible, RxOC?
    a-apr
    b-rectopexy
    c-delmore
    d-goodsal
    ans-B( B ND L-1225)

    203.17Which of the following i not a Restrictive sugery for obesity...
    a) Gastric banding
    b) Duodenal switch
    c) Roux en y gastro jejunostomy...
    d)
    ans-B REF WIKI


    204.18-annular pancreas tt
    a-duodenoduodenostomy
    b-dj
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    205.19-suspected volvulus with perforation in childnext inv
    a-x ray abdomen
    b-barium meal
    c-barium enema
    d-
    ans-

    206.20-First Autologus ureter transplant
    a. Hardy
    b. Kavosis
    c. Higgins
    d. Studor
    ans-a

    207.21- mc cystic lesion of spleen
    a-–cystic lymphangioma
    b-pseudocyst
    c-hyadati
    d-
    ans-

    208.22-penile shunt
    a-
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    209.23-a pt 50 years age comes with weakness for 5-6 months,
    anemic, occult blood in stool +whats the best investigation fog him
    a. colonoscopy
    b. CT with contrast
    c.
    d.
    ans-A




    **************Paediatrics **************
    210.1-health status of children bw 0-5 yrs in community will be adversely affectd by a/e
    1.malnutrition
    2.low birth weight
    3.maternal hb<11 gm/dl
    4.infection
    ans-c

    211.2-most common cause of menigiencephalitis in children
    a-adenovirus
    b-enterovirus
    c-arbo
    d-hsv
    as-b

    212.3-7yr girl fatigue mcv 70 MCh 22 rdw 28....
    a-iron def anemia
    b-thalsemia minor
    c-sideroblastic anemia
    d-
    ans-a

    213.4-predisposiyion to getr epilepsy in later life after
    febrile convulsions except
    a-complex febrile convulsn
    b-family hist
    c-age of onsett
    d-mental retd
    ans-C(GHAI 7E 528)

    214.5-2 mth old female comes with h/o bilateral nasal discharge,
    fever 103-104degF, conjunctival discharge, left periorbital congestion and edema
    x-ray shows left ethmoidal sinus opacity o somethin ..
    conjunctival discharge culture yields no result
    next best test?
    1. blood culture
    2. urine culture
    3. ct
    4. repeat culture for conj discharge
    ans-

    215.6-Paediatric age grp - recurrent CSF leaks -
    organism which can cause meningitis
    1. meningococci
    2. strep pneumoniae
    3. h influenzae
    4. e.coli
    ans-

    216.7-Boy with weakness in lower limbs, calf hypertrophy,
    positive Gower's signCPK - 10,000 Diagnosis
    1. duchenne muscular dystrophy
    2. spinal muscular atrophy..
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    217.8-child, biphasic stridor, management does notinclude
    a-steroid
    b-antibiotic is t trt of ch
    c-
    d-
    ans-B GHAI 351

    218.9-cause of HTN in a female 13 yr old, with only persistentHTN
    as a finding, no other sign.most common cause
    a) Chr GN
    b) PKD
    c).....
    d).....
    ans-

    219.10-unconjugated bilirubinemia, inc excretio of urobilinogen,
    condition?
    a-here spero
    b-g6pd def
    c-bil cirr
    d-thal
    ans-



    orthopaedics **************
    220.1-congenital scoliosis
    a- hemivertebra
    b-blocked vertebra
    c-wedged vert
    d-unseg vert
    ans-C MAHESWARI 233

    221.2-metal on metal avoided in
    a. primary failure
    b. revision surgey
    c. inflammatory cause
    d. young female
    ans-

    222.3-Synovial sarcoma -all true except
    1. originates in synovium
    2. seen in > 50 yrs
    3. occurs at extraarticular sites more often
    4. seen in sites such as knee and foot..
    ans-B HARRISON 2184

    223.4-About primary gouty arthritis NOT true
    1. 90% cases are mostly due to overproduction of uric acid than under excretion
    2. uric acid level is normal in case of a pt with an 30% acute attack of gouty arthritis..
    3. more common in male/female
    4.
    ans-A HARR 2166

    224.5-lift of sign, muscle?
    a-supraspinatus
    b-infraspina
    c-subscapularis
    d-teres minor
    ans-c

    225.6-medial meniscus a/e
    a-medial miniscus is more mobile
    b-attached more to tibial lateral condyle
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    226.7-gout results due to defect in which metabolism?
    a-purine
    b-pyrimidine
    c-uric acid
    d-hyperuricemia
    ans-purine

