IMP QUESTIONE WITH ANSWERS

Discussion in 'Question Zone' started by Joseph., Nov 5, 2007.

  1. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    Q. Bulimia nervosa

    a) Hyperkalemia
    b) Never occur in male
    c) Associated with depression
  2. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    Q. Contraindication to tricyclic therapy:

    a) TCA
    b) Alcohol
    c) Lithium
    d) MAOI
    e) Antipsychotic drug
  3. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    Q. CARDIAC JELLY FORMS WHICH ADULT STRUCTURE-

    A ) PERICARDIUM
    B)ENDOCARDIUM
    C)MYOCARDIUM
    D)MESOCARDIUM

    ANS - d
  4. Jack.

    Jack. Guest

    1.) During the early stages of an asthmatic attack:
    Airway resistance decreases
    lung compliance increases
    the equall pressure point moves towards the mouth
    arterial oxygen tension increases
    arterial carbon dioxide tension decreases (this was the answer)

    2.) A 12 year old girl has been severely anemic (Hg=6 g/dl)for several months. Which of the following is most likely to be decreased during resting conditions?
    2-3 DPG
    CO
    RBC H+ concentration
    Mixed venous p02 (answer)
    arterial po2
  5. Jack.

    Jack. Guest

    Q. Which one of the following will decrease in a person with V/Q abnormalities:
    A-a gradient
    Anion Gap
    Arterial CO2 tension
    Alveolar ventilation
    Arterial pH
  6. Jack.

    Jack. Guest

    Q. Which one of the following is detected by antigen detection test used for diagnosis of P. falciparum malaria.

    a) Circum-sporozoite protein.
    b) Merozoite surface protein.
    c) Histidine – Rich- Protein I(HRP –1)
    d) Histidine- Rich protein II(HRP – II)
  7. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    Q. regarding brachial plexus:
    a) each of the three trunks divides into anterior and posterior division behind the clavicle
    b) the roots are present between the scalene muscles and trunks in the anterior triangle
    c) the lateral pectoral nerve pierces the clavipectoral fascia to supply pectoralis major muscle
    d) the musculocutaneous nerve becomes the anterior cutaneous nerve of forearm
    e) the radial nerve passes through the triangular space
  8. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. In metabolic alkalosis:
    a) There is net movement of potassium out of the muscle cells
    b) There is increased potassium excretion in the urine
    c) The extra cellular potassium concentration is above normal
    d) The respiratory compensation consists of hyperventilation
    e) The plasma chloride concentration is likely to be raised
  9. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. When a normal person lies down:
    a) heart rate settles to a higher rate then when standing
    b) Venous return is immediately increased
    c) cerebral blood flow settles to a higher level then when standing
    d) blood flow in the apices of lung increases
    e) blood pressure decreases which is regulated by baroreceptors
  10. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. Concerning the spinal cord:
    a) each spinal segment has two dorsal roots
    b) the motor neurons are located in the dorsal root ganglia
    c) the grey matter of spinal cord lies outside the white matter
    d) the gray appearance of gray matter is due to myelin sheath
    e) the dorsal column consists largely of second order neurons
  11. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    1...two aeroplanes collide on a runway and there r multiple casualties.. one of the survivor is found walking in a daze but otherwise seemingly unharmed over his objections he was taken to hospital where CXR show wide mediastinum and fractured left first rib ....what could be the most likely possiblity in this case


    1. fractured rib causing damage to nerve plexus
    2. ruptured aorta
    3 diaphragmatic rupture
    3.pneumothorax

    2..a 23 yr old man crashes hs car into wall when he arrives at the ER a mirror image of the word ford is seen imprintd over his precordial region
    he is exquisitely tender over a point in the sternum where palpation elicits a gritty feeling of bone grating on bone
    which one of the following is true regarding management of this patient

    1..CXR will reveal sternal fracture and can check for widened mediastinum
    2.could have myocardial injury so do cardiac enzymes first
    3ECG is not helpful in this case
    4 . none of the above

    Answer: of the 1st ques is ruptured aorta. the reason for it are following.
    Aortic Tear
    • 90% tear at subclavian (near ligamentum arteriosum), most die at scene
    • salvageable if diagnosis made rapidly

    X-ray features of Aortic tear (ABC WHITE):
    • depressed left mainstem Bronchus
    • pleural Cap
    • Wide mediastinum (most consistent)
    • Hemothorax
    • Indistinct aortic knuckle
    • Tracheal deviation to right side
    • Esophagus (NG tube) deviated to right


    Ans of the 2nd ques is 1.CXR will reveal sternal fracture and can check for widened mediastinum.
    Before doing cardiac enzyme, as a rule it's compulsory to do ECG and here it says ECG is not helpful in this case. so ans is only a.
  12. New.

