MCI previous years papers

Discussion in 'FMGE' started by Vandana., Feb 22, 2009.

  1. Vandana.

    Vandana. Guest

    Questions sep. FMGE -2008 (Part-1,11; Set-A)

    1) Trendelenberg test is positive due to…..?
    2) Notochord exists as….?
    3) Neuroglia….?
    4) Hyaline Arteriosclerosis seen in …..?
    5) Which Ig crosses through placenta …..?
    6) M.C cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy ……?
    7) M.C valve disease due to M.I ? (Sorry, I forgot the question. It was asked in similarly)
    Herd Immunity?
    9) Koplik’s spots seen in ……?
    10) A ♀ patient with hypertension & suffering from Thyroiditis, DOC ……?
    11) Hypocalcemia is seen with the following?
    12) Most common position of Uterus?
    13) Shortest ø of pelvis is……?
    14) Right base of the heart is formed by …..?
    15) Right side Mid calvicle the lung ends at which rib?
    16) Water supply in hilly areas?
    17) Prophylaxis DOC for Meningitis?
    1 Anaemia is seen with all except?
    19) Dose of Folic acid during pregnancy? (prophylaxis dose)
    20) Vitamin “A†dosage is given in….? (№. of doses.)
    21) What is Apoptosis?
    22) Extrinsic factor in blood coagulation? (PT/PTT)
    23) Curschmann’s spirals are due to?
    24) Bell’s palsy?
    25) In Dialysis which toxicity is seen commonly?
    26) TOC for Gastric ulcer?
    27) Squamous non-keratinizing is seen in….? a) Tongue b) Trachea c) Oesophagus d) Vagina
    2 Tumour marker CA-125 is related to pancreatic Ca &…….?
    29) Bilaterally kidneys are shrunken in …….?
    30) Poisoning due to ______________preserved are hair, Etc..etc….?
    31) The hormone helps in milk secretion?
    32) Most abundant ICF is …….?
    33) Features like-Hypogonadism, Loss of Hair, Pigmentation of skin Etc..etc Deficiency due to?
    34) Most common features of alcohol withdrawl?
    35) Negri bodies are characteristic of ?
    36) M.C opportunistic Infection in immuno compromised patient?
    37) Mallory-weiss syndrome? (Mallory bodies seen with….?)
    3 Sickness benefit under ESI Act is given for the following illness?
    39) Glucose is reabsorbed at?
    40) M.C pemphigus seen in India?

    41) India ia at which stage of Demographic?
    42) Urinary incontinence in Older people is due to……?
    43) Breast cancer is due to all, Except?
    44) Black & white colour vision is due to ………?
    45) Grey colour……? ( Extremely sorry I forgot what was asked ,{Ophthalmology Q} if any one can remember please ADD)
    46) Kussmaul breathing is due to or seen in ………?
    47) Cellulitis is caused by…….?
    4 Auer rods are seen in ……?
    49) Gynaecomastia is due to drugs……..?
    50) In a new born Jaundice occurs on 3-5days;its not due to ……….?
    51) Transmitted by faeco-orally, Except ?
    52) β-Thalassemia inherited as ……..?
    53) Foreign body inhaled usually lodges in which lung?
    54) Change in blood viscosity causes ………?
    55) * Question regarding Dentition? “Eruptionâ€
    56) Food poisoning 4-6 hrs organism responsible ……..?
    57) Dreaming is common in which type of sleep?
    5 Second heart sound is due to ……..?
    59) “SAFE†; ‘S’-stands for ……..?
    60) Long term status of blood sugar explained by …….? (Ans: HbA1c ; The way the question was formed is different, any way the matter is most Important.)
    61) Hyperglycemic drugs reduces weight ………..?
    62) Surfactant is formed from which type of cells?
    63) Spleenectomy is helpful in ……..?
    64) Incineration done for which of the following?
    65) Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in?
    The following are example of Apootosis Except-
    a) Graft versus host disease
    b) Menstrual cycle
    c) Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction
    d) Tumour necrosis

    2) The normal tensile strength of tissue at the site of wound is gained after:
    a) 1 week of wound healing
    b) 2 weeks of wound healing
    c) 2 months of wound healing
    d) 2 years of wound healing
    Best disease is characterized by a striking accumulation of lipofuscin-like material in the macula that often results in an "egg-yolk-like" appearance. In addition, patients affected with Best's disease display an abnormal electrophysiologic sign known as a depressed Arden ratio. The electro-oculogram (EOG) is a measurement of the electric potential that normally exists across the retinal pigment epithelium. This potential normally doubles in response to bright light. However, in Best's disease, this increase does not exist. This test can be used to diagnose patients without classic macular lesions, as well as identifying patients that are unlikely to have the disease.
    qs of sept 2008 paper

    21 trisomy asso. with

    2) esophagus length

    3)pre malignant cond. of esophagus

    4)length of external aud. canal cartilagenous part

    5)max. Na absorption at

    6)SUNRAY apearance on x ray

    7)m\c tumor in spine
    ewings sarcoma
    m. myeloma

    punched out lesion in skull
    ewings sarcoma

    9)m\c reason for bradycardia in MI
    septal MI
    right vent. MI
    left ventricular MI

    10) S1 split seen in

    11)snow flake cat. (from prev.papers)

    12)after injury to one eye other aslo worsen
    sym. opthalmia

    13)qs from placenta abroptia ...bleeding per vagina tender and hard

    very few qs from Obs

    14) 60 year old man with left hydroceal + ???

    ans. nephroma

    15)lateral epicondyal fac.
    non union
    tardy ulnar nerve palsy

    16)m\c parasitic infection in AIDS

    17)toxin responsibel for TSS in femals
    exo toxin

    ! in stap. aures food poisoning diarrhea occur due 2

    19)pheochromocytoma diagnosis
    24 hours urine metabolites VMA+ CA
    CT scan

    20) what we use for thyroid scan
    I 131

    some more recalls!















  2. Vandana.

    Vandana. Guest

    some more questions frm FMGE sept 2008

    1-ring shaped ulcers seen in?
    2-neurotrophic keratitis-nerve involved
    3-question on sympathetic ophthalmia
    4-extra capsular cataract surgery-parts of lens which are excised?
    5- SAFE strategy for trachoma-S stands for?
    6-rubro iridis is not seen in?
    7-questions on cost benefit and cost accounting in PSM
    8-central tendancy seen in-(refer biostats PSM )
    9-question on odds ratio
    10-complication of measles virus –encephalomelyitis
    some more-
    NNN Media used for- Ans-leshmania donavani
    Treatment of first degree testicular cancer
    Fourniers (sorry for d spelling,I don remember exactly!) gangrene seen in- Ans scrotum
    Treatment Regimen for hodkgins lymphoma
    Shape of tracheal cartilage-ans-horse shoe shape
    Comonest congenital anomaly of trachea
    Erythoderma is not seen in-?
    Commonest lupus in india-
    Fate of notochord-?
    Mysanthia gravis is not inhibited by-depolarizing agents,non depolarizing agents,both,?
    Rarest form of opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS-
    White line of frenkel seen in-ans Scurvy
    Xray sign of rickets
    Splenomegaly not seen in-?
    The first clinical presentation of acoustic neuroma-ans-facial nerve involvement
    Stones r seen most commonly in submandibular salivary gland
    The calories required by one year old child
    4-5 questions on Tracheostomy
    Sunray sign on xray seen in-?osteosarcoma
    Tardy ulnar palsy seen in-?
    Rigor mortis is due to-?
    Vitreous hemorrhage on autopsy seen in poisoning of-?
    One question on [bleep]-Refer Forensic Medicin
    Most specific method of diagnosis of kalazar

    Q.a patient with tb had decrease SERUM level of Na and k....... and has hyperpigmentation of crease of hand??...
    ans.. secondary hyperaldeosteroism.
    AN. AML
  3. Vandana.

    Vandana. Guest

    FMGE March 2005 Question Paper


    1.Muscle which helps to open while opening mouth(Tensor tympani, Tensor palate, _, All)

    2. The order of vessels in the Intercostal space from above to below(VAN, AVN, ANV)

    3. Branches of Int iliac artery except (Ovarian a., sup vesical, med rectal, inf rectal)

    4. Bipolar neuron is seen in ( parasympathetic ganglion, sympa ganglion, cochlear ganglion)

    5. Inversion & eversion of foot joints at- Subtalor joints

    6. No of lobes in liver as per COUINAUD’s classification- (3,4,6,

    7. Umbilical cord contains – 2 arteries & 1 vein

    8. Lig Arteriosum is derived from- Ductus arteriosus

    9. MI ligament preventing uterine prolapse-(cardinal, teres uteri, broad lig)


    10. Water soluble form of vit K(phyllaquinone, menaquinione, menadione, )

    11. Single oral dose for vit D prophylaxis(50000,100000,200000 U)

    12. Test for RNA detection-Northern blotting

    13 .SSA-Glutamate in 6th posn in B chain by valine

    14. Chitin is a polymer of-N acetyl glucosamine

    15. Watson’s DNA model is –Right handed anti parallel

    16. Wheat lacking in(lysine, leucine, threonine)

    17. No of ATP produced by complete metabolism of pyruvate(12,15,18,30)

    18. Final product of purine metabolism(uric acid, NH3+CO2)

    19. T4 is formed from- Tyrosine

    20. Daily required dose of Fe in an adult man(5,10,20,30)

    21. Nieman pick dise due to def of-Sphingomyelinase

    22. Saturated fatty acids max in(coconut oil, ground nut oil, palm oil)

    23. MI indicator of protein efficacy(biol value, net protein utln, chemical score, protein efficacy ratio)

    24. Dietary fibres rich in(polysaccharides, monosaccharides, non starch polysaccharides)

    25. Dietary % of energy from fat should be less than(10,20,30,40)

    26. Unconj bilirubinemia seen in all except(Dubin Johnson, Criggler najjar, Gilbert’s, Hemolytic anemia)

    27. Source of NH3 in brain - Glutamine

    28. BMR depends mainly on- body surface area


    29. Normal PH of blood- 7.36-7.44

    30. Longest life span for(lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes)

    31. Normal glomerular capillary pressure(15,25,35,45 mm Hg)

    32. Ion which is not interfered at loop of Henle(Na, K, Cl, urea)

    33. MC Hb in adult(Hb A1, HbA2, Hb F)

    34. Feacal mass mainly derived from(indigested food, undigested food, intestinal flora, intestinal secretions)

    35. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except(adrenal medulla, NMJ, bronchial smooth muscle)

    36. Anterior Pituitary secretes (ADH, oxytocin, FSH, GnRH)

    37. Mucin acini cells characteristic all except(peripherally placed nucleus,distinct lumen,zymogen granules,transparent)

    38. In synaptic cleft max concn of( Na, K, Ca, protein anions)

    39. Charecteristic for smooth muscle cells(don’t require Ca, cant do recurrent contraction, cant do sustained contraction)

    40. All or none law is obeyed by (spike potential, post synaptic potential, )

    41. All carried through lat spino thalamic tract except(crude touch, pressure, pain, Temperature)


    42. Longitudinal ulcers seen in – Typhoid fever

    43. Amoebic ulcer is – flask shaped

    44. TB ulcer edges are- undermined

    45. Crescent shaped gametocytes seen in- Falciparum malaria

    46. HIV affects (CD4, CD8, CD4+double +ve, CD8+)

    47. Few RBCs,few neutrophils with some degraded fibrin in lungs seen in(grey hepatisation, red hepatisation, viral pneumonia)

    48. Brunner’s glands in –Deodenum

    49. Organ which undergoes involution- Thymus

    50. Minimal change GN, all are true except(absence of podocytes, normal glomerulus, poor response to steroids)

    51. Bence Johns Protein is – light chain monoclonal

    52. True about NK cells except(mediates type IV hypersensitivity, kill viruses, are large granular lymphocytes)

    53. MHC is important in pathogenesis of- ? auto immune diseases

    54. SLE is- Type III hypersensitivity

    55. Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited – AD

    56. Which is not inherited XR(G6PD def, Duschene’s MD, Cystic fibrosis)

    57. Lung Ca with worst prognosis( small cell, adeno. Squamous cell)

    58. Ovarian tumours MC arises from (epithelium, germ cell, stroma)

    59. Cholera toxin acts on (ADP G1, ADP Gs, _,_,)

    60. FAMILIAL hypercholesterolemia due to- LDL receptor deficiency

    61. Exudative pleural effusion seen in all except(CCF, Ca, Pneumonia, Nephrotic syndrome)

    62. Most active form at tissue level(T3, T4, mono iod thyronin)

    63. Immediate response in acute inflammation except(granuloma formation, vasodilatation, neutrophil migration)

    64. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of(monocytes ¯ophages, T cells, B cells)

    65. Invasive Ca differs from Ca in situ by (basement membrane involvement, pleomorphism, _)

    66. Pleural effusion in vertical positon MC accumulates in (costo phrenic recess, oblique fissure, horizontal fissure)


    67. Babesiosis in India MC transmitted by – Ticks

    68. Q-fever is caused by- Coxiella burnetti

    69. Lymes disease is caused by- Borrellia burdgofferi

    70. Megaloblastic anemia caused by – Diphyllobotrum latum

    71. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called – Lung fluke

    72. Toxic Shock Syndrome MC caused by- Staphylococci

    73. Sabin Feldman test used to Dx- TOXOPLASMOSIS

    74. Bedside rapid urease test is Dx of(Proteus, H.pylori)

    75. Staph.aureus is a normal inhabitant of(nose , SKIN ,throat)

    76. LRTI is MC caused by (streptococci,viruses,H.influenza, mycoplasma)

    77. VR media used for –V.cholera

    78. Which vaccine should not be kept in freezer- DPT

    79. Promastigote form of Leishmania seen in (NNN medium, spleen , Bone marrow, lymph node)

    80. All are dimorphic fungi except(Cryptococcus, histoplasma, paracoccidia, blastomycoses)

    81. Which is Gram +ve(fusobacterium, bacteroids, artonella, ar----lla)


    82. Anti TB drug causing gout- Pyrazinamide

    83. Prolactine is stimulated by(TRH, ACTH, GnRH, Dopamine)

    84. GH is inhibited by (Bromocriptine, glucose, exercise, sleep)

    85. In a patient with hepatitis which ATT is most safe( S+E, H+E, R+E, S+H)

    86. Prokinetic drug with no dopamine antagonism(metachlopramide, domperidone, mosapride, chlorpromazine)

    87. Warfarin acts by inhibiting – factors II, VII, IX, X

    88. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.Tactics include all except( switch on to warfarin, cannot be substituted with LMWH, stop Heparin,_)

    89. Warfarin metabolism is inhibited by( Ketoconazole, Pheno, Rifampicin, chronic alchoholism)

    90. Disulfiram like rn is caused by all except(Griseofulvin, metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin)

    91. Drug not interferes with antacid( Azithromycin, Tetracyclin, Norfloxacin,Ranitidine)

    92. All are B-lactam inhibitors except(Astreonam, Sulbactam, Tazactam, Clavulenic acid)

    93. Penicillin is(safe in pregnancy, is 6 amino penicill acid, all are not antipseudomonal)

    94. Not used as an antacid(NaHCO3, AlOH3, SiO2, MgSO4)

    95. DOC in LGV- Tetracycline

    96. Lactic acidosis in DM therapy caused by – Phenformin

    97. Pancreatitis is a S/E of( Didanosine, Zidovudine,Zalcitabine)

    98. B-blockers are used in all except( A-V block, angina, FAMILIAL TREMOR )

    Forensic Medicine

    99. Female can give consent for SEX if above (16, 12, 19, 21)

    100. Post marteum stiffening is called –Rigor mortis

    101. Most informative test in parental identification-( DNA finger print, HLA)

    102. Lesion with intact SKIN but internal Pathology - Contusion


    103. Rural community health centre for(30000,60000,100000,200000) population

    104. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO upto( 6, 4, 3, 9 months)

    105. Patient made to walk early after Surgery , this is to- reduce disability

    106. Which is secondary prevention(Cx pap smear checking, vaccination , admitting disabled child in special schools)

    107. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a 37 yr well educated woman- (Diaphragm, IUCD, mala N, mala D)

    108. Best protection from STD & Syphilis by – condom

    109. Method used to compare cost of 2 studies- cost accounting

    110. Survillance is_

    111. PQLI includes- IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy

    112. Test which detects TRUE NEGATIVE- Specificity

    113. Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is – EXOTIC

    114. Couple protection rate should be – 60%

    115. Ideal couples are( just married, men 20-40 women 16-45,)

    116. Fastest population growth in ( India, Kuwait, Pakistan, Srilanka)

    117. A new drug not prevents a disease but reduce death due to that disease then- PREVALENCE increases

    118. Socially attained behavior is( culture, custom, socialization_)

    119. The upper line in growth chart is( 50 , 60, 70, 80 th percentile)

    120. Who should be trained in a community for house to house surveys

    121. MI factor deciding results of a clinical trial( Effective randomization, 50% Rx with placebo & 50% with drugs, Inclusion of all age groups, 100% follow up)


    122. Trachoma in ( 1, 2, 3, 5 million people all over world)

    123. MCC of vision loss in HIV( CMV retinitis, Toxoplasma, HIV retinitis)

    124. Dendritic ulcer seen in – HERPEZ

    125. Most serious complication after traumatic injury to one eye – SYMPATHETIC OPHTHALMIA

    126. ROSETTE shaped cataract in – TRAUMA

    127. Rx of choice in CAG ( surgical iridectomy, laser iridectomy, pilocarpine, trabeculectomy)

    128. Ideal site for IOL- Posterior capsule

    129. Laser used for IOL inpln- NdYAG

    130. Muscle 1st to be affected in Thyroid ophthalmopathy.- INF RECTUS

    131. Axial length of eye ball- 24 mm

    132. 1mm increase in axial length leads to increase the power by ( 1,2,3,4 D)

    133. Argyll Robertson pupil seen in – Neuro syphilis

    134. Light reflex is carried through( Ciliary nerve, V, VII, )

    135. Anterior Uveitis is MC assd with - HLA B 27

    136. Scleritis MC assd with – RA

    137. Interstitial keratitis MC seen in – Syphilis

    138. MCC of Vitreous H-gge (Eale’s dse, DM , HTN)

    139. Tractional RD is seen in (Vitreous loss after Surgery , DM retinopathy,_)

    140. White pupillary reflex is called – Leucocoria

    141. Dx test for corneal ulcer ( Flur.angiography, Alcian blue, Rose Bengal, methylene blue)

    142. In DIRECT ophthalmoscopy image is magnified by ( 15, 5,10, 20 times)

    143. Sup oblique muscle is supplied by - IV nerve

    144. MCC of cataract blindness- (Senile, congenital, traumatic)

    145. Max cones are seen in ( fovea centralis, macula lutea, blind spot)


    146. Ext ear is not supplied by( GP nerve, Vagus, Great auricular nerve, Lesser occipital nerve)

    147. Tonsills innervated by ( GP, Vagus, Abduscens)

    148. Schwart’s sign is seen in – OTOSCLEROSIS

    149. Pure tone is ( single frequency, multiple F, mixed F, F above 4000 Hz)

    150. In BERA the IVth potential is from ( Cochlear ganglion, inf colliculus, MGB)

    151. [bleep] myringitis is seen in ( Measles, mumps,Herpez,Mycoplasma)

    152. About Rhinoscleroma false is ( Cause subglottic stenosis, caused by Gm+, streptomycin useful in Rx, Mikkuliz cells & Russel bodies seen)

    153. Le-Forte’s # is the # of - MAXILLA


    154. Pin index of oxygen(5,15,25,35)

    155. Laughing gas is – Nitrous oxide

    156. Used for iv induction except (Bupivacaine, Thiopental Na, Ketamine, Etomidate)


    157. Latest retinoid drug used in PSORIASIS - Adapalane

    158. Isomorphism not seen in (Lichen sclerosis, Lichen planus, Vitiligo, PSORIASIS )

    159. Alopecia,hyperpigmentation ,hypogonadism charecteristc for deficiency of --Zn

    160. Decreased no of melanocytes seen in(Pebaldism, albinism, )


    161. Element MC used in brachytherapy of Ca Cervix- CESIUM

    162. Filament in X-Ray made of- Strontium

    163. Most radiosensitive organ- Bone marrow

    164. Double Bubble sign in Barium meal seen in – Deodenal Atresia

    165. Best method to Dx Pathology in terminal part of CBD. (USG, ERCP, PTC, CEST)

    166. Investigation of choice in a person brought with traumatic paraplegia( MRI, CT, Myelography)


    167. DOC in OCD( Sertraline, alprazolam, chlorpromazine)


    168. Hill-Sachs lesion seen in – Reccurent dislocation of shoulder

    169. Nerve damaged in # of shaft of humerous- Radial nerve

    170. Bony ankylosis is caused by ( Septic arthritis, TB arthritis, Bechet’s dse, Psoriatic arthritis)

    171. MCP joints are MC affected in – RA

    172. 1st epiphysis to be ossified in elbow( Head of radius, Capitulum, Trochlea, Med condyle)


    173. MCC of death in TOF (bronchopneumonia, starvation, malabsorption)

    174. Boy c/o haemetemesis, mild splenomegaly,no hepatomegaly.Dx ( Non cirrhotic fibrosis, chirrosis, Budd-Chiari sy)

    175. Minimal fluid intake in an 8 kg boy should be ( 800, 700 ml, 1L)

    176. Enuresis is normal until(5, 4, 3 1/2, 2 1/2 years)

    177. Normal duration of physiologicl jaundice in a trm baby- 1 week

    178. Charecteristic for achild with acute post strepto coccal GN- raised ASO& fever& Leucocytosis


    179. Nephrocalcinosis seen in –Hyper PTH

    180. 45 year man co vomiting with food mass taken days before,foul smelling breath, occasional dysphagia to solid food. Dx(Zenkers diverticulum, Achalasia, diabetic gastroparesis, scleroderma)

    181. Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by (diastolic murmur duration, mid DMD, opening snap, intensity of S1)

    182. Severity of DM assessed by (HbA1C, KB level, RBS)

    183. Typhoid ulcer perforation in – 3rd week

    184. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in (cholera, DKA, Lactic acidosis)

    185. pH=7.28,PCO2=70,HCO3=36 Dx (resp acidosis with metabolic alkalosis, resp acidosis with metb acidosis)

    186. In thalassemia trait(increased HbF & HbA2, increased HbF & decreased HbA2)

    187. Tetany is not seen in (Verapamil, thyroid Surgery , hyperventilation, malabsorption)

    188. Down’s Sy is Dx by all except(decreased hcg, increased hcg, decreased AFP)

    189. 100% O2 not effective in (TOF, DILD, Eosinophilic pneumonia)

    190. Prophylaxis to a child with RHD should be given minimum till(at least 5 years after onset, life long, till 17 years)

    191. Carotid massage is effective in- PSVT

    192. Lung Ca MC assd with(Asbestosis, Silicosis)

    193. Not premalignant(Crohn’s dse, UC, Leukoplakia, Retinitis pigmentosa)

    194. Complications of DU except(Malignancy, perforation, bleed, obstruction)

    195. Not a cutaneous manifestation of TB( LUPUS pernio, LUPUS vulgaris, Erythema nodosum)

    196. MI in aetiology of CAD- LDL

    197. MCC of ICH- (HTN, Berry aneurysm)

    198. Hemodialysis is not effective in( Digoxin , salicylate, methanol, barbiturate poisoning)

    199. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia seen in – (HUS, HTN, DM , All)

    200. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV min for( 6 weeks, 4 weeks, 12 weeks, 8 weeks)

    201. Vomiting,diarrhea 6 hours after food intake- Staphylococci

    202. Patient c/o finger stiffness, dysphagia.Dx- Scleroderma

    203. Hepatorenal syndrome charc by all except( normal intrinsic kidney , low or no proteinuria;_)

    204. Best marker to assess prognosis after colon Surgery for Ca( CEA, Ca199, Ca125)

    205. Rx of steroid dependant asthma(long acting B2 agonist, leucotrine antagonist, theophylline, systemic steroid)

    206. Pretibial myxedema is seen in ( Thyrotoxicosis, myxedema, follicular Ca , Pappilary Ca thyroid)

    207. Zn def not see n in ( Burns, TB, Renal tubular dse, malabsorption)

    208. True about Pan coast Tr except(lower lobe Ca, MC adeno Ca)

    209. Charecteristic of MCTD are all of the following (?except) (CNS involvement, GN, Polyarthritis, Hypocomplimentemia )

    210. MC CNS involvement in HIV- Dementia

    211. a –wave in JVP indicates – Atrial systole

    212. Wide split fixed 2nd sound seen in – ASD

    213. Anti mitochondrial Ab seen typically in – PBC

    214. brain death is loss of(brain stem Fx, cortical Fx, spinal refex, corneal reflex)

    215. H-gge into R internal capsule of aR handed person causes(Aphasia, R hom hemianopia, hemianopsia)

    216. Spirochets can be identified by all of the follwg(?except) ( Dark field microscopy, Levaditi stain, Fontana stain, Gram stain)

    217. Dressler’s syn due to- auto immune

    218. Pinpoint pupil seen in all except(Imipramine, Chlorpromazine, _, None)

    219. Pt with jaundice and ARF. MI in history except( TCA Rx,

    sewage worker, Paracetamol poisoning, Drug abuse)

    220. 45 year man c/o back pain & joint pain. In X-Ray B/L Sacroileitis. Dx. (Ankyl spondylosis, Psoriatic arthritis, RA)

    221. Not a cause of Cor pulmonale( Mitral stenosis, intermittent PE, COPD, Kyphoscoliosis)

    222. FAMILIAL [bleep] dse is equivalent to(Halvey halvey syn, Darrier’s dse, [bleep] pemphigus)

    223. MCC of hypovolemic shock- (H-gge, Gm-ve shock)

    224. Flapping TREMOR is seen in all except( Thyrotoxicosis, Uraemia, CO2 narkosis, Hepatic failure)

    225. In hemolytic anemia true except( increased haptoglobulin, BM hyperplasia, Reticulocytosis, increased unconj bilirubin)

    226. Morphine is given in – LVF

    227. MCA territory H-gge, not seen is( Aphasia, dysarthria, hemiparesis)

    228. MI factor determining myocardial O2 consumption ( heart rate, blood volume, cardiac output, myocardial fibre tension)

    229. Hypotonia seen in all except( anxiety, sleep, shock)


    230. Tinel’s sign is seen in (nerve regeneration, degeneration, both, none)

    231. Thrombophlebitis seen in ( Buerger’s dse, Reynauld’s dse, AV fistula)

    232. GERD is predisposed by( Smoking, Achalasia, Trunkal vagectomy, All)

    233. Not premalignant( Condyloma lata, Bowen’s dse, Balanopostitis)

    234. Uvula vesicae is caused by(ant lobe, post lobe, medial lobe of Prostate)

    235. In Carpel tunnel syndrome,the nerve involved is – Median Nerve

    236. MCC of hepatic abscess in India( amoebic absess, infected haematoma, ascending infection, secondary to cholelithiasis)

    237. Multiple lytic lesions in all bones of a child of 14 years. Dx( Histiocytosis X, Neuroblastoma, Osteosarcoma, 2ory from Wilm’s Tr)

    238. Dumbing syn is charec by all except(Hyperglycemia, numbness & giddiness)

    239. Not a complication of Crohnâ€s dse( Sclerosing cholangitis, granuloma, fistula, stricture)

    240. Hirshprung’s Dse MC involves (recto sigmoidal jn, Rectum, colon )

    241. Hirshprung’s Dse Dx by – Rectal Biopsy

    242. Thimble bladder is seen in - TB

    243. Mass 15 cm away from anal orifice .Rx( Colonoscopic removal, hartman’s operation, ant resection, abd-peroneal resection)

    244. Sister Joseph Nodules are seen at – Umbilicus

    245. Spigelian hernia is- hernia of arcuate line

    246. Pott’s puffy Tr is - OSTEOMYELITIS of skull bone

    247. Grey Turner sign in – Acute pancreatitis

    248. Acute pancreatitis cause all except(induce fat necrosis, hypercalcemia, increased amylase)

    249. Amylase is increased in all except( A/c appendicitis, A/c pancreatitis, duodenal perforation, intestinal obstrn)

    250. Rx of paralytic ileus include all except(Parasympathomimetics, NG aspiration, IVF, Electrolyte correction)

    251. Painful tender & non reducable sac through inguinal canal with absent cough reflex.Dx- Strangulation

    252. MC organ ruptured in blunt trauma of abdomen- spleen

    253. Bornhalm’s sign seen in – AV fistula

    254. Dse with least flow(Intravisceral fistula, visceral hemangioma, portal vein shunt)

    255. Stones are MC seen in which salivary gland- sub mandibular

    256. Major amount of unstimulated salivary secretion by(Parotids,submandibular, sublingual, small lingual glands)

    257. MC mode of spread to cervical LN in TB( Haematogenous, lymphogenic, contact)

    258. MC mode of spread of Gall Bladder Ca- (Transcoelomic, lymphogenic, hematogenic, Direct extension)

    259. Chronic cholecystitis is assd with all except( usually palpable, MC in women, Assd wiyh GB stones, Rokitansky cells)

    260. MC type of Basal cell Ca- Nodular

    261. LN involved in Breast Ca except( Pre tracheal, ant axillary, parasternal, supraclavicular)

    262. Sted collar abscess seen in (TB, Syphilis, Actinomycoses)

    263. Which cannot be considered as a solitary noduleof thyroid(adenoma, carcinoma, physiological goiter, cyst)

    264. In neck dissection above omohyoid we are removing(I,II,III level LN)


    265. Scaly lesions with frequent bleed around areola. Dx ( Paget’s dse, Ezcema, TB)

    266. Epithelium in vagina is – squamous

    267. Colposcopy used to visualize- Cervix

    268. MC site of ectopic pregnancy,-(ampulla, isthmus, interstitium)

    269. 43 year lady c/o prolonged and heavy bleed.O/E hyperplasia with no atypia. Rx(Estrogen, Estrogen+ progestogen, Progestron, Hysterectomy)

    270. In a patient soon after 3rd stage of labour placenta fully came out, but heavy bleed. Tactics; (Massage & oxytocin, IVF, Check for placenta in uterus, check for laceration of labia)

    271. Painless heavy bleed seen in ( Placenta previa, )

    272. Hydramnios is complicated by all except( Atonic H-ge, obstructed labour, uterine dysfunction, Placenta abruptio)

    273. Bacterial vaginosis causes(Pre term labour, abruption placenta, endometritis, Chorioamnionitis)

    274. Gold standard in Dx of PID( USG, Laparoscopy, Blood leucocyte count, Anti chlamydial Ab)

    275. LH:FSH ratio increased in – PCOD

    276. Ovulation coincides with – LH surge

    277. Exact no of weeks between LMP & EDD- (38, 39, 40 weeks)

    278. Bishop’s classification is used for-_

    279. Pregnant lady presnts with fulminant hepatitis. MCC( Hep A, B,C, D)

    280. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral are all except(H-ge, Healing, pain, extension)

    281. Active tactics in labour according to –PARTOGRAM

    282. Investigations to be done in a girl presented with delayed puberty( USG pelvis, FSH, Karyotyping, All)

    283. Best prognostic factor in breast Ca( LN involvement, age, FAMILIAL history)

    284. MC presentation( LOA, ROA, LOP, ROP)

    285. Appropriate investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux- MCU

    286. Not a complication of Pseudo pancreatic cyst(H-ge into cyst, Rupture, Malignancy)

    287. Pheno cause HEMOLYSIS in all of the follwg except (G6PD def, TB, Alcoholism)

    288. External ear infections are MC caused by (Pseudomonas, fungi, virus, actinomyces)

    289. Major site of storage of labile proteins ( liver , skel muscle, endocrine glands, exocrine glands)

    290. Virus causing Rabies in man is( Street virus, wild virus,--)
  4. Vandana.

    Vandana. Guest

    (the answers marked with question mark are not appropriate. if anyone gets the correct answer, please do the proper corrections)
    1,Hydatid cyst is commonly found in
    1, liver
    2, lungs
    3, kidney
    2, Most common site of abscess formation due to Amoeba
    1, Liver
    2, Lungs
    3, Kidney
    3, Umblical cord has (repeated question in all previous papers)
    1,2artery n 1 vein
    2,2 vein n 1 art.
    (Ans:2 artery n 1 vein)
    4, Apoptosis
    Programmed internal suicidal cell death
    5, wheal and flare reaction is
    1, Type 1 hyper sensitivity
    2, Type 2 hyper sensitivity
    3, Type 3 hyper sensitivity
    4, Type 4 hyper sensitivity
    (ans:Type 1 hyper sensitivity. All the anaphylactic reactions comes under type 1 hyper sensitivity)
    6, Hypoglossal nerve is
    1,6th nerve
    2,7th nerve
    3,12th nerve
    4,9th nerve
    (Ans:12th nerve)
    7, Muscle in the inguinal canal is
    1, Internal oblique
    2, External oblique
    3, Transverse
    8, Total claw hand
    1, ulnar and median nerve
    2, ulnar nerve
    3, median nerve
    (ans:?ulnar and median nerve)
    9,In Hansen’s disease the nerve affected is:
    1, ulnar nerve
    2, median nerve
    3, radial nerve
    (ans:ulnar nerve.Hansans disease is the other name for leprosy. the most common nerve affected in leprosy is ulna nerve.
    Ref.Bailey and love. Pg37-41)
    10, Complication of extra capsular fracture of femur:
    1, Non union
    2, mal union
    (ans:Non union Ref.SARP surgery and orthopaedics pg.89)
    11,Eye ball moments controlled by all, EXCEPT:
    1, optic nerve
    2, abducens nerve
    3, Trochlear nerve
    4, oculomotor nerve
    (ans:eek:ptic nerve.( Abducens 6th nerve moves the eye laterally,Trochlear nerve helps in moving the eye down and in,Oculomotor 3rd nerve helps for outward lateral gaze)
    12, Lacrimal duct passes through, except:
    1, Frontal
    2, maxillary
    3, zygomaticus
    4, lacrimal
    13, Right common carotid artery arises from:
    1,Right axillary
    2, Arcus aorta
    3, Brachiocephalicus
    14, The first heart sound S1 is due to the:
    1, AV closure
    2, opening of aortic valve
    3, closing of aortic valve
    (ans:AV closure)
    15, Rheumatic fever is associated with:
    1, Mitral valve
    2,Pulmonary valve
    3,Tricuspid valve
    4, Aortic valve
    (ans:Mitral valve)
    ?15, Hernia Morgani passes through:
    1,pleuro peritoneum
    16, Gland of Burner is found in (Rpt in march 2005)
    17, Length of Duodenum:
    (ans:20-25cm, Ref. SARP BAP(biochem,Anatomy ,Physiology ) pg 77)
    18, Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the colon:
    1, Transverse colon
    2, Terminal colon
    3, Jejunal colon
    19, Unilateral breast findings with scaly skin around the nipple with intermittent bleeding (Rpt. In march 2005)
    1, Pagets disease
    2, Eczema
    3,CA breast
    (ans:pagets disease)
    20Simple Mastectomy includes:
    1,Breast and axillary nodes
    2,only breast
    3, Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle
    (ans:Only Breast, Simple Mastectomy- this means complete removal of the breast but the axilla is left undisturbed except for the region of the axillary tail which usually has attached to it a few nodes low in the anterior group. Ref.Bailey and love(20th edition) pg.733)
    21, Continous Murmur is found in which arterial disease:
    1,AV Fistula
    2,Disecting aortic aneurysm
    (ans: AV Fistula. Continuous machinery murmur is also found in Patent Ductus arteriosus PDA)
    ??22, which ion helps is potential:
    23,All of the following found in Horner’s syndrome, EXCEPT:
    3, Hyperhydrosis
    (ans:Hyperhydrosis, In Horners syndrome, unilateral Anhidrosis(ie,loss of sweating) is found)
    24,Peau d’ Orange of Breast is due to:
    1,Obstruction if lymph
    2,Obstruction of ducts
    3,Obstruction of arteries
    4,Obstruction of Vein
    (ans:Obstruction of Lymphatic vessels, Ref.Robbins Basic Pathology ,pg.354)
    25,Reabsorption of Water is maximum in :
    1,proximal tubules
    2,Henles loop
    3,collecting duct
    (ans:proximal tubules)
    26,Carcinoid syndrome, ass. With except,
    3,Acute appendicitis
    27,Acute Pancreatitis associated with:
    2,Gall bladder stones
    3,Elevated serum amalyse
    4,All of the above
    (ans:?all of the above)
    28,Diagnosis of CA colon ,best indicated by:
    3,Barium enema
    29,Radiation is less in:
    30,CA colon Marker:
    31,AFP(alpha feta protein ) is increased in:
    1,Hepatic carcinoma
    2,Renal carcinoma
    (ans:Hepatic carcinoma)
    ??32,Ananencephaly is better diagnosed in which trimester:
    1,1st trimester
    2,2-3 trimester
    33,Which of the following nerve is damaged by the fracture of the shaft of the humerus:
    1,Radial nerve
    2,ulnar nerve
    3,median nerve
    (ans:Radial nerve)
    ??34,Inversion and Eversion is done by?
    35,Supination is done by:
    (ans:Radio ulnar joint)
    36,Fracture of supracondylar of the femur affects which nerve:
    1,sciatic nerve
    2,poplitial nerve
    37,Vein used in bypass surgery:
    1,Long saphenus vein
    2,short saphenus vein
    (ans:long saphenus vein)
    39,Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
    40,Production of Uric acid is by:
    1,Nucleic acid
    (ans:??nucleic acid)
    41,Hexose is not seen in:
    (ans:pentose-5 ,and hexose is 8 )
    42,Common complication of long bone fracture:
    1,Fat embolism
    2,Pulmonary embolism
    (ans:Fat embolism.It is the commenest complication of long bone fractures like, femur fracture)
    43,Definitive management for Tension pneumothorax is:
    44,Normal Fluid level in pericardium
    45,polyhydroaminosis is increase in aminoitic fluid more than:
    46,HIV is associated with
    1,Disseminated TB
    2,Oesophageal candidiasis
    4,all of the above
    (ans:?all of the above)
    47,Radiological findings of Ewings sarcoma(Rpt)
    (ans:Onion Peel appearance)
    48,Osteosarcoma affects:
    (ans:Metaphysis,Ref:SARP-surgery and orthopaedics ,pg 51)
    49& 50,,Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
    (ans:Clostridium Difficle)
    51,Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever:
    1,WIDAL test
    (ans:WIDAL.Enteric fever is the other name for Typoid fever, and the the diagnostic tests include, (mneumonic:BASU,ie, 1st week,B-blood culture,2nd week,A-agglutination test which is called as WIDAL,3rd week S-Stool culture and 4th week,U-Urine culture)
    52,Complement Fixation test is:
    1,Coombs test
    2,Waserman reaction
    53,Iron Deficiency anemia is commonly caused by (Rpt)
    (ans:Hook worm )
    54,Which is a pre-toxin:
    55,Trauma to spleen is best diagnosed by:
    56,Post splenectomy causes:
    3,Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
    57,Radial nerve
    58,ST elevation is seen in:
    1,Acute MI
    3,Prinze metals angina
    4,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    59,cholera vaccination is effective:
    1,6 months
    2,3 months
    60,Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as:
    2,0,1,6 days
    (ans:0,1,6 months)
    61,BCG should be given:
    (ans:Immediately after birth)
    62,Cellular fragments od Rabies vaccine is given at:
    1,Anterior Abdomen
    2,Deltoid muscle
    3,Medial part of thigh
    63,BCG is diluted with:
    2,Distilled water
    64,Vitamin A should be given at:
    65,Cancroid is caused by:
    66,Swan Gann Catheter is used to measure:
    (ans:pCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
    67,CVP denotes,pressure of:
    1,Right atrium
    3,Left atrium
    (ans:Rt.atrium,?as the vena cava(sup. N inf.) ends in Right atrium, central venous pressure helps in determing the venous filling)
    68,Tricuspid Incompetence:
    1,a wave
    2,Hepatic pulsation
    (ans:hepatic pulsation, pulsatile liver is a feature in Tricuspid regurgitation)
    69,In a patient with Diabetic nephropathy , the anti hypertensive commonly used is:
    1,ACE inhibitors
    2,Ca channel blockers
    (ans:ACE inhibitors)
    70,Microaneurysm is the most common complication of:
    1,Diabetic Mellitus
    (ans:Diabetic Mellitus)
    71,Most common cause of blindness in India is:(Rpt. In March 2005)
    72,Vitreous Hemorrage in Young patients is most commonly due to:
    1,Diabetics mellitus
    2,Retinal Detachment
    3,Eales disease
    (ans??Eales disease)
    73,The lens used in astigmatism:
    1,concave lens
    2,convex lens
    3,cylindrical lens
    (ans:cylindrical lens)
    74,seminoma is ca of:
    76,constriction of pupils:
    1,only light reflex
    2,light reflex and accommodation
    (ans:??light reflex and accommodation)
    78,Inhaled forgeign body is seen in the:
    1,Right apex
    2,Right lower lobe
    3,Left apex
    4,Left lower lobe
    (ans:?Right lower lobe)
    79,Community acquired pneumonia:
    80,Placenta Praveica:
    1,Painfull bleeding
    2,severe abdominal pain
    3,painless bleeding
    4,all of the above
    (ans:painless bleeding, only Placenta Abruptia has painfull abdominal pain with bleeding)
    81,A pregnant lady in her first trimester,complaints with bleeding, on examination the OS is closed:
    1,Inevitable abortion
    2,Threatend abortion
    (ans:Threatened abortion,since the OS is closed it should be threatened abortion, is the os is opned, it can be inevitable abortion)
    82,A primigravida with hypertension, when should we induce labour:
    1,35 week
    2,37 week
    3,40 week
    4,39 week
    (ans:?37 week)
    83,Anti-D Rh is given for:
    (Rh positive father, and Rh neg. mother)
    84,for a lady in her pregnancy, to prevent Tetanus, who should be immunized:
    1,Tetanus toxid to the mother
    2,Tetanus toxid to the infant
    3,immunoglobin to the mother
    (ans:TT to the mother)
    85,Treatment for ectopic pregnancy:
    86,Misoprostol is given, except
    1,Missed abortion
    2,To induce labour
    4,postpartum hemorrhage

    87,custodial rape is judged in
    1,Judicial magistrate
    2,district magistrate
    (ans:judicial magistrate)
    88,Anti-hypertensive contratindicated in pregnancy :
    89,which is a pro-drug:
    90,pharmocodynamics deals with:
    1,Mechanism of action
    91,Theurapatic index:
    92,Le fort fracture (Rpt in march 2005):
    93,Metabolic acidosis is seen in:
    (ans:Diabetic ketaacidosis,(Mneumonics:LUKD,Lactic acidosis,Uremia-renal failure,Ketoacidosis,Drugs like acetozolemide,phenformin etc, all these conditions, metabolic ketacidosis is seen)
    94,Breast feeding is contraindicated in:
    2,HIV carrier
    3,Open TB
    95,Condoms are more preferred because, they have:
    1,Reduced side effects
    2,reduced failure rates
    (ans:reduced side effects)
    96,Natural method of contraception::
    1,Rhythm method
    2,coitus interruption
    3,breast feeding
    4,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    97,Infant Mortality rate is:
    (ans:1000 live births)
    98,Maternal mortility rate calculated as::
    1,42 days after delivery
    2,immediately after delivery
    (ans:??42 days after delivery)
    99,Total fertility rate is:
    1,reproductive age of the female at 15-44
    100,Eligible couple (rep. march 2005)
    Recently married couple where the female is of fertile age
    101,Not a grevious injury:
    1,contusion of breast
    2,multiple scars of face
    3,fracture of femur
    (ans:contusion of breast)
    102,Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy:
    103,No. of parathyroid glands:
    104,Features of Graves disease,except:
    1,most common in male
    3,pretibial myxodema
    (ans:most common in males, graves disease is most commonly found among females, Tremor, pretibial myxodema are characteristic features of graves disease)
    108,Hypercholestremia is commonly associated with:
    109,All are features of hypothyroidism except,
    1,lid retraction
    4,dry skin
    (ans:lid retraction, it is seen in hyperthyroidism ,ie, as exopthalmus, when the patient has exophthalmus, there is lid retraction. Rest are features of hypothyroidism)
    110,Virchos triad is seen in:
    2,Hyper coagulity
    3,Abdominal visceral malignancy
    111,glasscow scale in death is:
    (ans:3, patient is declared death when the GCS is 3)
    112,panic attack is:
    1,Acute anxiety
    2,chronic anxiety
    113,sucidal tendency is assoiciated with:
    3,impulsive disorder
    4,all of the above
    (ans:?depression or ? all of the above)
    114,short acting drug(or? Bezodiazephams)
    (ans:?diazepham or ?midazolam. both are short acting drugs, if benzodiazepham is mentioned then diazepham will be more opt. lorezepham is a long acting benzodiazepham)
    115,short acting anesthetic agent used for induction:
    121,Hypnotic drug action is:
    1,rapid elimination and slow distribution
    2,slow elimination and rapid distribution
    122,H+ ion is eliminated by
    (ans: ?kidney)
    123,First pass metabolism:
    2,sub cutaneus
    3,sub lingual
    124,lassik content

    125,A 40 yr old male,has a rash over the groin, with a scaly lesion on examination:
    2,Malazi furfur

    126,Most common nosocomial fungal infection:
    127,superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from except:
    128,EBV(ebstein barr virus) except:
    2,burkitts lymphoma
    3,glandular fever
    130,anticoagulant is given in all conditions except:
    3,pulmonary embolism
    131,OCP(oral contraceptive pills) is contraindicated in
    (ans:hepatic failure)
    132,Primary colours except:
    133,in colour blindness
    (ans:?defect in 1 or more prime colours)
    134,jovel bodies seen in
    135,Most commin utero-vesicle fistula in India:
    1,obstructed labour
    2,pelvic surgery
    (ans:eek:bstructed surgery)
    136,Treatment for zollinger elison syndrome:
    (ans:eek:meprezol, proton inhibitors are best indicated )
    137,2nd stage of labour:
    1,increase in contraction
    2,cervix dilatation
    3,all of the above
    (ans:?all of the above)
    139,Free radicals:
    (ans:vit.E, vit.E,A,C are anti-oxidants.)
    140,Meckels diverticulitis is ass. With:
    1,increased bleeding
    2,ass/ diverticulitis
    141,pharyngeal pouch?
    142,Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed by (Rpt in march 2005)
    (ans:MCU(micturating cysto urethrogram)
    143,Heamocolpus is :
    (ans:imperforate hymen)
    144,Height doubles at:
    (ans:4 years)
    145,vitamin D deficiency is:
    146,Enteric fever is caused by:
    (ans: S.thyphi)
    147,Tubercular focus at apex:
    148,Nutritional essential in a child noted as
    1,weight for age
    2,height for age
    3,arm circumference
    149,Tyrosin becomes essential in
    150, ,In intermittent porphyria what is the urine content:
    (ans:porphobilinogens,Ref:Oxford handbook of medicine,pg 708
    151,Essential amino acids are named so:
    Because they are not produced in the body
    152,Enzymes are:
    153,Poluunsaturated fatty acids,Except:
    1,olieic acid
    2,arachinic acid
    154,All are bad cholesterol except:
    155,MI enzymes are:
    4,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    156,UTI contains microbes:
    157,Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk:
    158,IgM denotes:
    (ans:primary reaction)
    159,Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:
    160,What is the major side effect of streptomycin:
    161,which is of Obstructed COPD:
    1,Bronchial asthma
    2,Chronic bronchitis
    4,all of the above
    162.apoprotein of cholesterol:
    2,apo A1
    163,Pancreatic calcification is due to:
    2,Cystic fibrosis
    164,cholesterol is:
    165,Breast milk ejection is due to:
    (ans:eek:xytoxin,pralactin helps in secretion of milk)
    166,Weight of a child triples at:
    (ans:1 year)
    167,recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies except:
    168,Not a solitary nodule:
    1,pigeon droppings
    170,endemic dropsy:
    171 ,in Malaria falciparum:
    1,ring shaped cresents seen
    172,potassium sparing drug:
    (ans:spironolactone,all other diuretics causes hypokalemia when given,spironolactone spares pottasium)
    173,carbohydrates,proteins and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle:
    1,krebs cycle
    2,coherts cycle
    174,pulse biferns occurs in:
    2,AS n AR
    4,all of the above
    (ans:?all of the above)
    175,Obstructive jaundice is due to:
    (ans:gall stones)
    176,Difference between human milk and cows milk:
    1,iron deficiency
    177,Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is due to:
    (ans:uterine atony)
    178,in SHOCK:
    2,hypoperfusion to tissues
    4,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    ?179,hepatitis E
    180,what is the lung findings in HIV:
    1,disseminated TB
    2,lupus vulgaris
    (ans:disseminated TB)
    181,Pneumoperitonium is seen in:
    1,PA erect view
    2,abdominal xray
    182,Wilson disease is due to :
    183,which is a mast cell stabilizer:
    (ans:sodium chromoglycate)
    184,drinking water test is done in:
    1,acute congestive glaucoma
    2,acute glaucoma
    3,chronic glaucoma
    1,serum potassium
    2,serum sodium
    (ans?:serum sodium)
    186,plaque is caused by
    187,HONK (hyper osmality non ketoacidosis) occurs in:
    (ans:Diabetes mellitus)
    188,Mid day meals:
    1/3 calories +1/2 protein
    189,heamorrage leads to:
    (ans:hypovolemic shock)
    190,Most common stranglulation occurs in:
    (ans:femoral hernia)
    191,cough impulse is not seen in:
    192,Acute appendicitis:
    1,fever >42
    2,anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever
    (ans: anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever)
    ?193,active potential:
    194,Least conduction fibres:
    1,C- fibres
    195,Reticulocytes are found in:
    (ans:hemolytic anemia,when hemolysis occurs, much of immature reticulocytes are produced in bone marrow,Ref.check kapithans ped. Book)
    196,Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:
    197,Ovulation occurs:
    1,14 days prior to next menstruation
    2,14 days after menstruation
    3,on 14th day
    (ans:14 days prior to next menstruation:)
    198,Complication in Diabetics mellitus occurs after :
    1,6 years
    2,8 years
    3,12 years
    199,glove and stockings sensory loss occurs in:
    2,pheripheral neuropathy
    3,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    200,causative of sore throat:
    (ans:strep. Pyogens, it is the causative for infective endocarditis)
    ?201,sup. Thyroid occurs frm:
    1,4th branchial arch
    1,deoxyribose sugar
    203,Mycobacterium grows in:
    1,LG medium
    204,Effective sterilization:
    1,steam under pressure
    2,hot water
    205,?pasturation of milk determined by:
    ??methylene blue
    206,Sharp instrument should be disposed in:
    1,red bag
    2,blue bag
    (ans:?red bag)
    207,term vaccine was named by:
    1,Louis Pasteur
    208,Absence of sperms:
    209,Duputryens contracture affects:
    1,little finger
    2,ring finger
    3,middle finger
    (ans:little finger)
    210,GB (gullian barr syndrome) characteristic:
    (ans:loss of limb reflex)
    211,Co2 is carried in the plasma in the form of :
    2,carbonic acid
    212,glucose in ORS is used:
    (ans:for the absorption of Na+)
    213,disease caused by cotton:
    214,aniline dyes causes:
    1,bladder Ca
    2,renal ca
    3,hepatic ca
    (ans:bladder ca)
    215,non alcoholic hepatitis,except:
    1,Mallory hyaline fibrosis
    216,COPD –all except,
    1,RVF(right vent. Failure)
    3,LVF(left vent. Failure)
    217,Most common feature of essential hypertension:
    2,visual fortification
    218,LVH is caused by:
    (ans:essential hypertension, hypertension causes left vent. Strain)
    219,Vagina is lined by:
    1,Squamous cell epithelium
    2,columnar cells
    (ans:squamous cell)
    220,Nitrates indicates:
    (ans:,recent pollution)
    221,first line prevention of epidemics:
    1,confirmation of diagnosis
    3,mass immunization
    222,pin point pupils are seen in, except
    4,cerebello pontine hemarroge
    223,glomular filtration rate increases in:
    2,bowmen capsules pressure
    3,increased osmotic pressure
    224,hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by:
    1,inhibits the synthesis of uric acid
    226,Gerotas fasia covering:
    227,gentamycin is not given orally because
    228,which drug effects both bacterial and anerobic infections:
    229,Dark ground microscopy:
    1,refracted light
    2,polarized light
    230,retained placenta causes
    1,prolonged bleeding
    3,placental polyp
    4,all of the above
    (ans:all of the above)
    231,exercise to increase the muscle strength:
    3,aerobic isotonic
    232,Southern blot test:
    (ans:DNA, northern blot test is for RNA, Western blot for HIV)
    233,niacin is synthesized
    234,Iron storage is:
    234,In vitro fertilization:
    1,artifical insemination
    235,spinal cord ends at:
    236,estrogen deficiency leads to:
    (ans:eek:steoporosis, most of the post menopausal women get osteoporosis, because of estrogen def.)
    237,curlings ulcer:
    1,deudonal ulcers in burns
    238,humoral cells are
    1,B cells
    2,NK cells
    3,T cells
    239,in leprosy
    1,skin histocytes
    2,swann cells
    3,all of the above
    240,bile secretion stimulation all, except:
    ?241,semicircular canal
    242,cardiac output is determined by, except
    1,stroke volume
    2,cardiac contractility
    3,cardiac rate
    4,body surface area
    (ans?:body surface area)
    243,vessels to meninges:
    1,external carotid
    2,internal carotid
    244,Artery supplied to sup. Temporal brain:
    1,middle cerebral art.
    245,epiphyseal plate fracture is classified by
    246,?directly acting drugs except:
    247,pharmocodynamics and pharmacokinetics:
    248,maternal mortality
    ? 1 lakh
    249,pneumatocoel is caused by
    (ans: staph. Aureus)
    250,?okazi fragments
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Mci (FMGE ) 2007 March Q Paper

    1) LCAT activator, Lipoprotein

    2) Moorens ulcer
    b) Chlamidia

    3)First symptom in pots paraplegia

    4)Hiper calcemia is not seen in?
    Skeletal metastasis

    5)AuspitZ sign is seen in?

    6)A 40 year old man with elevated mood?

    7)What is not common in Colles fracture?
    non union

    8) Man with fluid comig from the nose. What fracture?
    Ans. Base of skull and para nasal sinuses

    9) Terminal phalanges pulp space infection?

    10)Roths spot is seen in?

    11) Autoclaving?
    a) 121 C 15Cu/m 15 minutes
    b) 121 C 15Cu/INCH 11 minutes
    Please correct me if I am wrong


    13) Adrernaline is added to lignocaine injection for what ?
    a) Pain relief
    b)For longer action of anaesthetic

    14) In sympathetic opthalmia what is involved?
    ciliary body

    15) Coats disease what is correct?

    16) PH of tears?

    17) Some strange opthalmological sign of conjuctivitis, in which condition it is found?
    I hope the answer is vernal conjunctivitis

    18) A question on Eale's disease

    19)Constant change of refractive power seen in which cataract?
    insipient, the options of that order, not staight forward.

    I think by the time we pass this exam they will make us opthalmology professors.

    20)what is injured most commonly in abdominal hysterectomy?
    urinary blader, atlast a repeat

    21) What passes with aorta through the diaphram?
    azygous vein

    22)what is not advised in shoulder distocia?
    pressing over the pubis
    over the perineum

    23)Viagra like medicine is given in which condition?
    primary pulmonary hypertention
    secondary pulmonary hypertention

    24) The commonest cause of medistinal mass shadow?
    left ventricular hypertrophy

    25)A question on chedahi higashi syndrome?

    26)A case on negligance, contributory negligence will give protection in?
    Civil negligance
    criminal negligance

    27)Medial epicondyl fracture most common involvement of?
    median nerve
    ulnar nerve

    28)Most important nerve in hand function called by some name
    answer was median nerve

    29)Raised ICP will cause what?
    hypertention, bradicardia
    hypertention tachycardia
    hypotention tachycardia
    hypotention bradycardia

    30)Head injury what is not found?
    loss of consiousness
    and some thing else which i dont remember

    31) Brain calcification is not found in which condition?
    herpes simplex

    32)A baby of 9 months wont be?
    sit with support
    dry by day

    33) Decreased LAP score is found in which condition?
    34) Test used to detect old blood stain?
    acid elution

    35)Kala Azar is transmitted by what?
    sand fly

    36)what is not seen in Multiple Myeloma?

    37)following is not given in hypertention?

    38)Type of excimer laser used in myopia?
    YsI, not very clear of the options

    39)Cause of appearance of coloured halos?
    corneal congestion

    40)Rate limiting Enzyme in Glycolysis?
    phosphofructokinase and something else

    41)Substrate leve phosphorelation is seen in which step?
    SuccinylCoA to Succinate

    42)hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is by which mechanism?
    ABO incampatibility
    preformed antibodies

    43)The organ that is commonly involved in hyperacute rejection?

    44)DOC pregnant woman with cerebral malaria?

    44) cootton wool spots are most commonly seen in what?

    45) Heart failure cells are seen in what condition?

    46) A Borrelia disease which I dont remeber is transmitted by what?
    hard tick
    soft tick

    47)Which paranasal sinus opens in to upper nasal turbine?
    ant ethmoid

    48) Oculocardiac reflex is coomonly seen in what?
    squint surgery
    cataract surgery

    49) Sodium Fluoride Inhibits what (added to blood sample,inhibits erythrocytic enzyme)?

    50)Deficiency of Sphyngomyeline causes what?
    Nieman Picks Disease

    51)Carrier of cholesterol from liver to tissue?

    52)In starvation what does not take place?
    Increase of insulin

    53)Type of collagen found in Cartilage?
    Type 1
    Type 2
    Type 3

    54) Stain used for Corynebacterium Diptheri?

    55)Operation theatres are sterilized by?
    Formaldehyde fumigation

    56)Normal duration of action of Levonogestrol containing IUCD?
    1 year
    3 years
    5 years
    10 years

    57)What is not usefull in hypercalcemia?
    Saline infusion

    58)Milk ejection is facilitated by?

    59) Erbs palsy what is involved?
    C5 C6
    C7 C8 T1

    60)Type of squint seen in 6th nerve palsy?

    61)Hyperaccussis is seen in which condition?
    Sensorinueral deafness

    62)Ashleaf spots are seen in which condition?
    Tuberous schlerosis

    63)In Kartageners Syndrome what is not involved?
    Situs Inversus
    And some other nonsense which was the answer

    64) Which of the following statement is false?
    Granulamatous inflammation is found in chrons disease
    Perianal lesions are common in Chrons disease
    Strictures involving the colon are found in Ulcerative colitis
    None of the above

    65)Amino acid metabolism affected in marfans syndrome?

    66) FNAC is usefull in all except?
    Riedels thyroiditis
    Follicular carcinoma
    Medullary carcinoma
    Pappilary carcinoma

    67)Which is longest acting (not sure)?
    Doxacurium was not given

    68)Commonest complication involved in parenteral nutrition?
    Air Embolism
    And some others which I cant remember

    69)Glycoside treatment is necessary in post infarct patient for what?
    Ventricular ectopics
    Atrial fibrillation

    70)An upper motor neuron lesion of Fascial nerve will cause what?(Repeat.)
    Cotralateral lower face paralysis
    Ipsilateral lower face paralysis

    71)Most common cervical carcinoma?
    Squamous cell carcinoma

    72) Glucose is not produced in muscle cells due to the lack of which enzyme?
    Glucose 6 phosphatase

    73)The drug that inhibits protein synthesis?

    74) Ovarian artery is a branch of?
    Abdominal aorta
    Internal iliac

    75) Hysterectomy is commonly indicated in postpartum for which of the following condition?
    Placenta accrete
    Uteral rupture

    76) All are features of hyperthyroidism except?
    Low apetite

    77) Most usefull prognostic indicator in HIV?
    T helper count
    T helper to ___ ratio

    78) In asthma or anaphylaxis which is the Ig Involved?
    Ig E
    Ig M
    Ig G

    79) Entero enteric fistula is found in?
    Chrons disease
    Ulcerative colitis

    80)Increased Amylase is seen in all except?
    Perforative ulcer
    Acute Appenticitis
    Acute Pancreatitis

    81)Spike And Dome Pattern Is Seen In?
    Grant mal
    Petit mal

    82)The Substance used to determine renal perfusion?

    83) Metabolic Disturbance in pyloric stenosis?
    Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
    Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

    84)The dangerous consequence of flial chest?
    And something else which I cant remember.

    85) The administration of which of the following drug require monitoring?

    86) In Multiple Myeloma following is found in urine?
    Ig light chain
    Ig heavy chain

    87)Western blot test is used for the analysis of?

    88) Pancreatic Proteases are invoved in the activation of?
    Bile salts

    89) Which of the following is not supplied by Superior mesenteric artery?
    Descending Colon

    90) A Biochemistry question regarding the Glutamine production in the brain?

    91)A question on the usage of a diuretic in renal failure or CHF not sure?

    92) An Anatomy question concerning coronary artery branch and its area of perfusion?

    93) A Question concering Monteggio fracture?
    Upper ulnar fracture and lower radial dislocation
    Upper radial fracture and lower ulnar dislocation.

    94) Hypothyroidism is diagnosed by which of the following?
    Decreased T3
    Increased TSH
    Decreased T4

    95) A hormone involved in the ferning of the endometrium? .

    96) HCG Level increases to the maximum in what duration?
    20 hours
    48 hours
    14 days
    40 days(not sure about this option which is the answer)

    97) The commonest uteral anomaly involved in infertility?

    98) A question concerning the characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease.?
    Decreased FEV1/VC

    99) Ileac crest involvement is common in which condition?
    Reumatoid arthritis
    Ankylosing spondylitis.

    100) What causes dry mouth and urinary retention?
    Opiate intoxication
    Organophospurous intoxication

    101) The minimum score in Glasgow coma scale?

    102) What are the chances of missing a diagnosis of endometrial cancer after D and C?

    103) Where is the centre of urination located in the brain?
    Basal ganglia

    104) Where on the retina, no visual sensation is perceived?
    Centre of the optic disc

    105) Dentritic ulcer is caused by which of the following?
    Herpes simlex

    106)Commonest cause of oesophagic perforation?

    107)Ameobic abscess is commonly located in which part of liver?
    Anterior superior
    Posterior superior

    108)Protrution of tongue is by which of the following structures?
    Hypoglossalis nerve

    109)Commonest cause of schlerosing cholangitis?

    110)Necrosis of the myocardium takes place in what duration after coronary artery occlusion?
    20 minutes
    20 hours
    48 hours

    111) Austin flint murmer is seen in which of the following condition?

    112)Large a waves are seen in, or what does large a waves in JVP represent?

    113)Cryptococcal infection is treated by?

    114)Best proposed theory of endometriosis?

    115)Which of the following is not affected in mumps?
    Tear glands

    116)Commonest salivary gland where stones are found?(Repeat)

    117) peu de orange is

    118)Malate shuttle is important in?(Repeat AIIMS 2001)

    119) Chaperones are important in?(Repeat AIIMS )
    Protein folding

    120) Asceptic necrosis takes place in which of the following fractures?
    Fracture of olecranon
    Fracture of femoral head was not given

    121)When lot of specialists given lecture on a single topic what it is known as?

    122)Most useful method of estimating the iron content of blood?
    Serum Ferritin

    123)Brown atrophy of the heart is caused which of the following?

    124)Source of nitrogen atom in urea cycle?

    125)Location of vena saphena magna in relation to malleolus?

    126) Endometriosis can be present everywhere except?

    127)Which of the following is most usefull for diagnosing typhoid in the first week?
    Blood culture

    128)Drug used treat hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?
    Hydralazine IV

    129) Which of the following drug is not combined with Zidovudine?

    130) Chyluria is not caused by which of the following?

    131) Amount of Water Lost in Feacus daily?

    132) Depth for water seal in latrine?

    133) IMR for Japan? -

    134)Best method of treating Hyperkalemia?

    135) Natural reservoir of Chikkun gunya virus?

    136) A question on Dengue Fever?

    137) post nivirapine therapy d vertical transmission of hiv is reduced by wat percentage?
    5 to 10
    10 to 12
    12 to 15
    138) the best way to diagnose gall stones intraoperatively in cbd

    139) wat is d time lag btw head and shoulder in dystocia.
    10 sec 20 sec 30 sec or 40 sec

    140)anesth of choice in asthamatics
    a ketamine

    141) mc location carcinoma tongue
    a antr 1 third laterally
    mid 1 third laterally
    pstr 1 third laterally

    142) gland not innervated by facial nerve
    a parotid

    143) anatomical waste is put in
    yellow bag
    blue bag
    red bag
    black bag

    144) board is set in which phase of trials in med
    phase 3
    phase 2
    phase 1
    phase 4

    145) which of d followin r not included in phase 1 of clinical trials of med
    cancer patients
    old aged
    healthy voluntee

    146) SLE most definative indicator----- antiDs dna antibodies
    anti phospholipid antibodies
    anti smiths antibodies

    147)hba1c indicates deficiency from -- 6 to 12 wks
    --- 2 wk
    2 wk

    148)anderson disease ---- branching enzyme deficiency

    149) best dig 4 avascular necrosis ---- bone scan
    x ray
    c t

    150)false abt cancer oesophagus ----- caused by smoking and alcohol
    upper 2 by 3 is sq cell ca
    low 1 by 3 is adenocarcinoma

    151)condition of penis not related to malignancy

    136)cubital fossae petichae in dengue in cuf test 4 diag r minmal --- me 5,10,15,20

    152)a ques on dhatura poisonin was asked....the usual syptioms were described

    153)a ques on ipc section for custodial rape was asked

    154) sec metastatic clacific occur in-- sarcoidosis, tb...

    155)no of phc in india -----30000, 37000 , 20000 ,15000

    156)contraindic in preg ------ enalpril

    157)echinococcus in liver ---- up rt quad antrly
    up rt quad pstrly
    low lt quad antrly

    158) who limit for hb in preg -- 11,7,9,10

    159) man runs at 15 km per hour
    energy spent --- 1000,500,600,800 k cal

    160)nivirapine to child born to hiv affected mother within -- 24 , 36,48 , 72 hours

    161)oedema plus a protein loss-- nephritic syndrome

    162)antr fonta in baby closes by-- 18 mth,6, 3 or 9 mths

    163) hypercalcemia all dec except---thiazides
    i . v dilution

    164)bile duct investigation --------- HIDA SCAN

    165)in urea cycle ammonia comes from --- ammonia and aspartic
    glutamate and asparagine
    ammonia plus glutamic acid

    166)blind spot of marriotte---------- orra serrata
    167)1 st sypmptom in eye after hiv infection--- papiledema
    soft exud
    hard exud

    168)familia hypercholesteremia--- LDL RECEPTOR DEFICIENCY

    169)subluxation of lens------- homocystinuria

    170)heriditary spherocytosis causes---gall stones

    171)a long ques on thalidomide was asked

    172) contra india in renal artery stenosis--- ace inhibitors

    173)sterile pyuria------ tb

    174)d.o.c for chlamydia treatment--Doxycyclin

    175)positive trendelberg sign seen in all except--- gluteus medius, maximus, minimus

    176)pseudo tb is like --- none, tb like , plague like disease

    177)vitk dependent all except-- factor 7 ,9,2 10

    178)methyl alcohol poison give---ethyl alcohol

    179)B 12 def caused by all eceptt---gasterectomy, ileal resection etc.

    180)conditions leading to breast cancer are all except --
    ans- breast feeding

    181) Some options were given, you have to find out in which one you find dystrophic calcification, a Pathology question?

    182) A question regarding the Possiblity of Vertical HIV Transfer If no profilaxis is given?

    183) A question concerning the volume of the anterior chamber of the eye or similar question?

    184) Sommering is a type of what cataract? After cataract

    185) A question on Angle closer glaucoma? Cant recollect exact question.

    186) A question about GI outlet obstruction syndrome.

    187) The causes of Megaloblastic anemia are all except

    188) An easy question regarding the prognosis of esophageal carcinoma, what is false?
    Good Prognosis.

    189) which of the following is not a cause of Intestinal perforation?

    190) Which of the following is autosomal recessive disease?

    191) Hypertention leads to what complication?

    192) Anderson is a type of? Cant recollect the exact question.

    193) Heart Failure cells are found in which disease?

    194) Crushmans Spiral are seen in?

    195) Reids Index is seen in?

    196) Psammoma bodies are seen in?

    197) A patient with hypertention, proteinuria, hematuria. Your Diagnosis?
    Acute Glomerulonephritis
    Nephrotic syndrome
    Nephritic syndrome.

    198) Significant bacteriuria is said when--?

    199) Which of the following appears first in diapetic retinopathy?
    Spasm of arterioles

    200) Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy?

    201) Commonest carcinoma causing bony metastasis?
    Lung cancer
    Clear cell carcinoma

    202) Dose of warfarins is managed by?

    203) DOC Of PIH?

    204) Which of the following is false about phenytoin?

    205) A question on the ingradients of ORS?

    206)What is not found in Horners Syndrome?

    207)Iron content of blood is estimated using?

    208) An Incomplete question from endocrinology involving Hypothyroidism and Diabetes.(Grace marks given)

    209) Most common peripheral artery to be affected in Berger’s Disease?

    210) Another question, options didn’t make any sense (grace mark probably given)

    211) P O2 remains the same. P Co2 is Increased -What type of condition is it?

    212) If haemoglobin is saturated with CO, the hypoxia involved is?

    213) Red Infarct is seen in which of the following organs?

    214) Which of the following does not passes through sinus cavernosus?

    215) Which of the following drug can be used for anaerobic Infections?

    216) Which of the following drug is not given by oral route?

    217) A question on tumor markers?

    218) There was a question involving neurofibrillay tangles?
    Alzeimers disease.

    219) Which of the following is most life threatening immediately?
    Flial chest
    Cardiac tamponade
    Tention pneumothorax

    220) ECG changes in atrial fibrillation does not involve?
    Prominant p wave.

    221) Sun flower Cataract is seen in which of the following conditions?

    222) Drug Of choice in Petit mal Seizures?

    223) A patient with varicose veins, the question was concerning tropical changes of the leg?

    224) A question concerning the inguinal hernia? Its anatomical boundaries.

    225) A question regarding cohort studies.

    226) DOC in Manic Depressive illness?

    227) Zollinger Ellison syndrome or intractable ulcers are treated by which of the following drug?

    228) Investigation of choice in a patient with Pulmonary embolism?
    V/P Mismatch.

    229) Which is the largest of the following tumors?
    Serous cystadenoma
    Mucinous cystadenoma.
  6. Vandana.

    Vandana. Guest

    MCI (FMGE ) Question Paper - 2004

    Q 1. False statement regarding pudendal nerve is:
    A. Both sensory and motor
    B. Derived from S2,3,4 spinal nerve roots
    C. Leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
    D. It is the only somatic nerve to innervate the pelvic organs
    Ans. C
    Q 2. Wrong statement regarding the coronary artery is:
    A. Left coronary artery is present in anterior interventricular groove
    B. Usually 3 obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery
    C. Posterior interventricular artery arises from right coronary artery
    D. Left atrial artery is a branch of left coronary artery
    Ans. B
    Q 3. All are true statements regarding inguinal canal except:
    A. Roof is formed by conjoint tendon
    B. Deep inguinal ring is formed by transversus abdominis
    C. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by external oblique muscle
    D. Internal oblique forms anterior and posterior wall
    Ans. B
    Q 4. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:
    A. Left gastric
    B. Coeliac trunk
    C. Splenic
    D. Gastroduodenal
    Ans. D
    Q 5. In FRACTURE of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears is due to lesion in
    A. Trigeminal ganglion
    B. Ciliary ganglion
    C. Lesser petrosal nerve
    D. Greater petrosal nerve
    Ans. D
    Q 6. Motor supply to diaphragm is by:
    A. Thoracodorsal nerve
    B. Phrenic nerve
    C. Intercostal nerves
    D. Sympathetic nerves
    Ans. B
    Q 7. All of the following are supplied by facial nerve except:
    A. Lacrimal gland
    B. Submandibular gland
    C. Nasal glands
    D. Parotid gland
    Ans. D
    Q 8. In left coronary artery thrombosis, area most likely to be involved is:
    A. Anterior wall of right ventricle
    B. Anterior wall of left ventricle
    C. Anterior wall of right atrium
    D. Inferior surface of right ventricle
    Ans. B
    Q 9. Tidal volume is calculated by:
    A. Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
    B. Total lung capacity minus the residual volume
    C. Functional residual capacity minus residual volume
    D. Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volumes
    Ans. A
    Q 10. Surfactant production in lungs starts at:
    A. 28 weeks
    B. 32 weeks
    C. 34 weeks
    D. 36 weeks
    Ans. A
    Q 11. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because:
    A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
    B. It is unmyelinated
    C. Neurotransmitter release occurs here
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 12. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has:
    A. High molecular weight, low concentration
    B. Low molecular weight, low concentration
    C. High molecular weight, high concentration
    D. Low molecular weight, high concentration
    Ans. D
    Q 13. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTT, true is all except:
    A. GH levels are increased
    B. Increased glucose tolerance
    C. Decreased insulin levels
    D. Glucagon levels are increased
    Ans. B
    Q 14. Metalloproteins help in jaundice by the following mechanism:
    A. Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
    B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
    C. Decrease RBC lysis
    D. Increase Y and Z receptors
    Ans. B
    Q 15. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
    A. Troponin
    B. Calmodulin
    C. Thymosin
    D. Tropomyosin
    Ans. D
    Q 16. Which of the following is not correct regarding capillaries:
    A. Greatest cross sectional area
    B. Contain 25% of blood
    C. Contains less blood than veins
    D. Have single layer of cells bounding the lumen
    Ans. B
    Q 17. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to:
    A. