Anatomy questions till 2010 with answers

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    1. All of the following muscles are composite muscles except:
    a. Pectineus
    b. Rectus femoris
    c. Adductor magnus
    d. Biceps femoris
    The pectineus is supplied by the femoral nerve and the accessory Obturator nerve (L3). also receives a branch from the Obturator nerve. adductor magnus and biceps femoris have a dual nerve supply.

    2. All of the following are digastric muscles, except:
    a. Muscle fibers in the ligament of Trietz
    b. Omohyoid
    c. Occipitofrontalis
    d. Sternocleidomastoid
    The sternocleidomastoid takes origin by two heads and is not a digastric muscle.

    3. In the lungs bronchial arteries supply the bronchopulmonary tree:
    a. Till the tertiary bronchus
    b. Till segmental bronchi
    c. Till respiratory bronchiole
    d. Till alveolar sacs
    The arteries supply as far as the respiratory bronchioles. Tissues which do not have close access to atmospheric oxygen are supplied by the bronchial arteries.

    4. The skin overlying the region where a venous cutdown is made to access the great saphenous vein is supplied by:
    a. Femoral nerve
    b. Sural nerve
    c. Tibial nerve
    d. Superficial peroneal nerve
    The skin is supplied by the saphenous nerve which is a branch of the femoral nerve.

    5. Which of the following is the correct order of pathway for a sperm:
    a. Straight tubules- rete testis- efferent tubules
    b. Rete testis- efferent tubules- straight tubules
    c. Efferent tubules- rete testis- straight tubules
    d. Straight tubules- efferent tubules- rete testis
    Straight tubules are seminiferous tubules. the sperm passes through the rete testis to reach the efferent tubules (ductules).

    6. Which of the following veins is found in relation to the paraduodenal fossa:
    a. Inferior mesenteric vein
    b. Middle colic vein
    c. Left colic vein
    d. Splenic vein

    7. The artery to the ductus deferns is a branch of:
    • Inferior epigastric artery
    • Superior epigastric artery
    • Superior vesical artery
    • Cremasteric artery
    An artery supplying a visceral structure is always a branch of another visceral artery to some related viscera. Here only the superior vesical artery is a visceral artery and the rest all the parietal (supply the structures in the abdominal wall).

    8. Tributary of the cavernous sinus includes all of the following except:
    • Superior petrosal sinus
    • Inferior petrosal sinus
    • Superficial middle cerebral vein
    • Deep middle cerebral vein
    Deep middle cerebral vein forms the basal vein. The basal veins join the great cerebral vein and finally drain into the straight sinus.

    9. All of the following statements about diploic veins are true, except:
    • Develop around 8 weeks of gestation
    • These have no valves
    • Present in cranial bones
    • Have a thin wall lined by a single layer of endothelium
    The diploic veins are absent at birth and appear at 2 years of age.

    10. Which of the following bones do not contribute to the formation of the nasal septum:
    • Sphenoid
    • Lacrimal
    • Palatine
    • Ethmoid
    Mainly formed by the vomer and the ethmoid with small contributions from the palatine and sphenoid bones.
    11. All of the following cranial nerves contain somatic efferents except:
    • Facial nerve
    • Oculomotor nerve
    • Trochlear nerve
    • Abducent nerve
    Facial nerve contains no somatic efferent fibers as it supplies only the muscles derived from the branchial arches. It does not supply any muscle derived from the somites.
    12. Facial colliculus is seen in the:
    • Midbrain
    • Pons
    • Medulla
    • Interpeduncular fossa
    Facial colliculus is seen on the posterior aspect of the pons in the floor of the fourth ventricle.

    13. Which is the nucleus of masseteric reflex:
    • Superior sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
    • Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
    • Mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal nerve
    • Dorsal nucleus of vagus nerve
    Proprioceptive impulses from the masticatory muscles are conveyed through the mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve. The neurons are unique in being the only primary sensory neurons with cell bodies in the CNS. The masseteric reflex or the jaw jerk is the only supraspinal monosynaptic reflex and the mesencephalic nucleus is a relay station for the same.

    14. Primordial germ cells are derived from:
    • Ectoderm
    • Mesoderm
    • Endoderm
    • Mesodermal sinus
    Technically, the primordial germ cells are derived from the epiblast long before the establishment of the three germ layers. There is a difference between where they are first seen and from where they are derived. Well they are definitely first seen in the endoderm.

    15. Movements of pronation and supination occurs in all the following joints except:
    • Superior radio ulnar joint
    • Middle radio ulnar joint
    • Inferior radio ulnar joint
    • Radio carpal joint
    These movements take place only between the radius and the ulna. Rotatory movements are not possible at the wrist joint.

    16. About posterior cruciate ligament- true statement is:
    • Attached to the lateral femoral condyle
    • Intrasynovial
    • Prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
    • Relaxed in full flexion
    The posterior cruciate ligament is attached anteriorly to the medial femoral condyle and posteriorly to the upper surface of tibia. It prevents the posterior dislocation of tibia on the femur. everything is taut during extension.

    17. Structures that pass from thorax to abdomen behind the diaphragm are all except:
    • Azygous vein
    • Aorta
    • Thoracic duct
    • Greater splanchnic nerve
    Technically all the structures passing through the aortic hiatus are posterior to the diaphragm. The greater splanchnic nerves pierce the diaphragm to reach the abdominal cavity.

    18. Most common site of Morgagni hernia is:
    • Left anterior
    • Right posterior
    • Right anterior
    • Left posterior
    These are Subcostosternal hernias through a defect in the anterior diaphragm. Most commonly occurs on the right side.

    19. Structure that does not cross the midline is:
    • Left gonadal vein
    • Left renal vein
    • Left brachiocephalic vein
    • Hemiazygous vein
    All the veins of the left side cross the midline to join the veins on the right side, directly or indirectly, because the left drainage channel to the heart (the left horn of sinus venosus) disappears during development. The left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein and thus does not physically cross the midline.

    20. Portosystemic shunt is not seen in
    • Liver
    • Spleen
    • Anorectum
    • Gastroesophageal
    Portosystemic shunt is primarily seen in the structures derived from or related to the gastrointestinal tract. Spleen develops outside the gastrointestinal system.

    21. Injury to the male urethra below the perineal membrane causes urine to accumulate in:
    • Superficial perineal pouch
    • Deep perineal pouch
    • Space of retzius
    • Pouch of douglas
    Superficial perineal pouch is superficial to the perineal membrane.

    22. All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder except:
    • Mucosa is loosely attached to the underlying musculature
    • Mucosa is smooth
    • It is lined by transitional epithelium
    • It is derived from the absorbed part of the mesonephric duct
    Mucosa is never loosely attached to the underlying mucosa anywhere in the body. the efficient expansion of the bladder is due to the transitional epithelium and not due to a loosely attached mucosa.

    23. Supports of the uterus are all except:
    • Uterosacral ligament
    • Broad ligament
    • Mackenrodt’s ligament
    • Levator ani
    Broad ligament is just a fold of peritoneum.

    24. Posterior communicating artery is a branch of:
    • Internal carotid
    • External carotid
    • Middle cerebral
    • Posterior superior cerebellar
    Posterior communicating artery is a branch of the cerebral part of internal carotid artery.

    25. Which of the following is not a branch of cavernous segment of the internal carotid artery
    • Cavernous branch
    • Inferior hypophyseal artery
    • Meningeal branch
    • Ophthalmic branch
    The Ophthalmic artery is a branch from the cavernous part.

    26. Difference between typical cervical and thoracic vertebra:
    • Has a triangular body
    • Has foramen transversarium
    • Superior articular facet directed backwards and upwards
    • Has a large vertebral body
    Foramen transversarium is a feature unique to the cervical vertebrae.

    27. Which part of the vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards:
    • Cervical
    • Thoracic
    • Sacral
    • Coccyx
    The two secondary curves are the lumbar and the cervical curves. Both are convex anteriorly.

    28. Which of the following has an intra articular tendon:
    • Sartorius
    • Semitendinosus
    • Anconeus
    • Popliteus
    The tendon of popliteus is enclosed by the knee joint capsule.

    29. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block:
    • Miosis
    • Exophthalmos
    • Nasal congestion
    • Conjunctival redness
    Obviously, exophthalmos. The enophthalmos that is seen is because of the ptosis. There is no true retraction of the eyeball into the orbital cavity.

    30. A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm:
    • Damage to scalenus medius
    • Injury to suprascapular nerve
    • Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
    • Spread of infection to the shoulder joint
    The trapezius and the Serratus anterior are responsible for overhead abduction. Trapezius is supplied by the spinal part of accessory nerve which lies in the posterior triangle of the neck.

    31. Middle meningeal artery is a direct branch of:
    • External carotid artery
    • Internal maxillary artery
    • Superficial temporal artery
    • Middle cerebral artery
    It is a direct branch of the first part of the maxillary artery.

    32. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:
    • Lower border of L1
    • Lower border of L3
    • Lower border of S1
    • Lower border of L5
    In adults it is the lower border of L1.

    33. Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph nodes except:
    • Parametrial lymph nodes
    • Deep inguinal lymph nodes
    • Obturator lymph nodes
    • External iliac lymph nodes
    The superficial inguinal nodes receive lymphatics from the uterus but not the deep inguinal nodes.

    34. All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen except:
    • Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
    • B cells
    • Antigen presenting cells
    • Vascular sinus
    The vascular sinuses represent the red pulp.

    35. Polar bodies are formed during:
    • Spermatogenesis
    • Organogenesis
    • Oogenesis
    • Morphogenesis

    36. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:
    • Median nerve
    • Flexor pollicis longus
    • Flexor carpi radialis
    • Flexor digitorum superficialis
    The flexor carpi radialis is superficial to the flexor retinaculum.

    37. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except:
    • Femoral vein
    • Inguinal ligament
    • Femoral artery
    • Lacunar ligament
    The femoral ring is the entrance to the femoral canal. The femoral vein lies medial to the femoral canal and the femoral artery lies lateral to the vein.
    38. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
    • Upper border of the rib
    • Lower border of the rib
    • In the center of the intercostal space
    • In the anterior part of the intercostal space
    The lower border of the ribs contains the neurovascular bundle.

    39. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:
    • Entire prostate gland
    • Lateral lobes
    • Median lobe
    • Posterior lobe
    The median lobe of the prostate is classically described as enlarged during BPH.

    40. Prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except that it:
    • Is the widest and most dilatable part
    • Presents a concavity posteriorly
    • Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate
    • Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall
    The posterior wall of the prostatic urethra is convex anteriorly. the convexity is known as the urethral crest.

    41. All of the following statements regarding vas deferns are true except:
    • The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla
    • It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine
    • It passes lateral to the inferior epigastric artery at the deep inguinal ring
    • It is separated from the base of the bladder by the peritoneum
    There is no peritoneum between the base of the bladder and the vas deferns.

    42. The following groups of lymph nodes receive lymphatics from the uterus except:
    • External iliac
    • Internalilliac
    • Superficial inguinal
    • Deep inguinal
    The deep inguinal nodes do not receive lymphatics from the uterus.

    43. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
    • Internal illiac lymph nodes
    • Bulb of the penis
    • Prostate
    • Seminal vesicle when enlarged
    The internal iliac nodes are at the level of the sigmoid colon. they can be felt posteriorly, if enlarged.

    44. All of the following are branches of the external carotid artery except:
    • Superior thyroid artery
    • Anterior ethmoidal artery
    • Occipital artery
    • Posterior auricular artery
    Anterior ethmoidal artery is not a branch from the external carotid artery.

    45. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of the ophthalmic division of the 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to:
    • Cavernous sinus
    • Apex of the orbit
    • Brainstem
    • Base of the skull
    All these nerves are in relation to the cavernous sinus.

    46. The superior oblique muscle is supplied by:
    • 3rd cranial nerve
    • 4th cranial nerve
    • 5th cranial nerve
    • 6th cranial nerve
    SO4, LR6

    47. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
    • Carries secretomotor fibers to submandibular gland
    • Joins lingual nerve in the infratemporal fossa
    • Is a branch of the facial nerve
    • Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
    The nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic and taste fibers.

    48. The type of joint between sacrum and the coccyx is a:
    • Symphysis
    • Synostosis
    • Synchondrosis
    • Syndesmosis
    It is secondary cartilaginous joint also known as a symphysis

    49. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the Epiphyseal plate except:
    • Proliferation and hypertrophy
    • Calcification and ossification
    • Vasculogenesis and erosion
    • Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow
    Bone marrow is not present in the Epiphyseal plate.

    50. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
    • Interphase
    • Metaphase
    • GI phase
    • Telophase
    A Barr body is only seen during periods of inactivity.

    51. After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:
    • Shrug the shoulders
    • Raise the arm above the head on the affected side
    • Touch the opposite shoulder
    • Lift a heavy object from the ground
    The Serratus anterior muscle can be tested by asking the patient to perform an overhead abduction.

    52. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features except:
    • Right lung is shorter and wider than the left lung
    • Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus
    • Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung
    • Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus
    The right principal bronchus is wider, shorter and more vertical than the left. The size of the lung has nothing to do with a foreign body .

    53. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except:
    • Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
    • Ilioinguinal nerve
    • Subcostal nerve
    • Iliohypogastric nerve
    The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is at a lower level.

    54. Infection/ inflammation of allof the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
    a. Isthmus of the uterine tube
    b. Inferior part of anal canal
    c. Big toe
    d. Penile urethra
    The lymphatics from the isthmus of the uterus drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes and travel with the round ligament.

    55. The intricately and prodigiously looped systemof veins and arteries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as:
    a. Choroid plexus
    b. Tuberal plexus
    c. Pampiniform plexus
    d. Pectiniform plexus
    They are known as the pampiniform plexus of veins.

    56. The movement at the following joint permits a person to look towards the right or left:
    a. Atlanto-occipital joint
    b. Atlanto-axial joint
    c. C2-C3 joint
    d. C3-C4 joint
    Such rotatory movements occur at the atlanto-axial joint.

    57. The first costochondral joint is a:
    a. Fibrous joint
    b. Synovial joint
    c. Syndesmoses
    d. Syncendrosis
    It is the joint between the costal cartilage and the bony rib. It is described as an unusual synarthrosis (fibrous joint). In fact all the costochondral junctions are similar. The first chondrosternal joint is a synchondrosis.

    58. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except:
    a. It is devoid of perichondrium
    b. It has a rich nerve supply
    c. It is avascular
    d. It lacks the capacity to regenerate
    Articular hyaline cartilage typically lacks perichondrium. It does not have a rich nerve supply. Pain in joint diseases is not due to involvement of the articular cartilage.

    59. All of the following are categorized as secondary lymphoid organs except:
    a. Lymph nodes
    b. Spleen
    c. Thymus
    d. Subepithelial collection of lymphocytes
    Thymus is a primary lymphoid organ. The other is the bone marrow.

    60. Which of the following is the feature of Y chromosome
    a. Acrocentric
    b. Telocentric
    c. Submetacentric
    d. Metacentric
    The Y chromosome is regarded as a telocentric chromosome or an extreme form of Acrocentric chromosome. Otherwise, telocentric chromosomes are not found in human beings. Strictly speaking, Y chromosome is Acrocentric because a short arm is present.

    61. The couinaud’s segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the:
    a. Hepatic veins and portal vein
    b. Hepatic veins and biliary ducts
    c. Portal vein and biliary ducts
    d. Portal vein and hepatic artery
    Right hepatic vein divides the right lobe into anterior and posterior segments. Middle hepatic vein divides the liver into right and left lobes (or right and left hemiliver). This plane runs from the inferior vena cava to the gallbladder fossa.
    Left hepatic vein divides the left lobe into a medial and lateral part.
    Portal vein divides the liver into upper and lower segments.
    The left and right portal veins branch superiorly and inferiorly to project into the center of each segment.

    62. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between two cells are called:
    a. Gap junctions
    b. Tight junctions
    c. Anchoring junctions
    d. Focal junctions
    Physical exchange of materials in eukaryotic cells occurs through the gap junctions. These are formed by hexameric units of connexxins.

    63. The cells belonging to the following type of epithelium are provided with extra reserve of cell membrane:
    a. Transitional
    b. Stratified squamous
    c. Stratified cuboidal
    d. Stratified columnar
    The transitional epithelium is basically a simple epithelium but arranged in such a way that it appears multilayered. All the cells of the epithelium are in contact with the basement membrane.

    64. All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except:
    a. Mastoid process
    b. Tubercles of humerus
    c. Trochanter of femur
    d. Condyles of tibia
    The condyles of the tibia are examples of pressure epiphysis.

    65. All of the following statements are true for metaphysic of bone, except:
    a. It is the strongest part of bone
    b. It is the most vascular part of bone
    c. Growth activity is maximized here
    d. It is the region favoring hematogenous spread of infection
    The diaphysis is the strongest part of the bone.

    66. All of the following features can be observed after injury to the axillary nerve, except:
    a. Loss of rounded contour of the shoulder
    b. Loss of sensation along lateral side of upper arm
    c. Loss of overhead abduction
    d. Atrophy of deltoid muscle
    Loss of overhead abduction does not occur with injury to the axillary nerve.

    67. Injury to the radial nerve in lower part of spiral groove:
    a. Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus
    b. Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle
    c. Leaves extension at elbow joint intact
    d. Weakens pronation movement
    The triceps are spared, so elbow extension remains intact.

    68. The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of the conducting system of the heart, except:
    a. SA node
    b. AV node
    c. AV bundle
    d. Right bundle branch
    The right and left bundle branches are supplied by the left anterior descending artery expect in their most proximal parts where it is the right coronary artery.

    69. The middle cardiac vein in located at the:
    a. Anterior interventricular sulcus
    b. Posterior interventricular sulcus
    c. Posterior AV groove
    d. Anterior AV groove
    The middle cardiac vein runs in the posterior interventricular groove along with the posterior interventricular artery.

    70. In a patient with a tumor in superior mediastinum compressing the superior vena cava, all of the following veins would serve as alternate pathways for the blood to return to the right atrium, except:
    a. Lateral thoracic vein
    b. Internal thoracic vein
    c. Hemiazygous vein
    d. Vertebral venous plexus
    Vertebral venous plexus as an alternate pathway is not significant enough.

    71. The lumbar region of the vertebral column permits all of the following movements except:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Lateral flexion
    d. Rotation
    Rotation only occurs in the thoracic column.

    72. The blood vessels related to the paraduodenal fossa is:
    a. Gonadal vein
    b. Superior mesenteric artery
    c. Portal vein
    d. Inferior mesenteric vein

    73. All of the following muscles are grouped together as ‘muscles of mastication’ except:
    a. Buccinator
    b. Masseter
    c. Temporalis
    d. Pterygoids
    Buccinator is a muscle of the face and is supplied by the facial nerve.

    74. The commonest variation in the arteries arising from the arch of aorta is:
    a. Absence of brachiocepahlic trunk
    b. Left vertebral artery arising from the arch
    c. Left common carotid artery arising from brachiocephalic trunk
    d. Presence of retro-esophageal subclavian artery
    In a study of 1000 aortic arches the usual pattern was present in 65% of cases. In 27% cases, the left common artery arose from the brachiocepahlic trunk.

    75. All of the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except:
    a. Melanocyte
    b. Adrenal medulla
    c. Sympathetic ganglia
    d. Cauda equine
    The cauda equina is not derived from the neural crest cells.

    76. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation:
    a. Establishes three germ layers
    b. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end
    c. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass
    d. Usually occurs at 4 weeks
    It is completed by the 3rd week of gestation and establishes three germ layers.

    77. All the following features are seen in neurons of dorsal root ganglia, except:
    a. They have centrally located nuclei
    b. They are derived from neural crest cells
    c. They are multipolar
    d. They contain lipofuschin granules
    The neurons of the dorsal root ganglia are unipolar.

    78. Elastic cartilage is found in:
    a. Auditory tube
    b. Nasal septum
    c. Articular cartilage
    d. Costal cartilage
    Elastic cartilage is found in the auditory tube.

    79. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
    a. Coracoclavicular ligament
    b. Coracoacromial ligament
    c. Costoclavicular ligament
    d. Coracohumeral ligament
    Coracoclavicular ligament is the most important ligament in connecting the upper limb to the rest of the skeleton.

    80. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:
    a. Femoral artery
    b. External iliac artery
    c. Internal illiac artery
    d. Aorta
    It is a superficial branch of the femoral artery.

    81. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following,except:
    a. Esophageal opening
    b. Costovertebral triangle
    c. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
    d. Inferior vena caval opening
    A hernia through the inferior vena caval opening is not possible because the central tendon is very tightly adherent to the walls of the inferior vena cava.

    82. Ureteric constriction is seen at all of the following positions, except:
    a. Ureteropelvic junction
    b. Ureterovesical junction
    c. Crossing of the iliac artery
    d. Ischial spine
    There is no constriction where the ureter crosses the internal iliac artery.

    83. All of the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney, except:
    a. Stellate veins drain superficial zone
    b. It is a type of portal circulation
    c. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum
    d. Its segmental arteries are end arteries
    The division into segmental arteries is intrarenal.

    84. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is:
    a. Hypogastric nerve
    b. Pudendal nerve
    c. Splanchnic visceral nerve
    d. Sympathetic plexus
    All pain in the perineal region is mediated by the pudendal nerve.

    85. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve:
    a. Masseter
    b. Buccinator
    c. Tensor veli palate
    d. Posterior belly of digastric
    Masseter is one of the muscles of mastication.

    86. The sensory supply of the palate is through all of the following, except:
    a. Facial nerve
    b. Hypoglossal nerve
    c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
    d. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
    The hypoglossal nerve is a pure motor nerve.

    87. All of the following are features of large intestine, except:
    a. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools
    b. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction
    c. Its epithelium contains goblet cells in large numbers
    d. Absorbs salt and water
    The mucus is acidic but it does not help formation of stool. It just helps in stool transit.

    88. All are true about inguinal canal, except:
    a. Conjoint tendon forms part of the posterior wall
    b. Superficial inguinal ring is found in external oblique aponeurosis
    c. Deep ring is an opening in transverses abdominis
    d. Internal oblique forms both anterior and posterior wall
    Deep inguinal ring is an opening in the fascia transversalis.

    89. The right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the:
    a. Left gastric
    b. Splenic
    c. Celiac trunk
    d. Gastroduodenal
    It is one of the two branches of the Gastroduodenal artery. the other being the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    90. Motor supply of the diaphragm is:
    a. Thoracodorsal nerve
    b. Intercostal nerves
    c. Phrenic nerve
    d. Sympathetic nerves

    91. All of the following are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except:
    a. Sensory and motor
    b. Derived from S2, S3, S4
    c. Comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
    d. Main nerve supply of the pelvic organs
    Pudendal nerve is the main nerve supply in the perineum.

    92. In a post polio case, the iliotibial tract contracture is likely to result in:
    a. Extension at the hip and knee
    b. Extension at the hip
    c. Flexion at the hip and knee
    d. Extension at the knee
    It will be just an exaggeration of its normal function, extension of the knee joint even at rest.

