Important notes fmge

Discussion in 'FMGE' started by Santosh Jadhav, Sep 13, 2013.

  1. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    UPPER LIMB HIGH YIELD - VERY IMP points FOR MCI SCREENING TEST
    Most frequently fractured bone of body--------Clavicle
    Most frequently dislocated carpal bone---------Lunate
    Most frequently fracture carpal bone----------Scaphoid
    Name of fracture of distal radius that produces “dinner fork” appearance------- Colle’s fracture
    Nerve injured with fracture of surgical neck of humerus---------Axillary
    Nerve injured with fracture of medial humeral epicondyle--------Ulnar
    Nerve injured with fracture of shaft of humerus--------------Radial
    Nerve injured in wrist drop----------Radial
    Muscle that is chief flexor and chief extensor at shoulder joint ---------Deltoid
    Muscles innervated by axillary nerve----------Deltoid and teres minor
    Muscle that initiates abduction of arm---------Supraspinatus
    Most commonly torn tendon of rotator cuff-----------Supraspinatus
    Two muscles that rotate scapula for full abduction of arm-------Trapezius and serratus anterior
    Tendon that courses through shoulder joint---------Long head of biceps
    Chief supinator muscle of hand---------Biceps brachii
    Injury to what nerve causes winged scapula---------Long thoracic nerve
    spinal levels of axillary nerve---------C5 and C6
    Spinal levels to muscles of the hand--------C8 and T1
    Dermatome of thumb--------C6
    Nerve to thenar compartment----------Recurrent branch of Median
    Innervation of adductor pollicis---------Ulnar (deep br.)
    Innervation to all interosseous muscles-----------Ulnar (deep br.)
    Region affected by upper trunk injury of brachial plexus------------ Shoulder
    Region affected by lower trunk injury of brachial plexus -------Intrinsic hand muscles
    Nerve compressed with carpal tunnel syndrome-----------Median
    nerve affected by cubital tunnel syndrome----------Ulnar
    Paralysis of which muscles results in total “claw” hand----------Lumbricals
    Treatment for schistosomes--------.Praziquantel
    Treatment for clonorchis sinensis------------ praziquantel
    Treatment for pneumocystis carinii.---------- TMP-SMX
    Treatment for Chaga's disease?-------------- Nifurtimox
    Treatment for trypanosomiasis?-------------- Suramin (except chaga's, use nifurtimox)
    Firstline treatment for malaria------------?Chloroquine


