HOW WAS AIIMS MAY 2006?

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by Guest, May 7, 2006.

  1. Guest

    Guest Guest

    hi

    it seemed a bit tough.

    lengthy than earlier also.

    checking at entry was strict with private security gaurds.

    q paper had only one column with horizontally placed questions.probably to prevent scanning attempts.

    what u all have to say?
  2. semen

    semen Guest

    guyzz.......the paper was a tough one,definitely not as straight-forward as it seemed.lotsa traps,lotsa deceptive questions,actually lengthy as it did involve thinking.....but impressive set of questions!its clear tht the aiims fellahs want the best guys in n nothing less thn a really intelligent chap would crack the paper this time.a good change!in all,logic n rationale rules this season.....
  3. Vijayanth

    Vijayanth Guest

    The paper was tough &lengthy.In India when it comes 2 using unfair means , ppl can get so creative tht they wud win da nobel prize if there's 1.

    Those security guards & those metal detectors & single row of printed questions are no hindrance for those guys who gonna top in AIPGME - 2007 .

    When approx. 600 guys can evade any detection in AIPGE -2006 then u shud assume that the entire system has been bought , right 4m the clerks in Asst. Comtroller of Exam office to the inviglators.
    Why shudn't they be ? After all they are only humans ........
  4. saurav1983

    saurav1983 Guest

    As usual of May AIIMS , the questions seemed easy , the usual "important" mcq sort of questions .

    Prob's unless n until sum1 's got those old questions on his fingertips , he wud mark the answer whc he "FELT" 2 b right & usually they turn out 2b wrong .
  5. vsami

    vsami Guest

    paper was good mixture of questions.....some like RET oncogenes,PQLI , stats were pretty simple....but few questions were very tempting......i think most of people will have many rights & many wrongs....cut off will be around 63%
  6. misa

    misa Guest

    The paper was set very inteligently....with some new questions about the same old topics with new choices...
    but misprinting was much more than last time or all india paper....

    good mixture of tough and easy questions..
  7. Shoney

    Shoney Guest

    The paper was a bit thorogh than usual AIIMS paper. Atleast for one I believe that the paper had less repeats than the Nov 2005 paper.

    there was innovative designing of the paper format....with lenghtened choices....was it speacially ordered....... cause if it was then we can expect a new question bank from AIIMS people.

    Misprints were there as usual....one of the choice was "Normal" where the examiner must have intended to say "nominal"
    ... though he answer was ordinal so the mistake is pardonable.

    my paper-set read "coronary food flow"

    all in all post your comments about your reflections and some valid advises for all aspirants.

    thanks.
  8. testicle

    testicle Guest

    im shocked by the reactions of people after this exam....i think it was really tough.questions seemed easy but they definitely werent.in my opinion,t all just seems simple n straight-forward but it actually isnt.repeats were all from very old papers n were the unusual n rare ones like the interstitial lung disease one ,bacteroides etc.....repeats werent too many in the real sense.......gosh,how the hell do people get into aiims???
  9. eye doctor

    eye doctor Guest

    8) can someone punch in the eye Q asked in AIIMS May 2006!
  10. hey all,

    well me too thinks the paper was really very tough. all the ques seemed to be twisted apart frm the usual repeats.

    quiet lengthy too. at the end of three hours i was completely drained by the questions plus the heat of delhi was too much

    i think the cut off will be as usual around 65%. aipgme 2006 and may 2006 aiims papers signify a new trend in aiims exams. i think rather than thinking about selection(for all those who hav done not so well like me) we shud aim at recognising the trend which will be helpful for aipgmee 2007.

    congratulations in advance to all those who r goin to get selected in this premier institute. sorry but i wont b able to join u, well at least not this time
  11. bikram

    bikram Guest

    hi everyone.. how was the paper?
    i thought patho was tough....thank god no radiotherapy questions..
    one thing i notice there were lot of absentees at my centre..
    what do u think will be the cut off?
  12. shailendra

    shailendra Guest

    hi
    really paper was mixture, even at my centre there was strict checking of every candidate..spcially boys..might b searching 4 Docu-pen 4m any1...he he
    pls discuss some questions 4 which ans is doubtful ...there 1 chain started by Poison_iv.
    lets discuss....
  13. C paddy

    C paddy Guest

    AIIMS 2006 PAPER Questions

    AIIMS 2006 PAPER Questions
    Guys i am not able to find the AIIMS 2006 may paper anywhere can any body post the questions it wud b a great help
  14. AIIMS MAY 06 SOME Q/ANSWER

    DEAR FRENS I AM POSTING SOME Q/A , PL. lCORRECT ME & ADD UR RECALLS, CHEERS.


    1PUFA
    B. SOYABEAN OIL

    2. VIT. A DEF.
    D. 1%

    3. PQLI
    D. PER CAPITRA INCOME

    4. CHRONIC CARRIER EXCEPT
    A.MEASLES

    5. SPECIFICITY
    D. TRUE NEGATIVES

    6. ANAGEN PHASE
    A. ACTIVITY AND GROWTH

    7. CHANCRE REDUX
    A. EARLY RELAPSING SYPHILIS

    8. MAX JOSEPH'S SPACE
    b. lichen planus

    9. IVERMECTIN
    B. scabies

    10. ERYTHEMA NODOSUM LEPROSUM
    C. TNF-alpha

    11. TYPE II LEPRA
    C. CYCLOSPORINE

    12. DIAGNOSIS OF LEPROSY
    A. LEPROMIN TEST

    13.CONTACT DERMATITIS
    B. PATCH TEST

    14. SUPRACONDYLAR FRACTURE
    B. CUBITUS VARUS

    15. DIGITAL GANGRENE 3RD AND 4TH FINGER
    B. PAN

    16. SKELETAL TRACTION EXCEPT
    D. RUSH PIN

    17. COMPLICATIONS SUPRACONDYLAR FRACTURE EXCEPT
    D. NON UNION

    18. RECURRENT DISLOCATION SHOULDER
    D. SUPRASPINATUS TEAR

    19.SUDDEN INCREASE IN PAIN IN OSTEOCHONDROMA EXCEPT
    HELP ME ON THIS ONE

    20. DUAL NERVE SUPPLY EXCEPT
    C. FLEXOR DIGITORUM SUPERFICIALIS

    21. RETROBULBAR BLOCK
    B. SUPERIOR OBLIQUE

    22. PERSISTENT HYPERPLASTIC PRIMARY VITREOUS
    B. VISUAL PROGNOSIS GOOD

    23. IRIS NEOVASCULARISATION
    c. PANRETINAL PHOTOCOAGULATION

    24. PREVENTION OF ENDOPHTHALMITIS IN CATARACT SURGERY
    A. PREOPERATIVE PREP WITH POVIDONE IODINE

    25. RECURRENT CHALAZION
    B. SEBACEOUS CELL CARCINOMA

    26. AMYLOID DEPOSITS
    C. METHANAMINE SILVER

    27. CRYSTALLINE LENS NUTRITION
    C. AQEOUS AND VITREOUS

    28. BAND SHAPED KERATOPATHY
    B. CALCIUM

    29. BITEMPORAL HEMIANOPIA
    C. PITUITARY TUMOUR

    30. AFFERENT LIGHT REFLEX
    B. OPTIC NERVE

    31. FRACTURE ALA SIGNATURE
    B. DEPRESSED FRACTURE

    32. CADAVERIC LIVIDITY BLUISH GREEN COLOUR
    B. HYDROGEN SULPHIDE

    33. AUTOPSY SPECIMEN VIROLOGICAL EXAM
    D. SATURATED SOL.N COMMON SALT

    34. FINGERPRINT IMPAIRED
    D. LEPROSY

    35. GUSTAFSONS METHOD
    C. TRANSPARENCY OF ROOT

    36. RECORD TEMP. IN DEAD BODY
    A. RECTUM

    37.PRIAPISM
    C. CANTHARIDES

    38. ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA
    D. COMPLEX HYPERPLASIA WITH ATYPIA

    39. ASHERMAN SYNDROME
    B. MISSED ABORTION

    40. HEPATITIS IN PREGNANCY
    D. HEPATITIS E
    41. BEST WAY TO PREVENT DVT
    C. PROPHYLACTIC HEPARIN

    42. MANNING SCORE
    C. OXYTOCIN CHALLENGE TEST

    43. PSEUDOMYXOMA PERITONEI
    B. MUCINOUS CYSTADENOMA

    44. PREGNANCY INDUCED HYPERTENSION
    B. 37 WEEKS

    45. CYCLICAL PAIN NO MENARCHE
    C. IMPERFORATE HYMEN

    46. MATERNAL MORTALITY HIGHEST
    A. EISSENMENGERS COMPLEX

    47. NEWBORN OF DIABETIC MOTHER
    B. HYPERGLYCEMIA

    48. SHORTEST HEAD DIAMETER FETUS
    D. BITEMPORAL

    49. MTP IN DAYCARE..INDUCING AGENT
    C. PROPOFOL

    50. HEMATOPOEISIS BEFORE MID PREGNANCY
    B. liver
  15. Smurthy

    Smurthy Guest

    Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    4. Alkaptonuria.

    Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome.

    Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.
    9. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric …..
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia

    he defective migration of neural crest cells results in:
    1. Congenital megacolon.

    96. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    3. Myocardium.

    97. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids …………
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.

    98. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    4. Stapedius.
  16. Smurthy

    Smurthy Guest

    15 year old female presented to the emergency department with history of recurrent epistaxis, ………
    4. Factor XIII.

    Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except:
    2. Hypocalcemia.

    3. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on …………
    3. Enterococcus faecalis.
    An 18 year old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is ……..
    2. Botulism.
    . Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    3. Topiramate.
    A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin therapy for a duration of three …….
    2. Vit K injection.
  17. Smurthy

    Smurthy Guest

    The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is:
    2. 108 - 1010 bacilli.

    The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is:
    3. An environmental reservoir.

    The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis …….
    3. Vibrio cholerae.
  18. mohit kumar

    mohit kumar Guest

    Posted: Tue May 09, 2006 9:46 am Post subject: AIIMS NAY 2006 Q/A .PL.CORRECT

    --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

    1. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in:
    1. Groundnut oil.
    2. Soybean oil.
    3. Margarine.
    4. Palm oil.

    Ans. -2

    2. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness in children between 6 months to 6 years is more than:
    1. 0.01%
    2. 0.05%
    3. 0.1%
    4. 1.0%

    Ans. -4

    3. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
    1. Infant mortality rate
    2. Life expectancy at age one
    3. Literacy rate
    4. Per capita income

    Ans. -4

    4. In all of the following diseases chronic carries are found except:
    1. Measles
    2. Typhoid.
    3. Hepatitis B
    4. Gonorrhoea

    Ans. -1

    5. Specificity of screening test is the ability of test to detect:
    1. True positives
    2. False positives
    3. False Negatives
    4. True Negatives

    Ans. -1

    6. Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
    1. The phase of activity and growth
    2. The phase of transition
    3. The phase of resting
    4. The phase of degeneration.

    Ans. -1

    7. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
    1. Early relapsing syphilis
    2. Late syphilis
    3. Chancroid
    4. Recurrent herpes simplex infection

    Ans. -1

    8. Max Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
    1. Psoriasis vulgaris.
    2. Lichen planus
    3. Pityriasis rosea
    4. Parapsoriasis

    Ans. -2

    9. Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:
    1. Syphilis
    2. Scabies
    3. Tuberculosis
    4. Dermatophytosis

    Ans. -2

    10. The main cytokine, involved in erythema onodosum leprosum (ENL) reaction, is:
    1. Interleukin-2
    2. Interferon – gamma.
    3. Tumor necrosis factor – alpha.
    4. Macrophage colony stimulating factor

    Ans. -3

    11. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
    1. Chloroquin
    2. Thalidomide
    3. Cyclosporine
    4. Corticosteroids

    Ans. -1

    12. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:
    1. Lepramin test
    2. Slit skin smear
    3. Fine needle aspiration cytology.
    4. Skin biopsy.

    Ans. -1

    13. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
    1. Skin biopsy
    2. Patch test
    3. Prick test
    4. Estimation of serum IgE levels

    Ans. -2

    14. The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:
    1. Flexion deformity.
    2. Cubitus varus.
    3. Cubitus valgus.
    4. Extension deformity

    Ans. -2

    15. A 30 year old male resents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examination reveals pulse 88/ minute and B P – 160/110 mm of Hg. He also has digital gangrene involving right 2nd and 3rd finger, urine routine examination is unremarkable microscopic examination shows RBC’s hemogram and serum biochemistry is within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    1. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    2. Polyateritis nodosa
    3. Malignant Hypertension
    4. Churg-Strauss syndrome

    Ans. -2

    16. All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except:
    1. Steinmann’s pin.
    2. Kirschner’s wire
    3. Bohler’s stirrup
    4. Rush pin

    Ans. -4

    17. All of the following are complications of supracondylar fracture of humerus in children, except:
    1. Compartment syndrome.
    2. Myositis ossificans.
    3. Malunion.
    4. Non Union.

    Ans. -4

    18. The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
    1. Hill – Sach’s lesion.
    2. Bankart’s lesion
    3. Capsular laxity
    4. Supraspinatus tear

    Ans. -4

    19. All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
    1. Sarcomatous change
    2. Fracture
    3. Bursitis
    4. Degenerative changes

    Ans. -3

    20. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, except:
    1. Brachialis
    2. Pectineus
    3. Flexor digitorum superficialis
    4. Flexor diagitorum profundus.

    Ans. -*

    21. In general, the last muscke to be rendered akinetic with retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
    1. Superior rectus.
    2. Superior oblique
    3. Inferior oblique
    4. Levator palpebral superioris.

    Ans. -*

    22. Whichone of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is not true?
    1. It is generally unilateral
    2. Visual prognosis is usually good.
    3. It may calcify
    4. It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract.

    Ans. -*

    23. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization, is :
    1. Goniophotocoagulation
    2. Laser trabeculoplasty
    3. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
    4. Laser iridoplasty.

    Ans. -*

    24. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of endophathalmitis in cataract surgery?
    1. Preoperative preparation with povidone-iodine.
    2. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery.
    3. Trimming of eyelashes
    4. Basal cell carcinoma

    Ans. -2

    25. A receurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
    1. Squamous cell carcinoma.
    2. Sebaceous cell carcinoma.
    3. Malignant melanoma.
    4. Basal cell carcinoma.

    Ans. -3

    26. Amyloid deposits stain positively with all of the following except:
    1. Congo-red
    2. Crystal violet
    3. Methenamin silver
    4. Thioflavin T

    Ans. -3

    27. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
    1. Blood vessels.
    2. Connective tissue
    3. Aqueous and vitreous
    4. Zonules

    Ans. -*

    28. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
    1. Amyloid
    2. Calcium
    3. Monopolysaccharide
    4. Lipid

    Ans. -3

    29. Bitermporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic of :
    1. Glaucoma
    2. Optic neuritis
    3. Pituitary tumour
    4. Retinal detachment

    Ans. -2

    30. The afferent pathway for light papillary reflex is:
    1. Trigeminal nerve
    2. Optic nerve
    3. Abducent nerve
    4. Ciliary nerve

    Ans. -2

    31. ‘Fracture-ala signature’ is:
    1. Gutter fracture
    2. Depressed fracture
    3. Ring fracture
    4. Sutural separation

    Ans. -2

    32. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by poisoning due to :
    1. Hydrocyanic acid
    2. Hydrogen sulphide
    3. Oleander
    4. Sodium nitrite

    Ans. -1

    33. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in:
    1. 50 % glycerin
    2. 10 % formalin
    3. Rectified spirit
    4. Saturated solution of common salt

    Ans. -4

    34. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of :
    1. Eczema
    2. Scalds
    3. Scabies
    4. Leprosy

    Ans. -3

    35. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of age estimation is:
    1. Attrition
    2. Secondary dentin deposition
    3. Transparency of root
    4. Cementum apposition

    Ans. -1

    36. The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is:
    1. Rectum
    2. Axilla
    3. Mouth
    4. Groin

    Ans. -*

    37. Priapism occurs in
    1. Snakebite
    2. Ratti poisoning
    3. Cantharide poisoning
    4. Arsenic poisoning

    Ans. -4

    38. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia:
    1. Simple hyperplasia without atypia
    2. Simple hyperplasia with atypia
    3. Complex hyperplasia without atypia
    4. Complex hyperplasia with atypia

    Ans. -4

    39. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilation and Curettage (D & C) is done for the following condition:
    1. Medical termination of pregnancy.
    2. Missed abortion
    3. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
    4. Post partum haemorrhage

    Ans. -4

    40. With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?
    1. Hepatitis-A
    2. Hepatitis-B
    3. Hepatitis-C
    4. Hepatitis-E

    Ans. -1

    41. Which of the following is the best way of preventing development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post operative period?
    1. Early ambulation
    2. Physiotherapy
    3. Prophylactic heparin
    4. Los dose aspirin

    Ans. -3

    42. In the manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring which parameter is not included:
    1. Fetal tone
    2. Fetal gross body movements.
    3. Oxytocin challenge test
    4. Non stress test

    Ans. -2

    43. The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:
    1. Serous cystadenoma
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma
    3. Dysgerminoma
    4. Gonadoblastoma

    Ans. -2

    44. A 27-year primigrvida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg at 32 week of gestation with no other complications. Subsequently, her blood pressure is controlled on treatment. If there are no complications, the pregnancy should be best terminated at:
    1. 40 Completed weeks
    2. 37 Completed weeks
    3. 35 Completed weeks
    4. 34 Completed weeks

    Ans. -3

    45. A 13-year-old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen was seen. The most probable diagnosis is:
    1. Rockytansky Kuster Huser syndrome
    2. Testicular feminization syndrome
    3. Imperforate hymen
    4. Asherman’s syndrome

    Ans. -1

    46. In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest?
    1. Eisenmenger’s comlex
    2. Coarctation of aorta
    3. Mitral stenosis
    4. Aortic stenosis

    Ans. -2

    47. All of the following are the complications in the new born of the diabetic mother except:
    1. Hyper bilirubinemia
    2. Hyperglycemia
    3. Hypocalcemia
    4. Hypomagnesemia

    Ans. -4

    48. The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
    1. Biparietal diameter
    2. Suboccipito frontal diameter
    3. Occipito frontal diameter
    4. Bitemporal diameter

    Ans. -3

    49. A twenty year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice?
    1. Thiopentone
    2. Ketamine
    3. Propofol
    4. Diazepam

    Ans. -2

    50. Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?
    1. Bone
    2. Liver
    3. Spleen
    4. Lung

    Ans. -4

    51. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
    1. Absence of pain perception
    2. Complete lack of pain sensation.
    3. Unpleasant sensation with or without a stimulus
    4. Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain

    Ans. -3

    52. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
    1. Isoflurance.
    2. Sevoflurane.
    3. Desflurane.
    4. Nitrous oxide.