    227.8-with aging a/e
    1 proteoglycan content decreases
    2 degradation increases
    3 synthesis decreases
    4 water content dec
    ans-


    228.9- triad of klieppel feil syndrome includes all except
    a-low hair line
    b-elev scapula
    c-rest neck mov
    d- short neck
    ans-B












    O&G**************
    229.1-maternal polyhydramnios at 20 wk
    1.conganital diapphragmatic hernia
    2.cleft lip
    3-epispadias bladderexostrophy
    d-
    ans-A

    230.2-Which is nt done in active management of3rd stage of labour
    1) oxytocin
    2) methargin
    c-general massage of ut
    4) control cord traction of placenta
    ans-c

    231.3-methydopa use in-
    a-pregnancy induces hypertension
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    232.4-A 40 yr old woman presenting with CIN III on pap smear.
    .treatment of choice?
    1 - hysterectomy
    2 - colposcopy with leep
    3 - trahelectomy
    4 - conization
    ans-B REPEAT

    233.5-pregnancy can b continued in
    a-wpw syn
    b-eisenmengers
    c- primary pul ht
    d-aortic dil with coactation
    ans-A REPEAT

    234.6-best inv of choice for vvf
    a-3 swab test
    b-ivu
    c-rgu
    d-mri
    ans-a

    235.7-primary amenorrhea with normal ext genitalia,normal breast;
    normal ut
    a-mrkh syn
    b-turner
    c-noonan
    d-
    ans-

    236.8-a pt had a spontaneous abortion, then she came
    with amenorrhea and FSH 6miu/ml
    whats the most probably diagnosi?
    a-uterine synaechiae
    b-pituitary failure
    c-regestation
    d-ovarian failure
    ans-A BECAUSE NORMAL FSH 5-20

    237.9-hypergonadotropic hypogonadism seen in
    a-sheehan syn
    b-kf syn
    c-noonan
    d-kallaman

    238.10-cause of leak per vaginum and meconium stained liquor
    in 32 weeks gravida
    1. cmv
    2. listeria
    3. toxoplasma
    4. herpes simplex
    ans-B HARS-897

    239.11-mc asso with ca cervix...
    a-hpv 16
    b-
    c-hpv 18
    d-
    ans-a

    240.12-sentinel node biopsy most useful for...?
    a-ca endo
    b-ca cx
    c-ca vulva
    d-vagina
    ans-c

    241.13-28-true is
    a-twin peak sign SEEN IN DICHOR DI AMNIO
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A DUTTA 648

    242.14-mc genital ulcer iin HIV..
    a-chlamydia
    b-
    c-herPes.
    d-
    ans-

    243.15-partial mole true excpt
    a-rarely causes persistent Gstn Tropho disease
    b-triploidy...
    c-
    d-


    244.16-lady with lower abd pain, increased constipation on stress
    n menstruation, 2 yr hist ,colonoscopy normal,diag?
    a-ibs
    b-endomet
    c-ibd
    d-
    ans-A

    245.17-pcod assos with all except
    a. increased risk of ca ovary
    b. ca endometrium
    c. diabetes
    d.osteoporosis
    ans-D GYN GUIDE 281


    246.18-What does not influence weight gain in pregnancy?
    1 pregravid birth wt
    2 ethnicity
    3 socioeconomic status
    4 smoking
    ans-D-DUTTA 51

    247.19-best indicator of female reproductive ability
    1.ferning test
    2.hormonal analysis
    3.spinbarket pattern
    d-vag cytology
    ans-B SHAW 80

    248.20-indicator of neural tube defects
    a-acetlylcholinesterases...
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    249.21-intrahepatic cholestasis treatment in pregnancy...
    a-choletryamine...
    b-ursodiol
    c-antihistaminic
    d-
    ans-

    250.22-nuchal transluscency seen in
    a-down
    b-turnor
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    251.23-wrong abt menstrual cycle in human
    a-
    b-
    c-
    d-estrous
    ans-D

    252.24-hiv trasmission prev a/e
    a-cs
    b-ap zidi
    c-
    d-not using methergine
    ans-d

    253.25-Not a sign of choriocarcinoma
    a- plateau of HCG
    b-ut enlargement
    c-ant urethral nodule
    d-persistent lutein cyst
    ans-a

    254.26-non immune fetal hydrops
    a-parvo b19
    b-cmv
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    255.27- All are used in shoulder dystocia except
    a. Mc rober’s
    b. supra pubic pressure
    c. woods procedure
    d. marriceu smellie viet method
    ans-D REPEAT





