Imp questions for upcoming ALL INDIA PRE PG EXAM

Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by davis, May 21, 2011.

  1. davis

    davis Guest

    A rapid way to purify proteins that are targeted to the lysosomes would be to use affinity chromatography. An appropriate antibody to use on an affinity chromatography column would be one directed against

    A. acid hydrolases

    B. clathrin

    C. glucose-6-phosphate

    D. mannose-6-phosphate

    E. sialic acid
    dr uma likes this.
  2. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Explanation:

    The answer is D. Proteins that are targeted for lysosomes have mannose-6-phosphate on their sugar chains. The mannose-6-phosphate is on an external site on the protein so that it can be recognized by the mannose-6-phosphate receptor on the lysosomal surface, and would also be easily accessible to an antibody directed against it.

    Acid hydrolases (choice A) are enzymes found inside the lysosomes.

    Coated pits (the cellular site for receptor-mediated endocytosis) contain clathrin (choice B).

    Production of glucose-6-phosphate (choice C) from glucose is the first step in the process of glycolysis.

    Sialic acid (choice E) is a terminal glycosylation product added to proteins (usually those destined for secretion) in the Golgi apparatus.
  3. mahak

    mahak Guest

    In order to study calcium fluxes in living cells, a researcher employs fluorescent ca

    Q 2. In order to study calcium fluxes in living cells, a researcher employs fluorescent calcium indicators and laser scanning confocal microscopy. In her experiments, she stimulates smooth muscle cells using a variety of pharmacological agents, then videotapes the calcium fluxes in the cell in real time using the confocal microscope. Which of the following drugs would most likely produce the strongest calcium signal in the smooth muscle cells?

    A. Clonidine

    B. Isoproterenol

    C. Phentolamine

    D. Phenylephrine

    E. Timolol
  4. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Q 2.
    Explanation:

    The answer is D. Two pieces of information are necessary to answer this question. First, you must know the drug classes represented by the answer choices. Second, you must know what second messengers are associated with these receptors. Phenylephrine is an α1 agonist; α1 receptors are coupled to Gq, which stimulates phospholipase C (PLC), leading to hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2), a phospholipid in the plasma membrane. PIP2 is split into two second messengers: inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol. IP3 diffuses through the cytoplasm to internal storage sites, where it triggers the release of calcium, thus providing the signal for this experiment. Diacylglycerol remains in the membrane and activates protein kinase C.

    Clonidine (choice A) is an α2 agonist. α2 receptors are coupled to Gi, which inhibits adenylate cyclase, leading to decreases in intracellular cAMP levels.

    Isoproterenol (choice B) is a nonselective β agonist. All β receptors are coupled to Gs, which stimulates adenylate cyclase, leading to elevated intracellular cAMP levels.

    Phentolamine (choice C) is a nonselective α antagonist. This drug would prevent the increase in calcium caused by stimulation of α1 receptors.

    Timolol (choice E) is a nonselective β antagonist. This drug would prevent β-induced increases in cAMP.
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  5. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Liver cells in culture were kept at 0°C and treated with trypsin to digest the recept

    Q 3. Liver cells in culture were kept at 0°C and treated with trypsin to digest the receptors on the cell surface. The temperature was then raised to 37°C and radioactive LDL was added to the culture media. Several hours later, the labeled LDL was found to be inside the cells. This specific process of LDL uptake is

    A. active transport

    B. facilitated diffusion

    C. phagocytosis

    D. pinocytosis

    E. receptor-mediated endocytosis
  6. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Q 3.
    Explanation:

    The answer is E. Even though the surface LDL receptors were digested by the trypsin, the recycling of unoccupied receptors to the cell surface provides a continual supply of new receptors to bind the labeled LDL. The LDL-receptor complex is internalized by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
  7. mahak

    mahak Guest

    A glycosylated integral membrane protein with 7 transmembrane segments?

    Q 4. Which of the following is an example of a glycosylated integral membrane protein with 7 transmembrane segments?

    A. Adenylate cyclase

    B. Beta-adrenergic receptor for epinephrine

    C. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator channel

    D. Glucose transporter

    E. Na+/K+ ATPase
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  8. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Q 4.

    Explanation:

    The answer is B. This question requires that you recognize the family of receptors that interact with G proteins to initiate a signal transduction cascade. These receptors are all glycosylated integral membrane proteins that have 7 transmembrane segments. Beta-adrenergic receptors for epinephrine are an example.

    Adenylate cyclase (choice A) is an intracellular effector protein involved in signal transduction. It is not an integral membrane protein.

    The cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator channel (choice C) is a cyclic AMP activated chloride channel.

    Glucose transporters (choice D) are integral membrane proteins with 12 membrane-spanning domains.

    Na+/K+ ATPase (choice E) pumps sodium into and potassium out of the cell. It provides energy for active transport by hydrolyzing ATP.
  9. mahak

    mahak Guest

    In a patient with a small-cell carcinoma of the lung

    Q 5. In a patient with a small-cell carcinoma of the lung that autonomously secretes vasopressin?
    A. Blood volume contraction
    B. Decreased plasma atrial natriuretic peptide
    C. Hypernatremia
    D. Inappropriately concentrated urine
    E. Increased thirst
  10. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Q 5.

    The answer is D. A tumor that ectopically secretes vasopressin can produce a disorder called the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). A hallmark of this disorder is excessive renal retention of free water with resultant hypervolemia, not blood volume contraction (choice A), and dilutional hyponatremia, not hypernatremia (choice C). The volume expansion leads to increased (not decreased, choice B) secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) by atrial myocytes. The increased ANP is one of the factors that causes the kidney to increase sodium excretion and produce an inappropriately concentrated urine. Urine is typically hypertonic to plasma in this disorder. The volume expansion also tends to suppress renin secretion, and the resultant decrease in serum aldosterone may also contribute to the increased renal sodium excretion. The dilutional hypotonicity would inhibit (not stimulate, choice E) hypothalamic thirst mechanisms.
  11. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Microstructure of an integral membrane protein

    Q 6. A cell biologist wishes to examine the microstructure of an integral membrane protein. She solubilizes the protein by destabilizing its association with the membrane lipid bilayer. Which of the following techniques did she most likely employ?

    A. Alterations in pH

    B. Detachment of protein prenyl groups

    C. Dissociation of phospholipid polar head groups

    D. Increase in ionic strength

    E. Interruption of hydrophobic interactions
  12. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Explanation:

    6. The answer is E. This question is asking you what forces are responsible for retaining integral membrane proteins within the lipid bilayer, i.e., hydrophobic interactions. Amphipathic agents such as detergents are used to solubilize integral membrane proteins; they do so by disrupting hydrophobic interactions between integral membrane proteins and other membrane constituents, such as phospholipids.

    Choices A, B, C, and D would destabilize the association of peripheral membrane proteins with the membrane lipid bilayer.
  13. mahak

    mahak Guest

    Q 7. A 55-year-old patient presents with chronic cough. A chest x-ray film demonstrates a circular lesion near the apex of the lung. CT-guided biopsy of the lesion demonstrates a malignant tumor arising in an area of scarred lung. Which of the following type of cancer is most likely to be present?
    A. Adenocarcinoma
    B. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
    C. Large cell carcinoma
    D. Oat cell carcinoma
    E. Squamous cell carcinoma
  14. mahak

    mahak Guest

    7. The answer is A. Tumors that arise peripherally and can cause coin lesions include adenocarcinoma (choice A), bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (choice B), and large cell carcinoma (choice C). Of these, adenocarcinoma is the form specifically associated with lung scarring related to old granulomatous disease, old chronic obstructive lung disease, or other old damage to the lungs.
    Remember bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (choice B) as the one that is not associated with smoking.
    Large cell carcinoma (choice C) is an aggressive, undifferentiated form of lung cancer.
    Remember oat cell (small cell, choice D) carcinoma as the one that can commonly cause paraneoplastic syndromes such as SIADH and Cushing syndrome.
    You should associate squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (choice E) with hypercalcemia
  15. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 8 A medical student is studying a liver biopsy taken from a regenerating liver following a partial hepatectomy. The student sees a dividing cell in which the chromosomes are aligned on a plate. Which of the following best describes the character of the chromosomes in the plate?

    A. 23 chromosomes with 2N DNA total and with each chromosome having one chromatid

    B. 23 chromosomes with 4N DNA total and with each chromosome having two chromatids

    C. 46 chromosomes with 2N DNA total and with each chromosome having one chromatid

    D. 46 chromosomes with 4N DNA total and each chromosome having two chromatids

    E. 92 chromosomes with 2N DNA total and with each chromosome having two chromatids
  16. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    8. Explanation:

    The answer is D. The cell division is mitotic rather than meiotic. The cell is in metaphase, as evidenced by alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate. Doubling of the DNA occurs much earlier, in prometaphase (late prophase), so the cell has "4N" DNA (double the normal 2N diploid DNA). The chromosomes at the metaphase plate consist of 2 chromatids each, but the total number of chromosomes is still the normal 46.

    23 chromosomes with 2N DNA (choice A) is wrong because stages with 23 chromosomes only occur in meiosis.

    23 chromosomes with 4N DNA (choice B) is wrong because stages with 23 chromosomes only occur in meiosis. Additionally, there is never a point in either meiosis or mitosis when 23 chromosomes contain 4N DNA.

    46 chromosomes with 2N DNA, each chromosome having one chromatid (choice C), is wrong because the chromosomes have two chromatids and the DNA is therefore doubled (producing 4N DNA total) in metaphase. The cell normally has 46 chromosomes with 2N DNA only after mitosis is complete.

    92 chromosomes (choice E) is wrong because in anaphase and telophase, at which points there are 92 chromosomes (in two cells which are not yet cleaved), there is a total of 4N DNA and each of the newly split chromosomes contains one chromatid.
  17. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 9 A patient presents to an ophthalmologist complaining of difficulty reading in the afternoons and evenings because his eyelids get "too heavy" and he gets double vision. The ophthalmologist is concerned about a paraneoplastic syndrome because the patient also has a recent unexplained 20 lb weight loss. Which of the following tumors would be most likely to produce this patient's symptoms?
    A. Breast carcinoma or renal cell carcinoma
    B. Bronchogenic carcinoma or intracranial neoplasm
    C. Lymphoma or myeloma
    D. Renal cell carcinoma or parathyroid adenoma
    E. Thymoma or bronchogenic carcinoma
  18. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Pancoast tumor -----------> unilateral Hornor's syndrome not bilateral lesions which come on
    Myasthenia gravis -------Most common
    Lambart Eaton sydrome -------- Less common
    MG = Eyes more, limbs less worsen with repeated movements
    LES = Limbs more ,eyes less improves with repeated movements
  19. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 10. 7 month old infant has developed worsening congestive heart failure for the past 2 months. The infant was born at term with no anomalies noted and did well for the first 5 months. There is no family history of heart disease or birth defects. The baby's condition worsens and death occurs. At autopsy, the enlarged heart is found to have extensive left ventricular endocardial thickening with obliteration of the chordae tendineae. The cardiac valves appear normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    A Infection with group A streptococcus occurred earlier in infancy
    B There was maternal use of cocaine during pregnancy
    C An inborn error of metabolism is present
    D Gestational diabetes was present
    E This condition is idiopathic
  20. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    E is the answer.
    This condition is known as endocardial fibroelastosis, and the cause in most cases is not known. It is a disease of infancy.
  21. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 11. A 58-year-old male with a 50-pack-year smoking history complains of fevers, fatigue, and weight loss. He has a chronic cough. A chest x-ray shows a left hilar mass. A CT guided biopsy shows sheets of small, round, blue cells with little cytoplasm. Which of the following is associated with this condition?

    A. Hypercalcemia
    B. SIADH
    C. Hypoparathyroidism
    D. Hypothyroidism
    E. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
  22. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Choice (B) is the answer.

    Small cell lung carcinoma is an extremely aggressive neuroendocrine tumor that is associated with cigarette smoking. Neuroendocrine tumors commonly produce hormones. Small cell lung carcinoma is associated with both SIADH and ectopic ACTH production. SIADH results in hyponatremia and ectopic ACTH causes Cushing's syndrome. Small cell tumors are centrally located. Symptoms include constitutional symptoms such as fevers, fatigue, and unintended weight loss. Cough and hemoptysis may be present, along with hoarseness resulting from recurrent laryngeal nerve compression. Small cell carcinomas are characterized histologically by sheets of small, round, blue cells with very little cytoplasm.
  23. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 12 .Physical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/70 with no orthostasis, normal jugular venous pressure, and no edema. Serum chemistries are notable for sodium 120 mmol/L, K 4.2 mmol/L, bicarbonate 24 mmol/L, and uric acid 0.177 mmol/L (2 mg/dL). The most likely diagnosis is
    (A) hepatic cirrhosis
    (B) cerebral toxoplasmosis with SIADH
    (C) Addison's disease
    (D) significant gastrointestinal fluid loss
    (E) congestive heart failure
  24. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    The answer is B.

    Hyponatremia can be broadly categorized as hypovolemic, euvolemic, or hypervolemic. Hepatic cirrhosis in this case is unlikely because of the absence of edema. Gastrointestinal fluid loss is unlikely because of normal blood pressure without orthostasis. Furthermore, depending on whether the fluid loss is upper (vomiting with resultant alkalosis) or lower (diarrhea with resultant acidosis), it often is accompanied by a disturbance in acid-base balance. Addison's disease is possible, although it often is associated with orthostasis, some degree of hypotension, and hyperkalemia (due to aldosterone deficiency). The uric acid can be very helpful in the differential diagnosis of hyponatremia. It is typically elevated in patients with congestive heart failure and renal failure, two other important causes of hyponatremia, and tends to be quite low in patients with SIADH.
  25. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 13. 60-year-old man has a 90 pack year history of smoking. For the past 5 years, he has had a cough productive of copious amounts of mucoid sputum for months at a time. He has had episodes of pneumonia with Streptococcus pneumoniae and E. coli cultured. His last episode of pneumonia is complicated by septicemia and brain abscess and he dies. At autopsy, his bronchi microscopically demonstrate mucus gland hypertrophy. Which of the following conditions is most likely to explain his clinical course?
    A Squamous cell carcinoma
    B Congestive heart failure
    C Chronic bronchitis
    D Bronchial asthma
    E Centrilobular emphysema
    F Panlobular emphysema
    G Bronchiectasis
  26. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 14. 37 yr. old HIV positive man with a history of intravenous drug use is has exhibited diminished mental capacity and difficulty performing activities of daily living over the past 6 months. He is afebrile. Laboratory studies show a CD4 lymphocyte count of 150/microliter. Which of the following microscopic findings is most likely to be present in his cerebral cortex?
    A Neutrophilic exudates
    B Perivascular lymphocytes
    C Septate, branching hyphae
    D Multinucleate cells and macrophages
    E Cysts in the cerebrum
    F Plaques of demyelination
  27. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    D.
    Many of the major effects of HIV on the CNS are mediated by macrophages. He can have HIV encephalopathy with focal microglial nodules containing the multinucleate cells, microglial cells, and macrophages.
  28. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 15. 40 yr. old man has a history of mild mental retardation. He now is unable to remember anything and cannot recognize family members. He had a ventricular septal defect repaired earlier in life. On physical examination he has bilateral transverse palmar creases and absent distal flexion creases on 5th digits. He is most likely to have a genetic abnormality with which of the following patterns of inheritance?
    A Autosomal recessive gene
    B X-linked recessive gene
    C Extra autosome
    D Sex chromosome monosomy
    E Marker chromosome
    F Triple repeat sequence expansion
  29. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Explanation:

    Persons with Down syndrome who live to middle age typically get Alzheimer disease. Some cases are Robertsonian Down syndrome, with inheritance of an extra chromosome 21 from a parent who has a balanced translocation .
  30. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q. 16. 59-year-old woman is unable to move her right arm and has difficulty speaking following sudden loss of consciousness for a hour. She slowly regains function over the next three months. Brain MR imaging now shows a 4 cm non-enhancing cystic area in the left parietal lobe. By which of the following vascular events was this lesion most likely to be produced:
    A Embolism from a deep femoral vein
    B Thrombosis of the sagittal sinus
    C Thrombosis of the left middle cerebral artery
    D Vasculitis of the left external carotid artery
    E Hematoma formation following trauma
  31. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Explanation:

    Paradoxical embolism is aassage of a clot likethrombus from a vein to an artery, When clots in veins break off..embolize they travel first to the right side of the heart and, normally, then to the lungs where they lodge, causing pulmonary embolism. On the other hand, when there is a hole in the wall between the two upper chambers of the heart (an atrial septal defect), a clot can cross from the right to the left side of the heart, then pass into the arteries as a paradoxical embolism.
  32. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q 17.

    A 52-year-old male has a 6-week history of low-grade fevers, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. He has a chronic cough and occasionally coughs up blood-tinged sputum. A chest x-ray shows a right cavitating hilar lung mass. Which of the following would most likely be present in this patient?

    A. Hypernatremia
    B. SIADH
    C. Cushing's syndrome
    D. Hypercalcemia
    E. Acid-fast bacilli
  33. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Choice (D) is the answer.
    Squamous cell lung carcinoma is a bronchogenic lung tumor with a significant association with cigarette smoking. Tumors are typically centrally located and can cavitate. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is associated with hypercalcemia. The other choices are incorrect.
  34. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Q 18. A 70 kg male develops a tonic-clonic seizure. On admission to the hospital, his serum sodium is 120 mEq/Liter. He is euvolemic. Assuming a normal sodium concentration of 140 mEq/Liter, how much excess free water does he have?

    A.2 Liters

    B.3 Liters

    C.4 Liters

    D.5 Liters

    E.6 Liters

    F.7 Liters

    G.8 Liters
  35. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    Choice (E) is the answer.

    The patient is severely hyponatremic, which means that he has more free water in relation to sodium. Excess free water can be calculated as follows:

    Excess free water (L) = TBW - [TBW x ([Na]pl / 140)]

    where TBW = total body water and [Na]pl = plasma sodium concentration. In males, total body water in liters is equal to 0.6 x weight in kg. In this example, total body water is equal to 42 Liters. 120 / 140 can be reduced to 6 / 7. (42 x 6/7) is equal to 36. 42 - 36 = 6 Liters. This patient has 6 Liters of excess free water that is resulting in hyponatremia. The most common cause of euvolemic hyponatremia in hospitalized patients is SIADH or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Increased ADH levels result act on the renal collecting ducts to increase free water reabsorption. Excessive reabsorption of free water results in hyponatremia. Other causes of euvolemic hyponatremia include medications, stress, hypothyroidism, and glucocorticoid deficiency.
  36. durgesh2011

    durgesh2011 Guest

    1. most common site of ZES i.e. gastrinoma is:
    a. head of pancreas
    b. anterior duodenum wall
    c. cbd
    d. lesser curvature of stomach

    2. treponema pallidum in CSF is seen in:
    a. Primary syphilis
    b. Secondary syphilis
    c. neurosyphilis
    d. none

    3. stain for glomerular BM?
    a. PAS
    b. Jones methenamine silver
    c. masson's trichome
    d. none
  37. guest2011

    guest2011 Moderator

    answer to Q.3 b. jones methanamine stain
    All of them can be used to stain the Basement membrane but the best answer here is Jones Methamine Silver .

    Masson's Trichome -- used to differentiate between cells and connective tissue .. Stains the collagen .

    PAS -- to detect Glycogen in tissues.

    guys pls help me sove the remaining 2q.


    4. the new osmotic agent often used for the longest dwell in patients on CAPd is:
    a. b-cyclodextrin
    b. icodextrin
    c. Limit dextrin
    d. all of the above.