    doc
    What's the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella, and Shigella spp? Ampicillin. Note those are all G+.
    What are the two penicillin-derived drugs that are extended spectrum for pseudomonas infections? Which one is first line and which one is more potent? - Ticarcillin (and its derivatives; Timentin) -- 1st line
    - Piperacillin (and its derivates w/ tazobactam; Zosyn) -- this is the broadest spectrum.
    What is the DOC to treat Clostridium Perfringens? what does this bacteria cause? Penicillin G. Bacteria causes gas gangrene.
    What is the DOC to treat treponema pallidum? What condition does the bacteria cause? Penicillin G
    Bacteria causes syphilis.
    What is the DOC to treat Listeria Monocytogenes sepsis and meningitis? ampicillin
    What is the DOC to treat MRSA? Vancomycin
    What is the DOC for surgical prophylaxis? Why? How is it administered? - Cefazolin
    - By injection
    Used b/c of high bone penetration, and because it's a good alternative to anti-staph penicillins in penicillin-allergic patients.
    What is the first line agent used to treat mixed intra-abdominal infections by Bacteroides? Cefoxitin (2nd Gen)
    What are the two first line agents used to treat H. influenzae infections? Ceftriaxone (3rd)
    Cefotoxime (3rd)
    Cephalosporins are the go-to drugs to treat meningitis except for meningitis caused by what bacteria? Listeria monocytogenes.
    What is the first line agent used to treat Clostridium tetani infections? Vancomycin.
    Which two cephalosporins are the first line agents used to treat Neisseria gonorrhoeae? - Ceftriaxone (3rd G)
    - Cefixime (3rd G)
    What cephalosporin is the first line agent used to treat Typhoid Fever due to salmonella? Ceftriaxone (Rocephin; 3rd G)
    What are the three first line agents used to treat penicillin-resistant pneumococci? Ceftriaxone (3rd G)
    Cefotaxime (3rd)
    Vancomycin
    What are the five first line agents used to treat systemic pseudomonas aeruginosa infections? Ticarcillin
    Piperacillin
    Ceftazidime (3rd)
    Cefepime (4th G)
    Tobramycin
    How do you treat antibiotic-induced enterocolitis d/t Staph or C diff? Why? - w/ Vancomycin PO
    - Because it's poorly absorbed orally and will therefore be very active against the G+ bacteria in the intestine causing the colitis.
    What's the DOC for Rickettsia? Doxycycline
    What's they DOC for Chlamydia? Doxycycline
    DOC for Ureaplasma Doxycycline
    DOC for Mycoplasma Doxycycline
    DOC for Borrelia Doxycycline
    DOC for Yersinia Streptomycin
    DOC for Francisella Streptomycin
    DOC for Enterococcus Gentamicin (combo)
    First line for Helicobacter pylori Tetracycline
    First line for Vibrio spp. Doxycyclin
    First lines for Brucella Doxycyclin + Gentamicin
    First line for Chlamydia Doxycyclin
    First line for Nocardia Minocyclin
    First line for Viridans streptococci (serious infections) Gentamicin
    First line for Strep agalactiae (serious infections) Gentamicin
    First line for Listeria meningitis Gentamicin
    First line for Campylobacter (serious infections) Gentamicin
    What's the drug of choice for chlamydia trachomatis? Azithromycin
    What's the DOC for Nocardia & Pneumocystis pneumonia? Co-trimoxazole.


    ANTI BACTERIAL DRUG OF CHOICE LIST

    01. Enterococcus: Ampicillin + Gentamicin
    02. Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin-susceptible): Nafcillin
    03. Staphylococcus aureus (methicillin-resistant): Vancomycin
    04. Streptococcus pneumonia (penicillin-susceptible): Penicillin G, Amoxicillin
    05. Streptococcus pneumonia (penicillin-resistant): Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone
    06. Neisseria gonorheae: Ceftriaxone (IV), Cefixime (oral)
    07. Treponema pallidum: Penicillin G
    08. M. meningitidis: Penicillin G
    09. Moraxella catarrhalis: Cefuroxime, Fluoroquinolones
    10. Clostridium difficile: Metronidazole
    11. Bacteroides fragilis: Metronidazole
    12. Mycoplasma pneumoniae: Macrolide
    13. Chlamydia trachomatis: Azithromycin or other Macrolides
    14. Klebsiella pneumoniae: 3rd generation cephalosporin
    15. Enterobacter: Carbapanem, Cefipime
    16. Escherichia coli: 3rd generation cephalosporin
    17. Campylobacter jejuni: Macrolide
    18. Gardnerella vaginalis: Metronidazole
    19. Proteus mirabilis: Ampicillin
    20. Proteus indole positive: 3rd generation cephalosporin
    21. Salmonella typhi: Ceftriaxone
    22. Shigella: Fluoroquinolone
    23. Serratia: Carbapanem
  2. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    SOME IMP DRUG OF CHOICE..
    ====================================

    DOC for Ulcerative colitis-5 aminosalicylic acid

    DOC for Crohnís -

    Magnesium Oxide is the antidote for mineral acid poisoning

    TOC for acute coalescent mastoiditis-Simple mastiodectomy

    TOC of SCC of maxillary antrum-Surgery+Radiotherapy

    DOC for Cholera Chemoprophylaxis-Tetracycline

    DOC for Cholera in adults- Doxycycline

    DOC for Cholera in children-Cotrimoxazole

    DOC for cholera in Pregnant women-Furazolidone.

    DOC of neurosyphilis- crystalline penicillin G

    DOC for CML- imatinib mesylate

    DOC for supraventricular tachycardia- adenosine

    DOC for foetal adrenal suppression-dexamethasone (started as soon as preg is recognised and not later than 9wks gestation)

    DOC for central DI -Desmopressin
    Drug of choice for Bierís block (IVRA) ó Lidocaine, 40ñ50 mL (0.5 mL/kg in children) of a 0.5% solution without epinephrine

    DOC for nocardiosis - sulfamethoxazole

    Doc for ascariasis in pregnant woman-pyrantel pamoate

    Gold std t/t for brucella -strepto +doxo

    drug of choice for visceral larva migrans-Albendazole

    WILSON DISEASE,
    INV OF CHOICEóóñLIVER BIOPSY
    DOCóóó-ZINC

    DOC for akathesia- Beta blockers

    most sensitive inv for Extradrenal phaeochromocytoma?
    DOPAPET :most sensitive inv

    MIBG : most SPECIFIC inv

    Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy and chemotherapy -endomyocardial biopsy

    TOC of anal canal tumours- Chemoradiation
  3. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    MOST COMMON CAUSE ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMINATIONS
    ==================================================

    MCC of intracranial metastasis-Ca lung

    MCC of hepatic metastasis - Bronchogenic carcinoma

    MCC of hepatic mets from GIT ñ Colonic ca

    MCC of Intrauterine Growth retardation-C/c pyelonephritis?

    MCC of HTN in children-A/c Glomerulonephritis

    MC complication of CSOM-Temporal lobe abscess

    MC ovarian tumour in pregnancy-Teratoma/Dermoid cyst

    MC joint involved in Osteo Arthritis-Knee joint

    MCC of interstitial/atypical pneumonia- Mycoplasma

    MC Glycogen storage disease-Gaucherís disease

    MC porphyria-Porphyria cutanea tarda.

    MC cause of childhood nephrotic syndrom-Minimal change disease

    MC cause of adult nephrotic syndrome- Membranous glomerulonephritis.

    MC cancer-Lung cancer

    MC cancer in females-Breast cancer

    MC cause of maternal deaths-Obstetric hemorrhage(PPH)

    MC cause of Blindness in India-Cataract

    MC site of Gastrinoma- Duodenum.

    MC Paraneoplastic Syndrome-Hypercalcemia

    MC paraneoplastic endocrinopathy-Cushings syndrome

    mc presentation of meckelís diverticulumóñbleeding

    mc s/e of radiation on heart óó pericardial effusion

    m.c. cause of cushingís disease- pituitary microadenoma

    mcc of primary hyperaldosteronism- b/l cortical hyperplasia

    mc aldosterone producing adrenal tumour- u/l adrenal adenoma

    mcc of post trauma vegetative state- diffuse axonal injury

    mc asso anomaly with coarctation of aorta- bicuspid aortic valve

    mcc of vasculitis in child- henoch-schonlein purpura

    mc feature of aortitis on x-ray- calcified ascending aorta

    MC intra-abdominal malignancy in children ñ Neuroblastoma
    2nd MC intra-abdominal malignancy in children ñ Wilmís tumor
    MC hepatic malignancy in children ñ Hepatoblastoma
    MC soft tissue sarcoma ñ Rhabdomyosarcoma
    MC site for rhabdomyosarcoma ñ Head and neck
    MC Pediatric tumor ñ ALL
    2nd MC Pediatric tumor ñ Brain tumor
    MC brain tumor in children ñ Astrocytoma
    MC brain tumor in infancy ñ Supratentorial
    MC brain tumor between 1-10 yrs of age ñ Infratentorial
    MC brain tumor after 10 yrs of age ñ Supratentorial
    MC embryonal brain tumor ñ Medulloblastoma
    MC renal mass in neonates ñ Multicystic renal dysplasia
    MC malignant tumor of kidney ñ Wilmís tumor

    mc tumours in parts of mediastinum-

    anterior- thymomas
    mid- cyst
    posterior- neurogenic tu

    mc tumour of mediastinum- neurogenic tu
    most malignant masses of mediastinum- lymphomas

    mc site of colonic volvulus- sigmoid

    MC cause of renal artery stenosis

    old age- atherosclerosis
    young(india)- Takayasu arteritis
    young( western world)- fibro muscular dysplasia
    MC of eye in AIDS
    1. Lesion- microvasculopathy of conjunctiva and retina
    2. Infection- chorioretinitis
    3. Neoplasm- kaposi sarcoma
    4. Cause of chorioretinitis- CMV
    5. Finding in HIV retinopathy- cotton wool spots
    6. Rx of CMV retinitis- ganciclovir,foscarnet

    MOST COMMON site in GIT

    small bowel carcinoid-ILEUM

    Ulcerative colitis,hirsprung disease-RECTUM

    Polyps in peutz jegher syndrome,pneumatosis cystoid intestinaleñJEJUNUM

    Amoebic colitis,volvulus-SIGMOID COLON

    Bleeding from angiodysplasia-RIGHT COLON

    Brennerís gland-1ST PART OF DUODENUM

    MC cause of maternal death- obst haemorrhage

    MC of isoniazid resistance- kat G gene mutatio
  4. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    Dx : Loss of myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus leading to failure of LES relaxation Achalasia
    Dx : Bird's beak on barium swallow Achalasia
    Dx : Painful mucosal lacerations at GE junction. Mallory-Weiss syndrome (Bleeding due to esophageaal varices is painless)
    Dx : Transmural esophageal rupture due to violent retching. Respi symptoms. Boerhaave syndrome
    Dx : What esophageal pathology is associated with lye ingestion? Esophageal strictures
    Dx : Dysphagia, glossitis, and iron-deficiency anemia. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
    List the risk factors for esophageal cancer? ABCDEF Alcohol/Achalasiaa Barrett's Esophagus Cigarettes Diverticuli Esophageal web/Esophagitis Familial
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. Autoantibodies to gluten in wheat and other grains. Celiac sprue
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. Infection with Tropheryma whippelii. Whipple's disease
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. PAS-positive foamy macrophages in intestinal lamina propria. Non-AIDS patient. Whipple's disease
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. Foamy macrophages in lamina propria. AIDS patient. Infection by Mycobacterium vium-intracellulare complex
    Dx : Antiglandin antibodies. Blunting of villi. Lymphocytes in lamina propria. Celiac sprue
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. Associated with dermatitis herpetiformis. Celiac sprue
    Dx : Diarrheaa, steatorrhea, weightloss, weakness. Moderately increaase risk of malignancy (most often T-Cell lymphoma) Celiac sprue
    Dx : Congenital megacolon characterized by lack of ganglion cells/enteric nervous plexus in segment on intestinal biopsy. Hirschsprung's disease
    Dx : Early bilious vomiting and proximal stomach distension Duodenal atresia
    Risk of Hirschprung's disease is increased with which genetic abnormality? Down syndrome

    Duodenal atresia is associated with which genetic abnormality? Down syndrome
    Dx : Premature baby. Necrosis of intestinal mucosaa and possible perforation. Necrotizing enterocolitis
    Dx : Acute bowel obstruction, history of recent surgery. Adhesion
    Which part of the GI tract does ischaemic colitis commonly occur? Splenic flexure.
    Dx : Dilation of vessels in GIT, leading to bleeding. Most often found in cecum and ascending colon. Angiodysplasia
    Dx : Hamartomatous polyps of colon and small intestine. Hyperpigmented mouth, lips, hands, genitalia. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    Dx : Tumor of endrocrine cells. Commonly located in small intestine. Carcinoid syndrome
    Dx : Dense core bodies seen on EM. Wheezing, right sided heart murmurs, diarrhea, flushing. Carcinoid syndrome.
    Dx : AST more than ALT Alcoholic hepatitis
    Dx : ALT more than AST Viral hepatitis
    Ceruloplasmin will decrease in which disease? Wilson's disease
    Dx : Child. Hepatomegaly and encephalopathy. Fatty liver, hypoglycemia, coma. Associated with viral infection that has been treated with salicylates. Reye's syndrome
    Dx : Young women. Liver inflammation symptoms. Positive ANA and anti-smooth muscle antibodies. Autoimmune hepatitis
    Dx : Neonate. Liver inflammation symptoms. Biopsy shows multinucleated giant cells. Neonatal hepatitis
    Dx : Describe the ALT / AST levels in fulminant hepatic failure. Decreased (cuz liver parenchyma destroyed)
    Dx : Micronodular, ireegularly shrunken liver with "hobnail" appearance. Sclerosis around the central vein. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    In relation to the liver, increased AFP is an indication of what? Hepatocellular carcinoma
    Dx : Occlusion of IVC or hepaticc veins with centrilobular congestion and necrosis, leading to congestive liver disease. Budd Chiari syndrome
    Dx : Liver congestion signs, but absence of jugular venous distention. Budd Chiari syndrome
    Dx : Neonatal hepatitis, PAS positive globules in liver. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
    Dx : Concentric "onion skin" bile duct fibrosis Primary sclerosing cholangitis
    Dx : Jaundice, fever, right upper quadrant pain Cholelithiasis/cholangitis (charcot's triad of cholangitis)
    Dx : Air can be seen in biliary tree on imaging. Gallstone obstructs ileocecal
    valve. (there is a fistula between gallbladder and small intestine)
    Dx : Epigastric abdominal pain radiating to back, anorexia, nausea. Elevated amylase and lipase. Acute pancreatitis
  5. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    important shelf-lives of contraceptives you need to know for FMGE:
    (Shelf-life is only important for IUDs)
    1. Copper IUDs - 3-5 yrs
    2. Progestasert - 1 year
    3. CuT 200 - 4 years
    4. Nova T - 5 yrs
    5. LNG IUD - 7-10 yrs
    6. CuT 380A - 10 yrs



    Important culture media you need to know in Microbiology:
    1. Levinthal & Mannitol salt agar: Staphylococcus Aureus
    2. Crystal Violet blood agar: Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Loeffler's serum slope & Potassium tellurite blood agar: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    4. Saboraud's dextrose agar: Nocardia
    5. Robertson cooked meat medium: All Anaerobic bacteria
    6. PLET medium: Bacillus Anthracis
    7. Thayer martin or New york city medium: Gonococcus & Meningococcus
    8. MacConkey's agar: All Enterobactericeae
    9. Selenite F Broth & Tetrathionate broth: Salmonella and shigella
    10. Bordet gengue medium: Bordetella pertussis
    11. Castneda method: Brucella
    12. Cetrimide or dettol agar: Pseudomonas
    13. Lowenstein jensen (L-J medium) or dorset egg medium: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
    14. PPLO medium: Mycoplasma
    15. skirrow's medium: H.pylori
  6. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    VACCINE STRAINS

    Measles – Edmonston Zogreb Strain
    Typh-Oral – Ty21a Strain
    Chicken Pox – OKA Strain
    Rabies – Pitts Moore Strain
    BCG – Danish 1331
    Polio – Lancing, Leon, Brunhilde Strain
    Mumps- Jeryll Lynn Strain
    Yellow Fever- 17 D vaccine Strain
    Hep A – HM175/GBM strain
    Rubella- RA 27/3 Strain
    Diphtheria- Park Williams 8 Strain
    japanese encephalitis: SA 14-14-2, beijing and nakayama strains





    Important culture media you need to know in Microbiology:
    1. Levinthal & Mannitol salt agar: Staphylococcus Aureus
    2. Crystal Violet blood agar: Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Loeffler's serum slope & Potassium tellurite blood agar: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
    4. Saboraud's dextrose agar: Nocardia
    5. Robertson cooked meat medium: All Anaerobic bacteria
    6. PLET medium: Bacillus Anthracis
    7. Thayer martin or New york city medium: Gonococcus & Meningococcus
    8. MacConkey's agar: All Enterobactericeae
    9. Selenite F Broth & Tetrathionate broth: Salmonella and shigella
    10. Bordet gengue medium: Bordetella pertussis
  7. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    * MEN 1 (Wermer Syndrome) – Parathyroid Tumor (Hypercalcemia), Pancreatic Tumor(Gastrin), Pituitary Adenoma (Prolactin, ACTH).