    OPHTA**************
    256.1-arden ratio
    a-eog
    b-erg
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    257.2-endophthalmitis include all except
    a-vitreous
    b-sclera
    c-uvea
    d-retina
    ans-B KHURANA-169


    258.3-A person who has been wearing contact lenses for 1-2 months
    comes with h/o irritation in left eye..
    diagnosis - keratitis.. corneal scrapings revealed
    presence of pseudomonas aeruginosa which was multidrug
    resistant.. how did it attain that level of resistance?
    1. by horizontal transfer of genes from commensal bacteria of eye
    2. improper contact lens hygiene
    3. frequent and prior use of topical antibiotics / steroid preparation ??
    d-biofilm production
    ans-d

    259.4-in corneal transplantation, which is true?
    a-whole eye is preserved in culture
    b-donor not taken if age more than 60 yrs..
    c-hla matching done
    d-ENDOTHELIAL CELL COUNT WAS DONE BEFORE TRANSPLANT
    ANS-D


    260.5-afferent pupilary defect...
    a-optic nerve
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    261.6-Causes of cherry red spot in macula are A/E
    1. Nieman Pick
    2. GM1 Ganglioside
    3. Tay Sachs
    4. Gauchers
    ans-all is well

    262.7-least common condition .
    a-macular dystrophy
    b-lattice 1
    c-lattice 2
    d-granular
    ans- A(ACROSS)


    *******ENT **************
    263.1.Acoustic neuroma arises fm
    A. Facial n
    B. Inferior vestibular n.
    C. Abducent n.
    D. Superior vestibular n.
    ans-d

    264.2-all are correct ab8 nasopharyngeal ca except
    1.bimodal age distribuion.
    2.nasopharyngectomy with neck dissection
    3.ebv antigen
    4.squamous cell ca is common
    ans-b

    265.3-sodium fluoride acts in oytosclerosis mecha
    a-inhibit osteoblast
    b. useful only if pinkish TM seen
    c. inhibits enzyme action in cochlea
    d-
    ans-

    266.4-larngeal operation which laser....?
    a-nd yag
    b-CO2
    c-krypton
    d-argon
    ans-CO2


    267.5-drug localy used for laryngeal stenosis
    a-mitomycin C
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    268.6-traumatic csf rhinorrhoea wrong
    a-fossa ethmoidalis mc site
    b-beta2 transferase is characteristic
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    269.7-extralarnygeal membrane a/e
    a-hyoepiglo
    b-cricotra
    c-cricotra
    d-cricothy
    ans-

    270.8-retraction of ptosis results from chewing cramming , condition
    a-marcus gun jaw winking phenomenon
    b-hornor
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    271.9-Acoustic emesions are generated from>
    a) outer hair cells
    b) inner hair cells
    c) cochlea
    d)
    ans-a

    272.10-traumatic csf rhinorrhoea wrong
    a-fossa ethmoidalis mc site
    b-beta2 transferase is characteristic
    c-
    d-
    ans-A




    *********SKIN
    273.1-white lacy lesions in oral,nail fold reached upto distal end
    a. lichen planus..
    b
    c
    d
    ans-a

    274.2-female with pimples, was on treatment rsulted in
    pigmentation, drug given
    a-
    b-
    c-
    d-

    275.3-t/t for erythematous rash in preg female
    a-puva
    b-corticosteroid
    c-isotretenoin
    d-
    ans-b

    276.4-grey patches on back n menal retardn infantile spasms
    hypo pigmented patch
    a-tuberous sclerosis
    b-sturge weber
    c-linear naevus synd
    d-neuro fib
    ans-A







    **********Anaesthesia
    277.1-speedy induction with intubation, on ausculation faint
    breath sounds,reason with intubation done .high etCo2
    n increased airway pressure.with high bp
    a-fentanyl induced chest rigidity
    b.broncospasm
    c.oesophageal intubation
    d-
    ans-

    278.2-liver disease, muscle relaxant of choice?
    a-atra
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-a

    279.3-NOT TRUE ABT SUCCINYL CHOLINE
    A-ONSET OF ACT WITHIN SEC
    B-NO POST TETANIC FADE
    C-FASCICULATION
    D-
    ANS-D



    *********RADIOLOGY
    280.1-Egg-on-side radiographical appearance seen in
    a)tof
    b)tapvc
    c)tricuspid atresia with vsd
    d)completely corrected TGA
    ans-D

    281.2- most ionizing radiation
    1 alpha
    2 beta
    3 x ray
    4 gamma
    ans-alpha

    282.3-difference between X ray and light
    1 - energy
    2 - mass of photon
    3 - type of wave
    4 - speed
    ans-

