May 2014 AIIMS question ...

Discussion in 'AIIMS Nov 2013' started by samuel, Aug 21, 2014.

  1. samuel

    samuel New Member

    True about Nuclear bag fibers
    a) Sense dynamic length of muscle
    b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
    c) Alpha motor neuron stimulation
    d) Senses muscle tension

    Receptor of joint capsule and ligaments is
    a) Slow adapting
    b) Fast adapting
    c) Different to slow and fast adapting
    d) Non-adapting

    Which does not supply medulla?
    a) Anterior spinal artery
    b) Posterior spinal artery
    c) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    d) Superior cerebellar artery

    All extra-ocular muscles supplied by ipsi-
    lateral oculomotor complex nuclei except
    a) Inferior rectus
    b) Medial rectus
    c) Superior rectus
    d) Inferior oblique

    Which vitamin deficiency causes circum-
    corneal vascularization?
    a) Thiamine
    b) Riboflavin
    c) Vit E
    d) Vit C

    Not example of uni-parental disomy
    a) Angelman syndrome
    b) Prader-Willi syndrome
    c) Bloom syndrome
    d) Silver Russell syndrome

    Which of the following anti-Parkinson drug
    may cause peripheral vasospasm?
    a) Ropinirole
    b) Amantadine
    c) Bromocriptine
    d) Carbidopa

    Treatment of choice of comedone lesions on
    face trunk
    a) Retinoids
    b) Clindamycin
    c) Retinoids plus oral doxycycline

    All of the following glands have secreto-
    motor supply by facial nerve except
    a) Nasal gland
    b) Lacrimal gland
    c) Submandibular gland
    d) Parotid gland

    Lithium should be stopped how many days
    before surgery
    a) 1
    b) 2
    c) 3
    d) 4

    Comedonal acne:
    It forms because a
    component of skin oil called sebum along with
    old skin cells block the pores of the skin.

    Comedonal acne appears most often on the
    forehead, nose, and chin.

    The most common treatment is retinoids with
    an oral antibiotic, such as doxycycline,
    tetracycline, minocycline or erythromycin, which
    kills the bacteria that cause inflammation
    around the blocked pores.

    Topical retinoids are comedolytic and anti-
    inflammatory
    . They normalize follicular hyper-
    proliferation and hyper-keratinization.
    Topical
    retinoids reduce the numbers of micro-
    comedones, comedones, and inflammatory
    lesions.

    The ‘v’ wave is larger than ‘a’ wave in left
    atrium because –
    a) Left atrium has high pressure area
    b) Left atrium is more compliant
    c) Pressure from right atria left atria transferred
    to lungs

    Bucco-pharyngeal membrane made up of
    a) Endoderm
    b) Ectoderm
    c) Endoderm, mesoderm
    d) Ectoderm and endoderm

    A/E innervated by trigeminal nerve:
    a) Lateral pterygoid
    b) Medial pterygoid
    c) Stylo-hyoid
    d) Tensor veli palati

    Enzyme replacement therapy is given
    successfully in
    a) Fabry’s disease
    b) Gaucher disease
    c) Sanfilippo syndrome
    d) Pompe disease

    Not intermediate product of TCA cycle is
    a) Alpha KG
    b) Citric acid
    c) Acetyl co-A
    d) Succinyl co-A

    Cannabis is most commonly abused
    substance in India. Which form is not used in
    India as cannabis product?
    a) Ganja
    b) Charas
    c) Bhang
    d) Afeem

    Viper bite
    a) Musculo-toxic
    b) Neuro-toxic
    c) Histotoxic
    d) Vasculotoxic

    Not intermediate product of TCA cycle is
    a) Alpha KG
    b) Citric acid
    c) Acetyl co-A
    d) Succinyl co-A
  2. samuel

    samuel New Member

    Explanation:
    Lithium is used to treat bipolar affective
    disorders. It may potentiate the effect of
    depolarizing and competitive neuromuscular
    blocking agents. The clearance of lithium can
    be reduced and its toxicity increased by factors
    that cause negative fluid balance, negative
    sodium balance, and decreased glomerular
    filtration rate.
    Lithium should be discontinued 2-3 days
    before major surgery and resumed when renal
    function and electrolyte levels are stable.
    If serum levels are not in a toxic range, renal
    function is normal, and fluid electrolyte status
    is stable, lithium can be continued before minor
    surgery.
  3. samuel

    samuel New Member

    True about Nuclear bag fibers
    a) Sense dynamic length of muscle
    b) Involved in reciprocal innervation
    c) Alpha motor neuron stimulation
    d) Senses muscle tension
    Answer: Sense dynamic length of muscle
    Explanation:
    Intrafusal fibers are a second category of
    muscle fibers found specifically within muscle
    spindles.
    Intrafusal fibers are classified as nuclear bag
    fibers containing many nuclei in a dilated
    central area and nuclear chain fibers lacking
    definitive bag. There are two subtypes of the
    nuclear bag fibers, dynamic and static.
    Two types of sensory (afferent) nerves
    innervate intrafusal fibers:
    Group Ia afferent nerves innervate both nuclear
    bag fibers and nuclear chain fibers, and
    transmit information regarding the rate of
    change in muscle length (Dynamic response).
    Group II afferent nerves mainly innervate
    nuclear chain fibers and do not innervate the
    dynamic nuclear bag fibers.
    The steady state activity of group Ia and II
    afferent provide information on steady state
    length of muscle (Static response)
    2. Human blood testis barrier
    a) Tight junction between Sertoli cells
    b) Absence of germ cells causes immune
    reaction
    c) Formed before spermatogenesis
    d)
    Answer: Tight junction between Sertoli cells
    Explanation:
    Tight junction between adjacent Sertoli cells
    near the basal lamina form a blood-testis
    barrier.
    Blood-testis barrier prevents many large
    molecules from passing from the Interstial
    tissue and the part of tubule near basal lamina
    (Basal compartment) to the region near tubular
    lumen (Ad-luminal compartment) and the
    lumen.
    3. Receptor of joint capsule and ligaments is
    a) Slow adapting
    b) Fast adapting
    c) Different to slow and fast adapting
    d) Non-adapting
    Answer: Slow adapting
    Explanation:
    The receptors detect mechanical deformation
    within the capsule and ligaments:
    There are four types of sensory endings that
    make up joint receptors; free nerve endings,
    Golgi type endings, ruffini endings, and
    paciniform endings.
    Slowly adapting receptors: Free nerve endings,
    Golgi type endings and ruffini endings
    Fast adapting receptors: Paciniform endings
    The rapidly adapting receptors produce
    generator potentials and action potential
    discharges that follow the time-varying
    waveform of pressure changes produced by a
    vibrating stimulus.
    In contrast, the slowing adapting receptors
    produce generator potentials and action
    potential discharges that are sustained and
    unable to mimic the time-varying pattern of the
    stimulus.
    Consequently, the responses of rapidly
    adapting 1° afferents are best suited for
    representing time varying (e.g., vibrating or
    moving) stimuli, whereas slowly adapting 1°
    afferents better represent static stimuli (e.g.,
    sustained pressure).
  4. samuel

    samuel New Member

    ANATOMY

    1, Which does not supply medulla?
    a) Anterior spinal artery
    b) Posterior spinal artery
    c) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    d) Superior cerebellar artery
    Answer: Superior cerebellar artery
    Explanation:
    Four main arteries supply the medulla
    oblongata
    1. Anterior spinal artery
    2. Posterior spinal artery
    3. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    4. Bulbar branches of the vertebral artery

    2. All extra-ocular muscles supplied by ipsi-
    lateral oculomotor complex nuclei except
    a) Inferior rectus
    b) Medial rectus
    c) Superior rectus
    d) Inferior oblique
    Answer: Superior rectus

    Explanation:
    Extra-ocular Muscle Efferents
    Three cranial motor nuclei provide efferent
    control of the extra-ocular muscles. Activation
    of the motor neurons produces contraction of
    the innervated muscle.
    The abducens nucleus sends its axons in the
    abducens (VI cranial) nerve controls the lateral
    rectus of the ipsi-lateral eye.
    The trochlear nucleus sends its axons in the
    trochlear (IV cranial) nerve controls the
    superior oblique of the contra-lateral eye.
    The oculomotor complex contains nuclei that
    send axons in the oculomotor (III cranial) nerve
    control the superior levator in the eyelid of both
    eyes extra-ocular muscles, which include the
    medial rectus of the ipsi-lateral eye, inferior
    oblique of the ipsi-lateral eye inferior rectus of
    the ipsi-lateral eye and superior rectus of the
    contra-lateral eye.

    3. All of the following glands have secreto-
    motor supply by facial nerve except
    a) Nasal gland
    b) Lacrimal gland
    c) Submandibular gland
    d) Parotid gland

    Answer: Parotid gland
    Explanation:
    Facial nerve: Secreto-motor to all glands in
    head EXCEPT Parotid
    Parotid gland:
    Parasympathetic secreto-motor supply arises
    from the glosso-pharyngeal nerve. The nerves
    reach the gland via the tympanic branch, the
    lesser petrosal nerve, the otic ganglion, and the
    Auriculo-temporal nerve.
    Submandibular gland and Sublingual Gland:
    Parasympathetic secreto-motor supply is from
    the facial nerve via the chorda tympani, and the
    submandibular ganglion. The postganglionic
    fibers pass directly to the gland.
    Nasal gland and lacrimal gland:
    Parasympathetic secreto-motor supply is from
    the facial nerve via greater petrosal nerve.

    4. Not content of meso-rectal fascia
    a) Para rectal node
    b) Inferior rectal veins
    c) Superior rectal veins
    d) Inferior mesenteric plexus
    Answer: Inferior rectal veins

    Explanation:
    Meso-rectum is enclosed by meso-rectal fascia
    which is derived from the visceral peritoneum,
    and is also known as visceral fascia of meso-
    rectum, fascia propria of rectum or pre-sacral
    wing of hypo-gastric sheath
    Upper rectum is derived from the embryological
    hind gut and it is surrounded by meso-rectum
    and its contents namely superior rectal artery
    and its branches, superior rectal vein and
    tributaries, lymphatic vessels and nodes along
    superior rectal artery, branches from inferior
    mesenteric plexus to innervate rectum and
    loose adipose connective tissue down to the
    level of levator ani.

    5. Bucco-pharyngeal membrane made up of
    a) Endoderm
    b) Ectoderm
    c) Endoderm, mesoderm
    d) Ectoderm and endoderm
    Answer: Ectoderm and endoderm
    Explanation:
    The bucco-pharyngeal membrane forms the
    external upper membrane limit (cranial end) of
    the early gastrointestinal tract (GIT).
    This membrane region first develops in the tri-
    laminar embryo (week 3) during gastrulation.
    The “membrane” quality comes from being
    composed of only ectoderm and endoderm,
    without a middle layer of mesoderm.

    6. A/E innervated by trigeminal nerve:
    a) Lateral pterygoid
    b) Medial pterygoid
    c) Stylo-hyoid
    d) Tensor veli palati
    Answer: Stylo-hyoid

    Explanation:
    The trigeminal nerve is the largest and most
    complex of the 12 cranial nerves (CNs). It
    supplies sensations to the face, mucous
    membranes, and other structures of the head. It
    is the motor nerve for the muscles of
    mastication and contains propriaceptive fibers.
    Components and Peripheral Distribution of CN V
    Afferent general somatic: Sensory branches of
    the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular
    nerves to skin, mucous membranes of the face
    and head
    Efferent special visceral: Branches to
    Temporalis, Masseter, pterygoid, mylohyoid,
    tensor tympani, and palati
    Afferent propriaceptive: Sensory endings in
    muscles of mastication
  5. samuel

    samuel New Member

    BIOCHEMISTRY

    1. Which vitamin deficiency causes circum-
    corneal vascularization?
    a) Thiamine
    b) Riboflavin
    c) Vit E
    d) Vit C
    Answer: Riboflavin

    Explanation:
    Manifestations of riboflavin:
    Glossitis
    Magenta color tongue
    Cheilosis
    Angular stomatitis
    Circum-corneal vascularization
    Proliferation of bulbar conjunctival capillaries

    2. Enzyme replacement therapy is given
    successfully in
    a) Fabry’s disease
    b) Gaucher disease
    c) Sanfilippo syndrome
    d) Pompe disease

    Answer: Gaucher disease
    Explanation:
    Gaucher disease:
    Gaucher disease is a lipid storage disease
    characterized by the deposition of
    glucocerebroside in cells of the macrophage-
    monocyte system.
    The disorder results from the deficiency of a
    specific lysosomal hydrolase,
    glucocerebrosidase.
    Enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) for type 1
    Gaucher disease is now available. Most
    patients receive the recombinant enzyme. This
    preparation is highly effective in reversing the
    visceral and hematologic manifestations of
    Gaucher disease.
    Fabry disease:
    Fabry disease is an X-linked lysosomal
    disorder that leads to excessive deposition of
    neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular
    endothelium of several organs and in epithelial
    and smooth muscle cells.
    Deficiency of alpha-galactosidase-A activity
    leads to lysosomal accumulation of
    glycosphingolipids, predominantly the
    cerebroside trihexosides.
    Two enzymes, agalsidase-alpha and
    agalsidase-beta reportedly help in normalizing
    renal function, cardiac function, and cerebro-
    vascular flow.
    Pompe disease:
    In some glycogen storage disorders, clinical
    trials have successfully used treatment
    involving replacement of the enzymes that are
    deficient or not working normally. For example,
    in glycogen storage disorder type II (Pompe
    disease), this treatment has been shown to
    help reverse the heart problems and muscle
    weakness that can occur.
    For the infantile form of Pompe disease, a
    recombinant enzyme replacement was
    approved by the FDA.
    Sanfilippo syndrome:
    Sanfilippo syndrome or Mucopolysaccharidosis
    III (MPS-III) is a rare autosomal recessive
    lysosomal storage disease.
    It is caused by a deficiency in one of the
    enzymes needed to break down the
    glycosaminoglycan heparan sulfate (which is
    found in the extra-cellular matrix and on cell
    surface glyco-proteins).
    No treatment for the underlying cause is
    available. Medical treatment is supportive and
    is directed toward improving the patient’s
    quality of life.

    3. Final electron goes to In ETC
    a) 02
    b) Cytochrome a
    c) Cytochrome b1
    d) FADH2
    Answer: O2

    Explanation:
    The most common of final electron acceptors is
    molecular oxygen, O2, which combines with the
    spent electrons of cellular respiration, along
    with protons, to generate what is known as
    metabolic water.

    4. Not intermediate product of TCA cycle is
    a) Alpha KG
    b) Citric acid
    c) Acetyl co-A
    d) Succinyl co-A
    Answer: Acetyl co-A

    Explanation:
    Intermediate products of TCA cycle:
    Citrate→ Iso-citrate → Alpha keto-glutarate→
    Succinyl co-A → Succinate→ Fumarate →
    Malate → Oxalo-acetate
  6. samuel

    samuel New Member

    FORENSIC SCIENCE

    1. Cannabis is most commonly abused
    substance in India. Which form is not used in
    India as cannabis product?
    a) Ganja
    b) Charas
    c) Bhang
    d) Afeem
    Answer: Afeem

    Explanation:
    Charas, ganja and bhang are obtained from the
    same plant called ‘cannabis sativa’.
    Charas: It’s a resin extract from the top leaves
    and unfertilized flower of the young female
    plant of cannabis sativa.
    Ganja: Like charas, it is made of the top leaves
    and unfertilized flower of young female plant.
    The resin is not extracted like charas. Leaves
    and flowers are dried and smoked in cigarettes,
    chillums and pipes.
    Bhang: Large green leaves and flowering
    shoots of mainly the male plant but female too.
    Afeem: A bitter, yellowish-brown, strongly
    addictive narcotic drug prepared from the dried
    juice of unripe pods of the opium poppy and
    containing alkaloids such as morphine,
    codeine, and papaverine.