    MEN 2a (Sipple syndrome)– Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid (Calcitonin), Pheochromocytoma and Parathyroid Tumor.

    MEN 2b – Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid, Pheochromocytoma,Marfanoid Features/Mucosal Neuromas





    WHO criteria for obesity, based on BMI:

    1. Underweight- <18.5
    2. Normal BMI- 18.5 to 25
    3. Pre-obesity- 25 to 30
    4. Obesity I degree- 30 to 35
    5. Obesity II degree- 35 to 40
    5. Obesity III degree- >40
  8. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    Comparison of hypersensitivity types

    type I: Allergy (immediate)
    Atopy
    Anaphylaxis
    Asthma


    II Cytotoxic, antibody-dependent:
    Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    Thrombocytopenia
    Erythroblastosis fetalis
    Goodpasture's syndrome
    Membranous nephropathy
    Graves' disease
    Myasthenia Gravis

    III Immune complex disease:
    Serum sickness
    Arthus reaction
    Rheumatoid arthritis
    Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    lupus Nephritis
    Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
    Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (Hypersensitivity pneumonitis)


    IV Delayed-type hypersensitivity[2] [3](DTH), cell-mediated immune memory response, antibody-independent:

    Contact dermatitis
    Mantoux test
    Chronic transplant rejection
    Multiple sclerosis [4]
    T-cells

    V Autoimmune disease, receptor mediated :
    Graves' disease
    Myasthenia Gravis
  9. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    for MRSA Infection-Vancomycin
    For Malaria in Pregnancy-Chloroquine
    For Whooping Cough or Perteusis- Erythromycin
    For Kawasaki disease-IV Ig
    For Warferin Overdose-Vit-K
    For Heparin Overdose-Protamine
    For hairy Cell Leukemia-Cladirabine
    For Multiple Myeloma- Melphalan
    For CML-Imatinib
    For Wegner's granulomatosis-Cyclophosphamide
    For HOCM- Propranolol
    For Delirium Tremens-Diazepam
    For Drug Induced Parkinsonism-Benzhexol
    For Diacumarol Poisoning-Vit-K
    For Type-1 Lepra Reaction-Steroids
    For Type- 2 Lepra Reaction-Thalidomide
    For Allergic Contect Dermatitis-Steroids
    For PSVT- 1st-Adenosine, 2nd-Verapamil, 3rd-Digoxin
    For Z-E Syndrome- Proton Pump Inhibitor
    For Chancroid-Cotrimoxazole
    For Dermatitis Herpetiformis-Dapsone
    For Spastic Type of Cerebral Palsy-Diazepam
    For Herpis Simplex Keratitis-Trifluridine
    For Herpes Simplex Orolabialis-Pancyclovir
    For Neonatal Herpes Simplex-Acyclovir
    For Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia- CotrimoxazoleFor Nodulo Cystic Acne-Retinoic acid
    For Trigeminal Neuralgia-Carbamezapine
    For Actinomycosis-Penicillin
    For Plague- Streptomycin
    For Opioid Withdrawal- Methadone 2nd-Clonidine
    For Alcohol Withdrawal- Chlordiazepoxide 2nd-Diazepam
    For Post Herpetic Neuralgia- Fluphenazine
    For WEST Syndrome-ACTH
    For Diabetic Diarrhoea- Clonidine
    For Lithium Induced Neuropathy-Amiloride
  10. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    DRUGS AND SIDE EFFECTS

    Agranulocytosis
    • Clozapine
    Aplastic Anemia
    • Chloramphenicol • NSAIDs • Benzene
    Atropine-like Side Effects
    • Tricyclics
    Cardiotoxicity
    • Doxorubicin • Daunorubicin
    Cartilage Damage in children
    • fluoroquinolones (Ciprofloxacin & Norfloxacin)
    Cinchonism
    • Quinidine
    Coronary Steal Phenomenon
    • Dipyridamole
    Corneal micro deposits
    • Amiodarone
    Cough
    • ACE Inhibitors
    Diabetes Insipidus
    •Lithium
    Disulfiram-like effect
    • Metronidazole • Sulfonylureas (1st generation)
    Extrapyramidal Side Effects
    • Antipsychotics (Thioridazine, Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine)
    Fanconi’s Syndrome
    • Tetracycline
    Fatal Hepatotoxicity (necrosis)
    • Valproic Acid • Halothane • Acetaminophen
    Gingival Hyperplasia
    • Phenytoin
    Gray Baby Syndrome
    • Chloramphenicol
    Gynecomastia
    • Cimetidine • Azoles • Spironolactone • Digitalis • Estrogen & testosterone • INH & ethionamide • Clomiphine • Phenytoin • Reserpine & Methyldopa
    Hand Foot Syndrome
    • 5-Flurouracil (5-FU)
    Hemolytic Anemia in G6PD-deficiency
    • Sulfonamides • Isoniazid • Aspirin • Ibuprofen • Primaquine
    Hemorrhagic Cystitis
    • Cyclophosphamide • Ifosamide (Treat by Mesna & Acetylcysteine Bladder Wash)
    Hepatitis
    • Isoniazid
    Hot Flashes, Flushing
    • niacin • Tamoxifen • Ca++ Channel Blockers
    Hypertension: Postural
    • Prazocin
    Hypertension: Rebound
    • Clonidine withdrawal
    Increased intra cranial tension (¬ ICT)
    • Amiodarone • Hypervitaminosis A • OCP’s • Tetracycline • Quinolones
    Induce CP450
    • Barbiturates • Phenytoin • Carbamazepine • Rifampin
    Inhibit CP450
    •Cimetidine • Erythromycin • Ketoconazole • Isoniazid (INH) [remember CEKI]
    Interstitial Nephritis
    • Methicillin • NSAIDs (except Aspirin) • Furosemide • Sulfonamides
    Milk Alkali Syndrome
    • Calcium Carbonate (CaCo3)
    Monday Disease
    • Nitroglycerin Industrial exposure ® tolerance during week ® loss of tolerance during weekend ® headache, tach, dizziness upon re-exposure
    Nephrotoxicity
    • Cephaloridine • Gentamycin • Amphotericin
    Orange Body Fluids
    • Rifampin
    Osteoporosis
    • Heparin • Corticosteroids
    Pancreatitis
    • L-Asparginase • Glucocorticoids
    Photosensitivity
    • Lomefloxacin • Pefloxacin
    Positive Coombs’ Test
    • Methyldopa
    Pulmonary Fibrosis
    • Bleomycin • Amiodarone
    Rabbit Syndrome (Perioral tremors)
    • Phenothiazines
    Red Man Syndrome
    • Vancomycin (rapid IV)
    Severe HTN with Tyramine
    • MAOIs
    SLE- Drug Induced[Anti Histone Antibody Characteristic of this]
    • Chloropromazine • Hydralazine • Isoniazid • Methyldopa • Procainamide • Quinidine [ remember CHIMP -Q]
    Tardive Dyskinesia
    • Antipsychotics (Thioridazine, Haloperidol, Chlorpromazine)
    Tinnitus
    • Aspirin • Quinidine
    Torsades de Pontis
    • Terfanadin
  11. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    IMPORTANY BODIES