    93. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve, except:
    a. Lacrimal gland
    b. Submandibular gland
    c. Nasal glands
    d. Parotid gland
    Parotid gland is supplied by the Glossopharyngeal nerve via the otic ganglion and the auriculotemporal nerve.

    94. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to a lesion in:
    a. Trigeminal ganglion
    b. Ciliary ganglion
    c. Greater petrosal nerve
    d. Cervical ganglion
    Greater petrosal nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal gland.

    95. Occlusion of the anterior descending branch of left coronary artery will lead to infarction in which area:
    a. Posterior part of the interventricular septum
    b. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
    c. Lateral part of the heart
    d. Inferior surface of the right ventricle
    The anterior descending branch supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle.

    96. All of the following are true about coronary artery, except:
    a. Right coronary artery lies in right anterior coronary sulcus
    b. Left anterior descending artery is abranch of left coronary artery
    c. Usually three obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery
    d. In 85% cases posterior descending interventricular artery arises from right coronary artery
    The obtuse marginal artery is usually a single branch when present.

    97. Regarding anatomical snuff box which of the following is true:
    a. Abductor pollicis longus forms the posterior border
    b. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis longus from the anterior wall
    c. Basilic vein forms the roof
    d. Floor is formed by extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
    The posterior boundary is formed by the extensor pollicis longus.

    98. Ape thumb deformity is seen in involvement of:
    a. Median nerve
    b. Ulnar nerve
    c. Radial nerve
    d. Axillary nerve
    This occurs due to loss of opposition and is due to paralysis of the thenar muscles.

    99. Trapezius is attached to all structures except:
    a. First rib
    b. Clavicle
    c. Scapula
    d. Occiput
    The trapezius has no attachment to the first rib.

    100. Tredelenberg sign is positive in paralysis of all except:
    a. Gluteus medius
    b. Gluteus minimus
    c. Gluteus maximus
    d. Tensor fascia lata
    The action of tensor fascia lata as an abductor of hip is contested. The nerve supply of tensor fascia lata is superior gluteal nerve. It extends the knee with lateral rotation of the leg. The gluteus maximus is an extensor as well as an abductor at the hip joint.

    101. True regarding the hip joint is:
    a. Medial rotation and abduction is caused by gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
    b. Medial rotation and adduction is caused by gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
    c. Lateral rotators of thigh are supplied by femoral nerve
    d. Hyperextension of hip is prevented by capsular thickening
    The ilio-femoral ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip if it is considered as a capsular thickening but most books describe it as a separate entity. Otherwise medial rotation and abduction is brought about by the gluteus medius and minimus.

    102. Anterior cruciate ligament prevents:
    a. Anterior dislocation of tibia
    b. Posterior dislocation of tibia
    c. Anterior dislocation of femur
    d. Posterior dislocation of femur
    It prevents anterior dislocation of the tibia on the femur.

    103. True about upper end of tibia is all except:
    a. Ossification center at the upper end fuses by 20 years
    b. It gives attachment to meniscal cartilage on intercondylar ridge
    c. It gives attachment to semimembranosus
    d. Posterior aspect of patella articulates with the upper end of tibia laterally

    104. All are true about thoracolumbar fascia except:
    a. Attached to the spinous process of lumbar vertebra
    b. Attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebra
    c. The fascia lies posterior to posterior abdominal wall muscles
    d. Gives attachment to transverses abdominis and internal oblique muscles

    105. All are components of spinal cord except:
    a. Pouparts ligament
    b. Genitofemoral nerve
    c. Vas deferns
    d. Pampiniform plexus

    106. True regarding common bile duct is all except:
    a. Opens 10cm distal to the pylorus
    b. Lies anterior to IVC
    c. Portal vein lies posterior to it
    d. Usually opens into duodenum separate from the main pancreatic duct