    2. Viper bite
    a) Musculo-toxic
    b) Neuro-toxic
    c) Histotoxic
    d) Vasculotoxic
    Answer: Vasculotoxic

    Explanation:
    1. Neurotoxins: Alfa-neurotoxins are a large group
    of postsynaptic toxins. Alfa -neurotoxins also
    attack cholinergic neurons. They mimic the
    shape of the acetylcholine molecule and
    therefore fit into the receptors → they block the
    ACh flow → feeling of numbness and paralysis.
    Snake examples: king cobra, sea snakes,
    many-banded krait and cobras
    2. Cardiotoxins are components that are
    specifically toxic to the heart. They bind to
    particular sites on the surface of muscle cells
    and cause depolarization and prevent muscle
    contraction. These toxins may cause the heart
    to beat irregularly or stop beating, causing
    death. Snake example: mambas, and some
    cobra species

    3. Hemotoxins cause hemolysis, the destruction
    of red blood cells (erythrocytes), or induce
    blood coagulation (clotting). Snake example:
    most vipers and many cobra species.
    3. Active component of a white oleander
    a) Nerina
    b) Nicotine
    c) Abrine
    d) Pilocarpine

    Answer:

    Explanation:
    Abrus precatorius- Abrins
    Oleander: Oleandrin and nerioside, which are
    cardenolide glycosides
    Nerine: A plant genus in the family Liliaceae
    which causes poisoning when eaten by cattle.
    The toxic agent is lycorine, which causes
    salivation, vomiting and diarrhea.

    4. In which poisoning, Burnt Rope odor is
    present
    a) Hydrogen sulphide
    b) Cyanide
    c) Nitrobenzene
    d) Cannabis

    Answer: Cannabis
    Explanation:
    Rotten eggs odor: Hydrogen sulphide
    Garlic odor: Arsenic poisoning
    Fishy odor: Zn phosphide poisoning
    Burnt rope odor: Cannabis
    Bitter almond odor: Cyanide poisoning
  7. samuel

    samuel New Member

    PATHOLOGY

    1. Verocay body is seen in
    a) Meningioma
    b) Glioma
    c) Schwannoma
    d) Hemangioma
    Answer: Schwannoma

    Explanation:
    Schwannoma is also known as neurilemoma.
    Encapsulated biphasic nerve sheath tumor
    derived from Schwann cells.
    Biphasic: compact hyper-cellular Antoni A
    areas and myxoid hypo-cellular Antoni B areas.
    Small tumors may be all Antoni A.
    Cells are narrow, elongate and wavy with
    tapered ends interspersed with collagen fibers
    Nuclear palisading around fibrillary process
    (Verocay bodies) are often seen in cellular
    areas
    Large irregularly spaced vessels are most
    prominent in Antoni B areas

    2. Rossets are not seen in:
    a) Retinoblastoma
    b) Medulloblastoma
    c) PNET
    d) Neuro-cysticercosis
    Answer: Neuro-cysticercosis

    Explanation:
    Rosettes are little round groupings of cells
    found in tumors. They usually consist of cells in
    a spoke-wheel or halo arrangement
    surrounding a central, acellular region.
    Homer Wright rosette:
    1. This rosette is typically seen in
    neuroblastoma, Medulloblastoma, and primitive
    neuroectodermal tumors (PNETs).
    2. It consists of a halo of tumor cells
    surrounding a central region containing
    neuropil (hence its association with tumors of
    neuronal origin).
    Flexner-Wintersteiner Rosette:
    1. This rosette is characteristic of
    retinoblastomas. It consists of tumor cells
    surrounding a central lumen that contains
    cytoplasmic extensions from the tumor cells.
    True Ependymal Rosette:
    1. This rosette is seen in ependymoma and
    consists of tumor cells surrounding an empty
    lumen.
    Peri-vascular Pseudo-rosette:
    1. This rosette consists of tumor cells collected
    around a blood vessel. It’s called a pseudo-
    rosette because the central structure isn’t part
    of the tumor.
    2. These rosettes are common in
    ependymomas, but also see in
    medulloblastoma, PNET, central neurocytomas,
    and glioblastomas.

