Discussion in 'Question Zone' started by Joseph., Nov 5, 2007.

  1. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. All of the following gland tumors are correctly matched with the appropriate characteristic EXCEPT
    a- Pleomorphic adenoma - most common salivary gland tumor
    b- oncocytoma - eosinophilic-staining cells
    c- adenolymphoma - Warthin’s tumor
    d- mucoepidermoid tumor - “mixed tumor”
    e- Adenoid cysts carcinoma - presents with pain

    Answer: D. “Mixed tumor” properly refers to pleomorphic adenoma, which often demonstrates myxoid and cartilage-like elements in addition to stellate or fusifrom epithelial cells. Oncocytoma is characterized by cells with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Adenolymphoma (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum) is often called Warthin’s tumor. Adenoid cystic carcinoma often presents with pain due to infiltration of perineural spaces.
  2. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. All of the following conditions are correctly matched with the appropriate phrase EXCEPT
    a- achalasia - acid gastric reflux
    b- Mallory-Weiss syndrome - esophageal mucosal tears and hemorrhage due to retching
    c- esophageal varices - portal hypertension
    d- Barrett’s esophagus - lesion predisposing to malignancy

    Answer: A. Achalasia is characterized by failure of relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter; acid gastric reflux is not an expected finding. Mallory-Weiss syndrome (hemorrhage from esophagogastric mucosal tears) and bleeding esophageal varices (due to portal hypertension) are important causes of upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Barrett’s esophagus sphincter all can lead to gastroesophageal reflux.
  3. David.

    David. Guest

    Q. All of the following disorders are correctly matched with the appropriate characteristic or causative agent EXCEPT
    a- congenital pyloric stenosis - palpable mass
    b- Adenocarcinoma of the stomach - helicobacter (Campylobacter) pylori
    c- Acute (erosive) gastritis - alcohol
    d- fundal (type A) chronic gastritis - lesion predisposing to duodenal ulcer
    e- Menetrier’s disease - gastric rugal hypertrophy

    Answer: D. Fundal (type A) chronic gastritis is associated with reduced secretion of proteolytic enzymes and hydrochloric acid, as well as with anti-parietal cell antibodies. It predisposes to pernicious anemia, other autoimmune disorders, and carcinoma of the stomach. Duodenal ulcer is unlikely in the presence of hyposecretion of gastric hydrochloride acid. The hypertrophied pyloric circular muscle layer of congenital (hypertrophic) pyloric stenosis often results in a palpable mass. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach is often associated with Helicobacter pylori infection, as are chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer of the stomach and duodenum. Acute (erosive) gastritis is caused by a variety of toxic agents, including alcohol, aspirin and other analgesics, and cigarette smoking. Menetrier’s disease is defined by characteristics enlargement of gastric rugae.
  4. David.

    David. Guest

    Q. All of the following phrases concerning peptic ulcer are correctly matched EXCEPT
    a- Peptic ulcer of jejunum - oancreatic neoplasm
    b- Meckel’s diverticulum - ectopic gastric mucosa
    c- gastric peptic ulcer - extreme hypersecretion of hydrochloride acid
    d- duodenal ulcer - most common peptic ulcer
    e- blood group O - increased incidence of duodenal ulcer

    Answer: C. In contrast to peptic ulcer of the duodenum, gastric acid secretion is often not increased in gastric peptic ulcer. It is rare, however, for gastric peptic ulceration to occur in the total absence of hydrochloride acid.
  5. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. 3 ATP’s are formed in the following steps of kreb’s cycle :
    a- Isocitrate dehydrogenase
    b- Succinate dehydrogenase
    c- Succinate thiokinase
    d- Malate dehydrogenase

    Ans: A, D.
    - Energitics of TCA cycle
    In TCA cycle, energy is produced from NAD, FAD & Substrate level phosphorylation. Oxidation of NAD produces three molecules of ATTP and oxidation of FAD produces two molecules of ATP.
  6. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Amino acid involved in 1 carbon metabolism :
    a- Folic acid
    b- Thiamine
    c- Pyridoxine

    Ans: A. Folic acid.

    Q. Transcription is inhibited by :
    a- Actinomycin D
    b- Amanitin
    c- Chloramphenicol
    d- Streptomycin
    e- Puromycin

    Ans: A, B.
    - Inhibitions of transcription :
    i) Rifamycin binds with β subunit of polymerase to block initiation of transcription.
    ii) Actinomycin D: inhibits elonogation of RNA strands by inhibiting RNA polymerase in bacteria and human.
    iii) Streptoglydigin
    iv) Heparin
    - Puromycin is a structural analogue of tyrosinyl t-RNA. It causes premature release of polypeptide.
    - Alpha-Amenitin blocks mRNA formation by inhibiting pol II (DNA dependent RNA polymerase). Alpha-Amanitin blocks the translocation of RNA polymerase during transcription.
    - Streptomycin and chloramphenicol - both are protein synthesis inhibitor. Streptomycin interfere with the binding of f-met tRNA to ribosomes and thereby inhibits the initiation process; also cause misreading of mRNA.
    - Chloramphenicol inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of 50S subunit. This inhibits the process of Elongation.
  7. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. All of the following factors are associated with increased incidence or severity of peptic ulcer EXCEPT
    a- Zollinger- Ellison syndromes
    b- hypoparathyroidism
    c- multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I
    d- aspirin therapy
    e- cigarette smoking

    Answer: B. Hyperparathyroidism (not hypoparathyroidism) may sometimes present with peptic ulcer, a well-known complication. The hypergastrinemia of the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can be caused by isolated gastrinoma or by a similar tumor or hyperplasia occurring as part of MEN type I. Aspirin and tobacco usage both predispose to peptic ulcer.
  8. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. Which of the following characteristics is associated with carcinoma of the colon?
    a- The highest incidence is in Third World countries
    b- Early obstruction as the first presenting sign suggests right-sided lesion
    c- Iron-deficiency anemia as the first presenting sign suggests left-sided lesion
    d- Increased incidence seen with high animal fat, low fiber diet
    e- High incidence seen with Crohn’s disease

    Answer: D. Adenocarcinoma of the colon is one of the most common malignancies in the Western world and occurs much less frequently in Third World Countries. This difference is thought due to the protective effect of a diet high in fiber and low in animal fat. Early obstruction due to annular lesions is highly suggestive of left-sided lesions. In contrast, right-sided lesions may remain clinically silent for long periods and may often present quiet late with iron-deficiency anemia due to blood loss. A minimal increased incidence of cancer is associated with Crohn’s disease.
  9. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    1 A lady who had 2 previous abortions and DVT says here sister used to have DVT aswell. what is investigation
    anti phospholipid AB

    the answer factor v leiden

    2 Old lady with pernisious anemia needs vit B12 injection why inj.
    no interensic factor

    3 hypertensive pat. on thiazid develops tremors or confusion or lethergy and ECG is normal cause is

    4 worker in a factory developed ca bladder. what factory
    die factory

    5 ship worker developed pleural effusion .......(picture of mesothelioma) what Rx will he benefit from

    6 pat. with ulcer on his ear and neck swelling
    squamous cell ca
    basal cell ca

    7 pat. with back pain thirst, polyurea,polydypsia, confusion, investigation
    s. ca

    8 pat. with vomiting , pyloric stenosis acid base disturbance is
    met. alkalosis
    met. acidosis
    resp. alk.
    resp. acid.