    107. All are component of urogenital diaphragm except:
    a. Left transverse perenii profundus
    b. Right transverse perenii profundus
    c. Sphincter urethrae
    d. Transverse perenii superficialis

    108. Cranial nerve which emerges from dorsal surface of brain:
    a. II
    b. IV
    c. VI
    d. VII

    109. True statement about orbital articulation is:
    a. Medial wall of orbit is formed by maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid and the lacrimal bone
    b. Floor is formed by maxilla, zygomatic and ethmoid bone
    c. Lateral wall is formed by the frontal bone, zygomatic bone and lesser wing of sphenoid
    d. Inferior orbital fissure is formed between the medial wall and the floor of the orbit

    110. The haversian system is found in:
    a. Diaphysis of long bones
    b. Cancellous bone
    c. Epiphysis
    d. Spongy bone of children

    111. True about hyaline cartilage:
    a. Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surface of synovial joints
    b. Hyaline cartilage is present in all synovial joints
    c. Articular cartilage may undergo ossification with aging
    d. Articular cartilage limits the mobility of the joint
    The 2nd to 7th sternochondral joints have fibrocartilage on their articular surfaces despite being synovial. Otherwise synovial joints have hyaline cartilages on their articular surfaces.

    112. Which is true about synovial joint:
    a. Stability is inversely proportional to mobility
    b. Hyaline cartilage covers articular surface of all synovial joints
    c. Metacarpophalangeal joint is a hinge joint
    d. Cartilage usually divides the joint into two cavities

    113. True statement is:
    a. Osteoblasts give rise to osteocytes
    b. Growth of bone occurs at diaphysis
    c. Epiphysis is present between metaphysic and diaphysis
    d. Interphalangeal joint is a saddle joint

    114. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of:
    a. Rhomboideus
    b. Trapezius
    c. Latissimus dorsi
    d. Serratus anterior

    115. Median nerve supplies all muscles of the thumb except:
    a. Abductor pollicis brevis
    b. Flexor pollicis brevis
    c. Opponens pollicis
    d. Adductor pollicis

    116. A patient is brought to the emergency with history of trauma to his right upper limb. Extension of metacarpophalangeal joint is lost. There is no wrist drop and extension of IP joints is normal. The most likely nerve involved is:
    a. Ulnar nerve
    b. Median nerve
    c. Radial nerve
    d. Posterior interosseous nerve

    117. All of the following are branches of subclavian artery except:
    a. Vertebral artery
    b. Thyrocervical trunk
    c. Subscapular artery
    d. Internal thoracic artery
    118. Esophagus receives supply from all of the following except:
    a. Bronchial artery
    b. Internal mammary artery
    c. Inferior phrenic artery
    d. Inferior thyroid artery

    119. Left gonadal vein drains into:
    a. Left renal vein
    b. Inferior vena cava
    c. Azygous vein
    d. Iliac vein

    120. Shortest part of male urethra is:
    a. Prostatic
    b. Membranous
    c. Bulbar
    d. Penile

    121. Mandibular nerve passes through the following foramen:
    a. Foramen ovale
    b. Foramen rotundum
    c. Foramen spinosum
    d. Foramen lacerum

    122. All of the following nerves pass through jugular foramen, except:
    a. 9th
    b. 10th
    c. 11th
    d. 12th

    123. The cranial nerve with the largest intracranial course is:
    a. Abducent nerve
    b. Trochlear nerve
    c. Optic nerve
    d. Trigeminal nerve

    124. Basal ganglia consists of all of the following except:
    a. Caudate nucleus
    b. Putamen
    c. Thalamus
    d. Globus pallidus

    125. Which of the following is an unpaired vessel:
    a. Anterior cerebralartery
    b. Basilar artery
    c. Posterior cerebellar artery
    d. Posterior communicating artery

    126. All of the following structures may be compressed during flexion and abduction of shoulder joint except:
    a. Suprascapular nerve
    b. Long head of biceps tendon
    c. Supraspinatus tendon
    d. subacromial bursa
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    Guest Guest

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