    3. Not example of uni-parental disomy
    a) Angelman syndrome
    b) Prader-Willi syndrome
    c) Bloom syndrome
    d) Silver Russell syndrome
    Answer: Bloom syndrome

    Explanation:
    Bloom syndrome (congenital telangiectatic
    erythema) is a rare autosomal recessive
    disorder characterized by telangiectases and
    photosensitivity, growth deficiency of prenatal
    onset, variable degrees of immunodeficiency,
    and increased susceptibility to neoplasms of
    many sites and types.
    Uni-parental disomy (UPD) occurs when a
    person receives two copies of a chromosome or
    of part of a chromosome, from one parent and
    no copies from the other parent.
    The most well-known conditions:
    Prader-Willi syndrome (UPD 15)
    Angelman syndrome (UPD 15)
    Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
    Russell-Silver syndrome (UPD 7)
    Transient neonatal diabetes (UPD 6)
    UPD of chromosome 14

    4. Morphogenetic and mitogen both is feature
    of
    a) IGF
    b) FGF
    c) PDGF
    d) BMPR
    Answer: IGF

    Explanation:
    The IGF’s (insulin-like growth factors) are
    mitogenic, stimulating the fetal metabolism and
    coordinating the feto-placental metabolism.
    IGF-II regulates early embryonic development
    while IGF-I is responsible for the growth of the
    newborn.
    IGF-I signaling is an important mitogenic and
    morphogenetic regulator in hair follicle biology.
  8. samuel

    samuel New Member

    MICROBIOLOGY/ PARASITOLOGY

    1. When was HIV virus discovered?
    a) 1983
    b) 1976
    c) 1969
    d) 1992
    Answer: 1983

    Explanation:
    AIDS was first clinically observed in 1981 in the
    United States. The initial cases were a cluster
    of injection drug users and gay men with no
    known cause of impaired immunity who
    showed symptoms of Pneumocystis carinii
    pneumonia (PCP), a rare opportunistic infection
    that was known to occur in people with very
    compromised immune systems.
    In 1983, two separate research groups led by
    Robert Gallo and Luc Montagnier independently
    declared that a novel retrovirus may have been
    infecting AIDS patients, and published their
    findings in the same issue of the journal
    Science.

    2. Malaria recrudescence is-
    a) Resistant to treatment
    b) Relapse of infection
    c) Relapse in vivax and ovale
    d) Re-appearance of asexual stage
    parasitaemia after treatment.
    Answer: Re-appearance of asexual stage
    parasitaemia after treatment

    Explanation:
    In infections involving P. vivax and P. ovale
    there may be persistent hypnozoites in the
    liver. They are responsible for relapses of those
    species for periods of up to 8 or 9 years.
    The term for recurrence of infection with other
    species, P. falciparum, P. malariae and P.
    knowlesi, which lack hypnozoites, is
    “recrudescence”, meaning that the infection
    has recurred from persistent blood stages of
    the malaria parasite.
    There are several studies to prove that
    recurrent P. falciparum infection is caused by
    recrudescence of chloroquine resistant
    parasites.
    “Recrudescence” can also occur with P. vivax
    and P. ovale infections when such parasites
    have also persisted in the blood.
    Recrudescence can be due to (1) incomplete or
    inadequate treatment as a result of drug
    resistance or improper choice of medication,
    (2) an antigenic variation, and (3) multiple
    infections by different strains.

    3. Both DNA and RNA found in
    a) Bacteria
    b) Prion
    c) Viriod
    d) Plasmid
    Answer: Bacteria

    Explanation:
    1. A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded
    DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell’s
    chromosomal DNA. Plasmids naturally exist in
    bacterial cells, and they also occur in some
    eukaryotes.
    2. Viroids are plant pathogens that consist of a
    short stretch of highly complementary, circular,
    single-stranded RNA.
    3. A prion is an infectious agent composed of
    protein in a mis-folded form. Prion diseases or
    transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
    (TSEs) are a family of rare progressive
    neurodegenerative disorders that affect both
    humans and animals.

Share This Page