    9 pat. with bipolar on lithium for long has tremors (i think), obesity, lethergy test
    lithium level

    10 pat. with bipolar on lithium has symptoms of hypothyroidism and lithium level checked withen theraputic range invest.

    11 pat. with ascites and symptoms of LCF, Rx

    12 pat. with picture of heamochromatosis (HF, DM , HIGH S. FIRRITIN)WHAT malignancy is he likely to develope if not Rx

    13 pat. with anemia and +ve coomb test
    heamolytic anemia
  10. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    1. Shrinkage lung syndrome - SLE.

    2 Most common cause of neuropathic joint -- DM

    3. Ascitic fluid - exudate/ transudate.

    4. HLA B 27 association

    5. ANCA

    6. C/C Rheumatic fever

    7.Legionella pneumonia treatment- Azithromycin

    8. ORS complex.

    9. RBC maturation

    10. Anion Gap

    11. metabolic acidosis is caused by all except.
    a. Methanol
    b. ethhyl alcohol
    c. Salicylate
    d. Organophosphorous

    12. Increase anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by all except..
    a. Salicylate
    b. DKA
    c. Uremia

    13 Type 1 respiratory failure
    a. Low Po2 & Low Pco2
    b. Low Po2 & high Pco2

    14 Disease with no Eschar ir ulcerative nodule.
    a. Tick typhus
    b. Anthrax
    c. Toxoplasmosis.

    15. All are features of Dengue except
    a. Fever
    b. Jaundice
    c. Renal failure
    d. Thrombocytosis

    Answer d. Thrombocytosis

    16 Treatment of ABPA.

    17 Kussmauls breathing

    18 Upperlobe pneumonia
    ans - Klebsiella
  11. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Explanation :

    1. Shrinkage lung syndrome - SLE.

    Shrinking Lung Syndrome

    This was first described in a group of patients in 1965. The main symptom is shortness of breath with exertion but the patients are otherwise clinically well. the chest X-ray does not show any shadow, but the amount of lung available for gas exchange is markedly reduced. the diaphragm, which inflates the lung, also appears not to be working normally in such cases. This tends to be a chronic, low grade problem and treatment is with steroids but it is not always effective.

    2 Most common cause of neuropathic joint -- DM

    NEUROPATHIC JOINT DISEASE (CHARCOT JOINT) articular degeneration secondary to weight-bearing trauma and neurovascular changes on sensory deficient joint, resulting in bony resorption and formation.Bilateral metatarsophalangeal joint involvement is common, especially among diabetics. The second tarso metatarsal joint is a frequent site for early subluxations. Mono- or polyarticular interphalangeal joint or midfoot presentations may also occur.
    Causes of neuropathic arthropathy include the following:

    * Diabetes

    * Use of steroids

    * Alcoholism

    * Trauma

    * Infection

    * Amyloidosis

    * Pernicious anemia

    * Syphilis

    * Syringomyelia

    * Spina bifida

    * Myelomeningocele

    * Leprosy

    * Multiple sclerosis

    * Congenital vascular disease

    * Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

    * Cord compression

    * Asymbolia

    * Connective disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and scleroderma

    * Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

    * Raynaud disease

    * Adrenal hypercorticism

    * Thalidomide embryopathy (congenital arthropathy in offspring of exposed mothers)

    * Paraneoplastic sensory neuropathy

    * Cauda equina lipoma

    3. Ascitic fluid - exudate/ transudate.

    Ascitic fluid can accumulate as a transudate or an exudate. Amounts of up to 25 liters are fully possible.

    Roughly, transudates are a result of increased pressure in the portal vein (>8 mmHg, usually around 20 mmHg[4]), e.g. due to cirrhosis, while exudates are actively secreted fluid due to inflammation or malignancy. As a result, exudates are high in protein, high in lactate dehydrogenase, have a low pH (<7.30), a low glucose level, and more white blood cells. Transudates have low protein (<30g/L), low LDH, high pH, normal glucose, and fewer than 1 white cell per 1000 mm³. Clinically, the most useful measure is the difference between ascitic and serum albumin concentrations. A difference of less than 1 g/dl (10 g/L) implies an exudate.[2]

    Portal hypertension plays an important role in the production of ascites by raising capillary hydrostatic pressure within the splanchnic bed.

    Regardless of the cause, sequestration of fluid within the abdomen leads to additional fluid retention by the kidneys due to stimulatory effect on blood pressure hormones, notably aldosterone. The sympathetic nervous system is also activated, and renin production is increased due to decreased perfusion of the kidney. Extreme disruption of the renal blood flow can lead to the feared hepatorenal syndrome. Other complications of ascites include spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP), due to decreased antibacterial factors in the ascitic fluid such as complement.

    Serum-ascities albumin gradient (SAAG) is probably a better discriminant than older measures (transudate versus exudate) for the causes of ascites.[3] A high gradient (> 1.1 g/dL) indicates the ascites is due to portal hypertension. A low gradient (< 1.1 g/dL) indicates ascites of non-portal hypertensive etiology.

    Causes of high SAAG ("transudate") are:

    * Cirrhosis - 81% (alcoholic in 65%, viral in 10%, cryptogenic in 6%)
    * Heart failure - 3%
    * Budd-Chiari syndrome or veno-occlusive disease
    * Constrictive pericarditis

    Causes of low SAAG ("exudate") are:

    * Cancer (primary peritoneal carcinomatosis and metastasis) - 10%
    * Tuberculosis - 2%
    * Pancreatitis - 1%
    * Serositis
    * Nephrotic syndrome

    4. HLA B 27 association


    HLA-B27 strongly associated with a certain set of autoimmune diseases referred to as the "seronegative spondyloarthropathies". In the general population, about 8% Caucasian, 4% African, 2-9% Chinese, and 0.1-0.5% Japanese have the HLA-B27 antigen. In Northern Scandinavia (Lapland), 24% of people are HLA-B27 positive while 1.8% have ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

    5. ANCA

    p-ANCA is highly specific for ulcerative colitis
    c-ANCA in patients with Wegener's granulomatosis

    Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs) are a group of mainly IgG antibodies against antigens in the cytoplasm of neutrophil granulocytes (the most common type of white blood cell) and monocytes. They are detected as a blood test in a number of autoimmune disorders, but are particularly associated with systemic vasculitis, so called ANCA-associated vasculitides.