    Starry sky pattern? Burkitt's lymphoma
    most commonly recieves mets? Adrenal gland (rich blood supply)
    most common testicular tumor in children? in Men? Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
    Auer's rods? Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M3
    Aschoff's bodies? Rheumatic fever
    Birbeck granules? Histiocytosis X
    Neurofibrillary tangles? Alzheimer's disease
    Bence-Jones proteinuria? Multiple myeloma
    Cal-Exner bodies? Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
    Cowdry type A bodies? Herpes virus
    Codman's triangle on an x-ray? Osteosarcoma
    Councilman bodies? Toxic or viral hepatitis
    Calf pseudohypertrophy? Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
    Reed-Sternberg cells? Hodgkin's lymphoma
    Heinz bodies? G-6-PD deficiency
    Homer-Wright rosettes? Neuroblastoma
    Curschmann's spirals? Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
    Kayser-Fleischer rings? Wilson's disease
    Lewy bodies? Parkinson's disease]
    Orphan Annie cells? Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
    Russell bodies? Multiple myeloma
    Reinke's crystals? Leydig cell tumor
    Blue sclera? Osteogenesis imperfecta
    Soap-bubble appearance on an x-ray? Giant cell tumor of the bone
    Pseudorosettes? Ewing's sarcoma
    Lucid interval? Epidural hematoma
    Bloody tap on lumbar puncture? Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    Pseudopalisades? Glioblastoma multiforme
    Charcot-Leyden crystals? Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
    Cafe au fait spot on the skin? Neurofibromatosis
    Streaky ovaries? Turner's syndrome
    Keratin pearls? Squamous cell carcinoma
    Signet ring cells? Gastric carcinoma
    Mallory's bodies? Chronic alcoholism
    Blue-domed cysts? Fibrocystic change of the breast
    Schiller-Duval bodies? Yolk sac tumor
    Senile plaques? Alzheimer's disease
    WBCs in the urine? Acute cystitis
    RBCs in the urine? Bladder carcinoma
    RBC casts in the urine? Acute glomerulonephritis
    WBC casts in the urine? Acute pyelonephritis
    Renal epithelial casts in the urine? Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
    Waxy casts? Chronic end-stage renal disease
    Cause of chronic metal poisoning? Lead
    Cause of congenital cyanotic heart disease? Tetralogy of Fallot
    Congenital cardiac anomaly? Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
    Cardiac tumor? Left atrial myxoma
    Vasculitis? Temporal arteritis
    Primary tumor of the liver? Hemangioma (benign)
    Primary malignant tumor of the lungs? Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
    most Cause of nephrotic syndrome? Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    most cause of nephrotic syndrome in children? Lipoid nephrosis
    most common: Organism that causes pyelonephritis? Escherichia coli
    most common: Renal cell cancer type? Clear cell
    most common: Tumor of the liver? Metastatic cancer (GI, breast, lungs)
    most common: Malignant tumor of the esophagus? Squamous cell carcinoma
    most common: Tumor arising within the bone? Multiple myeloma
    most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world? Cervical neoplasia
    most common: Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the US? Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
    most common: Tumor of the female genitourinary tract? Leiomyoma
    most common: Benign tumor of the ovary? Serocystadenoma
    most common: Benign tumor of the breast? Fibroadenoma
    most common: Benign lesion that affects the breast? Fibrocystic change of the breast
    most common: Malignant tumor of the breast? Invasive ductal carcinoma
    most common: Tumor in men between the ages of 15 and 35? Testicular tumors
    most common: Germ cell tumor in men? Seminoma
    most common: Testicular tumor in infants and children? Yolk sac tumor
    most common: Malignant germ cell tumor in women? Choriocarcinoma
    most common: Solid tumor in the body? Nephroblastoma
    most common: Acquired GI emergency of infancy? Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy
    most common: Primary malignant tumor of the ovary? Serocystadenocarcinoma
    most common: Cardiac tumor of infancy? Rhabdomyoma
    most common: Acute metal poisoning? Arsenic
    most common: Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ? Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
    most common: Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers? Osteosarcoma
    most common: Site of a cerebral infarct? Middle cerebral artery
  12. Santosh Jadhav

    Santosh Jadhav Active Member

    MURMURS
    Carey Coombs murmur- Mid diastolic murmur, in rheumatic fever
    Austin Flint murmur- mid- late diastolic murmur,in Aortic Regurgitation.
    Graham- Steel murmur- high pitched, diastolic, in pulmonary regurgitation.
    Rytands murmur - mid diastolic atypical murmur, in Complete heart block.
    Docks murmur-diastolic murmur, Left Anterior Descending(LAD) artery stenosis.
    Mill wheel murmur- due to air in RV cavity following cardiac catheterization.
    Stills murmur- inferior aspect of lower left sternal border, systolic ejection sound, vibratory/musical quality,in subaortic stenosis, small VSD
  13. Rajesh Saagar

    Rajesh Saagar New Member

    Thanks for the good info! Does FMGE is like other entrance exams where we get repeated questions? If it so, how many repeated questions can one expect?

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