    5. renal failure in glomerulonephritis best correlates histologically with:
    a. tubulointersitial nephritis
    b. etiology of GN
    c. BM thickening
    d. any of the above.
  38. runjhun

    runjhun Guest

    ans 1 ansis a..head of pancreas (reference:http://www.human-secretin.com/McGUIGAN2.pdf)
  39. durgesh2011

    durgesh2011 Guest

    9.Perinaud's syndrome is due to
    (a)ventral midbrain lesion
    (b)Pontine lesion
    (c)dorsal mid brain lesion
    (d)parietal lobe lesion

    10.Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by
    (a)doing same thing again and again
    (b)Indulging in violent behavior repeatedly
    (c)recurrent paranoid delusions
    (d)being excessively preoccupied with self image

    11.neurotransmitter involved in migraine
    (a)5ht
    (b)dopamine
    (c)ACH
    (d)GABA

    12.Aprosodia is due to lesion in which part in brain?
    (a)Fronatl
    (b)Parietal lobe
    (c)temporal lobe
    (d)occipital lobe
  40. upen

    upen Guest

    Q. Pulsatile tumor of bone is:
    a. osteosarcoma
    b. osteoclastoma


    Q. 65 year old man presents with h/o back pain since last 3 months. On Examination minimal restriction of chest mvts. and no sign of neurologic impairment. ESR is raised. On X Ray syndesmophytes is seen in vertebra, Diag:
    a. Diffuse idiopathic Skeletal hyperostosis
    b. Ankylosing spondolytis



    Q. Best Prognostic Factor for Head Injury:
    a. Glasgow coma scale
    b. Age


    Q. Most common post operative complication in ileo-anal puch anastomosis in pt. of Ulcerative Colitis:
    a. Pouchitis
    b. Small Bowel Obstruction






    Q. 30 yr old female with obstr labour + fever + dehydration + IU fetal death and cephalic presentation, Management:
    a. craniotomy (acc to dutta textbook)
    b. caesarian (ans in guide)

    Q. IDEAL contraceptive for lactating mothers
    a. Progesterone Only Pill
    b. Lactational amenorrhoea

    Q. MOST EFFECTIVE contraceptive for lactating mothers
    a. Progesterone Only Pill
    b. Lactational amenorrhoea




    Q. All true regarding universal definition of M.I.
    a. 3 times troponin elevation is required for CABG related M.I.
    b. Reinfarction can be diagnosed if elevation in troponin level by 5-7% on serial sampling.

    Q. All are features of myelopathy except
    a. Sensory loss of face
    b. Brisk Jaw Jerk
    Q. Not seen in Alzheimer’s:
    a. Aphasia
    b. Acalculia
    c. Apraxia
    d. Agnosia

    Q. Systemic Eosinophiluria with renal failure is least likely in:
    a. Contrast Nephropathy
    b. polyangitis nodosa

    Q. In Multiple Sclerosis, Drug used to prevent EDSS:
    a. IFN- Beta
    b. Natalizumab

    Q. 5 year old child with episodic anemia and jaundice since birth. he is least likely to have:
    a. Sickle cell anemia--------------- manifests after 6 months age
    b. PNH----------------- has chronic anemia

    Q. Which exclusively involves neurons:
    a. Spinocerebellar ataxia
    b. Cortico-basilar degeneration

    Q. 15 year girl presents with recurrent pain in knee with appearance of petechial hemorrhage. Most likely cause:
    a. Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
    b. Factor VIII inhibitor

    Q 35 year old started on thiazide diuretics for Primary Hypertension. What would be the status of urine Na, K, Ca in first 24 hrs:
    A. Na inc, K inc, Ca inc
    B. Na inc, K inc, Ca dec

    Q. Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorder:
    a. Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
    b. Fibromyalgia.
  41. hari_dr99

    hari_dr99 Guest

    Answer For Q1 B and Q2 A and B

  42. Healthcare

    Healthcare Guest

    Healthcare

    Thanks for sharing the questions along with your answer. All the best for your exam.

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