    ANCA were originally shown to divide into two main classes, c-ANCA and p-ANCA, based on the pattern of staining on ethanol-fixed neutrophils and the main target antigen. ANCA titres are generally measured using ELISA and indirect immunofluorescence.[1]
    Perinuclear staining typical of p-ANCA

    The granular, cytoplasmic staining pattern of c-ANCA


    p-ANCA, or perinuclear-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies, show a perinuclear staining pattern. This pattern occurs because during ethanol fixation some antigen targets artifactually localize around the nucleus. Antibody staining therefore results in fluorescence of the region around the nucleus. By far the most common p-ANCA target is myeloperoxidase (MPO), a neutrophil granule protein whose primary role in normal metabolic processes is generation of oxygen radicals. ANCA will less commonly form against alternative antigens that may also result in a p-ANCA pattern. These include lactoferrin; elastase; and cathepsin G. p-ANCA is highly specific for ulcerative colitis, though not sensitive enough to be used as a sole diagnostic test.[2]


    c-ANCAs, or cytoplasmic-staining antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies, show a diffusely granular, cytoplasmic staining pattern. This pattern results from binding of ANCA to antigen targets throughout the neutrophil cytoplasm, the most common protein target being proteinase 3 (PR3). PR3 is the most common antigen target of ANCA in patients with Wegener's granulomatosis. Other antigens may also occasionally result in a c-ANCA pattern.


    ANCA that develop against antigens other than MPO or PR3 will occasionally result in patchy staining when visualized by immunofluorescence. This pattern is commonly called the 'snowdrift' pattern, and most commonly occurs in patients with non-vasculitic diseases that are associated with ANCA formation.

    11. metabolic acidosis is caused by all except.
    a. Methanol
    b. ethhyl alcohol
    c. Salicylate
    d. Organophosphorous

    ans--D organophos

    12. Increase anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by all except..
    a. Salicylate
    b. DKA
    c. Uremia

    all the given options cause increased anion gap met .acidosis so it must have been the 4th option

    MUDPILES is commonly used to remember the causes of Increased anion gap metabolic acidosis.

    * M-Methanol
    * U-Uremia
    * D-Diabetic Ketoacidosis
    * P-Paraldehyde
    * I-Infection, Iron, Isoniazid
    * L-Lactic acidosis
    * E-Ethylene Glycol, Ethanol
    * S-Salicylates

    13 Type 1 respiratory failure
    a. Low Po2 & Low Pco2
    b. Low Po2 & high Pco2
    ans-----------------in the given options its --Low Po2 & Low Pco2

    Type 1 respiratory failure is defined as hypoxia without hypercapnia, indeed the CO2 level may be normal or low. It is typically caused by a ventilation/perfusion mismatch; the air flowing in and out of the lungs is not matched with the flow of blood to the lungs.

    This type is caused by conditions that affect oxygenation like:

    * Parenchymal disease(v-q mismatch)
    * Diseases of vasculature and shunts.

    Type 2

    Type 2 respiratory failure is defined as the build up of carbon dioxide that has been generated by the body. The underlying causes include:

    * Reduced breathing effort (in the fatigued patient)
    * Increased resistance to breathing (such as in asthma)
    * A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in emphysema).

    16 Treatment of ABPA.

    The aim of treatment is to suppress the immune reaction to the fungus and to control bronchospasm.

    The immune reaction is suppressed using oral corticosteroids:

    * a high dose of prednisolone or prednisone (30 to 45 mg per day) in acute attacks
    * a lower maintenance dose (5-10 mg per day)

    Mucus plugs may be removed by bronchoscopic aspiration. It is almost impossible to eradicate the fungus but sometimes itraconazole (an anti-fungal) is used in combination with steroid therapy. Regular monitoring of the condition includes chest x-rays, pulmonary function tests, and serum IgE. The antibody levels usually fall as the disease is controlled, but they may rise again as an early sign of flare-ups.

    17 Kussmauls breathing
    Kussmaul breathing is the very deep and labored breathing with normal or reduced frequency, found among people with severe acidosis; it is a form of hyperventilation.[

    The cause of Kussmaul breathing is respiratory compensation for a metabolic acidosis, most commonly occurring in diabetics in diabetic ketoacidosis. Blood gases on a patient with Kussmaul breathing will show a low pCO2 because of a forced increased respiration (blowing off the carbon dioxide). The patient feels an urge to breathe deeply, an "air hunger", and it appears almost involuntary.

    A metabolic acidosis soon produces hyperventilation, but at first it will tend to be rapid and relatively shallow. Kussmaul breathing develops as the acidosis grows more severe. Indeed, Kussmaul originally indentified this type of breathing as a sign of coma and imminent death in diabetic patients.

    Duration of fasting, presence or absence of hepatomegaly and Kussmaul breathing provide clues to the differential diagnosis of hypoglycemia in the inborn errors of metabolism.
  12. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    In a trauma patient if MRI is used which technique should be used?

    Time of flight technique is used in :
    3. CT SCAN

    Least number of peaks seen on MRS in normal brain:

    Which does not form a peak in normal MRS scan?
    2. Lactate
    3.N-acetlyl aspartate

    Ct as a method of cerebral perfusion uses:
    3.111 In-DTPA

    Which gene/product is not associated with Familial Parkinson's disease?
    4.Ubiquitin carboxyterminal hydrolase1

    Major component of lewy bodies:
    1. Microtubule associated Tau
    2. alpha-synuclein
    3.Vada Pao
  13. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. CD 4 receptors are required for entry of HIV in all cells except ?

    a. Macrophages
    b. Dendritic cells
    c. Astrocytes
    d. Monocytes

    Q. Which of the following represent frequency of continous variables ?

    a. Histogram
    b. Line diagram
    c. Simple bar chart
    d. Component bar chart

    Q. The side effect of Leflunomide is ?

    a. pancytopenia
    b. psychosis
    c. Teratogenicity
    d. Myocarditis

    Q. Which of the following is false regarding hypernatremic dehydration ?

    a. cerebral bleeding
    b. Cerebral edema
    c. Central pontine myelinosis
    d. Metabolic acidosis
  14. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. which lung tumour is most likely to cavitate ?

    a) small cell carcinoma
    b) Adenocarcinoma
    c) Large cell carcinoma
    d).Squamous cell carcinoma
    e) Carcinoid tumour

    Q. HepatitisB window period shows-

    b.HBS antigen
    c.ANTI HBe

    Q. Most common cause of myelophthisic anaemia
    a) Multiple myeloma
    b) NHL
    c) Leukaemia
    d) Multiple secondaries
  15. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Which of the folowing has with maximum protein -
    a Soyabean
    b. Meat
    c. Egg

    Answer a. Soyabean.

    Pulses contain 20 - 25 % of protein which is double that of wheat and 3 times of rice.Pulses contain more protein than eggs, fish or
    Flesh foods..But regarding the quality , pulses ar inferior to animal protein.
    Soya bean is rich in protein contain 40 %

    Meat contain 15 - 20 % protein

    Ref park P 422 16 th ed
  16. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Highest fat/cal per 100 ml is in.
    a cows milk
    b. human milk
    c. goat milk
    d. Buffellos

    Answer d. Buffello. its 8.8 percent
  17. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Mesothelioma is associated with.

    Answer ..crocidolite variety of asbestois..
    asbestosis ate silicates of varying composition. The silica combined with bases of magnesium, iron, calcium, sodium and aluminium.