    New. Guest

    Q. Usually a one year old would:
    a) crawl on the floor
    b) have a pincer grip
    c) give up a toy on request
    d) walk without support
    e) show stranger anxiety
  13. New.

    New. Guest

    Q. the combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is effective in:
    a) Tuberculosis
    b) Candidiasis
    c) H.influenza infections
    d) shigella infections
    e) pnemocystis carnii
  14. New.

    New. Guest

    Q.most common cause of ac epiglottitis
    a h.influenza
    b strep pyogenes
    c strep pneumoniae
    d staph aureus
  15. dass.

    dass. Guest

    Naegele’s rule for estimating a woman’s due date is based on all of the following factors except -
    a- Regular monthly menstrual circles
    b- A pregnancy of 280 days
    c- Ovulation about day 14
    d- Cycle regulation with birth control pills prior conception
    e- Conception at midcycle

    Answer: d. The expected date of confinement is calculated by adding 9 months and 7 days to the date of the last menstrual period, which is a total of 280 days. This calculation assumes a 28-30-day cycle with ovulation and conception around midcycle or day 14. This calculation would not be accurate in a woman with regular 35-day cycles because her ovulation occurs around day 21, which then affects the true due date. Because of an occasional delay in ovulation in the cycle after stopping the birth control pills, ovulation may occur later than 2 weeks after the last pill period.
  16. dass.

    dass. Guest

    Q. A pregnant vegetarian is likely to be deficient in which of the following substances?
    a- Calcium
    b- Folic acid
    c- Iron
    d- Protein
    e- Vitamin B12

    Answer: e. A vegetarian eats no meat, and vitamin B12, occurs naturally only in foods of animal origin. Thus, a physician should assume a lack of B12 in the diet of a vegetarian. If a vegetarian drinks milk and eats cheese, beans, fruits, green leafy vegetables, and whole grain cereal, she should not have folic acid, protein, calcium, or iron deficiencies.
  17. dass.

    dass. Guest

    Q. Incompatible combination include which of the following?
    1- 40-week pregnancy and fetal weight of 7 ½ lbs
    2- 14 - week pregnancy and fetal heart tones by fetoscope
    3- 40-week pregnancy and maternal weight gain of 30 lbs
    4- 30-week pregnancy and top of the uterus 27 cm above the symptoms

    Answer: (2, 4) At 40 weeks in a normal pregnancy, one can expect a maternal weight gain of 20-30 lbs and a fetal weight of about 7 ½ lbs. The senor device can identify fetal heart tones at 12 -14 weeks, while the fetoscope cannot pick up the fetal heart tones until 18 - 20 weeks. At 30 weeks gestation, the top of the uterus should be about 30 cm from the symphysis pubic as the measurement in centimeters approximates the weeks of gestation between 18 and 30 weeks.
  18. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q.1 Chronic alcoholics require more ethanol than do nondrinkers to become intoxicated because of a higher level of specific enzyme. However, independent of specific enzyme levels, the availability of what other substance is rate-limiting in the clearance of ethanol?

    a. NADH

    b. NAD+

    c. FADH

    d. FAD+

    e. NADPH

    The correct answer is: B.


    Q-2 Which of the following hormones stimulates gluconeogenesis?

    a. Progesterone

    b. Glucagon

    c. Aldosterone

    d. Epinephrine

    e. Thyroxine

    f. Growth hormone

    g. Insulin

    h. Glucocorticoids

    The correct answer is: B.

    Q-3 Which of the following explains why individuals with hyperlipidemia
    and/or gout should minimize their intake of sucrose and highfructose
    syrups?

    a. Fructose is initially phosphorylated by liver fructokinase

    b. After initial modification, fructose is cleaved by a specific enolase

    c. Fructose is converted to UDP-fructose

    d. Fructose is ultimately converted to galactose

    e. Fructose can be phosphorylated by hexokinase in adipose cells

    The correct answer is : A.


    Q-4 Which one of the following activities is simultaneously stimulated by
    epinephrine in muscle and inhibited by epinephrine in the liver?

    a. Fatty acid oxidation

    b. Glycogenolysis

    c. Cyclic AMP synthesis

    d. Glycolysis

    e. Activation of phosphorylase

    The correct answer is: D.


    Q-5 A child has ingested cyanide from her parents’ garage and is rushed to the emergency room. Which of the following components of the citric acid cycle will be depleted first in this child?

    a. NAD+ cofactor

    b. Citrate synthase

    c. Aconitase

    d. Citrate production

    e. Acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) production

    The correct answer is: A.
  19. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Question with Answers

    1. A 36 year old woman complains of depression. She reports a decrease in sleep, weight, and libido. SHe also complains of recent constipation. The changes in the patient's sleep, weight, libido. and bowel habits are all

    a. neurovegetative signs

    b. word salad

    c. conversion

    d. catatonia

    e. neologisms

    2. At a charity dinner honoring a newly crowned pageant winner, the speaker makes an embarrassing error during the introduction. In reference to some charity work that the winner had been involved in working with paraplegics, he said "I am especially proud of her fondness and work with nipples .....I mean cripples." this is embarassing situation could be an example of

    a. parapraxis

    b. echopraxia

    c. copropraxia

    d. bruxism

    e. clang association

    3. On a patients first visit to his psychiatrist the psychiatrist asks about family history and other medical illness, and performs a detailed physical and neurological examination. This psychiatrist is operating mainly under a paradigm?

    a. dynamic

    b. pschoanalytic

    c. forensic

    d. social

    e. biological

    4. During his session, a patient recieves mainly empathetic reassurances from his pschiatrist. This best exemplifies which type of pschotherapy

    a. existential

    b. dynamic

    c. biological

    d. supportive

    e. congnitive-behaviorla


    5. a 64 year old man has been diagnosed with Alzhiemr's disease. Upon examination you find resistance to passive movement, which increases in direct proportion to the force that is applied. In your report, this type of rigidity would be best labeled.

    a. lead pipe

    b. cogwheel

    c. clasp knife

    d. gegenhalten

    e. augenblick

    6. a 36 year old woman was placed on alprazolam 3 years ago for panic disorder. After watching a news report on television, she became frightened about addiction. SHe abruptly stopped the medication and during the next 3 days experienced increased anxiety attacks, but claims that she is now doing better. She denied any tremor, sweating, increased heart rate, or uneasiness except in relation to the panic attacks. this phenomenon is best labeled as

    a. recurrence

    b. rebound

    c. withdrawal

    d. dystonic reaction

    e. akathisia
  20. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. 1 Excess of aldosteron will cause?
    a) Hypokalemia
    b) Hyperkalemia


    Q. 2 Structure of 2ndry-villus includes?
    a) Mesoderm cytotrophoblast syncytium
    b) Capillaries cytotrophoblast syncytium


    Q. 3. Spermatogenesis is supported by?
    a) FSH n testosterone
    b) Gonadotrophin
  21. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. Which method is used 2 kill spore?
    a) Dry heat at 160c for 1 hr
    b) Dry heat at 160 c for 4 hr
    c) Moist heat at 160c for1hr
  22. Ronny.

    Ronny. Guest

    Q. The following statement regarding to angina pectoris is are correct:
    (a) It may occur with normal coronary arteries.
    (b) It is associated with an abnormal resting ECG between attacks.
    (c) It is typically worse later in the day.
    (d) ST segment elevation on ECG usual during an attack.
    (e) It may be aggravate after meal.
  23. Ronny.

    Ronny. Guest

    Q. D O C FOR INVASIVE ASPERGILLOSIS-
    1.VORICONAZOLE
    2.ITRACONAZOLE
    3.KETOKONAZOLE
    4.GLUCOCORTICOIDS

    Q. In a firearm injury , there is burning
    blackening
    tattooing ---> close shot entry
    attributes

    & red colour of tissue
    cruciate shape ----> contact shot entry
    attributes

    Both options were given, then whc 1 is right ?

    Q. PCT necrosis is seen in .............poisoning
    -phenol
    -arsenic
    -aconite
    -lead

    Q.
  24. Ronny.

    Ronny. Guest

    Q. C E A IS NOT A MARKER OF-
    1.COLON
    2.BREAST
    3.PANCREASE
    4.ADRENAL
  25. Ronny.

    Ronny. Guest

    inectious dis,any clue?

    1. In HIV, infection with non-bacterial endocarditis causes acute hemiperesis, how is that? thats what PLAB digest says,on page 299.

    2.a 37yr,multipara,vaginal discharge,ten days earlier used medicine for yeat infection, now has strong odor after intercourse?

    3.20yr,married woman,sporadic lower abdominal pain,low grade fever,increasing cloudy non-irritating disharge and dysuria....?

    4.25yr,sexually active woman,mucupurelent vagina discharge,pelvic pain,fever. symptoms begin towards end of mentrual period.

    question 3 and 4 both have fever, abd pain,and discharge
  26. Leena.

    Leena. Guest

    Q. In the bacterial structure , which one of the following contain B lactamases?
    A- CELL WALL
    B- PERIPLASM
    C- PLASMA MEMBRANE
    D- GLYCOCALYX
    E- PLASMID

    Q. Which of the following is true regarding the superantigenes?
    A- Bind to MHC I and TCR
    B- Is highly express in all Staph aureus infection
    C- Bind to the MHC II and T cells DECREASING release of IL 1 and IL 2
    D- Bind to the MHC II and T cells INCREASING release of IL 1 and IL 2
  27. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    The following statement regarding to angina pectoris is are correct:
    (a) It may occur with normal coronary arteries.
    (b) It is associated with an abnormal resting ECG between attacks.
    (c) It is typically worse later in the day.
    (d) ST segment elevation on ECG usual during an attack.
    (e) It may be aggravate after meal.
  28. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. Interpretation of diagnostic tests in poisoning.

    A. Aspirin
    B. CO
    C. Combined oral contraceptive pill
    D. Digoxin
    E.Ethanol
    F.Ferrous sulphate
    G.Magic mushrooms
    H. OP- Organophosphate
    I.Paracetamol
    J.Parquet
    K.Toilet cleaner
    L. TCA
    M. Turpentine


    A 5yr old boy presents with Pyloric stricture on barium meal 4 weeks after hospital admission with WBC count of 22 x 10 (9)/ l (90% neutrophills), serum creat - 362 umol/l, ALT - 1322 U/l.
  29. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. 100% oxygen improves cyanosis in all except....

    1.TOF
    2.bronchial asthma
    3.eosinophiloc pneumonia
    4.interstitial lung disease
  30. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    Q. DIAGNOSIS OF UNCONSCIOUS PATIENTS
    OPTIONS
    a. Subdural hematoma
    b. Extradural hematoma
    c. Mild injury
    d. Moderate injury
    e. Fracture base of skull
    f. Fracture cervical spine
    g. Meningitis
    For each presentation below, choose the most likely diagnosis from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

    QUESTIONS
    1. A chroni alcoholic with history of recurrent falls comes to A and E with complaint of ataxia. Blood glucose is 7.

    2. A 17-year-old rugby player becomes unconscious after a fall. After sometime, he recovers, gives his name and address to the people in the ambulance. Later condition deteriorates.

    3. A child becomes unconscious after falling off his bicycle , later he is better and active. Only complaint is headache.

    4. Man with head trauma—GCS found to be 12.

    5. Man with GCS=5, hemotympanum.

    Answers

    1. A.
    2. B.
    3. C.
    4. D.
    5. E.
  31. Dass.

    Dass. Guest

    1.which of the following rotational disorders of lower extremity should be diagnosed and treated during neonatal period ??
    a.club foot
    b.lateral torsion of tibia
    c.medial torsion of tibia
    d.blounts disease
    e.all of the above


    2.infants have increased risk of hyperbilirubinemia with all of the following except

    a.neonatal sepsis
    b.prematurity
    c.congenital hypothyroidism
    d.meconium aspiration syndome
    e.rh incompatibility

    3.the most common cause of sepsis in neonates

    a.groupa streptococci
    b.groupb streptococci
    c. h influenzae
    d.pseudomonas areuginosa
    e.listeria
  32. Rock.

    Rock. Guest

    Q. Lower motor neuron type of seventh cranial nerve paralysis is a recognized feature of:
    a) A patent with hemiplegia.
    b) Sarcoidosis
    c) Guillaine Barre syndrome.
    d) Otitis media.
    e) Bell’s palsy
  33. Rock.

    Rock. Guest

    A gene encodes a protein with 150 amino acids, there is one intron of 1000 bps, a 5' untranslated region of 100 bp and a 3' untranslated region of 200 bps. In the final processed mRNA, how many bases lie between the start AUG codon and the final termination codon?
    Options are:
    1. 1750
    2. 750
    3. 650
    4. 450
    5. 150
  34. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    Ingestion of 100 tablets of Aspirin may lead to development of?
    A.Respiratory acidosis
    B.Metabolic acidosis
    C.Respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis
    D.Repiratory alkalosis.
    E.Metabolic alkalosis
  35. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    A pharmaceutical company develops a new drug which prevents egression of Mg++ from NMDA receptors. What will the effect of the drug be in a stroke patient ?

    A. decrease risk of seizures due to decrease Mg++
    B. facilitate Ca++entry in neurons and increase excitotoxin-mediated cell death
    C. produce hyperpolarization and cell death
    D. prevent Ca++entry in neurons and decrease excitotoxin-mediated cell death
    E. produce rapid depolarization and reduces seizure threshold
  36. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    what is the mechanism of dirrhoea as a side effect of Erythromycin?
    A. Parasympathomimetic action
    B. Increase secretion of GIT
    C. Alanoglus to motilin
    D. Increase stomach emptying time
    E. None of above
    F. All of above
  37. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    A 48 year old man with coronary artery disease and renal insufficiency starts treatment with atorvastatin to decrease his serum cholesterol
    if he needs addtional hypocholesterolemic therapy,which of the following would be safest to avoid rhabdomyolysis ?

    a.-Chlolestyramine
    b.-fenofibrate
    c.-fluvastin
    d.-gemfibrozil
  38. Rohan.

    Rohan. Guest

    Which one of the following statements regarding metformin is true?
    A Should be stopped following a myocardial infarction
    B.Hypoglycaemia is a recognised adverse effect
    C.May cause a metabolic alkalosis
    D.May aggravate necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
    E.Increases vitamin B12 absorption
  39. Rohan.

    Rohan. Guest

    Cardiac contractility is inhibited by


    a)Digtalis use
    b)Hypothermia
    c)Metabolic alkalosis
    d)Hypophosphatemia
    e)Respiratory acidosis
  40. robert.

    robert. Guest

    WHAT IS THE LIKELY DIAGNOSIS???

    1)VIC
    2)median nerve injury
    3)ulnar nerve injury
    4)Dupuytren's contracture
  41. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    During the effort-independent portion of a forced vital capacity (FVC) maneuver, the expiratory flow rate

    a. varies as a function of the interpleural pressure
    b. is limited by compression of the airways
    c. depends on the alveolar pressure
    d. is maximal for that individual
    e. is constant
    f. two of the above are true
  42. Rose.

    Rose. Guest

    A man breathing room air at sea level has a PACO2 of 48 mmHg. His alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2) is:

    a. 150 mmHg
    b. 110 mmHg
    c. 100 mmHg
    d. 90 mmHg
    e. 60 mmHg
  43. Rani.