    283.4-not seen in bronchoscopy
    a. sub carinal node
    b.
    c. trachea
    d-vocal cord
    ans-A

    284.5-to enhance dye contrast in renogram
    a-dehydration of pt
    b-increase conc dye
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    285.6-In bone scurvy affects by
    1- decreasing mineralization of bone
    2-less formation of osteoid matrix
    3-
    4-
    ans-B(REPEAT)

    286.7-ct scan room doors
    a-tungsten/
    b-glass
    c-steel
    d-pb
    ans-d

    287.8-wat is background radiation
    a-continuously present in earth
    b-nuclear explosion
    c-
    d-
    ans-

    288.9-Stochastic effects of radiation means -
    A-
    B.probability of occurrence is a function of their dose - ans
    C.severity of occurrence is a function of their dose
    D. skin manifestations and erythema
    ans-


    289.10-MEASURES OFRADIATION EFFECT
    A-EFFECTIVE DOSE
    B-EQIVALENT
    C-ABSORBED
    D-
    ans-

    290.11-Which of the following is not a CT feature of adrenal adenoma
    a) low attenuation
    b) homogeneous density and well defined borders
    c) enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a long time and washes out late
    d) calcification is rare
    ans-c

    *********Psychiatry
    291.1-anxiouslady with sadness+no h/o hopelessness.
    occasional palpitations.
    1 - mixed depression anxiety
    2 - mild depression
    3 - adjustment disorder
    4 - generalised anxiety
    ans

    292.2-not a cognitive dysfunction...
    a.catastrophysism
    b.thought block
    c.
    d. overgeneralization
    ans-

    293.3- A 30 yea old person thinks that his wife and boss have
    an affaire, he also thinks that his friend is also involved
    in this and he provides them with technological support.
    Otherwise he is normal. office reg 2 mon history
    1 - persistent delusion disorder
    2 - schizophrenia
    3 - paranoid personality disorder
    4 - acute and transient psychotic disorder
    ans-

    294.4-cognitive behaviour therapy, all used except
    1 interpretation
    2 punishment
    3 exposure and response prevention
    4
    ans-

    295.5-alcohol paraonia A/E
    a-fixed delusion
    b-hallucination
    c-impulsive behavior
    d-Agitation
    ans-A

    296.6-autistic disorder has all except
    a- visual impairment
    b-
    c-
    d-
    ans-A

    297.7-cognitive enhancement technique all except
    a- consolidation stage
    b-precontemplation
    c-practice
    d-contemplation
    ans-B


    298.8-a pt feels that he has committed sins throught out life, he contemplated abt suicide but has not thought how to do it, he also consulted his spiritual guru
    a. further session with guru
    b. anti depressant with anti psychotics
    c. anti depressant and behavior therapy
    d-
    ans-

    Physiology
    300-a question was on bert effect- Bert effect is cns
    manifestations of oxygen toxicity
  13. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Q. Which of the following is procoagulation protein;
    a) protein c
    b) protein s
    c) thrombin
    d) thrombomodulin

    protein c

    Thrombomodulin is an endothelial cell thrombin receptor that converts thrombin from a procoagulant to an anticoagulant enzyme . Thrombomodulin forms a 1:1 stoichiometric complex with thrombin that is responsible for the conversion of protein C to the activated protein CA. Protein CA scissions the activated cofactors of the coagulation mechanism, factors VA and VIIIA, and thereby reduces the amount of thrombin generated

    Prevention of Blood Clotting in the Normal Vascular System—
    Intravascular Anticoagulants Endothelial Surface Factors. Probably the most important factors for preventing clotting in the normal vascular system are (1) the smoothness of the endothelial cell surface, which prevents contact activation of the intrinsic clotting system; (2) a layer of glycocalyx on the endothelium (glycocalyx is a mucopolysaccharide adsorbed to the surfaces of the endothelial cells), which repels clotting factors and platelets, thereby preventing activation of clotting; and (3) a protein bound with the endothelial membrane, thrombomodulin, which binds thrombin. Not only does the binding of thrombin with thrombomodulin slow the clotting process by removing thrombin, but the thrombomodulin- thrombin complex also activates a plasma protein, protein C, that acts as an anticoagulant by inactivating activated Factors V and VIII. When the endothelial wall is damaged, its smoothness and its glycocalyx-thrombomodulin layer are lost, which activates both Factor XII and the platelets, thus setting off the intrinsic pathway of clotting. If Factor XII and platelets come in contact with the subendothelial collagen, the activation is even more powerful.

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