    Asbestosis 2 type..

    Serpentine or crysolite variety

    Amphiblite occur in different variety..

    Crocoidolite (blue) and amosite( brown) and anthrophylite (white).

    Asbestosis leads to Ca bronchus, Mesothelioma of pleura and peritonium Ca of GIT.

    safer variety of asbestos are crysolite and amosite.
  18. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Failure rate is more in
    a. Condum
    b. IUCD
    c. Pills

    Answer Condum..

    failure rates are indicated as Pearl index..(Pregnancy rate per 100 women year)

    Rhythm method ----- 25
    Coitus interruptus-----25
    Condom-------------- 10-14
    Diaphram------------ 12.
    IUCD---------------- 2.5
    OCP ---------------- 0.5
  19. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Most efficient contraceptive.
    a. Pills
    b. IUCD.

    Answer pills..
    as pearl index is only 0.5
  20. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. First developed in India.
    a. Unani
    b. Siddha
    c. Homeo

    Answer is b. Siddha..

    Medical systems of truely indian origina re Ayurveda and siddha system..

    Unani-Tibb system had origin from Greek medicine. Introduced to india by muslim rulers in 10th century.

    Homeopathy was propounded by samuel Hannemann of Germany.

    Ayurveda was practised throughout india.
    Siddha was practiced mainly by Tamil speaking areas in India.

    Ayurvedha means Knowledge of life..

    Some history..

    Dhanvantari is Hindu God of medicine...

    Celebrated authorities in ayurvedha..

    Atreya,Charaka,Susrutha, Vaghbhatt...

    Atreya = 1st Indian physician and teacher.
    Susrutha = Father of Indian surgury.
  21. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Dose of Vitamine C in children
    a, 40
    b. 60

    Answer a. 40

    Important RDA

    For Man

    Protein 60 g/d
    Fat 20 g/d Calcium 400 mg/d
    Iron 28 mg/d

    Vitamine A 600 microg/dl
    Thiamone 1.2 - 1.6 mg/dl
    Riboflavinm1.4 - 1.9mg/dl
    Niacin 16 -21mg/dl
    Pyridoxin 2.0 mg/dl
    Ascorbic acid 40 mg/dl
    Folic acid 100 microg/dl
    Vit b12 - 1 microg/dl

    Page 428 16 th ed park
  22. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. True of PHC
    a. Centres to population of 20,000 - 30,000
    b. One doctor = 5 nurces

    1 subcentre for 5000 population and 3000 in hilly,tribal area
    1 PHC ..........30,000 population and 20,000 in hilly area.
    1 CHC ..........1 lakh population and 80,000 9n hilly area

    Suggested norms..

    1.Doctors...............................1 per 3500 population
    2. Nurses...............................1 per 5,000
    3. Health worker female and male........1/5000
    4. Trained Dhai.........................1 for each village.
    5. health assistent (male and female)...1/ 30,000 in plain and 1/20,000 in hilly areas.
    6. Pharmacist...........................1/10,000
    7. Lab technicians......................1/10,000
  23. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Disease notifiable to WHO
    a. Cholera
    b. Paralytic polio

    Answer is a. Cholera.
    At international level the diseases notifiable to WHO in geneva under the international health regulation(IHR) are
    Cholera, plague , yellow fever
    Few suc as louse borne typhus, relpsing fever, polio, influenza, malaria, rabies and salmonella re subjected to international survellance.
  24. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Health promotion includes all except.

    answer Chemoprophylaxis.
    It is specific protection

    modes of intervensions are.

    Primodial privention
    Primary prevention
    Secondary prevention
    Tertiary prevention

    Primodial prevention are -- Life style modification

    Q. Primary prevention are.---

    a. Health promotion( Include Health education, life syle and behaviour change, nutritional intervention,environmental)
    b. Specific protection(Immunization,Chemoprophylaxis,Protection againest occupational disease)

    Q. Secondary prevention are
    a. Early diagnosis &
    b Treatment.

    Q. Tertiary prevention are
    a. Disability limitation &
    b. Rehabilitation.

    Q. Bleaching power for disinfection of faeces

    5 % solution (3 to 4 rounded tablespoons to 1 lite of water) is suitable for disinfection of faeces and urin allowing a period of 1 hr for disinfection.

    Good sample of bleaching powder has 33 % of "available chloride " It kills almost all organisms in the strength of 1- 3 %

    Q. Denominator of perinatal mortality.

    Answer Total live birth
    Perinatal mortality

    (Foetus deaths weighing over 1000 gms ie 28 wks or more + early neonatal death with in 7 days of birth) / Total no of live birth * 1000
  25. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. true or false regarding diabetic ketoacidosis

    1- bicarbonates should be given as part of fluid therapy
    2- the severity is closely related to the blood glucose level
    3- hyperkalemia follows inititation of insulin and fluid therapy

    Q. Excess of aldosteron will cause?
    a) Hypokalemia
    b) Hyperkalemia

    Q. Structure of 2ndry-villus includes?
    a) Mesoderm cytotrophoblast syncytium
    b) Capillaries cytotrophoblast syncytium

    Q. Spermatogenesis is supported by?
    a) FSH n testosterone
    b) Gonadotrophin

    Q. Which is not the manifestation of child born wid toxoplasma infection?
    a) Pneumonia
    b) Cataract
    c) Mental retardation
  26. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    1) Which hormone is responsible for storage of carbohydrate, fats, protein in body?
    a) Cortisol
    b) Growth hormone
    c) Thyroxin

    2) Which hormone is needed for brain development of fetus during intranatal life?
    a) Growth hormone
    b) Thyroid
  27. Javed.

    Javed. Guest

    Q. What is the difference between stress induced insomnia and primary hypersomnia?
  28. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. Radiotheraphy is given as adjuvent for all except
    a. Ca Breast
    b. Soft tissue sarcoma
    c. Ca Oesophagus
    d. Ca Colorectum

    Ans. b. softtissue sarcoma

    Q. Malignancy with clara cell origin
    a. Bronchoalveolar
    b. Carcinoid

    Ans: a. Bronchio alveolar

    Q. Double bubbble sign seen in
    UsuLLY IN annular pancrease
  29. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. Malignancy with clara cell origin
    a. Bronchoalveolar
    b. Carcinoid


    clara cells are non-mucous and non-ciliated secretory cells found in the primary bronchioles of the lungs.

    Clara cells are dome-shaped and have short microvilli. One of the main functions of Clara cells is to protect the bronchiolar epithelium. They do this by secreting a small variety of products, including Clara cell secretory protein (CCSP) and a component of the lung surfactant. They are also responsible for detoxifying harmful substances inhaled into the lungs. Clara cells accomplish this with cytochrome P450 enzymes found in their smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Clara cells also multiply and differentiate into ciliated cells to regenerate the bronchiolar epithelium.