    Rani. Guest

    1. Sodium reabsorption from the distal tubule will be increased if there is an increase in

    a. plasma potassium concentration
    b. plasma volume
    c. mean arterial pressure
    d. urine flow rate
    e. plasma osmolarity


    2. If 600 ml of water is ingested rapidly, plasma volume will increase by approximately
    a. 400 ml
    b. 200 ml
    c. 100 ml
    d. 50 ml
    e. 25 ml


    3. The daily production of hydrogen ions from CO2 is primarily buffered by

    a. extracellular bicarbonate
    b. red blood cell bicarbonate
    c. red blood cell hemoglobin
    d. plasma proteins
    e. plasma phosphates


    4.The secretion of H+ in the proximal tubule is primarily associated with

    a. excretion of potassium ion
    b. excretion of hydrogen ion
    c. reabsorption of calcium ion
    d. reabsorption of bicarbonate ion
    e. reabsorption of phosphate ion


    5. If a substance appears in the renal artery but not in the renal vein,

    a. its clearance is equal to the glomerular filtration rate
    b. it must be reabsorbed by the kidney
    c. its urinary concentration must be higher than its plasma concentration
    d. its clearance is equal to the renal plasma flow
    e. it must be filtered by the kidney


    6. A freely filterable substance that is neither reabsorbed nor secreted has a renal artery concentration of 12 mg/ml and a renal vein concentration of 9 mg/ml. Calculate the filtration fraction.

    a. 0.15
    b. 0.25
    c. 0.75
    d. 1.00
    e. not enough information given to make this calculation


    7. Renal correction of hyperkalemia will result in

    a. alkalosis
    b. acidosis
    c. increased secretion of HCO3-
    d. decrease secretion of H+
    e. increased excretion of Na+


    8. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in the glomerular filtration rate?

    a. contraction of mesangial cells
    b. blockage of the ureter
    c. release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatus
    d. dilation of the afferent arterioles
    e. volume depletion


    9. Hypoxemia (arterial PO2 = 55 mmHg) has all the following effects EXCEPT

    a. it stimulates carotid body chemoreceptors
    b. it stimulates central chemoreceptors
    c. it stimulates aortic chemoreceptors
    d. it causes a reflex increase in ventilation
    e. it causes an increase in blood flow to the zone 1 of the lung


    10. A spirometer can be used to measure directly

    a. functional residual capacity
    b. inspiratory capacity
    c. residual volume
    d. total lung capacity
    e. none of the above
  44. Enick.

    Enick. Guest

    1. A 5 year old male child is brought to you , by his parents who state that he has had diarrhea for several days. He now weighs 18 kg and his parents indicate that he previously weighted 20 kg. He is weak and appears to be dehydrated. Lab test provide the following results:

    Plasma osmolarity: 270 mosm/L
    Urine osmolarity: 1200 mosm/L
    Blood pressure: 100/56 mmHg

    Approximately how much NaCl would be required to restore his total body osmoles (not his osmolarity, we'll assume appropriate hydration will be administered) to normal, assuming that before his bout of diarrhea his plasma osmolarity was 280 mosm/L, extracellular fluid volume was 20% of body weight, and intracellular fluid volume was 40% of body weight? Assume no excretion of solutes or water during saline infusion. The molecular weight of NaCl is 58.5. I am very sure that you all know that 1 L of water weighs 1 kg.

    a. 17.4 gm
    b. 18.5 gm
    c. 20.7 gm
    d. 34.8 gm
    e. 37.0 gm
    f. 38.6 gm


    2. If you administer 2.0 L of 0.9% NaCl, (286 mOsm/L), calculate the approximate plasma osmolarity of the patient in question #2, assuming osmotic equilibrium and no excretion of solutes or water? Assume that the conditions are the same as stated in question #2 after diarrhea but before any treatment.

    a. 265 mosm/L
    b. 273 mosm/L
    c. 279 mosm/L
    d. 283 mosm/L
    e. 290 mosm/L


    3. If a person has a kidney transport maximum for glucose of 350 mg/min, a glomerular filtration rate of 110 ml/min, a plasma glucose of 375 mg/dl, and a urine flow rate of 3.0 ml/min, what would be the approximate rate of glucose excretion, assuming normal kidneys?

    a. glucose excretion cannot be estimated from these data
    b. 0 mg/min
    c. 25 mg/min
    d. 60 mg/min
    e. 180 mg/min


    4. You wish to evaluate kidney function in a 65 year old male and ask him to collect his urine over a 24 hours period. He returns to you 4320 ml of urine, collected over the preceding 24 hours. The clinical lab returns the following results from analysis of his urine and plasma samples:

    Plasma creatinine: 3.0 mg/dl
    Urine creatinine: 30 mg/dl
    Plasma potassium: 5.0 mmol/L
    Urine potassium: 10 mmol/L

    What is his approximate glomerular filtration rate, assuming that he collected all of his urine in the 24 hour period?

    a. 3 ml/min
    b. 10 ml/min
    c. 30 ml/min
    d. 100 ml/min
    e. 125 ml/min


    5. What is the renal reabsorption rate of potassium in the patient described in question #5?
    a. no potassium is being reabsorbed in this patient.
    b. 0.03 mEq/min
    c. 0.12 mEq/min
    d. 0.15 mEq/min
    e. 3.0 mEq/min
    f. 30 mEq/min


    6. What is the approximate potassium intake in the patient described in question #5, assuming steady state conditions, and that the patient collected all of his urine in the preceding 24 hours.

    a. potassium intake cannot be estimated from the data given.
    b. 32 mmole/day
    c. 43 mmole/day
    d. 51 mmole/day
    e. 65 mmole/day


    7. You are treating a 20 year old patient who was diagnosed with inappropriate ADH syndrome (excess ADH production). Which of the following would you expect to fine under steady-state conditions in this patient, compared with normal and assuming a normal diet and fluid intake.

    a. hyponatremia
    b. decreased plasma renin activity
    c. significantly decreased urine volume
    d. decreased ANP levels
    e. a and b
    f. a, b and c
  45. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    WHAT IS THE LIKELY DIAGNOSIS???

    1)VIC
    2)median nerve injury
    3)ulnar nerve injury
    4)Dupuytren's contracture

    Answer should be VIC since for ulnar and median nerve to cause claw hand there need to be paralysis of intrinsic muscles of hand. These muscles receive their innervation from lower part of these nerves, so only a low injury to ulnar or median would cause claw hand. In the question site of injury is too high, in that case long flexors of hand are paralysed, which rule out claw hand since for claw hand to develop both long extensors and flexors need to be intact. So by exclusion answer is VIC.
  46. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    CARDIAC OXYGEN DEMAND IS---

    1)directly proportional to MAP
    2)inversely proportional to HR
    3)inversely proportional to cardiac work
    4)in a constant relation to the ext.work done by the heart
  47. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    A 58-year-old woman attends two months after a myocardial infarct. She has
    made a good recovery but has developed features of low mood and poor sleep
    pattern with early morning wakening.
    Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate drug for this patient’s current
    symptoms? Select ONE option only.
    A Amitriptyline
    B Fluoxetine
    C Lofepramine
    D Mirtazapine
    E Venlafaxine
  48. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    Regarding tricyclic antidepressants:
    a) they are not absorbed after oral administartion
    b) they act by inhibiting the re-uptake of mono-amines
    c) they do not produce dependance
    d) they are stimulants of CNS
    e) they produce atropine like side effects
  49. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    An eight-month-old baby girl’s routine measurements have fallen from the 50th
    centile growth line to below the 25th centile growth line over the past three
    months. She has a history of minor respiratory infections and recurrent
    gastroenteritis.
    Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate INITIAL investigation? Select ONE
    option only.
    A Chromosome analysis
    B Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase level
    C Jejunal biopsy
    D Sweat test
    E Thyroid function test
  50. Amir.

    Amir. Guest

    A Adenovirus
    B Cytomegalovirus
    C Echovirus
    D Epstein-Barr virus
    E Hepatitis B virus
    F Herpes simplex virus
    G Human papilloma virus
    H Respiratory syncytial virus
    I Rotavirus
    J Rubella virus

    For each of the clinical conditions below, select the SINGLE MOST likely
    causative virus from the list of options above. Each option may be used
    once, more than once, or not at all.

    3. Hepatocellular carcinoma
    4. Warts
    5. Conjunctivitis
    6. Infectious mononucleosis
    7. Infantile gastroenteritis

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