    Ans. -4

    53. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
    1. Mivacurium
    2. Vecuroniuum.
    3. Rapacuronium.
    4. Succinylcholine.

    Ans. -3

    54. Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
    1. Neonates
    2. Child of a diabetic mother
    3. History of unconsiciousness
    4. History of hypoglycemia

    Ans. -1

    55. Which one of the following brain tumors is highly vascular in nature?
    1. Glioblastoma.
    2. Meningiomas.
    3. C P angle epidermoid.
    4. Pituitory adenomas.

    Ans. -1

    56. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa?
    1. 3rd to 12th
    2. 4th to 12th
    3. 5th to 12th
    4. 6th to 12th

    Ans. -4

    57. All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
    1. Phenytoin.
    2. Diazepam.
    3. Thiopentone sodium.
    4. Carbamazepine.

    Ans. -3

    58. Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
    1. Hypertension.
    2. Bradycardia.
    3. Hypothermia.
    4. Irregular respiration.

    Ans. -4

    59. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:
    1. Hpercapnia.
    2. Hypoxaemia.
    3. Hypotension
    4. Hypothermia.

    Ans. -4

    60. Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    1. Decreasing the break down of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate.
    2. Preventing K efflux from the cell.
    3. Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor endplate.
    4. Depolarization of the motor endplate.

    Ans. -1

    61. All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except:
    1. Calcium gluconate.
    2. CO2 tension.
    3. Temperature.
    4. Betablockers.

    Ans. -4

    62. All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except:
    1. Calcium gluconate.
    2. Sodium bicarbonate.
    3. Intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin.
    4. Betablockers.

    Ans. -1

    63. A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed bilirubin of 10 mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT – 1100/1450, serum alkaline phosphatase – 240 IU. He was positive for HbsAg. What should be the confirmatory test to establish acute hepatitis B infection?
    1. IgM Anti-HBc antibody.
    2. HbeAg.
    3. HBV DNA by PCR.
    4. Anti-HBc antibody.

    Ans. -1

    64. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?
    1. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance.
    2. Coronary blood flow is inversely related to perfusion pressure and directly related to resistance.
    3. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and also to resistance.
    4. Coronary blood flow is directly related to both pressures and resistance.

    Ans. -*

    65. The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
    1. Hypotension.
    2. Hypertension.
    3. Hypocalcemia.
    4. Hypercalcemia rate.

    Ans. -4

    66. The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
    1. 50 – 75 ug/kg.
    2. 0.5 – 1.0 mg/kg.
    3. 2.0 – 3.5 mg/kg.
    4. 5 – 6 mg /kg.

    Ans. -1

    67. A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arterious. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of :
    1. Prostaglandin analogue.
    2. Estrogen.
    3. Anti-estrogen compounds.
    4. Prostaglandin inhibitors.

    Ans. -4

    68. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between:
    1. Maxillary processes.
    2. Medial nasal processes.
    3. Medial and lateral nasal process.
    4. Medial nasal and maxillary process.

    Ans. -4

    69. Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of:
    1. Dorsal sclerotome.
    2. Intermediate cell mass.
    3. Notochord.
    4. Ventral sclerotome.

    Ans. -1

    70. The defective migration of neural crest cell results in:
    1. Congential megacolon.
    2. Albinism.
    3. Adrenogenital hypoplasia.
    4. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.

    Ans. -3

    71. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    1. Pericardium.
    2. Mesocardium
    3. Myocardium
    4. Endocardium.

    Ans. -2

    72. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids and for 3 moths. The dysphagia was non-progressive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Carcinoma of the esophagus.
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.
    3. Achalasia cardia.
    4. Reflux esophagitis with esophageal stricture.

    Ans. -4

    73. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    1. Tensor tympani.
    2. Levator veli palatini.
    3. Tensor veli palatini.
    4. Stapedius.

    Ans. -3

    74. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results:
    Hb- 6.4 gm/dL; TLC – 26,500/mm3; prathromibine time – 20 sec with a control of 13 sec; portial thromboplastin time - 50 sec; and Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL. Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukernice.
    Which of the following is the most likely?
    1. Myeloblastic leukemia without maturation.
    2. Myeloblastic leukemia with maturation.
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia.
    4. Myelomonscytic leukemia.

    Ans. -1

    75. The sodium – potassium pump is an example of:
    1. Active transport.
    2. Passive transport.
    3. Facilitated diffusion.
    4. Osmosis.

    Ans. -3

    76. The type of enzyme inhibition (in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate) is an example of:
    1. Noncompetitive.
    2. Uncompetitive.
    3. Competitive.
    4. Allosteric.

    Ans. -2

    77. In a solution the concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] is 1 × 10-6 moles/litre. The pH of the solution will be:
    1. Three
    2. Six.
    3. Nine.
    4. Twelve.

    Ans. -3

    78. The electron flow in Cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
    1. Rotenone.
    2. Antimycin – A
    3. Cyanide.
    4. Actinomycin.

    Ans. -3

    79. Cholera toxin:
    1. Increases the levels of intracellular cyclic GMP
    2. Acts through the receptor for opiates
    3. Cause continued activations of adenylate cyclase.
    4. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase.

    Ans. -2

    80. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is:
    1. Lysine
    2. Homocysteine.
    3. Cysteine
    4. Alanine

    Ans. -4

    81. CA – 125 is a marker antigen for the diagnosis of:
    1. Colon cancer
    2. Brest cancer
    3. Brain cancer
    4. Ovarian cancer

    Ans. -3

    82. Which one of the following acts as seconds messenger?
    1. Mg++
    2. Cl-
    3. Ca++
    4. PO43-

    Ans. -2

    83. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine and 33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be:
    1. Single-stranded RNA
    2. Single-stranded DNA
    3. Double-stranded RNA
    4. Double-stranded DNA

    Ans. -4

    84. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.










    What it the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?
    1. Normal transcription, altered translation.
    2. Defective termination of transcription, normal translation.
    3. Normal transcription, defective mRNA splicing.
    4. Normal transcription, normal translation.

    Ans. -1

    85. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with p<0.001 but in reality the two drugs do not differ in their efficacy. This is an example of:
    1. Type-I error ( error)
    2. Type-II error ( error)
    3. 1-
    4. 1-

    Ans. -3

    86. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
    1. 1.
    2. 4.
    3. 9.
    4. 8.

    Ans. -3

    87. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. A single test is applied to each subject in the population in which the diseased population is 30%. What is the probability that a person, negative to this test, has no disease?
    1. Less than 50%
    2. 70%
    3. 95%
    4. 72%

    Ans. -4

    88. A physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the conditions of each one as ‘Normal’, ‘Mild’, ‘Moderate’ or ‘Severe’. Which one of the following is the scale of measurement that is being adopted for classification of the disease condition?
    1. Normal.
    2. Interval.
    3. Ratio.
    4. Ordinal.

    Ans. -2

    89. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then the standard deviation of this sample will be:-
    1. 2.8
    2. 0.
    3. 1
    4. 0.28

    Ans. -1

    90. Histogram is used to describe:
    1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.
    2. Qualitative data of a group of patients.
    3. Data collected on nominal scale
    4. Data collected on ordinal scale

    Ans. -1

    91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
    1. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization.
    2. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP.
    3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.
    4. Providing calipers for walking.

    Ans. -4

    92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
    1. Diarrhoea.
    2. Pneumonia.
    3. Otitis media.
    4. SSPE.

    Ans. -3

    93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
    1. Contact with infected placenta.
    2. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms.
    3. Person to person transmission.
    4. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol.

    Ans. -2

    94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
    1. It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life.
    2. It is a diagnostic test.
    3. It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease.
    4. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.

    Ans. -2

    95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water>
    1. Chlorometer.
    2. Horrock’s apparatus.
    3. Berkefeld filter.
    4. Double pot method.

    Ans. -2

    96. Lice are not the vectors of:
    1. Relapsing fever.
    2. Q fever.
    3. Trench fever.
    4. Epidemic typhus.

    Ans. -1

    97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know:
    1. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.
    2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.
    3. Incidence and prevalence of SLE.
    4. Relative risk of SLE in this patient.

    Ans. -4

    98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
    1. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyradiculoneuropathy..
    2. Porphyric neuropathy.
    3. Lead intoxication.
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    Ans. -3

    99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between tow countries. This is done because of the differences in:
    1. Causes of death
    2. Numerators.
    3. Age of distributions.
    4. Denominators.

    Ans. -*

    100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
    1. Keratoconjunctivits sicca.
    2. Lacrimal gland removal.
    3. Canalicular block.
    4. Herpetic keratitis.

    Ans. -4

    101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the management of this case?
    1. He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can be cure early tumours
    2. He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy & radiotherapy
    3. He shold first receive radiotherapy and if residuan tumour is present the should under go laryngectomy
    4. He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.

    Ans. -1

    102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
    1. Aspergillus spp.
    2. Histoplasma
    3. Conidiobolus coronatus
    4. candida albicans

    Ans. -2

    103. Which of the following is not typical feature of Menieres disease?
    1. Sensorineural deafness
    2. Pulsatile tinnitus
    3. Vertigo
    4. Fluctuating deafness

    Ans. -3

    104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?
    1. Caused by Pseudomonas aerugenosa
    2. Patients are usually old
    3. Mitiotic figures are high
    4. Patient is immune compromised

    Ans. -1

    105. A 30 year old woman with fiamily history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with bilateral tinnitus that bothers her at night. Pure tone audiometry shows conductive hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Otosclerosis
    2. Acoustic neuroma
    3. Otitis media with effusion
    4. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis

    Ans. -2

    106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
    1. Renal scarring usually begins in the midpolar regions.
    2. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections
    3. Long term outcome is comparable in patients treated with either antibiotic prophylaxis or surgery
    4. Oral amoxicillin is the choice antibiotic for prophylaxis

    Ans. -4

    107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull to percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis/
    1. Acute glomerulonephritis
    2. Urinary tract infection
    3. Posterior urethral valves
    4. Teratoma

    Ans. -*

    108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hio is characterized by all of the following, except:
    1. May follow upper respiratory infection.
    2. ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
    3. Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint spce.
    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation

    Ans. -1

    109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.
    2. Niemann Pick disease.
    3. Mucolipidosis
    4. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

    Ans. -4

    110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    2. Friedreich’s ataxia
    3. Type II glycogen storage disease
    4. Alkaptonuria

    Ans. -4

    111. All of the following are true of  thalassemia major except:
    1. Splenomegaly
    2. Target cells on peripheral smear
    3. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
    4. Increased osmotic fragility

    Ans. -4

    112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evalution (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
    1. Non penetrance
    2. Uniparental diasomy
    3. Genomic imprinting
    4. Germline mosaicism

    Ans. -4

    113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
    1. Gilbert’s syndrome
    2. Criggler Najjar syndrome
    3. Brest milk jaundice
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome

    Ans. -2

    114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
    1. Urine culture of CMV
    2. IgG CMV antibodies in hepatocytes
    3. Intra-nuclear inclusionbodies in hepatocytes
    4. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction

    Ans. -4

    115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
    1. Increasing transaminases
    2. Increasing Bilirubin
    3. Increasing prothrombin time
    4. Gram negative sepsis

    Ans. -3

    116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
    1. Anit-endomysial antibody
    2. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
    3. Anti-gliadin antibody
    4. Anti-reticulin antibody

    Ans. -4

    117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighboring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is:
    1. Takayasu arteritis.
    2. Giant cell arteritis
    3. Hypersensitivity angiitis
    4. Thromboangitis obliterans

    Ans. -1

    118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extra cellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of :
    1. on branching filaments of indefinitive length
    2. Cross banded fibres with 67 nm periodicity.
    3. Weber Palade bodies.
    4. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures

    Ans. -3

    119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the mtumour cell for cytokeratin. The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is:
    1. Sarcoma.
    2. Lymphoma.
    3. Carcinoma
    4. Malignant Melanoma

    Ans. -3

    120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in 30 year old female show a tumour composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No Call-Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include:
    1. Vementin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99
    2. Desmin, S- 100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin
    3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20
    4. CD 3, chromagranin, Cd 45, synaptophysin

    Ans. -1

    121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 moth history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no local swelling; tenderness was present on deep pressure. Plain X-rays showed an ill-defined intra medullary lesion with blotchy calcification at the lower end of the right femoral diaphysis, possibly enchondroma or chondrosarcoma. Sections showed a cartilaginous tumour. Which of the following histological features (if seen) would be helpful to differentiate the two tumours?
    1. Focal necrosis and lobulation
    2. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery.
    3. Extensive myxoid change
    4. High cellularity

    Ans. -2

    122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except:
    1. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    2. Fibrosarcoma
    3. Osteosarcoma
    4. Hyperparathyroidism

    Ans. -*

    123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
    1. 94% of cases are sporadic
    2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.
    3. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
    4. Presence of extraocular extension

    Ans. -*

    124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
    1. Presence of retinal detachment
    2. Size of the tumor
    3. Cytology of the tumor cells
    4. Presence of extraocular extension

    Ans. -3

    125. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait?
    1. Hb-F
    2. Hb-A1C
    3. Hb-A2
    4. Hb-H

    Ans. -4

    126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
    1. Fetal blood
    2. Amniotic fluid
    3. Chorionic villi.
    4. Maternal urine.

    Ans. -2

    127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
    1. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer
    2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans
    3. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder.
    4. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma

    Ans. -3

    128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
    1. Marfan’s syndrome
    2. Testicular feminization syndrome
    3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    4. Down’s syndrome

    Ans. -4

    129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
    1. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted
    2. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity
    3. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase.
    4. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.

    Ans. -3

    130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
    1. Organic dusts
    2. Inorganic dusts
    3. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide
    4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke

    Ans. -3

    131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:
    1. Acute myeloid leukemia
    2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    4. Myelodysplastic syndrome

    Ans. -2

    132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets. WBC count of 12 × 109/L, hemoglobin of 11g/dl and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The most likely diagnosis would be :
    1. Polycythemia vera
    2. Essential thrombocythemia
    3. Chronic myeloid leukemia
    4. Leukemoid reaction.

    Ans. -2

    133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following?
    1. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia
    2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.
    3. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma
    4. Malignant cells forming osteoid bone

    Ans. -2

    134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
    1. Hairy cell leukemia.
    2. Angiocentric lymphoma
    3. Mantle cell lymphoma
    4. Burkitt’s lymphoma

    Ans. -1

    135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
    1. Midullary carcinoma Thyroid.
    2. Astrocytoma
    3. Paraganglionoma
    4. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid

    Ans. -1

    136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
    1. Adenocarcinoma
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma
    3. Sarcoma
    4. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

    Ans. -*

    137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except:
    1. Cimetidine
    2. Phytonadione
    3. Amiodarone
    4. Phenylbutazone

    Ans. -4

    138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
    1. Sevoflurane
    2. Enflurance
    3. Isoflurane
    4. Halothane.

    Ans. -2

    139. The following anesthetic drug cause pain on intravenous administration :
    1. Midazolam
    2. Propofol
    3. Ketamine
    4. Thiopentone sodium

    Ans. -4

    140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
    1. Thiopentone
    2. Propofol
    3. Midazolam
    4. Ketamine

    Ans. -*

    141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
    1. Cisplatin
    2. Streptozotocin
    3. Methysergide
    4. Cyclophosphamide

    Ans. -1

    142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of
    1. Tyrosine kinase
    2. Glutathione reductase
    3. Thymidile synthetase
    4. Protein kinase

    Ans. -2

    143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
    1. Tamoxifen
    2. Letrozole
    3. Danazol
    4. Taxane

    Ans. -*

    144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
    1. Vinblastine
    2. Etoposide
    3. Cisplatin
    4. Bleomycin

    Ans. -4

    145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used
    1. For stabilizing systemic heamodynamics
    2. In case of jaundice
    3. To prevent CNS complication
    4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension

    Ans. -1

    146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
    1. Chest wall rigidly
    2. Tachycardia
    3. Pain in abdomen
    4. Hypertension

    Ans. -1

    147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
    1. Pain
    2. Vibration
    3. Touch
    4. Pressure

    Ans. -3

    148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
    1. EEG desynchronization
    2. Rapid eye movements
    3. Decreased muscle tone
    4. Penile erection

    Ans. -2

    149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
    1. Seminal vesicle
    2. Prostate
    3. Epididymis
    4. Vas

    Ans. -2

    150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are presents on :
    1. Theca cells
    2. Granulosa cells
    3. Leydig cells
    4. Basement membrane of ovarian follicle

    Ans. -2

    151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
    1. 3-5 days
    2. 7-9 days
    3. 10-12 days
    4. 13-15 days

    Ans. -1

    152. hCG is secreted by :
    1. Trophoblast cells.
    2. Amniotic membrane
    3. Fetal yalk sac
    4. Hypothalamus

    Ans. -3

    153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increase the:
    1. Gonadotophin secretion.
    2. LDL-cholesterol
    3. Bone mass
    4. Muscle mass

    Ans. -4

    154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
    1. Enhanced by progesterone
    2. Enhanced by oestrogen
    3. Inhibited by oestrogen
    4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone

    Ans. -2

    155. In those mammasl which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is termed as:
    1. Follicular
    2. Estrous
    3. Menstrual
    4. Luteal

    Ans. -1

    156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, stiffness and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for last 20 minutes before presenting to casualty. This improved within a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine HCl. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Acute Dystonia
    2. Akathisia
    3. Tardive Dyskinesia
    4. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

    Ans. -2

    157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased Creatinine Phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is :
    1. Drug overdose
    2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    3. Drug induced Parkinsonism
    4. Tardive Dyskinesia

    Ans. -*

    158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
    1. Overlay of contours
    2. Motion parallax
    3. Bi-nasal disparity
    4. Linear perspective

    Ans. -4

    159. A middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with complains of fear of leaving home, fear of traveling alone and fear of being in a crowd. He develops marked anxiety with palpitations and swelling if he is in these situations. He often avoids public transport to go his place of work. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Generalised anxiety disorder
    2. Schizophrenia
    3. Personality disorder
    4. Agoraphobia

    Ans. -1

    160. HIAA is a metabolite of :
    1. Serotonin
    2. Dopamine
    3. Epinephrine
    4. Histamine

    Ans. -*

    161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
    1. In active disease, calcification is commonly seen.
    2. Lymphadenopathy is not seen
    3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged
    4. Adrenal insufficiency is uncommon

    Ans. -3

    162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions except:
    1. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
    2. TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulomonary venous connection)
    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
    4. Ventricular septal defect

    Ans. -2

    163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Meningioma
    2. Glioma
    3. Schwannoma
    4. Pituitary adenoma

    Ans. -3

    164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
    1. Well defined lesion
    2. A mass of decreased density
    3. Areas of speculated microcalcifications
    4. Smooth borders

    Ans. -2

    165. On MRI in the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
    1. Myelodysplasia
    2. Myelomalacia
    3. Myelochisis
    4. Cord tumors

    Ans. -2

    166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 × 109/L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient’s blasts would most likely demonstrate:
    1. No surface antigens (null phenotype)
    2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
    3. Myeloid markers, such as CD 13 CD 33 and CD 15
    4. B cell markers, such as CD 19 CD 20 & CD 22

    Ans. -*

    167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mmHg, PR is 80/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
    1. Systolic dysfunction CHF
    2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity
    3. Metastatic cardiac disease
    4. Pneumonia

    Ans. -1

    168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four months. The nodule is pearly white with central necrosis, teleangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis would be:
    1. Basal cell carcinoma
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma
    3. Atypical melanoma
    4. Kaposis sarcoma

    Ans. -3

    169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and blood streaked sputum. He was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also has drooping of his left eyelid for one month. On physical examination, there is ptosis of the left eye and papillary miosis. Chest X-ray revealed round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    1. Secondary tuberculosis
    2. Adenocarcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma
    4. Asbestosis

    Ans. -2

    170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of an aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Chondroblastoma
    2. Ewing’s sarcoma
    3. Neuroblastoma
    4. Osteosarcoma

    Ans. -2

    171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
    1. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
    2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
    3. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
    4. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.

    Ans. -2

    172. In which of the following condition acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
    1. Fissure in-ano
    2. Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
    3. Absence of sympathetic ganglion cells
    4. Rectal malignancy

    Ans. -1

    173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
    1. Can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology.
    2. Always unifocal
    3. Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes
    4. Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours.

    Ans. -2

    174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
    1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.
    2. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
    3. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct
    4. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the

    Ans. -1

    175. Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
    1. Pigment stones are due to increased excretion of conjugated Bilirubin
    2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma
    3. 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque
    4. A mucocele of the gallbladder is caused by a stone impacted in Hartmann’s pouch

    Ans. -1

    176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
    1. Is found on the anti-mesenteric border of the small intestine
    2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat
    3. Heterotopic gastric mucosa can ulcerate and cause a brisk gastrointestinal bleed
    4. A fibrous band between the apex and umbilicus can cause intestinal obstruction

    Ans. -2

    177. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm:
    1. Crystalline lens
    2. Sclera
    3. Corneal epithelium
    4. Epithelium of lacrimal glands

    Ans. -2

    178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend for her?
    1. Needle biopsy
    2. Trucut biopsy
    3. Excision biopsy
    4. Incisional biopsy

    Ans. -3

    179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarintherapy for duration of three years. Recently, she has developed bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?
    1. Protamine injection
    2. Vit K injection
    3. Infusion of fibrinogen
    4. Whole blood transfusion

    Ans. -*

    180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome, except:
    1. Basal acid output of 15 meq/hour
    2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml
    3. Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of esophagus
    4. Serum gastrin value of 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation

    Ans. -2

    181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
    1. Man is the only reservoir of infection
    2. Flea is a vector of the disease
    3. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation
    4. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality

    Ans. -2

    182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of -haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
    1. Bacitracin
    2. Novobiocin
    3. Optochin
    4. Oxacillin

    Ans. -4

    183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikachin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is:
    1. Staphylococcus aurenus
    2. Viridans streptococci
    3. Enterococcus faecalis
    4. Coagulase negative Staphlococcus

    Ans. 3?
    184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of :
    1. 10:1
    2. 100:1
    3. 1000:1
    4. 10,000:1

    Ans. 3?
    185. With reference to Bacteroides fragills the following statements are true, except:
    1. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
    2. B. fragills is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
    3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
    4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides
    bacteremia

    Ans. -*

    186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
    1. It is a zoonosis
    2. Man is the dead end host
    3. Man is an accidental host
    4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection

    Ans. ?
    187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    2. Salmonella typhi
    3. Brucella sp.
    4. Salmonella paratyphi A.

    Ans. 1
    188. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. typhi is:
    1. One bacillus
    2. 108 – 1010 bacilli
    3. 102 - 105 bacilli
    4. 1 – 10 bacilli

    Ans. 4?
    189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is :
    1. Carrier status in animals
    2. Carrier status in man
    3. An environmental reservoir
    4. Continuous transmission in man

    Ans. -*

    190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease:
    1. Escherichia coli
    2. Klebsiella sp.
    3. Vibrio cholerae
    4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Ans. -*

    191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
    1. Unregulated firing of individual muscle fibres
    2. Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials
    3. Presence of positive sharp waves
    4. Sopontaneous firing of motor units

    Ans. -2

    192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning
    2. Complete remission is common
    3. Response to anticonvulsants poor
    4. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients

    Ans. -1

    193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    1. Gabapentin
    2. Oxcarbazepine
    3. Topiramate
    4. Valproic acid

    Ans. -3

    194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most likely ingested position is:
    1. Barium carbonate
    2. Superwarfarins
    3. Zinc phosphide
    4. Aluminium phosphide

    Ans. -1

    195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
    1. S1Q3T3 pattern
    2. P pulmonale
    3. Sinus tachycardia
    4. Right axis deviation

    Ans. -4

    196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best optionof treatment is :
    1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine
    2. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling
    3. A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling.
    4. Cyclosporine

    Ans. -2

    197. An 18 years old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnisis is :
    1. Poliomyelitis
    2. Botulism
    3. Diphtheria
    4. Porphyria

    Ans. -2

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except :
    1. Hypokalemia
    2. Hypocalcemia
    3. Hyponatremia
    4. Hypophosphatemia

    Ans. -3

    199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following :
    1. Hepatic encephalopathy
    2. Uremic encephalopathy
    3. Hypoxic encephalopathy
    4. Hypercarbic encephalopathy

    Ans. -1

    200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergence department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematocheza. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient?
    1. Factor X.
    2. Factor XI.
    3. Factor XII.
    4. Factor XIII.

    Ans. -4
  19. Hamitabh

    Hamitabh Guest

    . The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in:
    2. Soybean oil.

    2. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness ……….
    4. 1.0%

    3. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
    4. Per capita income.

    4. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except:
    1. Measles.

    5. Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect:
    4. True negatives.

    6. Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
    1. The phase of activity and growth.

    7. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
    1. Early relapsing syphilis.

    8. Max Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
    2. Lichen planus.

    9. Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:
    2. scabies .

    10. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodosum
    leprosum (ENL) reaction, is:
    3. Tumor necrosis factor - alpha.

    11. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
    3. cyclosporine

    12. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:
    1. Lepramin test.

    13.. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
    2. Patch test.

    14. The malunion of supracondylar FRACTURE of the humerus most commonly leads to:
    2. Cubitus varus.

    15. A 30 year old male presents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examination reveals ….
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.

    16. All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except:
    4. Rush pin.

    17. All of the following are complications of supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus in children, except:
    4. Non Union.

    18. The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
    4. Supraspinatus tear.

    19. All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
    4. Degenerative changes.

    20. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, except:
    3. Flexor digitorum superficialis.

    21. In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
    2. Superior oblique.

    22. Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV), is not true?
    2. visual prognosis is usually good

    23. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization, is:
    3. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP).

    24. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
    1. Preoperative preparation with povidone-iodine.

    25. A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
    2. Sebaceous cell carcinoma.

    26. Amyloid deposits stain positively with all of the following, except:
    3. Methenamine silver.

    27. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
    3. Aqueous and vitreous.

    28. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
    2. Calcium.

    29. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic
    3. Pituitary tumour.

    30. The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex is:
    2. Optic nerve.

    31. FRACTURE -ala signature’ is:
    2. Depressed FRACTURE .

    32. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by …..
    2. Hydrogen sulphide.

    33. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in
    1. 50% glycerine.

    34. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of:
    4. Leprosy.

    35. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson method of age estimation is:
    3. Transparency of root.

    36. The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is:
    l. Rectum.

    37. Priapism occurs in:
    3. Cantharide poisoning.

    38. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia:
    4. Complex hyperplasia with atypia.

    39. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) is done for …….
    2. missed abortion

    40. With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?
    4. Hepatitis-E.

    41. Which of the following is the best way of preventing development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) …….
    1. Early ambulation.

    42. In the Manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring which parameter is not included:
    3. Oxytocin challenge test.

    43. The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma.

    44. A 27-year primigravida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of …….
    2. 37 completed weeks.

    45. A 13-year-old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history ……
    3. Imperforate hymen.

    46. In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest?
    1. Eisenmenger’s complex.

    47. All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except:
    2. Hyperglycemia.

    48. The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
    4. Bitemporal diameter.

    49. A twenty year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy …….
    3. Propofol.

    50. Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the
    fetus before midpregnancy?
    2. liver .

    51. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
    4. Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain

    52. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
    3. Desflurane.

    53. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
    4. Succinylcholine.

    54. Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
    3. History of unconsciousness

    55. Which one of the following brain tumors is highly vascular in nature?
    1. Glioblastoma.

    56. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa?
    1. 3rd to 12th

    57. All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
    4. Carbamazepine.

    58. Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
    3. Hypothermia.

    59. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:
    4. Hypothermia.

    60. Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    3. Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor endplate.

    61. All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except:
    1. Chloride ion concentration.

    62. All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except:
    4. Betablockers.

    63. A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests ……………
    1. IgM Anti-HBc antibody.

    64. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?
    1. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance.

    65. The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
    1. Hypotension

    66. The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
    4. 5 - 6 mg/kg.

    67. A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by …….
    4. Prostaglandin inhibitors.

    68. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between:
    2. Medial nasal processes.

    69. Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of:
    4. Ventral sclerotome.

    70. The defective migration of neural crest cells results in:
    1. Congenital megacolon.

    71. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    3. Myocardium.

    72. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids …………
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.

    73. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    4. Stapedius.

    74. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric …..
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia.

    75. The sodium - potassium pump is an example of:
    1. Active transport.

    76. The type of enzyme inhibition (in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate)…
    3. Competitive.

    77. In a solution the concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] is 1 x 106 moles/litre. The pH of the solution will be:
    2. Six.

    78. The electron flow in Cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
    3. Cyanide.

    79. Cholera toxin:
    3. Causes continued activation of adenylate cyclase.

    80. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is:
    2. Homocysteine.

    81. CA- 125 is a marker antigen for the diagnosis of:
    4. Ovarian cancer.

    82. Which one of the following acts as second messenger?
    3. Ca++

    83. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine …………….
    4. Double stranded DNA.

    84. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.

    What is the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?

    4. Normal transcription, normal translation.

    85. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with…….
    1. Type-I error (alpha error).

    86. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
    3. 9.

    87. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. ……………………
    3. 95%.

    88. A Physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the condition of each ……..
    4. Ordinal.

    89. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then …………..
    2. 0.

    90. Histogram is used to describe:
    1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.

    91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
    3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.

    92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
    4. SSPE.

    93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
    3. Person to person transmission.

    94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
    2. It is a diagnostic test.

    95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water?
    2. Horrock’s apparatus.

    96. Lice are not the vectors of:
    2. Q fever.

    97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have ………...
    2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.


    98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done ………………
    3. Age distributions.

    100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
    1. keratoconjunctivitis sicca


    101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, ……….
    3. first radiotherapy then laryngectomy for residual disease

    102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
    1. Aspergillus spp.

    103. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Menieres disease?
    2. Pulsatile tinnitus.

    104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant OTITIS externa?
    3. Mitotic figures are high.

    105. A 30 year old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing ………
    1. Otosclerosis.

    106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
    3. long term outcome is comparable

    107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a ………….
    3. posterior urethral valve

    108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:
    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation.

    109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.

    110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    4. Alkaptonuria.

    111. All of the following are true of thalassemia major, except:
    4. Increased osmotic fragility.

    112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory ………
    4. Germline mosaicism.

    113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome.

    114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
    2. IgG CMV antibodies in blood.

    115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
    3. Increasing prothrombin time.

    116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
    1. Anti-endomysial antibody.

    117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left ………
    4. Thromboangitis obliterans.

    118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular …………
    1. Non branching filaments of in definitive length.

    119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic ……….
    3. Carcinoma.

    120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in a 30 year old female show a tumour composed of ……….
    2. Desmin, S-100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin.


    121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 month history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no ……
    2. Tumour permeation between bone trabeculae at periphery.

    122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the ……
    2. Fibrosarcoma.

    123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
    4. Reese-Ellsworth classification is useful in predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy.

    124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
    1. Presence of retinal detachment.

    125. Which of the following haemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait?
    3. Hb-A2

    126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
    4. Maternal urine.

    127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
    2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans.

    ?128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
    3. Klinefelter’ s syndrome.

    129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
    4. In general follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.

    130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
    4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke.

    131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:
    3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.

    ?132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 x 10 with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of ……
    2. Essential thrombocythemia.

    ?133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic FRACTURE of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a ………
    2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.

    134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
    2. Angiocentric lymphoma.

    135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
    1. Medullary carcinoma Thyroid.

    ?136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
    1. Adenocarcinoma.

    137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of
    the following except:
    2. Phytonadione.

    138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
    4. Halothane.

    139. The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration:
    2. Propofol.

    140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
    4. Ketamine.

    141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
    1. Cisplatin.

    142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of:
    1. Tyrosine kinase.

    143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
    2. Letrozole.

    144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
    3. Cisplatin.

    145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used:
    4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension.

    146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
    1. Chest wall rigidly

    147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
    1. Pain.

    148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
    3. Decreased muscle tone.

    149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
    2. Prostate.

    150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are present on:
    2. Granulosa cells.

    151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
    2. 7-9 days.

    152. hCG is secreted by:
    1. Trophoblast cells.

    153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increases the:
    3. Bone mass.

    154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
    4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone.

    ?155. In those mammals which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is …….
    2. Estrous.

    156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an …………..
    1. Acute Dystonia.

    157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, ……
    2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
    3. bi-nasal disparity.

    159. A Middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with the complaints of fear of leaving home, fear ………
    4. Agoraphobia.

    160. HIAA is a metabolite of
    1. Serotonin.

    161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
    3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged.

    162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.

    163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural ………..
    1. Meningioma.

    164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
    3. Areas of spiculated microcalcifications.

    165. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
    2. Myelomalacia.

    166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 x 10 with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. ………..
    2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive).

    167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple ………..
    2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity.

    168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four …………..
    4. KAPOSI SARCOMA
    169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and …………..
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma.

    170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible FRACTURE . ……………..
    2. Ewing’s sarcoma.

    171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
    2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion.

    172. In which of the following conditions acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
    4. Rectal malignancy.

    173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
    2. Always unifocal.

    174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
    1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.

    175. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
    2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma.

    176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
    2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat.

    177. The following ocular structure in not derived from surface ectoderm:
    2. Sclera.

    178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her ……
    3. Excision biopsy.

    179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin therapy for a duration of three …….
    2. Vit K injection.

    180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ………
    4. serum gastrin value 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation

    181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
    2. Flea is a vector of the disease.

    182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the. ……….
    3. Optochin.

    183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on …………
    3. Enterococcus faecalis.

    184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of:
    4. 10000:1

    185. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:
    4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia.

    186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
    4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection.

    187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    188. SALMONELLA typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is:
    2. 108 - 1010 bacilli.

    189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is:
    3. An environmental reservoir.

    190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis …….
    3. Vibrio cholerae.

    191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
    2 Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials.

    192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning.

    193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    3. Topiramate.

    194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where ………
    1. Barium carbonate.

    195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
    3. Sinus tachycardia.

    196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. ……
    1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine.

    197. An 18 year old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is ……..
    2. Botulism.

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except:
    2. Hypocalcemia.

    199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following:
    1. Hepatic encephalopathy.

    200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergency department with history of recurrent epistaxis, ………
    4. Factor XIII.
  20. dipti

    dipti Guest

    prevention of dvt

    1st early ambulation


    2nd heparin 5000 unitsor enoxaparin 20mg/24hr sc 4 7 days starting 32 hr preop or dalteparin

    3rd support hosiery
    4th intermiteent pneumatic pressure until 16hr post op
    5th aspirin 4 3wk gives extra help

    the answer to Q 169 is adnocarcinoma... squamous cell carcinoma ossurs at hilum.. not at apex..
    Q 175.. yaar i think gall stones r risk factors for gall bladder carcinoma.. i think the answer shud be that 10% of gall stones r opaque..
    Q 180..the answer is ULCERS IN THE JEJUNUM AND LOWER END OF ESOPHAGUS..( reference is CMDT) ZES presents with ulcers in duodenum..

    The drug associated with secondary leukemia is ETOPOSIDE. (reference page 476 HARRISON 16TH)

    cranial nerves in posterior fossa are 3rd -12th

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except:
    2. Hypocalcemia.
    what abt the answerto the question..."a lady having symptomsof CHF after having treatment 4 breast cancer..and having had drugs like doxorubicin?" shouldtnt the answer be systolic dysfunction with chf.......coz doxorubicin causes dilated cardiomyopathy...and that would lead to systolic dysfunction?The 2 choice could also be the ans.. but i am more i favour of the first choice..somebody clarify?
    cleft lip due 2 defective fusin of median nasal with maxillary process
  21. dipti

    dipti Guest

    furthur corrected ans for may 06 exam

    1. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in:
    2. Soybean oil.

    2. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness ……….
    4. 1.0%

    3. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
    4. Per capita income.

    4. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except:
    1. Measles.

    5. Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect:
    4. True negatives.

    6. Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
    1. The phase of activity and growth.

    7. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
    1. Early relapsing syphilis.

    8. Max Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
    2. Lichen planus.

    9. Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:
    2. scabies .

    10. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodosum
    leprosum (ENL) reaction, is:
    3. Tumor necrosis factor - alpha.

    11. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
    3. cyclosporine

    12. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:
    1. Lepramin test.

    13.. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
    2. Patch test.

    14. The malunion of supracondylar FRACTURE of the humerus most commonly leads to:
    2. Cubitus varus.

    15. A 30 year old male presents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examination reveals ….
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.

    16. All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except:
    4. Rush pin.

    17. All of the following are complications of supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus in children, except:
    4. Non Union.

    18. The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
    4. Supraspinatus tear.

    19. All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
    4. Degenerative changes.

    20. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, except:
    3. Flexor digitorum superficialis.

    21. In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
    2. Superior oblique.

    22. Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV), is not true?
    2. visual prognosis is usually good

    23. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization, is:
    3. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP).

    24. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
    1. Preoperative preparation with povidone-iodine.

    25. A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
    2. Sebaceous cell carcinoma.

    26. Amyloid deposits stain positively with all of the following, except:
    3. Methenamine silver.

    27. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
    3. Aqueous and vitreous.

    28. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
    2. Calcium.

    29. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic
    3. Pituitary tumour.

    30. The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex is:
    2. Optic nerve.

    31. FRACTURE -ala signature’ is:
    2. Depressed FRACTURE .

    32. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by …..
    2. Hydrogen sulphide.

    33. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in
    1. 50% glycerine.

    34. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of:
    4. Leprosy.

    35. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson method of age estimation is:
    3. Transparency of root.

    36. The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is:
    l. Rectum.

    37. Priapism occurs in:
    3. Cantharide poisoning.

    38. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia:
    4. Complex hyperplasia with atypia.

    39. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) is done for …….
    2. missed abortion (M NOT SURE ON THIS ONE)
    40. With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?
    4. Hepatitis-E.

    41. Which of the following is the best way of preventing development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) …….
    1. Early ambulation.

    42. In the Manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring which parameter is not included:
    3. Oxytocin challenge test.

    43. The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma.

    44. A 27-year primigravida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of …….
    2. 37 completed weeks.

    45. A 13-year-old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history ……
    3. Imperforate hymen.

    46. In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest?
    1. Eisenmenger’s complex.

    47. All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except:
    2. Hyperglycemia.

    48. The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
    4. Bitemporal diameter.

    49. A twenty year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy …….
    3. Propofol.

    50. Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the
    fetus before midpregnancy?
    2. liver .

    51. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
    4. Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain

    52. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
    3. Desflurane.

    53. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
    4. Succinylcholine.

    54. Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
    3. History of unconsciousness (IN ALCOHOLIC GLUCOSE WITHOUT THIAMINE WUD BE FATAL)
    55. Which one of the following brain tumors is highly vascular in nature?
    1. Glioblastoma.

    56. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa?
    1. 3rd to 12th
    57. All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
    4. Carbamazepine.

    58. Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
    3. Hypothermia.

    59. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:
    4. Hypothermia.

    60. Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    3. Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor endplate.

    61. All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except:
    1. Chloride ion concentration.

    62. All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except:
    4. Betablockers.

    63. A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests ……………
    1. IgM Anti-HBc antibody.

    64. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?
    1. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance.

    65. The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
    1. Hypotension

    66. The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
    4. 5 - 6 mg/kg.

    67. A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by …….
    4. Prostaglandin inhibitors.

    68. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between:
    2. Medial nasal processes.( M SURE ON THIS ONE..I.B. SINGH EMBRYO..Y THE DOUBT)

    69. Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of:
    4. Ventral sclerotome.

    70. The defective migration of neural crest cells results in:
    1. Congenital megacolon.

    71. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    3. Myocardium.

    72. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids …………
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.

    73. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    4. Stapedius.

    74. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric …..
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia.

    75. The sodium - potassium pump is an example of:
    1. Active transport.

    76. The type of enzyme inhibition (in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate)…
    3. Competitive.

    77. In a solution the concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] is 1 x 106 moles/litre. The pH of the solution will be:
    2. Six.

    78. The electron flow in Cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
    3. Cyanide.

    79. Cholera toxin:
    3. Causes continued activation of adenylate cyclase.

    80. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is:
    2. Homocysteine.

    81. CA- 125 is a marker antigen for the diagnosis of:
    4. Ovarian cancer.

    82. Which one of the following acts as second messenger?
    3. Ca++

    83. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine …………….
    4. Double stranded DNA. (CAHRGAFF RULE A+G = T+C)

    84. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.

    What is the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?

    4. Normal transcription, normal translation.

    85. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with…….
    1. Type-I error (alpha error).

    86. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
    3. 9.

    87. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. ……………………
    3. 95%.

    88. A Physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the condition of each ……..
    4. Ordinal.

    89. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then …………..
    2. 0.

    90. Histogram is used to describe:
    1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.

    91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
    3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.

    92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
    4. SSPE.

    93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
    3. Person to person transmission.

    94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
    2. It is a diagnostic test.

    95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water?
    2. Horrock’s apparatus.

    96. Lice are not the vectors of:
    2. Q fever.

    97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have ………...
    2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.


    98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done ………………
    3. Age distributions.

    100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
    4. HERPETIC KERATITIS( KERATOCONJUCTIVITIS CAUSES AQEOUS DEF. DRY eye )

    101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, ……….
    3. first radiotherapy then laryngectomy for residual disease

    102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
    1. Aspergillus spp.

    103. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Menieres disease?
    2. Pulsatile tinnitus.

    104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant OTITIS externa?
    3. Mitotic figures are high.( MALIGNANT IS A MISNOMER..ITS NO MALIGNANCY)

    105. A 30 year old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing ………
    1. Otosclerosis.

    106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
    3. long term outcome is comparable

    107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a ………….
    3. posterior urethral valve

    108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:
    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation.

    109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.

    110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    4. Alkaptonuria.

    111. All of the following are true of thalassemia major, except:
    4. Increased osmotic fragility.

    112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory ………
    4. Germline mosaicism.

    113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome.

    114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
    2. IgG CMV antibodies in blood.

    115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
    3. Increasing prothrombin time.

    116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
    1. Anti-endomysial antibody.

    117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left ………
    4. Thromboangitis obliterans.

    118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular …………
    1. Non branching filaments of in definitive length. (AMYLOIDOSIS)

    119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic ……….
    3. Carcinoma.

    120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in a 30 year old female show a tumour composed of ……….
    2. Desmin, S-100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin.


    121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 month history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no ……
    2. Tumour permeation between bone trabeculae at periphery.

    122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the ……
    2. Fibrosarcoma.

    123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
    4. Reese-Ellsworth classification is useful in predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy.

    124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
    1. Presence of retinal detachment.

    125. Which of the following haemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait?
    3. Hb-A2

    126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
    4. Maternal urine.

    127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
    2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans.

    ?128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
    3. Klinefelter’ s syndrome.

    129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
    4. In general follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.

    130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
    4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke.

    131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:
    3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.

    ?132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 x 10 with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of ……
    2. Essential thrombocythemia.

    ?133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic FRACTURE of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a ………
    2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.

    134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
    2. Angiocentric lymphoma.

    135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
    1. Medullary carcinoma Thyroid.

    ?136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
    1. Adenocarcinoma.

    137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of
    the following except:
    2. Phytonadione.

    138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
    4. Halothane.

    139. The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration:
    2. Propofol.

    140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
    4. Ketamine.

    141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
    1. Cisplatin.

    142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of:
    1. Tyrosine kinase.

    143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
    2. Letrozole.

    144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
    3. Cisplatin. (CUD BE ETOPOSIDE...NOT SURE)

    145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used:
    4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension.

    146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
    1. Chest wall rigidly

    147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
    1. Pain.

    148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
    3. Decreased muscle tone.

    149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
    2. Prostate.

    150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are present on:
    2. Granulosa cells.

    151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
    2. 7-9 days.

    152. hCG is secreted by:
    1. Trophoblast cells.

    153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increases the:
    3. Bone mass.

    154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
    4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone.

    ?155. In those mammals which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is …….
    2. Estrous.

    156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an …………..
    1. Acute Dystonia.

    157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, ……
    2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
    3. bi-nasal disparity.

    159. A Middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with the complaints of fear of leaving home, fear ………
    4. Agoraphobia.

    160. HIAA is a metabolite of
    1. Serotonin.

    161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
    3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged.

    162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.

    163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural ………..
    1. Meningioma.

    164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
    3. Areas of spiculated microcalcifications.

    165. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
    2. Myelomalacia.

    166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 x 10 with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. ………..
    2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive).

    167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple ………..
    2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity. ( Y DOUBT ON TAT..ADRIAMYCIN IS CARDIOTOXIC)

    168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four …………..
    1. Basal cell carcinoma.

    169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and …………..
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma.

    170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible FRACTURE . ……………..
    2. Ewing’s sarcoma.

    171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
    2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion.

    172. In which of the following conditions acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
    4. Rectal malignancy.

    173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
    2. Always unifocal.

    174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
    1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.

    175. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
    2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma.

    176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
    2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat.

    177. The following ocular structure in not derived from surface ectoderm:
    2. Sclera.

    178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her ……
    3. Excision biopsy.

    179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin therapy for a duration of three …….
    2. Vit K injection.

    180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ………
    4. serum gastrin value 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation

    181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
    2. Flea is a vector of the disease.

    182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the. ……….
    3. Optochin.

    183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on …………
    3. Enterococcus faecalis.

    184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of:
    4. 10000:1
    185. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:
    4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia.

    186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
    4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection.

    187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

    188. SALMONELLA typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is:
    2. 10^8 - 10^10 bacilli.

    189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is:
    3. An environmental reservoir.

    190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis …….
    3. Vibrio cholerae.

    191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
    2 Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials.(NOT SURE ON TAT..CUD BE SHARP POSITIVE WAVES
    192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning.

    193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    3. Topiramate.

    194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where ………
    1. Barium carbonate.

    195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
    3. Sinus tachycardia.

    196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. ……
    1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine.

    197. An 18 year old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is ……..
    2. Botulism.

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except:
    2. Hypocalcemia.

    199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following:
    1. Hepatic encephalopathy.

    200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergency department with history of recurrent epistaxis, ………
    4. Factor XIII.
  22. linus

    linus Guest

    my marks

    hye , even i think that the may 06 paper seems easy but i s tough .

    iam getting 150 marks .what would be my rank. can any one say.
  23. nadhum

    nadhum Guest

    1. The type of enzyme inhibition (in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate)…
    3. Competitive.

    2. In a solution the concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] is 1 x 106 moles/litre. The pH of the solution will be:
    2. Six.

    3. The electron flow in Cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
    3. Cyanide.

    4. Cholera toxin:
    3. Causes continued activation of adenylate cyclase.

    5. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is:
    2. Homocysteine.

    6. CA- 125 is a marker antigen for the diagnosis of:
    4. Ovarian cancer.

    7. Which one of the following acts as second messenger?
    3. Ca++

    8. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine …………….
    4. Double stranded DNA.

    9. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.

    What is the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?
    1. Normal transcription, altered translation.
    2. Defective termination of transcription, normal translation.
    3. Normal transcription, defective mRNA splicing.
    4. Normal transcription, normal translation.

    10. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with…….
    1. Type-I error ( error).

    11. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
    3. 9.

    12. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. ……………………
    3. 95%.
    13. A Physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the condition of each ……..
    4. Ordinal.

    14. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then …………..
    2. 0.

    15. Histogram is used to describe:
    1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.

    16. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
    3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.

    17. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
    4. SSPE.

    18. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
    3. Person to person transmission.

    19. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
    2. It is a diagnostic test.

    20. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water?
    2. Horrock’s apparatus.

    21. Lice are not the vectors of:
    2. Q fever.

    22. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have ………...
    1. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.
    2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.
    3. Incidence and prevalence of SLE.
    4. Relative risk of SLE in this patient.

    23. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    24. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done ………………
    3. Age distributions.

    25. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
    4. Herpetic keratitis.

    26. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in:
    2. Soybean oil.

    27. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness ……….
    4. 1.0%

    28. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
    4. Per capita income.

    29. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except:
    1. Measles.

    30. Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect:
    4. True negatives.

    31. Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
    1. The phase of activity and growth.

    32. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
    1. Early relapsing syphilis.

    33. Max Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
    2. Lichen planus.

    34. Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:
    2. scabies .

    35. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodosum
    leprosum (ENL) reaction, is:
    3. Tumor necrosis factor - alpha.

    36. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
    1. Chloroquin.

    37. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:
    1. Lepramin test.

    38. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
    2. Patch test.

    39. The malunion of supracondylar FRACTURE of the humerus most commonly leads to:
    2. Cubitus varus.

    40. A 30 year old male presents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examination reveals ….
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa.

    41. All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except:
    4. Rush pin.

    42. All of the following are complications of supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus in children, except:
    4. Non Union.

    43. The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
    4. Supraspinatus tear.

    44. All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
    4. Degenerative changes.

    45. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, except:
    3. Flexor digitorum superficialis.

    46. In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
    2. Superior oblique.

    47. Which one of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV), is not true?
    2. Visual prognosis is usually good.

    48. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization, is:
    3. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP).

    49. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?
    1. Preoperative preparation with povidone-iodine.

    50. A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
    2. Sebaceous cell carcinoma.

    51. Amyloid deposits stain positively with all of the following, except:
    3. Methenamine silver.

    52. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
    3. Aqueous and vitreous.

    53. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
    2. Calcium.

    54. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic
    3. Pituitary tumour.

    55. The afferent pathway for light pupillary reflex is:
    2. Optic nerve.

    56. FRACTURE -ala signature’ is:
    2. Depressed FRACTURE .

    57. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by …..
    2. Hydrogen sulphide.

    58. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in
    1. 50% glycerine.
    59. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of:
    4. Leprosy.

    60. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson method of age estimation is:
    3. Transparency of root.

    61. The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is:
    l. Rectum.

    62. Priapism occurs in:
    3. Cantharide poisoning.

    63. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia:
    4. Complex hyperplasia with atypia.

    64. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilatation and Curettage (D&C) is done for …….
    1. Medical termination of pregnancy.

    65. With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?
    4. Hepatitis-E.

    66. Which of the following is the best way of preventing development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) …….
    1. Early ambulation.

    67. In the Manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring which parameter is not included:
    3. Oxytocin challenge test.

    68. The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma.

    69. A 27-year primigravida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of …….
    2. 37 completed weeks.

    70. A 13-year-old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history ……
    3. Imperforate hymen.

    71. In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest?
    1. Eisenmenger’s complex.

    72. All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except:
    2. Hyperglycemia.

    73. The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
    4. Bitemporal diameter.

    74. A twenty year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy …….
    3. Propofol.

    75. Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the
    fetus before midpregnancy?
    2. liver .

    76. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
    4. Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain

    77. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
    3. Desflurane.

    78. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
    4. Succinylcholine.

    79. Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
    3. History of unconsciousness

    80. Which one of the following brain tumors is highly vascular in nature?
    1. Glioblastoma.

    81. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa?
    1. 3rd to 12th

    82. All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
    4. Carbamazepine.

    83. Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
    3. Hypothermia.

    84. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:
    4. Hypothermia.

    85. Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    3. Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor endplate.

    86. All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except:
    1. Chloride ion concentration.

    87. All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except:
    4. Betablockers.

    88. A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests ……………
    1. IgM Anti-HBc antibody.

    89. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?
    1. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance.

    90. The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
    1. Hypotension

    91. The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
    4. 5 - 6 mg/kg.

    92. A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by …….
    4. Prostaglandin inhibitors.

    93. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between:
    2. Medial nasal processes.

    94. Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of:
    4. Ventral sclerotome.

    95. The defective migration of neural crest cells results in:
    1. Congenital megacolon.

    96. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    3. Myocardium.

    97. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids …………
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.

    98. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    4. Stapedius.

    99. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric …..
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia.

    100. The sodium - potassium pump is an example of:
    1. Active transport.

    101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, ……….
    4. He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.

    102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
    1. Aspergillus spp.

    103. Which of the following is not a typical feature of Menieres disease?
    2. Pulsatile tinnitus.

    104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant OTITIS externa?
    3. Mitotic figures are high.

    105. A 30 year old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing ………
    1. Otosclerosis.

    106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
    2. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections.

    107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a ………….
    2. Urinary tract infection.

    108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:
    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation.

    109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.

    110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    4. Alkaptonuria.

    111. All of the following are true of thalassemia major, except:
    4. Increased osmotic fragility.

    112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory ………
    4. Germline mosaicism.

    113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome.

    114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
    2. IgG CMV antibodies in blood.

    115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
    3. Increasing prothrombin time.

    116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
    1. Anti-endomysial antibody.

    117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left ………
    4. Thromboangitis obliterans.

    118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular …………
    1. Non branching filaments of in definitive length.

    119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic ……….
    3. Carcinoma.

    120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in a 30 year old female show a tumour composed of ……….
    1. Vimentin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99.
    2. Desmin, S-100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin.
    3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20.
    4. CD 3, chromagranin, CD 45, synaptophysin.

    121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 month history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no ……
    2. Tumour permeation between bone trabeculae at periphery.

    122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the ……
    2. Fibrosarcoma.

    123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
    1. 94% of cases are sporadic.
    2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.
    3. Calcification in the tumor can be detected on ultrasound scan.
    4. Reese-Ellsworth classification is useful in predicting visual prognosis following radiotherapy.

    124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
    1. Presence of retinal detachment.

    125. Which of the following haemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait?
    3. Hb-A

    126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
    4. Maternal urine.

    127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
    2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans.

    128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
    3. Klinefelter’ s syndrome.

    129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
    4. In general follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.
    130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
    4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke.

    131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:
    3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia.

    132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 x 10 with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of ……
    2. Essential thrombocythemia.

    133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic FRACTURE of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a ………
    2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.

    134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
    2. Angiocentric lymphoma.

    135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
    1. Medullary carcinoma Thyroid.

    136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
    1. Adenocarcinoma.

    137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of
    the following except:
    2. Phytonadione.

    138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
    4. Halothane.

    139. The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration:
    2. Propofol.

    140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
    4. Ketamine.
    141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
    1. Cisplatin.

    142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of:
    1. Tyrosine kinase.

    143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
    2. Letrozole.

    144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
    3. Cisplatin.

    145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used:
    4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension.

    146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
    1. Chest wall rigidly

    147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
    1. Pain.

    148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
    3. Decreased muscle tone.

    149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
    2. Prostate.

    150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are present on:
    2. Granulosa cells.

    151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
    2. 7-9 days.

    152. hCG is secreted by:
    1. Trophoblast cells.

    153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increases the:
    3. Bone mass.

    154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
    4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone.

    155. In those mammals which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is …….
    2. Estrous.

    156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an …………..
    1. Acute Dystonia.

    157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, ……
    2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
    3. B1-nasal disparity.

    159. A Middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with the complaints of fear of leaving home, fear ………
    4. Agoraphobia.

    160. HIAA is a metabolite of
    1. Serotonin.
    161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
    3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged.

    162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.

    163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural ………..
    1. Meningioma.

    164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
    3. Areas of spiculated microcalcifications.

    165. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
    2. Myelomalacia.

    166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 x 10 with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. ………..
    2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive).

    167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple ………..
    2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity.

    168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four …………..
    1. Basal cell carcinoma.

    169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and …………..
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma.

    170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible FRACTURE . ……………..
    2. Ewing’s sarcoma.

    171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
    2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion.

    172. In which of the following conditions acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
    4. Rectal malignancy.

    173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
    2. Always unifocal.

    174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
    1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.

    175. Which one of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
    2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma.

    176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
    2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat.

    177. The following ocular structure in not derived from surface ectoderm:
    2. Sclera.

    178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her ……
    3. Excision biopsy.

    179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarin therapy for a duration of three …….
    2. Vit K injection.

    180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ………
    2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml.

    181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
    2. Flea is a vector of the disease.

    182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the. ……….
    4. Oxacillin.

    183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on …………
    3. Enterococcus faecalis.

    184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of:
    3. 1000:1

    185. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, except:
    4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia.

    186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
    4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection.

    187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    3. 102 105.

    188. SALMONELLA typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective dose of S. typhi is:
    2. 108 - 1010 bacilli.

    189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is:
    3. An environmental reservoir.

    190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis …….
    3. Vibrio cholerae.

    191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
    2 Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials.

    192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning.

    193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    3. Topiramate.

    194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where ………
    1. Barium carbonate.

    195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
    3. Sinus tachycardia.

    196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. ……
    1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine.

    197. An 18 year old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is ……..
    2. Botulism.

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except:
    2. Hypocalcemia.
  24. Tripta

    Tripta Guest

    Paper May, 2006
    1. The highest percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids are present in:
    1. Groundnut oil.
    2. Soybean oil.
    3. Margarine.
    4. Palm oil.

    Ans. -2

    2. Vitamin A deficiency is considered a public health problem if prevalence rate of night blindness in children between 6 months to 6 years is more than:
    1. 0.01%
    2. 0.05%
    3. 0.1%
    4. 1.0%

    Ans. -4

    3. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except:
    1. Infant mortality rate
    2. Life expectancy at age one
    3. Literacy rate
    4. Per capita income

    Ans. -4

    4. In all of the following diseases chronic carries are found except:
    1. Measles
    2. Typhoid.
    3. Hepatitis B
    4. Gonorrhoea

    Ans. -1

    5. Specificity of screening test is the ability of test to detect:
    1. True positives
    2. False positives
    3. False Negatives
    4. True Negatives

    Ans. -1

    6. Anagen phase of the hair indicates:
    1. The phase of activity and growth
    2. The phase of transition
    3. The phase of resting
    4. The phase of degeneration.

    Ans. -1

    7. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of:
    1. Early relapsing syphilis
    2. Late syphilis
    3. Chancroid
    4. Recurrent herpes simplex infection

    Ans. -1

    8. Max Joseph’s space is a histopathological feature of:
    1. PSORIASIS vulgaris.
    2. Lichen planus
    3. Pityriasis rosea
    4. Parapsoriasis

    Ans. -2

    9. Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:
    1. Syphilis
    2. scabies
    3. Tuberculosis
    4. Dermatophytosis

    Ans. -2

    10. The main cytokine, involved in erythema onodosum leprosum (ENL) reaction, is:
    1. Interleukin-2
    2. Interferon – gamma.
    3. Tumor necrosis factor – alpha.
    4. Macrophage colony stimulating factor

    Ans. -3

    11. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:
    1. Chloroquin
    2. Thalidomide
    3. Cyclosporine
    4. Corticosteroids

    Ans. -1

    12. The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:
    1. Lepramin test
    2. Slit SKIN smear
    3. Fine needle aspiration cytology.
    4. SKIN biopsy.

    Ans. -1

    13. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
    1. SKIN biopsy
    2. Patch test
    3. Prick test
    4. Estimation of serum IgE levels

    Ans. -2

    14. The malunion of supracondylar FRACTURE of the humerus most commonly leads to:
    1. Flexion deformity.
    2. Cubitus varus.
    3. Cubitus valgus.
    4. Extension deformity

    Ans. -2

    15. A 30 year old male resents with numbness of both lower limbs and right upper limb. Examination reveals pulse 88/ minute and B P – 160/110 mm of Hg. He also has digital gangrene involving right 2nd and 3rd finger, urine routine examination is unremarkable microscopic examination shows RBC’s hemogram and serum Biochemistry is within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    1. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus
    2. Polyateritis nodosa
    3. Malignant Hypertension
    4. Churg-Strauss syndrome

    Ans. -2

    16. All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except:
    1. Steinmann’s pin.
    2. Kirschner’s wire
    3. Bohler’s stirrup
    4. Rush pin

    Ans. -4

    17. All of the following are complications of supracondylar FRACTURE of humerus in children, except:
    1. Compartment syndrome.
    2. Myositis ossificans.
    3. Malunion.
    4. Non Union.

    Ans. -4

    18. The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except:
    1. Hill – Sach’s lesion.
    2. Bankart’s lesion
    3. Capsular laxity
    4. Supraspinatus tear

    Ans. -4

    19. All of the following are the causes of sudden increase in pain in osteochondroma, except:
    1. Sarcomatous change
    2. FRACTURE
    3. Bursitis
    4. Degenerative changes

    Ans. -4

    20. All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply, except:
    1. Brachialis
    2. Pectineus
    3. Flexor digitorum superficialis
    4. Flexor diagitorum profundus.

    Ans. -3

    21. In general, the last muscke to be rendered akinetic with retrobulbar anesthetic block is:
    1. Superior rectus.
    2. Superior oblique
    3. Inferior oblique
    4. Levator palpebral superioris.

    Ans. -*

    22. Whichone of the following statements, concerning persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous (PHPV) is not true?
    1. It is generally unilateral
    2. Visual prognosis is usually good.
    3. It may calcify
    4. It is most easily differentiated from retinoblastoma by the presence of exophthalmos or cataract.

    Ans. -*

    23. The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization, is :
    1. Goniophotocoagulation
    2. Laser trabeculoplasty
    3. Panretinal photocoagulation (PRP)
    4. Laser iridoplasty.

    Ans. -*

    24. Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of endophathalmitis in cataract surgery?
    1. Preoperative preparation with povidone-iodine.
    2. One week antibiotic therapy prior to surgery.
    3. Trimming of eyelashes
    4. Basal cell carcinoma

    Ans. -*

    25. A receurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evaluation to exclude the possibility of:
    1. Squamous cell carcinoma.
    2. Sebaceous cell carcinoma.
    3. Malignant melanoma.
    4. Basal cell carcinoma.

    Ans. -2

    26. Amyloid deposits stain positively with all of the following except:
    1. Congo-red
    2. Crystal violet
    3. Methenamin silver
    4. Thioflavin T

    Ans. -3

    27. The crystalline lens derives its nourishment from:
    1. Blood vessels.
    2. Connective tissue
    3. Aqueous and vitreous
    4. Zonules

    Ans. -3

    28. Band shaped keratopathy is caused by:
    1. Amyloid
    2. Calcium
    3. Monopolysaccharide
    4. Lipid

    Ans. -*

    29. Bitermporal hemianopic field defect is characteristic of :
    1. Glaucoma
    2. Optic neuritis
    3. Pituitary tumour
    4. Retinal detachment

    Ans. -3

    30. The afferent pathway for light papillary reflex is:
    1. Trigeminal nerve
    2. Optic nerve
    3. Abducent nerve
    4. Ciliary nerve

    Ans. -2

    31. ‘FRACTURE -ala signature’ is:
    1. Gutter FRACTURE
    2. Depressed FRACTURE
    3. Ring FRACTURE
    4. Sutural separation

    Ans. -2

    32. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green colour. The most likely cause of death is by poisoning due to :
    1. Hydrocyanic acid
    2. Hydrogen sulphide
    3. Oleander
    4. Sodium nitrite

    Ans. -2

    33. When a surgeon wants to send the autopsy specimen for virological examination, it should be preserved in:
    1. 50 % glycerin
    2. 10 % formalin
    3. Rectified spirit
    4. Saturated solution of common salt

    Ans. -1

    34. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in cases of :
    1. Eczema
    2. Scalds
    3. scabies
    4. Leprosy

    Ans. -4

    35. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of age estimation is:
    1. Attrition
    2. Secondary dentin deposition
    3. Transparency of root
    4. Cementum apposition

    Ans. -3

    36. The ideal place to record body temperature in dead body is:
    1. Rectum
    2. Axilla
    3. Mouth
    4. Groin

    Ans. -1

    37. Priapism occurs in
    1. Snakebite
    2. Ratti poisoning
    3. Cantharide poisoning
    4. Arsenic poisoning

    Ans. -*

    38. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is the highest with the following histological pattern of endometrial hyperplasia:
    1. Simple hyperplasia without atypia
    2. Simple hyperplasia with atypia
    3. Complex hyperplasia without atypia
    4. Complex hyperplasia with atypia

    Ans. -4

    39. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the highest if Dilation and Curettage (D & C) is done for the following condition:
    1. Medical termination of pregnancy.
    2. Missed abortion
    3. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
    4. Post partum haemorrhage

    Ans. -4

    40. With which of the following types of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality is the highest?
    1. Hepatitis-A
    2. Hepatitis-B
    3. Hepatitis-C
    4. Hepatitis-E

    Ans. -4

    41. Which of the following is the best way of preventing development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in post operative period?
    1. Early ambulation
    2. Physiotherapy
    3. Prophylactic heparin
    4. Los dose aspirin

    Ans. -1

    42. In the manning scoring system of biophysical profile for fetal monitoring which parameter is not included:
    1. Fetal tone
    2. Fetal gross body movements.
    3. Oxytocin challenge test
    4. Non stress test

    Ans. -3

    43. The pseudomyxoma peritonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:
    1. Serous cystadenoma
    2. Mucinous cystadenoma
    3. Dysgerminoma
    4. Gonadoblastoma

    Ans. -2

    44. A 27-year primigrvida presents with pregnancy induced hypertension with blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg at 32 week of gestation with no other complications. Subsequently, her blood pressure is controlled on treatment. If there are no complications, the pregnancy should be best terminated at:
    1. 40 Completed weeks
    2. 37 Completed weeks
    3. 35 Completed weeks
    4. 34 Completed weeks

    Ans. -2

    45. A 13-year-old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen was seen. The most probable diagnosis is:
    1. Rockytansky Kuster Huser syndrome
    2. Testicular feminization syndrome
    3. Imperforate hymen
    4. Asherman’s syndrome

    Ans. -3

    46. In which of the following heart diseases maternal mortality is found to be highest?
    1. Eisenmenger’s comlex
    2. Coarctation of aorta
    3. Mitral stenosis
    4. Aortic stenosis

    Ans. -1

    47. All of the following are the complications in the new born of the diabetic mother except:
    1. Hyper bilirubinemia
    2. Hyperglycemia
    3. Hypocalcemia
    4. Hypomagnesemia

    Ans. -2

    48. The shortest diameter in fetal head is:
    1. Biparietal diameter
    2. Suboccipito frontal diameter
    3. Occipito frontal diameter
    4. Bitemporal diameter

    Ans. -4

    49. A twenty year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice?
    1. Thiopentone
    2. Ketamine
    3. Propofol
    4. Diazepam

    Ans. -3

    50. Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?
    1. Bone
    2. liver
    3. spleen
    4. Lung

    Ans. -2

    51. Which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management?
    1. Absence of pain perception
    2. Complete lack of pain sensation.
    3. Unpleasant sensation with or without a stimulus
    4. Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain

    Ans. -4

    52. Which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient?
    1. Isoflurance.
    2. Sevoflurane.
    3. Desflurane.
    4. Nitrous oxide.

    Ans. -3

    53. Which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action?
    1. Mivacurium
    2. Vecuroniuum.
    3. Rapacuronium.
    4. Succinylcholine.

    Ans. -4

    54. Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
    1. Neonates
    2. Child of a diabetic mother
    3. History of unconsiciousness
    4. History of hypoglycemia

    Ans. -3

    55. Which one of the following brain tumors is highly vascular in nature?
    1. Glioblastoma.
    2. Meningiomas.
    3. C P angle epidermoid.
    4. Pituitory adenomas.

    Ans. -1

    56. Which of the following cranial nerves present in the posterior fossa?
    1. 3rd to 12th
    2. 4th to 12th
    3. 5th to 12th
    4. 6th to 12th

    Ans. -1

    57. All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
    1. Phenytoin.
    2. Diazepam.
    3. Thiopentone sodium.
    4. Carbamazepine.

    Ans. -4

    58. Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
    1. Hypertension.
    2. Bradycardia.
    3. Hypothermia.
    4. Irregular respiration.

    Ans. -3

    59. The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:
    1. Hpercapnia.
    2. Hypoxaemia.
    3. Hypotension
    4. Hypothermia.

    Ans. -4

    60. Neostigmine antagonizes nondepolarizing blockade by all of the following mechanisms, except:
    1. Decreasing the break down of Acetylcholine at the motor end plate.
    2. Preventing K efflux from the cell.
    3. Increasing the release of Acetylcholine at the motor endplate.
    4. Depolarization of the motor endplate.

    Ans. -4

    61. All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except:
    1. Calcium gluconate.
    2. CO2 tension.
    3. Temperature.
    4. Betablockers.

    Ans. -1

    62. All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except:
    1. Calcium gluconate.
    2. Sodium bicarbonate.
    3. Intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin.
    4. Betablockers.

    Ans. -4

    63. A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed bilirubin of 10 mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT – 1100/1450, serum alkaline phosphatase – 240 IU. He was positive for HbsAg. What should be the confirmatory test to establish acute hepatitis B infection?
    1. IgM Anti-HBc antibody.
    2. HbeAg.
    3. HBV DNA by PCR.
    4. Anti-HBc antibody.

    Ans. -1

    64. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?
    1. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance.
    2. Coronary blood flow is inversely related to perfusion pressure and directly related to resistance.
    3. Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and also to resistance.
    4. Coronary blood flow is directly related to both pressures and resistance.

    Ans. -1

    65. The most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibition is:
    1. Hypotension.
    2. Hypertension.
    3. Hypocalcemia.
    4. Hypercalcemia rate.

    Ans. -*

    66. The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
    1. 50 – 75 ug/kg.
    2. 0.5 – 1.0 mg/kg.
    3. 2.0 – 3.5 mg/kg.
    4. 5 – 6 mg /kg.

    Ans. -4

    67. A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arterious. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of :
    1. Prostaglandin analogue.
    2. Estrogen.
    3. Anti-estrogen compounds.
    4. Prostaglandin inhibitors.

    Ans. -1

    68. A midline cleft lip is due to the failure of fusion between:
    1. Maxillary processes.
    2. Medial nasal processes.
    3. Medial and lateral nasal process.
    4. Medial nasal and maxillary process.

    Ans. -4

    69. Lumbar hemivertebra results due to the abnormal development of:
    1. Dorsal sclerotome.
    2. Intermediate cell mass.
    3. Notochord.
    4. Ventral sclerotome.

    Ans. -4

    70. The defective migration of neural crest cell results in:
    1. Congential megacolon.
    2. Albinism.
    3. Adrenogenital hypoplasia.
    4. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.

    Ans. -1

    71. The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:
    1. Pericardium.
    2. Mesocardium
    3. Myocardium
    4. Endocardium.

    Ans. -3

    72. A 40 year old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids and for 3 moths. The dysphagia was non-progressive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Carcinoma of the esophagus.
    2. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring.
    3. Achalasia cardia.
    4. Reflux esophagitis with esophageal stricture.

    Ans. -2

    73. Hyperacusis in Bell’s palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
    1. Tensor tympani.
    2. Levator veli palatini.
    3. Tensor veli palatini.
    4. Stapedius.

    Ans. -4

    74. A 15 year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results:
    Hb- 6.4 gm/dL; TLC – 26,500/mm3; prathromibine time – 20 sec with a control of 13 sec; portial thromboplastin time - 50 sec; and Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL. Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukernice.
    Which of the following is the most likely?
    1. Myeloblastic leukemia without maturation.
    2. Myeloblastic leukemia with maturation.
    3. Promyelocytic leukemia.
    4. Myelomonscytic leukemia.

    Ans. -3

    75. The sodium – potassium pump is an example of:
    1. Active transport.
    2. Passive transport.
    3. Facilitated diffusion.
    4. Osmosis.

    Ans. -1

    76. The type of enzyme inhibition (in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate) is an example of:
    1. Noncompetitive.
    2. Uncompetitive.
    3. Competitive.
    4. Allosteric.

    Ans. -3

    77. In a solution the concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] is 1 × 10-6 moles/litre. The pH of the solution will be:
    1. Three
    2. Six.
    3. Nine.
    4. Twelve.

    Ans. -2

    78. The electron flow in Cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
    1. Rotenone.
    2. Antimycin – A
    3. Cyanide.
    4. Actinomycin.

    Ans. -3

    79. Cholera toxin:
    1. Increases the levels of intracellular cyclic GMP
    2. Acts through the receptor for opiates
    3. Cause continued activations of adenylate cyclase.
    4. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase.

    Ans. -3

    80. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis is:
    1. Lysine
    2. Homocysteine.
    3. Cysteine
    4. Alanine

    Ans. -2

    81. CA – 125 is a marker antigen for the diagnosis of:
    1. Colon cancer
    2. Brest cancer
    3. brain cancer
    4. Ovarian cancer

    Ans. -4

    82. Which one of the following acts as seconds messenger?
    1. Mg++
    2. Cl-
    3. Ca++
    4. PO43-

    Ans. -3

    83. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine and 33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be:
    1. Single-stranded RNA
    2. Single-stranded DNA
    3. Double-stranded RNA
    4. Double-stranded DNA

    Ans. -2

    84. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.


    PROMOTER REGION POLYPETIDE CODING REGION




    INTRON

    Direction of Transcription


    What it the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?
    1. Normal transcription, altered translation.
    2. Defective termination of transcription, normal translation.
    3. Normal transcription, defective mRNA splicing.
    4. Normal transcription, normal translation.

    Ans. -4

    85. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with p<0.001 but in reality the two drugs do not differ in their efficacy. This is an example of:
    1. Type-I error ( error)
    2. Type-II error ( error)
    3. 1-
    4. 1-

    Ans. -1

    86. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
    1. 1.
    2. 4.
    3. 9.
    4. 8.

    Ans. -3

    87. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. A single test is applied to each subject in the population in which the diseased population is 30%. What is the probability that a person, negative to this test, has no disease?
    1. Less than 50%
    2. 70%
    3. 95%
    4. 72%

    Ans. -3

    88. A physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the conditions of each one as ‘Normal’, ‘Mild’, ‘Moderate’ or ‘Severe’. Which one of the following is the scale of measurement that is being adopted for classification of the disease condition?
    1. Normal.
    2. Interval.
    3. Ratio.
    4. Ordinal.

    Ans. -4

    89. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then the standard deviation of this sample will be:-
    1. 2.8
    2. 0.
    3. 1
    4. 0.28

    Ans. -2

    90. Histogram is used to describe:
    1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.
    2. Qualitative data of a group of patients.
    3. Data collected on nominal scale
    4. Data collected on ordinal scale

    Ans. -1

    91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
    1. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization.
    2. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP.
    3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.
    4. Providing calipers for walking.

    Ans. -4

    92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
    1. Diarrhoea.
    2. Pneumonia.
    3. OTITIS media.
    4. SSPE.

    Ans. -4

    93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
    1. Contact with infected placenta.
    2. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms.
    3. Person to person transmission.
    4. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol.

    Ans. -3

    94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
    1. It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life.
    2. It is a diagnostic test.
    3. It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease.
    4. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.

    Ans. -2

    95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water>
    1. Chlorometer.
    2. Horrock’s apparatus.
    3. Berkefeld filter.
    4. Double pot method.

    Ans. -2

    96. Lice are not the vectors of:
    1. Relapsing fever.
    2. Q fever.
    3. Trench fever.
    4. Epidemic typhus.

    Ans. -2

    97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know:
    1. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.
    2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.
    3. Incidence and prevalence of SLE.
    4. Relative risk of SLE in this patient.

    Ans. -1

    98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
    1. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyradiculoneuropathy..
    2. Porphyric neuropathy.
    3. Lead intoxication.
    4. Arsenic intoxication.

    Ans. -4

    99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between tow countries. This is done because of the differences in:
    1. Causes of death
    2. Numerators.
    3. Age of distributions.
    4. Denominators.

    Ans. -3

    100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
    1. Keratoconjunctivits sicca.
    2. Lacrimal gland removal.
    3. Canalicular block.
    4. Herpetic keratitis.

    Ans. -*

    101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the management of this case?
    1. He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can be cure early tumours
    2. He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy & radiotherapy
    3. He shold first receive radiotherapy and if residuan tumour is present the should under go laryngectomy
    4. He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.

    Ans. -4

    102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
    1. Aspergillus spp.
    2. Histoplasma
    3. Conidiobolus coronatus
    4. candida albicans

    Ans. -1

    103. Which of the following is not typical feature of Menieres disease?
    1. Sensorineural deafness
    2. Pulsatile tinnitus
    3. Vertigo
    4. Fluctuating deafness

    Ans. -2

    104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant OTITIS externa?
    1. Caused by Pseudomonas aerugenosa
    2. Patients are usually old
    3. Mitiotic figures are high
    4. Patient is immune compromised

    Ans. -3

    105. A 30 year old woman with fiamily history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with bilateral tinnitus that bothers her at night. Pure tone audiometry shows conductive hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Otosclerosis
    2. Acoustic neuroma
    3. OTITIS media with effusion
    4. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis

    Ans. -1

    106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
    1. Renal scarring usually begins in the midpolar regions.
    2. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections
    3. Long term outcome is comparable in patients treated with either antibiotic prophylaxis or surgery
    4. Oral amoxicillin is the choice antibiotic for prophylaxis

    Ans. -2

    107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull to percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis/
    1. Acute glomerulonephritis
    2. Urinary tract infection
    3. Posterior urethral valves
    4. Teratoma

    Ans. -4

    108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hio is characterized by all of the following, except:
    1. May follow upper respiratory infection.
    2. ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
    3. Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint spce.
    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation

    Ans. -*

    109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
    1. Gaucher disease.
    2. Niemann Pick disease.
    3. Mucolipidosis
    4. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

    Ans. -1

    110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
    1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    2. Friedreich’s ataxia
    3. Type II glycogen storage disease
    4. Alkaptonuria

    Ans. -4

    111. All of the following are true of  thalassemia major except:
    1. Splenomegaly
    2. Target cells on peripheral smear
    3. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
    4. Increased osmotic fragility

    Ans. -4

    112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evalution (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
    1. Non penetrance
    2. Uniparental diasomy
    3. Genomic imprinting
    4. Germline mosaicism

    Ans. -4

    113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
    1. Gilbert’s syndrome
    2. Criggler Najjar syndrome
    3. Brest milk jaundice
    4. Dubin Johnson syndrome

    Ans. -4

    114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
    1. Urine culture of CMV
    2. IgG CMV antibodies in hepatocytes
    3. Intra-nuclear inclusionbodies in hepatocytes
    4. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction

    Ans. -2

    115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
    1. Increasing transaminases
    2. Increasing Bilirubin
    3. Increasing prothrombin time
    4. Gram negative sepsis

    Ans. -4

    116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
    1. Anit-endomysial antibody
    2. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
    3. Anti-gliadin antibody
    4. Anti-reticulin antibody

    Ans. -3

    117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighboring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is:
    1. Takayasu arteritis.
    2. Giant cell arteritis
    3. Hypersensitivity angiitis
    4. Thromboangitis obliterans

    Ans. -4

    118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extra cellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of :
    1. on branching filaments of indefinitive length
    2. Cross banded fibres with 67 nm periodicity.
    3. Weber Palade bodies.
    4. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures

    Ans. -1

    119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the mtumour cell for cytokeratin. The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is:
    1. Sarcoma.
    2. Lymphoma.
    3. Carcinoma
    4. Malignant Melanoma

    Ans. -3

    120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in 30 year old female show a tumour composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No Call-Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include:
    1. Vementin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99
    2. Desmin, S- 100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin
    3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20
    4. CD 3, chromagranin, Cd 45, synaptophysin

    Ans. -3

    121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 moth history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no local swelling; tenderness was present on deep pressure. Plain X-rays showed an ill-defined intra medullary lesion with blotchy calcification at the lower end of the right femoral diaphysis, possibly enchondroma or chondrosarcoma. Sections showed a cartilaginous tumour. Which of the following histological features (if seen) would be helpful to differentiate the two tumours?
    1. Focal necrosis and lobulation
    2. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery.
    3. Extensive myxoid change
    4. High cellularity

    Ans. -1

    122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except:
    1. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    2. Fibrosarcoma
    3. Osteosarcoma
    4. Hyperparathyroidism

    Ans. -2

    123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
    1. 94% of cases are sporadic
    2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.
    3. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
    4. Presence of extraocular extension

    Ans. -*

    124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
    1. Presence of retinal detachment
    2. Size of the tumor
    3. Cytology of the tumor cells
    4. Presence of extraocular extension

    Ans. -*

    125. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait?
    1. Hb-F
    2. Hb-A1C
    3. Hb-A2
    4. Hb-H

    Ans. -3

    126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
    1. Fetal blood
    2. Amniotic fluid
    3. Chorionic villi.
    4. Maternal urine.

    Ans. -4

    127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
    1. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer
    2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans
    3. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder.
    4. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma

    Ans. -2

    128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
    1. Marfan’s syndrome
    2. Testicular feminization syndrome
    3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
    4. Down’s syndrome

    Ans. -3

    129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
    1. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted
    2. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity
    3. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase.
    4. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.

    Ans. -4

    130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
    1. Organic dusts
    2. Inorganic dusts
    3. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide
    4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke

    Ans. -3

    131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of:
    1. Acute myeloid leukemia
    2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
    3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
    4. Myelodysplastic syndrome

    Ans. -3

    132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets. WBC count of 12 × 109/L, hemoglobin of 11g/dl and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The most likely diagnosis would be :
    1. Polycythemia vera
    2. Essential thrombocythemia
    3. Chronic myeloid leukemia
    4. Leukemoid reaction.

    Ans. -2

    133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic FRACTURE of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from FRACTURE site is most likely to show which of the following?
    1. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia
    2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.
    3. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma
    4. Malignant cells forming osteoid bone

    Ans. -2

    134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
    1. Hairy cell leukemia.
    2. Angiocentric lymphoma
    3. Mantle cell lymphoma
    4. Burkitt’s lymphoma

    Ans. -2

    135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
    1. Midullary carcinoma Thyroid.
    2. Astrocytoma
    3. Paraganglionoma
    4. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid

    Ans. -1

    136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
    1. Adenocarcinoma
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma
    3. Sarcoma
    4. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor

    Ans. -1

    137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except:
    1. Cimetidine
    2. Phytonadione
    3. Amiodarone
    4. Phenylbutazone

    Ans. -*

    138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
    1. Sevoflurane
    2. Enflurance
    3. Isoflurane
    4. Halothane.

    Ans. -4

    139. The following anesthetic drug cause pain on intravenous administration :
    1. Midazolam
    2. Propofol
    3. Ketamine
    4. Thiopentone sodium

    Ans. -2

    140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
    1. Thiopentone
    2. Propofol
    3. Midazolam
    4. Ketamine

    Ans. -4

    141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
    1. Cisplatin
    2. Streptozotocin
    3. Methysergide
    4. Cyclophosphamide

    Ans. -*

    142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of
    1. Tyrosine kinase
    2. Glutathione reductase
    3. Thymidile synthetase
    4. Protein kinase

    Ans. -1

    143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
    1. Tamoxifen
    2. Letrozole
    3. Danazol
    4. Taxane

    Ans. -2

    144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
    1. Vinblastine
    2. Etoposide
    3. Cisplatin
    4. Bleomycin

    Ans. -*

    145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used
    1. For stabilizing systemic heamodynamics
    2. In case of jaundice
    3. To prevent CNS complication
    4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension

    Ans. -4

    146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
    1. Chest wall rigidly
    2. Tachycardia
    3. Pain in abdomen
    4. Hypertension

    Ans. -1

    147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
    1. Pain
    2. Vibration
    3. Touch
    4. Pressure

    Ans. -1

    148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
    1. EEG desynchronization
    2. Rapid eye movements
    3. Decreased muscle tone
    4. Penile erection

    Ans. -3

    149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
    1. Seminal vesicle
    2. Prostate
    3. Epididymis
    4. Vas

    Ans. -2

    150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are presents on :
    1. Theca cells
    2. Granulosa cells
    3. Leydig cells
    4. Basement membrane of ovarian follicle

    Ans. -2

    151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
    1. 3-5 days
    2. 7-9 days
    3. 10-12 days
    4. 13-15 days

    Ans. -2

    152. hCG is secreted by :
    1. Trophoblast cells.
    2. Amniotic membrane
    3. Fetal yalk sac
    4. Hypothalamus

    Ans. -1

    153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increase the:
    1. Gonadotophin secretion.
    2. LDL-cholesterol
    3. Bone mass
    4. Muscle mass

    Ans. -3

    154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
    1. Enhanced by progesterone
    2. Enhanced by oestrogen
    3. Inhibited by oestrogen
    4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone

    Ans. -4

    155. In those mammasl which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is termed as:
    1. Follicular
    2. Estrous
    3. Menstrual
    4. Luteal

    Ans. -2

    156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, stiffness and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for last 20 minutes before presenting to casualty. This improved within a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine HCl. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Acute Dystonia
    2. Akathisia
    3. Tardive Dyskinesia
    4. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

    Ans. -1

    157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased Creatinine Phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is :
    1. Drug overdose
    2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
    3. Drug induced Parkinsonism
    4. Tardive Dyskinesia

    Ans. -2

    158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
    1. Overlay of contours
    2. Motion parallax
    3. Bi-nasal disparity
    4. Linear perspective

    Ans. -*

    159. A middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with complains of fear of leaving home, fear of traveling alone and fear of being in a crowd. He develops marked anxiety with palpitations and swelling if he is in these situations. He often avoids public transport to go his place of work. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Generalised anxiety disorder
    2. Schizophrenia
    3. Personality disorder
    4. Agoraphobia

    Ans. -4

    160. HIAA is a metabolite of :
    1. Serotonin
    2. Dopamine
    3. Epinephrine
    4. Histamine

    Ans. -1

    161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
    1. In active disease, calcification is commonly seen.
    2. Lymphadenopathy is not seen
    3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged
    4. Adrenal insufficiency is uncommon

    Ans. -*

    162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions except:
    1. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
    2. TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulomonary venous connection)
    3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
    4. Ventricular septal defect

    Ans. -3

    163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Meningioma
    2. Glioma
    3. Schwannoma
    4. Pituitary adenoma

    Ans. -2

    164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
    1. Well defined lesion
    2. A mass of decreased density
    3. Areas of speculated microcalcifications
    4. Smooth borders

    Ans. -3

    165. On MRI in the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
    1. Myelodysplasia
    2. Myelomalacia
    3. Myelochisis
    4. Cord tumors

    Ans. -2

    166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 × 109/L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient’s blasts would most likely demonstrate:
    1. No surface antigens (null phenotype)
    2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
    3. Myeloid markers, such as CD 13 CD 33 and CD 15
    4. B cell markers, such as CD 19 CD 20 & CD 22

    Ans. -2

    167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mmHg, PR is 80/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
    1. Systolic dysfunction CHF
    2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity
    3. Metastatic cardiac disease
    4. Pneumonia

    Ans. -*

    168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four months. The nodule is pearly white with central necrosis, teleangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis would be:
    1. Basal cell carcinoma
    2. Squamous cell carcinoma
    3. Atypical melanoma
    4. Kaposis sarcoma

    Ans. -1

    169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and blood streaked sputum. He was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also has drooping of his left eyelid for one month. On physical examination, there is ptosis of the left eye and papillary miosis. Chest X-ray revealed round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    1. Secondary tuberculosis
    2. Adenocarcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma
    4. Asbestosis

    Ans. -3

    170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible FRACTURE . The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of an aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Chondroblastoma
    2. Ewing’s sarcoma
    3. Neuroblastoma
    4. Osteosarcoma

    Ans. -2

    171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
    1. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
    2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
    3. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
    4. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.

    Ans. -2

    172. In which of the following condition acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
    1. Fissure in-ano
    2. Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
    3. Absence of sympathetic ganglion cells
    4. Rectal malignancy

    Ans. -1

    173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
    1. Can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology.
    2. Always unifocal
    3. Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes
    4. Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours.

    Ans. -2

    174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
    1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.
    2. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
    3. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct
    4. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the

    Ans. -1

    175. Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
    1. Pigment stones are due to increased excretion of conjugated Bilirubin
    2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma
    3. 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque
    4. A mucocele of the gallbladder is caused by a stone impacted in Hartmann’s pouch

    Ans. -1

    176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
    1. Is found on the anti-mesenteric border of the small intestine
    2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat
    3. Heterotopic gastric mucosa can ulcerate and cause a brisk gastrointestinal bleed
    4. A fibrous band between the apex and umbilicus can cause intestinal obstruction

    Ans. -2

    177. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm:
    1. Crystalline lens
    2. Sclera
    3. Corneal epithelium
    4. Epithelium of lacrimal glands

    Ans. -2

    178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend for her?
    1. Needle biopsy
    2. Trucut biopsy
    3. Excision biopsy
    4. Incisional biopsy

    Ans. -3

    179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarintherapy for duration of three years. Recently, she has developed bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?
    1. Protamine injection
    2. Vit K injection
    3. Infusion of fibrinogen
    4. Whole blood transfusion

    Ans. -*

    180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome, except:
    1. Basal acid output of 15 meq/hour
    2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml
    3. Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of esophagus
    4. Serum gastrin value of 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation

    Ans. -2

    181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
    1. Man is the only reservoir of infection
    2. Flea is a vector of the disease
    3. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation
    4. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality

    Ans. -2

    182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of -haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:
    1. Bacitracin
    2. Novobiocin
    3. Optochin
    4. Oxacillin

    Ans. -4

    183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikachin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is:
    1. Staphylococcus aurenus
    2. Viridans streptococci
    3. Enterococcus faecalis
    4. Coagulase negative Staphlococcus

    Ans. -*

    184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of :
    1. 10:1
    2. 100:1
    3. 1000:1
    4. 10,000:1

    Ans. -*

    185. With reference to Bacteroides fragills the following statements are true, except:
    1. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
    2. B. fragills is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
    3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
    4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides
    bacteremia

    Ans. -*

    186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
    1. It is a zoonosis
    2. Man is the dead end host
    3. Man is an accidental host
    4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection

    Ans. -*

    187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
    1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    2. SALMONELLA typhi
    3. Brucella sp.
    4. SALMONELLA paratyphi A.

    Ans. -*

    188. SALMONELLA typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. typhi is:
    1. One bacillus
    2. 108 – 1010 bacilli
    3. 102 - 105 bacilli
    4. 1 – 10 bacilli

    Ans. -*

    189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is :
    1. Carrier status in animals
    2. Carrier status in man
    3. An environmental reservoir
    4. Continuous transmission in man

    Ans. -*

    190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease:
    1. Escherichia coli
    2. Klebsiella sp.
    3. Vibrio cholerae
    4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    Ans. -*

    191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
    1. Unregulated firing of individual muscle fibres
    2. Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials
    3. Presence of positive sharp waves
    4. Sopontaneous firing of motor units

    Ans. -2

    192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning
    2. Complete remission is common
    3. Response to anticonvulsants poor
    4. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients

    Ans. -1

    193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
    1. Gabapentin
    2. Oxcarbazepine
    3. Topiramate
    4. Valproic acid

    Ans. -3

    194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most likely ingested position is:
    1. Barium carbonate
    2. Superwarfarins
    3. Zinc phosphide
    4. Aluminium phosphide

    Ans. -1

    195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
    1. S1Q3T3 pattern
    2. P pulmonale
    3. Sinus tachycardia
    4. Right axis deviation

    Ans. -4

    196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best optionof treatment is :
    1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine
    2. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling
    3. A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling.
    4. Cyclosporine

    Ans. -2

    197. An 18 years old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnisis is :
    1. Poliomyelitis
    2. Botulism
    3. Diphtheria
    4. Porphyria

    Ans. -2

    198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except :
    1. Hypokalemia
    2. Hypocalcemia
    3. Hyponatremia
    4. Hypophosphatemia

    Ans. -3

    199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following :
    1. Hepatic encephalopathy
    2. Uremic encephalopathy
    3. Hypoxic encephalopathy
    4. Hypercarbic encephalopathy

    Ans. -1

    200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergence department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematocheza. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient?
    1. Factor X.
    2. Factor XI.
    3. Factor XII.
    4. Factor XIII.

    Ans. -4
  25. DrInSilence

    DrInSilence Guest

    Answers to AIIMS PG Entrance [ May 2006 ]

    Guys I have tried to compile the answers to the question with help from my friends. Please check and do let me know in case there is any mistakes in the answer. This will really be of great help to me.
    Regards,
    Animesh


    AIIMS PG Entrance May 2006 [ Answers ]





    Allodynia:

    Cutaneous allodynia is the perception of pain produced by innocuous stimulation of normal skin and may result from sensitization of central pain pathways in migraine.



    Ref: An association between migraine and cutaneous allodynia. Burstein R; Yarnitsky D; Goor



    -Aryeh I; Ransil BJ; Bajwa ZH Ann Neurol 2000 May;47(5):614-24.



    2. (4)



    Blood gas solubility coefficient:



    Agent Blood/gas (adults)

    Halothane 2.57

    Enflurane 1.91

    Isoflurane 1.38

    Sevoflurane 0.68

    Desflurane 0.42

    Nitrous Oxide 0.40



    Ref:



    1. Goodman – Gilman 10/E 349/P



    2. Values are summarized from: Malviya, Anesthesiology 1990, Lerman J, Pharmacology of inhalational anesthetics in infants and children. Paediatric Anaesthesia 1992;2: 191-203.



    Lerman J, Anesthesiology 1986.





    3. (3)



    Neuromuscular blocking agent with shortest onset of action:



    Some confusion in this one:



    Dose Onset

    (mg/kg) (Sec)

    Succinylcholine 1.0 51

    Rapacuronium 1.5 54



    Ref: Hayes A, Breslin D, Reid J, Mirakhur RK. Comparison of recovery following rapacuronium with and without neostigmine and succinylcholine. Anaesthesia 2000; 55: 859–63.





    Succinylcholine 1.5 68

    Rapacuronium 2.5 67



    Ref: Abouleish EI, Abboud TS, Bikhazi GJ, et al. Rapacuronium for modified rapid sequence induction in elective Caesarean section: neuromuscular blocking effects and safety compared with succinylcholine, and placental transfer. Br J Anaesth 1999; 83: 862–7.



    4. (1)





    Administration of Glucose is prescribed in all except:



    Since I feel that 'child to a diabetic mother' will already have hyperglycemia, a glucose solution administration will have no meaning. But I was wrong, because according to the Pedersen hypothesis, intermittent maternal hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperglycemia, which leads to premature maturation of fetal pancreatic islets, with hypertrophy of the beta cells and resultant hyperinsulinemia.



    So I guess the answer is "Neonates".



    Ref: PEDERSEN, J. Weight and length at birth of infants of diabetic mothers. Acta Endocrinol



    (Copenh) 1954; 16:330.



    5. (3)



    Brain tumor is highly vascular in nature:



    I guess the answer is "C P Angle epidermoid". Cerebellopontine (C P) angle tumor can be acoustic neuroma, meningioma, neurinoma of Vth or VIIth nerve, glomus jugulare tumor, dermoid, epidermoid cyst and Choroid Plexus Tumors. Out of them Choroid Plexus tumor and glomus jugulare tumor are highly vascular.



    Ref:



    1. Furuya et al. Primary Large Choroid Plexus Papillomas in the Cerebellopontine Angle:



    Radiological Manifestation and Surgical Management. Acta Neurochirur ( Wien ) 136: 144-149;



    1995.

    2. Swenson MR, Sibley W. Glomus jugulare tumor. Postgrad Med. 1982 Aug;72(2):213–214.



    6. (4)



    Cranial nerves present in posterior fossa:



    I thought the answer was 3rd - 12th Cr. N.

    But I was wrong!



    VI comes from the brain stem which lies in posterior fossa

    Internal acoustic meatus: VII, VIII

    Jugular Foramen: IX, X, XI

    Anterior condylar (hypoglossal) canal: XII



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal(S.R. Surgery, MAMC).





    7. (4)



    Drugs used in managing status epilepticus:





    The main categories of drugs used to treat SE are

    1. benzodiazepines (example: diazepam)

    2. phenytoin (or fosphenytoin)

    3. barbiturates

    4. propofol

    5. valproic acid



    Ref: Freeman, JM. Status epilepticus: it's not what we've thought or taught. Pediatrics 1989; 83:444.



    Note: Some people say carbamazepine is less efficacious or less well studied and should not be considered part of the routine management of status epilepticus.



    Some centers use thiopental (Thiopentone Sodium) instead of pentobarbital for refractory status epilepticus, but there are a number of problems with this approach. Animal studies suggest that thiopental carries a higher incidence of adverse cardiovascular effects than pentobarbital. The half-life of thiopental is shorter than that of pentobarbital, but this is counterbalanced by the fact that thiopental is degraded to active metabolites (including pentobarbital), which accumulate with longer term infusions. Thiopental may also have immunosuppressive effects on neutrophil function and mucociliary clearance.



    Ref:



    1. The intensive care treatment of convulsive status epilepticus in the UK. Results of a



    national survey and recommendations. Walker MC; Smith SJ; Shorvon SD

    Anaesthesia 1995



    Feb;50(2):130-5.



    2. Intravenous anesthetics and human neutrophil granulocyte motility in vitro Kress HG;



    Segmuller R Anaesthesist 1987 Jul;36(7):356-61.





    3. Depression of lung mucociliary dlearance by thiopental and halothane. Forbes AR; Gamsu G



    Anesth Analg 1979 Sep-Oct;58(5):387-9.





    So I am confused whether one should tick Carbamazepine or Thiopental? But it seems like that the former is the correct answer.





    8. (3)



    Cushing's Triad



    A triad of:

    1. bradycardia

    2. respiratory depression

    3. hypertension

    is called Cushing's triad (sometimes called Cushing's reflex or Cushing's response).

    While the mechanism of Cushing's triad remains controversial, many believe that it relates to brainstem compression. The presence of this response is an ominous finding that requires urgent intervention.







    Ref: Kaye, AH. Brain Tumors: An Encyclopedic Approach, 2 ed, Churchill Livingstone, New



    York, 2001:205.





    9. (4)



    Systemic secondary injury to brain:



    Well Hypothermia to certain extent protects brain by reducing metabolic processes, so it



    (Looking at other options) is not logical that it might play a major role in injuring it.



    10. (4)



    Neostigmine antagonizes



    Ref: KDT 3/E 86/P



    11. (1)



    Ref: Ganong 17/e 609/p



    12. (4)



    All of the following is used for treating hyperkalaemia,

    1. Calcium gluconate

    2. Sod. bi carb.

    3. intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin

    Intracellular movt of potassium is mediated by beta adrenergic receptors…so beta blockers stop this movt and raise serum potassium levels

    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni (S.R. Medicine, MAMC)



    13. (1)



    Ref: Harrison’s 16/e 1825/p



    14. (1)



    Coronary blood flow:

    directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to resistance just like any blood flow pressure increases and resistance decreases flow.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    15. (1) ?



    Most significant adverse effect of ACE inhibitor is:

    1. Hypotension

    2. Hypertension

    3. Hypocalcaemia

    4. Hypercalcaemia rate answer is hyperkalemia

    I don’t understand what hypercalcemia rate means. ACE inhibitors cause hypotension but very rarely…they may however cause first dose hypotension sometimes. Hypocalcemia or hypertension is not possible



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    16. (2)



    Ref: KDT 3/e 207/p



    17. (4)



    Ref: KDT 5/e 164/p



    18. (2)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    19. (1)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    20. (1)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal





    21. (3)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    22. (3)



    A 40 yr old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and regurgitation solids and for 3 months the dysphagia was non progressive, what is the most likely diagnosis is Achalasia cardia because dysphagia to both liquids nad solids suggests a motility disorder, not a structural one



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    23. (4)



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi (S.R. E.N.T., MAMC)



    24. (3)



    A 15 yr old boy presented with 1 d history of bleeding gum, subconjuctival bleed and the purpuric rash. Investigation revealed the following results:

    Hb-6.4, TLC-26,500, Platelets-35,000,PT-20s with control of 13s, PTT-50s and fibrinogen 10mg/dl. Peripheral smear suggestive of AML. What is the most probable diagnosis?

    Investigations suggests disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) – a typical presentation of promyelocytic leukemia.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    25. (1)



    Ref: Saini 2/e 7.5/p



    26. (3)



    Ref: Saini 2/e 6.26/p



    27. (2)



    pH=-log[H+]



    28. (3)



    Ref: Saini 2/e 9.71/p



    29. (3)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 286/p





    30. (2)



    Homocysteine is an a.a. associated with Atherosclerosis



    Ref: Kilmer McCully: pioneer of the homocysteine theory. Lancet 1998 352: 1364.



    31. (4)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 300/p





    32. (3) ?





    Most of the searches landed me up into Hydrogen peroxide being a second messenger [Plant Cell, Vol. 13, 179-191, January 2001, Copyright © 2001, American Society of Plant Physiologists, Hydrogen Peroxide Acts as a Second Messenger for the Induction of Defense Genes in Tomato Plants in Response to Wounding, Systemin, and Methyl Jasmonate Martha L. Orozco-Cárdenasa, Javier Narváez-Vásqueza, and Clarence A. Ryana ].

    Amongst the examples, I feel it should be Calcium. The article [Published 5 July 2004. doi:10.1083/jcb.200310145 JCB, Volume 166, Number 1, 111-119 Extracellular calcium acts as a "third messenger" to regulate enzyme and alkaline secretion, Rosa Caroppo1, Andrea Gerbino1, Gregorio Fistetto1, Matilde Colella1,2, Lucantonio Debellis1, Aldebaran M. Hofer2, and Silvana Curci1,2] says it acts as third messenger but if we take the definition, "Second messengers are molecules that relay signals received at receptors on the cell surface — such as the arrival of protein hormones, growth factors, etc. — to target molecules in the cytosol and/or nucleus. " then Calcium becomes an important Secondary messenger.





    33. (2)



    A != T && C != G



    34. (4)



    This is a debatable question though, because we never know how a mutation in intronic region affect the whole process (it might be a regulatory region or a splice site controller?) Anyways since we are appearing in medical entrance and not biotechnology one, we can safely go for the option (4)!



    35. (1)



    Ref: Park 18/e



    36. (3)



    Ref: Park 18/e 651/p



    37. (3)



    We are asked here to calculate the Negative predictive value.



    [(Not Diseased)*(Specificity)]/[(Not Diseased)*(Specificity)

    + (Diseased)*(1-Sensitivity)]



    [70*0.8]/[70*0.8+30(1-0.9)] =~ 95%



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 10/p





    38. (4)



    Ref: Mahajan 6/e 11/p





    39. (2)



    Ref: Park 14/e 482/p



    40. (1)



    Ref: Park 14/e 480/p



    41. (4) ?



    Ref: Park 14/e 37/p



    42. (4)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 481/p



    43. (1)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 320/p



    44. (2)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 320/p



    45. (2)



    Ref: Park 14/e 406/p



    46. (2)



    Ref: Park 18/e 241/p



    47. (1)



    48. (3)



    Dr. Puneet Setia (S.R. Forensic Medicine, PGI Chandigarh)



    49. (4)



    Dr. Rahul Malhotra (S.R. Pulic Health, MAMC)



    50. (1)



    Ref: CMDT 2000/y 197/p



    51. (2)



    Ref: Park 14/e 347/p



    52. (4)



    Ref: Park 14/e 350/p



    53. (4)



    Ref: Park 14/e 15/p



    54. (1)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan



    55. (4)



    Ref: Park 14/e 111/p



    56. (1)



    Ref: Taber’s medical dictionary



    57. (1)



    Chancre redux I found out is another name for early relapse of syphilis

    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    58. (2)



    Max Joseph's space is linked to Lichen Planus.

    Ref: Phd thesis of Laeijendecker, Proefschr on Lichen Planus.



    59. Ivermectin is used in treating Scabies.



    Ref: Prescrire Int. 2002 Oct;11(61):137-40; Ivermectin: new indication. Oral treatment of scabies: simple and effective.



    60. (2)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1016/p



    61. (1)



    Following is not used for treatment of typeII lepra reaction:

    1. Chloroquin

    2. Thalidomide

    3. Cyclosporine

    4. Corticosteroids



    All others have an anti-inflammatory action and are used



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    62. (1)



    Lepramin test is a test to measure cell mediated immunity. It just suggest whether the pt is immunocompetent or not. A lepramin negative pt develops the severe lepromatous leprosy and a lepramin positive one develops tuberculoid leprosy. This test cannot be used to diagnose leprosy.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    63. (2)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 298/p





    64. (2)



    Ref: Maheshwari 3/e 81/p



    65. (2)



    Presentation suggests mononeuritis multiplex, nephritic syndrome , a young male----all typical of PAN



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    66. (4)



    All of the following is used for giving traction, EXCEPT:

    >1. Steinmann's Pin

    >2. Kirschner's Wire

    >3. Bohler's Stirrup

    >4. Rush Pin*



    - Dr. Ankur Gupta (S.R. Orthopaedics, RML)



    67. (4)



    All of the following are compilation of supracondylar fracture of

    >humerus in children, except:

    >1. Compartment syndrome

    >2. Myositis ossificans

    >3. Malunion

    >4. Non union*



    - Dr. Ankur Gupta



    Ref: Maheshwari 2/e 84/p



    68. (4)



    Lesion associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all,

    >EXCEPT:

    >1. Hill-Sach's lesion

    >2. Bankart's lesion

    >3. Capsular laxity

    >4. Supraspinatous tear*



    - Dr. Ankur Gupta



    Ref: Maheshwari 2/e 74/p



    69. (4)



    All of the following are the cause of sudden increase in pain in

    >osteochondroma, except:

    >1. Sarcomatous change

    >2. Fracture

    >3. Bursitis

    >4. Degenerative changes*



    70. (3)



    Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    71. (2) ?





    # The upper division of the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) innervates the superior rectus and the levator palpebrae superioris muscles.



    # The lower division of cranial nerve III innervates the inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique muscles. The nerve to the inferior oblique muscle enters the muscle laterally at the junction of the inferior oblique and inferior rectus muscles.



    # The trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV) supplies the superior oblique muscle. The nerve to the superior oblique muscle enters the muscle approximately one third of the distance from the origin to the trochlea.



    # The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) supplies the lateral rectus muscle.



    # The parasympathetic innervation to the pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscle travels with the nerve to the inferior oblique muscle. The parasympathetics may be injured during inferior oblique surgery or orbital floor surgery.



    Ref: http://www.emedicine.com/neuro/topic636.htm



    And http://anesthesiologyinfo.com/articles/12092002.php says that “Retrobulbar block is aimed at blocking the ciliary ganglion, ciliary nerves, and cranial nerves II, III and VI. Cranial nerve IV is not affected since it lies outside the muscle cone. When the block is performed, the local anesthetic is delivered within the muscle cone itself.”



    If we combine the above two we can see that superior oblique supplied by Cr. N. IV will not be much affected.









    72. (2) or (4)?



    For PHPV, prognosis is usually not good.



    Ref: Trans Am Ophthalmol Soc. 1997;95:487-549. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous: diagnosis, treatment and results. Pollard ZF.



    But one of my friend says answer can be (4) also, because it is asssosiated with microphthalmos.... not exophthalmos

    - Dr. Pankaj Mehta





    73. (3)



    Panretinal photocoagulation is used for treating iris neovascularisation.



    Ref: Ophthalmology. 1981 Nov;88(11):1102-6. A grading system for iris neovascularization. Prognostic implications for treatment.



    74. (1)



    - Dr. Pankaj Mehta



    75. (2)



    Ref: Neema 3/e 292/p



    76. (3)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 236/p



    77. (3)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 194/p



    78. (2)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 144/p



    79. (3)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 288/p



    80. (2)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 289/p



    81. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236



    82. (2)



    Ref: Parikh 5/e 146/p



    83. (2) ?



    Dr. Anubhav Vindal


    84. (4)



    Ref: Reddy 16/e 146/p



    85. (1)



    Ref: Reddy 16/e 66/p



    86. (1)



    Ref: Reddy 24/e 125/p



    87. (3)



    Ref: Reddy 16/e 452/p



    88. (4)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 1058/p



    89. (4)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 2106/p



    90. (4) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236



    91. (1)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    92. (3)



    - Dr. Neeraj Srivastava (Resident CUNY, NYC) and Dr. Rachna Srivastava



    93. (2)



    Ref: Shaw’s 12/e 315/p



    94. (2) ?



    PREGNANCY INDUCED HYPERTENSION
    37 WEEKS



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236





    95. (4) ?



    ASHERMAN SYNDROME

    (MISSED ABORTION)



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236







    96. (1) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236



    97. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236



    I think it is because of reflex hyperinsulinemia in the fetus because of hyperglycemia in mother…





    98. (4) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236



    99. (3)



    Propofol . It is the recommended day care anaesthetic agent because of

    Smooth induction , anti emetic and anti pruritic quality and smooth and

    Pleasant clear headed recovery . The added mtp conundrum is a distraction at

    Best .



    Dr. Kapil Arya (S.R. Anaesthesia, LHMC)



    100. (1)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    101. (4)



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi



    102. (1)



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi



    103. (2) ?



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi



    But there is some controversy here as Harrison’s 14/e 2379/p puts Vertigo not as a typical feature.



    104. (3)



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 944/p.



    105. (1)



    - Dr. Ashwini Sethi



    106. (3)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    107. (2) ?



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava





    But there is some controversy here because some of my friends say it is (3) Posterior urethral valve.





    108. (1) ?



    Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:

    4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation.



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    109. (1)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 2319/p



    110. (4)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1328/p



    111. (4)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 598/p



    112. (1)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 383/p



    113. (4)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1676/p



    114. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    115. (4)



    MAY BE 4 PROGNOSIS IN ARF DEPEND ON UNDERLYING Ds....BETTER WITH PRERENAL CAUSE THAN RENAL AND POST RENAL…



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    116. (3)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1629/p



    117. (4)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    118. (3)



    This is a case of amyloidosis.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    119. (3)



    Cytokeratin is an epithelial tissue marker. Only a carcinoma originates from epithelium.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    120. (3) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    121. (3)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 1238/p



    122. (4)



    A differential diagnosis of lesion, histologically resemblin giant cell

    >tumor in the small bones of hands or feet inclused all of the following

    >EXCEPT:

    >1. Aneurysmal bone cyst

    >2. Fibrosarcoma

    >3. Osteosarcoma

    >4. Hyperparathyroidism*



    - Dr. Ankur Gupta



    123. (2)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 278/p



    124. (1)



    - Dr. Pankaj Mehta



    125. (1) or (3)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 598/p says (1)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava say (3)



    126. (4)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    127. (2)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    128. (3)



    46 XXY



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 159/p



    129. (4)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 635/p



    130. (4)



    Ref: Robbin’s 14/e 704/p



    131. (3)



    Acute leukemias show blasts in peripheral smear. Basophilia is a characteristic feature of CML.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    132. (2)



    Hb is normal so polycythemia is out. Normal TLC rules out leukemoid rxn. Also, this doesn’t suggest CML. Though platelets are only mildly raised I would still put my money behind thrombocythemia.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    133. (3)



    A 70 yr old with pathological fracture of femur. The lesion appears

    >lytic on X-Ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The

    >curetting from the fracture site is most likely to show which of the

    >following:

    >1. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia

    >2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells

    >3. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma*

    >4. Malignant cell forming osteoid bone



    - Dr. Ankur Gupta



    134. (2)



    Angiocentric lymphoma is a T-Cell lymphoma.



    Ref: Journal of Clinical Pathology 2005;58:550-552 2005 BMJ Publishing Group Ltd & Association of Clinical Pathologists: Angiocentric immunoproliferative lesion and angiocentric lymphoma of lymph node in children. A report of two cases: R Drut and R M Drut.



    135. (1)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 1137/p



    136. (1)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1593/p



    137. (2)



    It is a Vit K congener.



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 745/p

    KDT 3/e 544/p



    138. (4)



    - Dr. Divakar Sharma (S.R. Anesthesia, Safdarjung)



    139. (2)or (4)



    - Dr. Kapil Arya says (3)



    Ref: KDT 3/e 315/p says (4)



    140. (4)



    - Dr. Kapil Arya says (3)



    141. (1)



    Ref: KDT 3/e 765/p



    142. (1)



    Imatinib inhibits Tyrosine kinase.



    Ref: PNAS | September 20, 2005 | vol. 102 | no. 38 | 13622-13627: The kinase inhibitor imatinib mesylate inhibits TNF-{alpha} production in vitro and prevents TNF-dependent acute hepatic inflammation: Anna Maria Wolf , Dominik Wolf, Holger Rumpold, Susanne Ludwiczek, Barbara Enrich, Guenther Gastl, Guenter Weiss, and Herbert Tilg.



    143. (2)



    Letrozole is an aromatase inhibitor.



    Ref: J Clin Oncol. 1998 Feb;16(2):453-61. Letrozole, a new oral aromatase inhibitor for advanced breast cancer: double-blind randomized trial showing a dose effect and improved efficacy and tolerability compared with megestrol acetate. Dombernowsky P, Smith I, Falkson G, Leonard R, Panasci L, Bellmunt J, Bezwoda W, Gardin G, Gudgeon A, Morgan M, Fornasiero A, Hoffmann W, Michel J, Hatschek T, Tjabbes T, Chaudri HA, Hornberger U, Trunet PF.



    144. (3)



    Secondary leukemia is a common long term side effect of alkylating agents like cisplatin, doxorubicin, daunorubicin, idarubicin etc…



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    145. (4)



    FOR REDUCING PULMONARY HYPERTENSION . IT IS A MEDICINE QUESTION . NITRIC OXIDE IS NO . NITROUS OXIDE , N2O IS AN ANAESTHETIC AGENT.



    - Dr. Kapil Arya





    146. (1)



    CHEST WALL RIGIDITY



    - Dr. Kapil Arya





    147. (1)



    Vanilloid receptors are activated by Pain.



    " Capsaicin functions in nociception by binding to a specific receptor, called the vanilloid receptor (Caterina et al., 1997). "



    Ref: Caterina, M.J., Schumacher, M.A., Tominaga, M., Rosen, T.A., Levine, J.D., and Julius, D. The Capsaicin Receptor: a heat-activated ion channel in the pain pathway. Nature 389: 816-24 (1997)



    148. (2)



    Ref: Ganong 17/e 177/p



    149. (2)



    Ref: Ganong 17/e 394/p



    150. (2)



    Ref: Ganong 20/e 431/p



    151. (1)



    Ref: Ganong 20/e 413/p



    152. (1)



    Ref: Ganong 20/e 413/p



    153. (4) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    154. (4)



    Ref: Ganong 17/e 224/p



    155. (2)



    Ref: Ganong 17/e 404/p



    156. (1)



    Acute dystonia Sort of hypersenstivity to anti dopaminergic ( mostly all anti psychotics) that is why responds to diphenhydramine and no loss of consciousness.



    - Dr. Jatan Parmar (Resident Psychiatry, UK)



    157. (2)



    Too much anti dopaminergic and due to this very high acetylcholine (see saw with dopamine in the motor control system) leading to muscular rigidity (actually leading to muscle breakdown and high CPK) and labile blood pressure ( inc. OR decrease) Life threatening emergency. Treatment includes supportive measures like controlling temp and blood pressure and also centrally acting muscle relaxants commonly Dantrolene intramuscularly.



    - Dr. Jatan Parmar



    158. (3)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 161/pn



    159. (4)



    Agoraphobia ( which actually means fear of open spaces) includes fear and subsequent avoidance of crowded places like public transport. It can be with or without panic disorder, in this case it is classically described with it.



    - Dr. Jatan Parmar



    160. (1)



    Ref: Saini 2/e 10.55/p



    161. (1)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 574/p



    162. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    163. (3) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16



    164. (3) ?





    165. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    166. (4)



    Blasts and mediastinal LN suggest childhood ALL which is a Bcell malignancy.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    167. (2)



    Presentation suggests CHF – a common complication of doxorubicin.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    168. (1)



    Nodular growth in sunexposed areas especially the face and pearly appearance is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    169. (3)





    This is a presentation of pancoasts tumour- seen in mostly SCC, can also be seen in small cell ca. Adenocarcinoma is usually central and does not have this complication.





    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    170. (2)



    >A 15 yr old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-Ray of leg rule out

    >a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has and evidence of an

    >agressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The

    >bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the

    >following is most likely diagnosis:

    >1. Chodroblastoma

    >2. Ewing's sarcome*

    >3. Neuroblastoma

    >4. Osteosarcome





    171. (2)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    172. (2) ?





    173. (2)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 1137/p



    174. (1)



    Ref: NMS Anatomy 2/e 529/p



    175. (1)



    Ref: Robbin’s 5/e 857/p



    176. (2)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    177. (2)



    Ref: Khurana 1/e 8/p



    178. (3)



    - Dr. Anubhav Vindal



    179. (2)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 745/p



    180. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    181. (2)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 385/p



    182. (4)



    Gram positive cocci in clusters and alpha hemolysis suggests staph aureus. It is commonly resistant to penicillin group but sensitive to methicillin group i.e. oxacillin, cloxacillin, etc





    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    183. (3)



    Gram positive cocci in chains and catalase negative suggests streptococcus group. Now enterococcus is commonly resistant to most antibiotics in contrast to viridans and is a common cause of nosocomial sepsis in pts in ICU



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    184. (3)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 245/p



    185. (4)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 995/p



    186. (4)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 1036/p



    187. (1)



    Ref: Harrison’s 14/e 782/p



    188. (2)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 272/p



    189. (4)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e 288/p



    190. (3)



    Ref: Ananthnarayan 5/e



    191. (2)



    No explanation for this , you have TO REMEMBER THE FEATURES OF DENERVATION AND OF MYOPATHY. Polyphasic waves is a feature of myopathy.



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    192. (1)



    - Dr. Neeraj and Rachna Srivastava



    193. (3)



    Known side effect of topiramate……man no one knows why!



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    194. (4)



    Ref: Reddy 16/e 425/p



    195. (3)



    All of these are ECG findings of PE. Sinus tachy is the earliest and most common sign. S1Q3T3 is the most specific.





    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    196. (2) ?



    Ref: http://www.aippg.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=35236&start=16





    197. (2)



    This suggests acute polyneuropathy. Descending presentation is seen in botulism and diphtheria but papillary involvement is seen only in botulism



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni





    198. (3)



    Weakness is seen in hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia, hypercalcemia…not usually in sodium problems



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    199. (1)



    Triphasic waves is a characteristic EEG pattern of hepatic enceph. Don’t ask me why!



    - Dr. Vaibhav Sahni



    200. (4)



    Factor XIII action is to stabilize the clot formed initially. Fibrin lysis test is abnormal in its deficiency.



    My Sincere thanks to Anubhav, Vaibhav, Neeraj, Rachna, Pankaj, Tulsi, Divakar, Kapil, Ashwini, Ankur, Puneet, Rahul, Jatan, Medical Books and The Internet!


    -



    Animesh Sharma
    Name:Animesh Sharma
    Location:Delhi, Delhi, India
    I am someone who likes to explore whatever he can. I am researching on how life is coded by sequence of ATGC.



    AIIMS PG Entrance May 2006 [ Answers ]

    May 2006

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