    It has been suggested that adenocarcinoma of the lung, a tumour of the small airways, represents malignancy of the Clara cell.
  30. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    In most individuals a testicle cannot twist because the surrounding tissue is well attached to the scrotum. The term "bell clapper" deformity is often used to describe a congenital condition in those individuals, whose testes hang within the scrotum and can "swing" like a bell clapper in a bell, allowing for easy twisting. It must be emphasized that boys and men born with the "bell clapper" deformity have no attachments around either testicle, so that torsion can potentially occur on either side. Bilateral testicular torsion, however, is an exceedingly rare event.

    Other factors predisposing patients to testicular torsion include
    1an increase in testicular volume (often associated with puberty),
    2 testicular tumor,
    3testicles with horizontal lie,
    4 a history of cryptorchidism,
    5 and a spermatic cord with a long intrascrotal portion.
    6small testicles
    7 excessive exercise
    9.cremasteric spasm
    10.sexual activity
    11...a sudden scare
    12....imerson in cold water
    13...attempted reduction of an inguinal hernia
  31. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q1 when were the five yr plan started ?
    Q2 do y know the components of RCh now?? at present
    Q3which aa are laking in wheat?
    Q4tubrous sclerosis ....chromosomes???
    Q5 incubation period of influenza?
    Q7wats arcuate fasciculus?
    Q8...tonsils max size at wat age?
    Q9......mastoid developed fully at wat age? many lymph nodes in space of gillete?
    Q11.....when do they regress?
    Q12......most common parathyroid lesion in MEN1? heart transplant in which yr...??
    Q14.......biggest man made disaster in india ?
    Q15.......collor button sign in radio?
    Q16.......wat are type 4 oesophageal varices?
    Q17.......gene translocation.....myeloma?
    Q19...........morgan milligan op?
    Q20...........stages of death given by whom?
    Q21...........bechats ....HLA?
    q22................altmiers op done for??
    q23................gene for glucoma
    q24..............tolsa hunt syndrome?
    q25..............a person has paralysis of rt superior oblique..........his compensatory tilt will be which side? cranial nerve damaged in raised ict??
  32. John.

    John. Guest

    Q.1. A child present to u with dehydration .What will u give him?

    a]Wt*% dehydration *10
    b] Wt* % Dehydration* 500
    c] Wt* % Dehydration*2
    d] Wt* % Dehydration*main fluid
    e] Wt* % Dehydration*50ml

    Could anyone pls give us good explanation for above qs.THX

    Q.2. a doctor working with u steaks narcotics.What will u do?
    a] Talk to higher authority
    b]Lock the storage cabinet
    c]talk to him about his prob
    d]Tell him to seek professional help
    e]keep it confidential.

    Q.3. Specific main action of progesterone?
    a] pituatary

    Q.4. Resp distress developed few hours after thyroidectomy. What wiull u do>?
    a]remove skin stiches
    b]open the wound at bed side.
    c]check calcium level.

    Q.5. A soccer player presented with weakness of dorsiflexion of the foot with a normal ankle & knee jerk.Where is the possible lesion?

    Q.6. Fluid requirements after murtagh general practice:
    Fluid loss(ml)= %dehydratation x bodyweight (kg)x 10
    Maintenance: ml/kg/24h
    1-3m 120 ml
    4-12m 100ml
    >12m 80ml
  33. John.

    John. Guest

    Q. 7. Potential causes of hypercalcaemia INCLUDE containing medications
    C.oral contraceptive preparations
    D.Ca f breast

    Q. 8. serum ACE levels r elevated in all except

    a. lymphoma

    b. granulomatous hepatitis

    c. bronchogenic carcinoma

    d. fungal infection
  34. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. A 34 weeks pregnant female with BP of 220/120.
    What will you give to her?

    - MgSO4.
    - Hydralazine.

    Q. A patient always complains of maculopapular rash on certain areas, which spontaneously and completely resolves.

    - Acute urticaria.
    - Chronic urticaria.
    - Atopic dermatitis.
    - Contact dermatitis.

    Q. this is most common tumour of heart>>

  35. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Which of the following is responsible for mediating between personal drives and external reality?

    - Superego.
    - Ego.
    - ID.

    Q. sexual asphyxia..cause of death..........

    Q. all seen in dyslexsia except
    a.prevalence 1:1000
    b.good in maths
    c.has good auditory memory

    Q. true abt fibrolemellar hepatoma all except
    a.seen in cirrhotic liver
    b.good prognosis
    c.marked fibrosis(ans)

    Q. proximal bronchiastsis seen in
    a.pulm. aspergillosis(ans)
    b.pulm tb
    c.pnemonia in measles
    d.distal acinar??

    Q. all done in ca oesophagus except
    c.palliative gastrotomy

    Q. if uterus pressure during labour is 90 to 390 then unit used is
    a.montavideo unit(ans) of h20 of hg

    Q. young infant
    a.7 days
    c.2 mths

    Q. most commen cause of strictures
    b.chr. abscess

    Q. all act as transmembrane.....except

    a.early decelaration
    b.late "
    c.variable "

    Q. flexion deformity tested by>>>>thomas test

    Q. gallstones.......
    a.brown pig pig
  36. Joseph.

    Joseph. Guest

    Q. Zinc finger is :
    a- Nuclear receptor
    b- Membrane associated kinase
    c- Receptor associated kinase

    Ans: A.
    - Transcription controls operate at the level of protein - DNA and protein-protein interactions. These interactions display protein domain modularity and high specificity. Motifs mediate these binding of regulatory proteins to DNA. Three unique motifs accounting for many of these specific protein DNA interactions are :
    - Helix-turn. Helix
    - Zinc finger
    - Leucine zipper
    - Zinc Finger : these are a series of repeated domains (2 to 9) in which each is centered on a tetrahedral coordination with Zinc. Examples: TFIIIA in xenopus, Steroid receptor family in mammals. In case of TFIIIA, the coordination is provided by a pair of cysteine residues (c) separated by 12-13 aminoacids from a pair of histidine residues. In other zinc finger proteins, the second pair also constitutes of C residues.
    - Zinc finger binds in the major grove, with the adjacent fingers making contact with 5bp along the same face of helix.
    - The nuclear receptors have a centrally located DNA binding domains (DBD) that allow binding to bind with high affinity to a response element. The DBD contains two zinc finger binding motifs that direct binding either as homodimers, as heterodimers (usually with retinoid & receptor partner). or as monomers.
    - Therefore zinc finger is related to nuclear receptor.
  37. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Which of the following human cells is implantated
    a) Zygote

    b) Blastocyst

    c) Secondary Oocyte

    d) Primary Oocyte

    e) Morula
  38. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. All of the following disorders are associated with autosomal recessive inheritance EXCEPT
    a- Tay-Sachs disease
    b- Hunter’s syndrome
    c- galactosemia
    d- phenylketonuria
    e- cystic fibrosis

    Answer: B. Hunter’s syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder similar to, but generally less severe than, Hurler syndrome. Both are associated with abnormal accumulations of mucopolysaccharides such as heparan sulfate and dermatan sulfate, and both are members of the mucopolysaccharidosis subgroup of the lysosomal storage diseases. Both are associated with gargoylism, but Hunter’s syndrome is associated with X-linked inheritance; Hurler’s syndrome, with autosomal recessive inheritance.
  39. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. All of the following disorders are transmitted by X-linked inheritance EXCEPT
    a- Fabry’s disease
    b- Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
    c- glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
    d- classic hemophilia (hemophilia A)
    e- von Gierke’s disease

    Answer: E. Von Gierke’s disease is a form of glycogen storage disease inherited as an autosomal recessive characteristic.
  40. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    1. About cardiotocography – what is true:

    a) Decelerations which occur with a contraction even though less than 10 is indicative of foetal hypoxia
    b) Reduced beat to beat variability for a 5 minute period is indicative of severe foetal hypoxia and indication for caesarean section
    c) A sinusoid wave pattern indicate foetal anaemia
    d) Accelerations occurring with uterine contraction are bad indicators
    e) Decelerations which occur with contractions and associated with low variability is a bad diagnosis indicator

    2. Which is not a side effect of oxytocin:

    a) hypotension
    b) hypertension
    c) water intoxication
    d) foetal distress
    e) uterine tetany

    3. Regarding anti D administration to a Rh negative mother which is true:

    a) administration in the second trimester has been shown to decrease auto immunisation in the mother
    b) it is an active immunisation
    c) to be effective it should be given within 24 hours of delivery
    d) not required if ABO incompatibility is also present
    e) need not be administered if antibody titre is negative at 38 weeks

    4. Side effect of Danazol administered during pregnancy is a female infant may cause:

    a) pseudo hermaphroditism
    b) enlargement of clitoris
    c) cleft lip and cleft palate
    d) fusion of the labia
    e) foetal hypoglycemia

    5. What is the appropriate management for prolonged latent stage of labour:

    a) syntocinon
    b) epidural anesthesia
    c) amniotomy
    d) caesarean section
    e) left under observation ++++

    6. You are managing a 150 cm tall primipara at 38 weeks gestation. After examination you find decreased pelvic diameters, cervix is fully effaced, 4 cm dilated, Vx presentation at zero station. How would you manage her:

    a) caesarean section
    b) X-ray pelvimetry
    c) trial of labour to be given
    d) immediate amniotomy and oxytocin
    e) should shorten the second stage of labour with forceps

    7. What is true regarding ovarian tumour being distinguished from ascites:

    a) tympany anteriorly, dullness laterally
    b) tympany laterally, dullness anteriorly
    c) shifting dullness
    d) presence of fluid mainly in the flanks
    e) feeling of dullness in the pouch of Douglas

    8. Regarding Mullerian Agenesis, which is not true:

    a) it is an X-linked recessive condition
    b) breats development is normal
    c) pubic hair development is normal
    d) Under-develop ovaries
    e) IVF procedure might be successful with surgery

    9. Regarding asymptomatic bacteriuria, which is not true:

    a) streptococcus fecalis is the commonest organism
    b) one third of the patients can develop pyelonephritis
    c) 5 % of women develop symptomatic disease
    d) amoxicilline is first line of treatment
    e) trimethoprim is indicated in the 1st trimester

    10. Regarding Group B Streptococcus infection in a pregnant woman, which is not true:

    a) gastrointestinal tract is the commonest source
    b) administration of penicillin will eradicate the organism throughout pregnancy
    c) can lead to fatal neonatal infection
    d) vaginal carriage is present in 10-20 % women
    e) rarely produce neonatal meningitis

    11. On examination of a girl a small cyst was discovered on the vaginal wall 4 cm from the introitus anterolaterally. The cyst is asymptomatic. What is the likely diagnosis:

    a) remnant of hymental ring
    b) Wolffian duct remnant
    c) Mullerian duct remnant
    d) Bartholin duct enlargement
    e) vaginal epithelial cyst
  41. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    1.The change of the severe hypo-glycemia in the infant of a diabetic mother can be lessened by all the following except -
    a- Careful control of the maternal blood glucose levels during pregnancy
    b- Maternal intravenous loading with 10% glucose beginning 2 to 4 hr period to the expected time of delivery
    c- Careful glucose monitoring of the infant
    d- Early feeding of the infant
    e- Maintenance of the infant in a neutral thermal environment

    2. A term, 4200 g female infant is delivered via cesarean section because of cephalopelvic disproportion. The amniotic fluid was clear and the infant cried almost immediately after birth. Within the first 15 min. of life, however the infant’s respiratory increased to 80 breaths per minute and she began to have intermittent grunting respirations. The infant was transferred to the level two nursery and was noted to have an oxygen saturation of 94%. The chest radiograph showed fluid in the fissure, over-aeration, and prominent pulmonary vascular markings. The most likely diagnosis in this infant is -
    a- diaphragmatic hernia
    b- Meconium aspiration
    c- Pneumonia
    d- Idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome
    e- Transient tachypnea of the newborn

    3. The infant pictured below presented with syphilis. Clinical features of congenital syphilis during the first 3 months of life include all of the following except -
    a- Maculopapular rash
    b- Persistent rhinitis
    c- Anemia
    d- Interstitial keratitis
    e- Hepatosplenomegaly

    4. A newborn infant is ready for discharge from the term nursery. In providing instructions to the parents, you include advice concerning infant automobiles restraints. Each of the following is true except:
    a- Children are safest restrained in the back seat of the car
    b- The risk of death is tenfold greater in unrestrained children
    c- Many children restrained are used improperly
    d- Most children between 1 and 4 yrs of age are not restrained
    e- An adult wearing a seat belt can safely hold an infant in his/her arms

    5. Correct statements regarding neural tube defects (anencephaly, meningomyelocele) include each of the following except –
    a- The hereditary pattern is considered multifactorial
    b- The prenatal diagnosis can be made by detection of very low levels of alpha-fetoprotein in the amniotic fluid
    c- There is an increased risk in the next pregnancy
    d- The risk of a third affected child is approximately 10%
    e- Environmental and social factors influence the incidence

    6. An infant born to a heroin addict is likely to exhibit all the following except –
    a- Prematurity and low birth weight
    b- Onset of withdrawal symptoms within the first 2 days of life
    c- Hyperirritability and coarse tremors
    d- Vomiting and diarrhea
    e- An increased incidence of hyaline membrane disease

    7. A previously healthy full-term infant has several episodes of duskiness and apnea during the second day of life. Diagnostic considerations should include each of the following except –
    a- Bacterial meningitis
    b- Congenital heart disease
    c- Seizure disorder
    d- Harlequin syndrome
    e- Hypoglycemia

    8. In the newborn period, which of the following is the least common sign of meningitis?
    a- Lethargy
    b- Jaundice
    c- Vomiting
    d- Nuchal rigidity
    e- Hypothermia
  42. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    Q. A 72 year old man complains of limiting exertional chest tightness. He has clinical evidence of significant aortic stenosis. Transthoracic echocardiography demonstrates a peak aortic valve gradient of 80 mmHg with moderate left ventricular function and probable aortic incompetence Cardiac catheterization is performed. What would be the most helpful information to obtain from this investigation?
    a- Aortic valve gradient
    b- Left ventricular function
    c- Presence of co-existing coronary artery disease
    d- Right heart pressure
    e- Severity of co-existing aortic incompetence

    Q. A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy and permanent atrial fibrillation (AF) has a resting heart rate of 110 bpm. 24 hours taped recording show even higher uncontrolled rates, particularly associated with exercise. He is already taking 187.5 mg of digoxin and has a normal creatinine. Which one of the following would be the most beneficial treatment?
    a- Addition of beta blocker
    b- Addition of verapmil
    c- AV node ablation and permanent pacemaker insertion
    d- DC cardioversion
    e- Increase digoxin to 250 mg.

    Q. A 30 year old window cleaner has a one year history of frequent, rapid, irregular palpitations associated with dizziness, but no actual syncope. He drinks approximately 35 units per week but is on no regular medications. His resting ECG confirms a diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-white syndrome (WPW). Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
    a- Aminodarone
    b- Flecainide
    c- Radiofrequency ablation of accessory pathway
    d- Radiofrequency modification of AV node
    e- Sotalol

    Q. A 60 year old presents with increasing swelling of ankles, abdominal distension, and dyspnoea. She has a past medical history of pulmonary, tuberculosis as a child and a left mastectomy and subsequent radiotherapy 5 years previously. On examination she is apyrexial, with a sinus tachycardia of 100bpm and blood pressure of 110/160 (paradox 8 mmHg.). She has significant peripheral oedema and ascites. Her jvp is elevated at 8 cm above the sternal angle and demonstrates a rapid y descent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a- Cardiac tamponade
    b- Constrictive pericaditis
    c- Intra- abdominal neoplasm
    d- Severe tricuspid incompetence
    e- Superior vena cava obstruction

    Q. The following findings are obtained during right and left heart catheterization in a 50 yr old woman:
    Pressures: right atrial = mean 9, right ventricle = 35/2, pulmonary artery = 36/14, pulmonary capillary wedge = 10, aorta = 120/65.
    Saturations (%): superior vena cava = 65, right atrial = 76,
    Right ventricle = 77, pulmonary artery = 75, aorta = 97.
    She has no significant past medical history, except recent onset of paroxysmal atrial flutter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a- ASD – ostium primum
    b- ASD – ostium secundun
    c- Sinus venous defect
    d- Tricuspid incompetence
    e- VSD
  43. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    Paget's disease of bone

    (a) May present with neurological complications or a pathological fracture
    (b) Causes an increase in both serum calcium and phosphate
    (c) Causes an increase in serum alkaline phosphatase
    (d) Malignant change occurs in 1% of patients
    e)The commonest malignant tumour in patients with Paget's disease is a chondrosarcoma
  44. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    Paget's disease of bone answers are
    a) May present with neurological complications or a pathological fracture
    (c) Causes an increase in serum alkaline phosphatase
    (d) Malignant change occurs in 1% of patients
  45. Monika.

    Monika. Guest

    Invasive amoebiasis can be best diagnosed by ?

    a. ELISA
    b. Counter current immunoelectrophoresis
    c. Indirect hemaglutination test
    d. Complement fixation text
  46. saurav.

    saurav. Guest

    Licked Candy stick appearance seen in ?

    a. congenital syphilis
    b. Leprosy
    c. Sarcoidosis
    d. Eosinophilic granuloma

    ans: leprosy

    licked candy stick appearence is also seen in

    1. psoriatic arthritis

    2. rheumatoid arthritis

    3. leprosy

    refers to tapering of the tips of the metacarpal, metatarsal bones,phalanges,clavicle.
  47. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    mhpgmcet 2008 questions and answers

    1.genital filariasis-w.bancrofti
    3.state govt-1/8 share
    5-exhumation-district magistrate
    6-monteggia fracture-medial side u know it well
    7.medicine up splint-radial nerve palsy
    8.aphakic eye-aqueous humor
    taking rest
    10.Anaesthesia children-sevoflurane
    11.fluoride level-0.5-0.8 ppm
    12.vescicle-[bleep] pemphigoid
    13.leucine-glucogenic amino acid
    14.reynolds no-viscocsty
    15-poissilies law-[p1-p2] complete urself
    16.supporting ligament-spring ligament
    17.superior oblique-depression
    18.polymyositis-extraocular mscle involvement
    19.carman meniscus-malignancy gastric
    20.10 months-stand without support
    21.cloudy cornea-hunter syndrome
    22.m.guttman body-ca deposits
    23.mixed oxidases-homogentisate oxidases
    24.irrevercible step in glycolysis-aldolase
    25.self mutilation-lyesh nyan syndrome
    27-dissociative fugue
    28.rossets-ewing sarcoma
    29.osteosarcoma-laminated periosteal reaction
    30.giant cell tomour-metaphysis
    31.march #-shaft
    32.dyslexia-its a transient condition
    33.dyslexia- plz complte it any ishan there
    35.2015-lymphatic filariasis
    37.vaginal delivery-AIDS
    38.4TH STAGE-1 HOUR
    39.oraly active-ximelabatran
    40.hyperglycemia-nicotinic acid
    41.prodrug-bhul gaya re baba its simple
    43.heterophile antibody-coombs test
    44.prozone-antibody exess
    45.lung fibrosis-quartz robbins
    46.basal emphysema-pan acinar
    47middle lobe Pathology -lordotic view confirmed
    49.styalgia-eagle syndrome
    50.coottle test
    51.max sedative-amytriptaline
    52.parkland formula- 4800 ml
    53.penicillin derivative-penicillin
    54.niman piks-sphingomylinase
    55.drug absorption-mefloquine harrison
    56.motillin receptrs-erythromycin
    57.small intestine Pathology not seen-carbo.deficiency
    58.perineural invasion
    adenocystic ca.
    59.paritid gland-least malingnant
    60.odd ratio ad/bc
    61.single sputum +ve-take chest xray
    62culex-japanese encephalitis
    63.mansonia-aquqtic weeds
    64.GABA A-lagand gated
    65.ester-single'i' wala
    66.troiser sign-supraclavicular ly.node
    67superficial inguinal ring-ext.abdo.
    68.lumbar plexus-post.psaos major
    69long thoracic nerve-serratous anterior
    70.snake venom severe local reaction-viper
    71.schiller duval body-endodermal sinus tumor
    72.paraaxial mesoderm-somites cause f death-LBW
    74.BLOOD IN CAPILLARIS-curve shift to left
    76.CDH-maldevelopement f acetabulam
    77.TGF B-epithelial proliferation
    78.enzyme inhibitor-ciprofloxacin
    79.lignocaine-shortening ofAP
    82.Vibrio-robert koch
    83.cleft lip-5 to6 m
    84.TFR-cmplete family size
    86.CLAY SHOVELLOR #-spinous proces
    87.guttate psoriasis-after infection
    88.tuberculate sore-histoplasmosis
    89.epithelial hyperplasia
    90.coral red-erythrasma
    91.HRCT-int.lung deasese
    92.high radio exposure-CTscan
    93.not produced=Xray
    94.index finger infection-thenar space
    96.flexion deformity of hip-thomas test
    97.pnemocystitis carinii in non aids pt-amphotericin
    [snip].vit c-oxaluria
    100.terbinafine-prevent ergosterol synthesis officer-20mcurrie penetration,auto infection-stringyloidosis
    104.s phase specific-ifofsamide
    105.reyes syndrme-all of the above
    106.hemolysis-reticulocytosis heterognity-o.imperfecta
    108.o.imperfecta-type 1 collagen
    109.pseudodominance-its reapeat option a is ans
    110.founder effect-genetic characteristics
    111.Uretric obstruction-radionuclide scan
    112.Low apgar score-early desceleration
    113.Sequesterd lung blood supply-aorta
    114.C1 inhibitor-angio edema
    115Ca colon-mc site ceacum
    116.T cell suppression-leflunamide
    117.Protoporphyrin increases-all of the above
    118.Renal failure index<1-CCF
    119Duffy antigen-pl.vivax
    120 Murmur increase on squatting-rheumatic murmur
    121 Malignant pheochromocytoma-dopamine Harrison
    123 Supporting ligament of liver-coronary lig
    124 Trotters triad-cervical mets
    125 Best Breast graft-lattisimus dorsi most probable
    126 Thiersh graft-split skin graft
    127 Renal clearance-uv/p-20 ml
    128 Thick walled brain arteries seen in-ans not known plz help
    129 Inspiration controlled by-plz help
    130 Respiratory arrhythmia-stretch receptors stimulates vagus 99% right plz cnfirm
    131 Sleep induction-not known help
    132 Alternative pathway of corticospinal tract-I marked medullary centers not known plz help genius
    133 Wrong one-riboflavin-corneal vascularisation
    134 Fresh frozen plasma-all of the above
    135 antrochoanal polyp-post rhinoscopy
    136 stereocilia-epidodymis
    137 fibroid t/t-OCP
    138 afterhyperpolarisation-slow closing of K+ channels
    139 occipeto posterior vaginal delivery-20-30%
    140 post urethral valve-distal to veru montenum
    141.prox brinchiectasis-aspergillosis
    142 sistrunk operation-thyroglossal fistula
    143 schizophrenia incidence-0.8%
    144 chravellet#-below
    145 human breast feeding-hypocalcemia
    146 fastest acting thyroid inhibitor-k iodide
    147.pompes disease-acid maltase
    148 unicef-newyork
    149 cocaine-pupillary dilatation
    150 na prusside side effect profile-all of d above
    151.goldmann mirror-30%field seen through A lens
    152 cardiac muscle-has central nucleus
    153 dobutamine-plz help
    154 mandibular depressors-all muscles
    155 ketamine-phencyclidine derivative
    156 mivacurium-shortest acting
    157 local anaesthetic causing arrhythmia t/t-not known
    158 most susceptible-vascular endothelium
    159 COPD-TLC/RV
    160 pernicios anemia-vit b12 inj.
    161 normal vision-trichromatic
    162 h.pylori-not seen in intestinal metaplasia?
    163 melanocyte proliferation-ephelids
    164 fibrolamellar ca-occur in cirrhotic livers
    165 dubin Johnson syndrome –ephinephrine metabolites
    166 pregnancy-hep
    167 pancreatitis-cullen sign
    168 common bile duct stone-brown see robbins
    169 esophageal ca-gastrostomy is c/i
    170 reducing equivalents-NADH +H
    171 tRNA –peptydyl transferase activity
    172 laryngoscopy-ant commissure
    173 restriction endonuclease- cut at specific sequences
    174 resp.chain highest potential-cyt fe/fe2+
    175 restriction endonuclease-cut at specific sequences
    176 attach only to anionic site-edrophonium
    177 ketone body used by-muscle
    178 rifampcin MOA-inhibit DNA polymerase
    179 lip A inhibited by-nicotinic acid
    180 no effect on DNA health-missense mutation most probable
    181 fluoride inhibits-enolase
    182 stop codon-no need of ans
    183 LASIK-ALL
    185 phacolytic glaucoma-all d above
    186 tabes dorsalis earliest-demylination ofdorsal root neurons
    187 mg sulphate level-6-8meq
    188 agonal period-coma upto death
    189 dopamine agonist withdrawl-neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    190 inhibitor of intestinal alkaline phospatase-L phenylalanine
    191 uronic acid pathway-
    192 earliest deposited during bone formation-plz cnfirm ca2+ phosporus
    193.renal tubular acidosis type 2-plz help
    194.schistosoma mansoni-esophageal varices
    195.yellow fvr referance cenyre-kasauli internet
    196 psoritic arthropathy-all of above
    197 ASD osteum secondum-RBBB
    198 LEAD TIME-screening
    199 ca penis-m/ c cause of death-femoral artery bleeding
    200 limb lead 2-right arm
    201 aortic sinus of valsalva-all of above
    202 starvation last to go-pericardium
    2o3-perservation-repeatation of words
    204 chocolate brown-k chlorate
    205 paracussis willisi-otosclerosis
    206 brunners gland-duodenum
    207calcification-dystrophic calcification
    208 fertilisation-ampulla
    209 syncytium and cytotrophoblast diff-at 6 th day
    210 serum protein/ascites protien index-portal pressure
    211 earliest comes and goes in alcoholic patients-pharmacokinetic dependance
    212 cereals pulses-460 and 60
    213TT vaccinations-all of the above
    214 inegrated manag of child hood illnes-early infnt 2 months.wat a great question.these stupid peoples can ask anything
    215 rhodopsin-11 cis retinal
    216 triple subluxation-internal rotation
    217post menopausal volume of ovary after 15 years-its increases 2 ml is not a ans its normal vol.from where such faltu ques are picked god knows
    218.garres osteomylitis-it tnvolves lower thoracic vertebra
    219 pulm.embolism-D-dimer assay
    220.parvo virus-all of above
    221.breast developement-SMR4 GRAY ANAT
    222 PDA -characteristic thrill
    223 baby born shd b at lower level than mother
    224 first detected-proband
    225 lactoferrin-inhibits e.coli internet
    226ureteric colic-refers to ant thigh
    227 argemone oil-nitric acid test
    228 filamentous fungi-tenia corpora
    229 corneal endothelial count-2800 parson
    230 bronchiolitis obliterans-o2 is main therapy
  48. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. In patients treated by radiotherapy of ca cx the MOST COMMON site of radn injury producing clinical effects is the

    a) small intestine
    d)sigmoid colon
  49. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. Dementia precox term was given by...
    A. Freud
    B. Bleuler
    C. Krepalin
    D. Schneider
    ans. C

    Q. Drugs used in pph except..
    A. Misoprostol
    B. Syntocinon
    C. Syntometrin
    D. Mifepristone
    ans. D
  50. R.dass

    R.dass Guest

    Q. Which is not an antioxidant?

    Q. Commonest cause of BLINDNESS IN HIV PATIENT?








    Q. MINERA IS A :


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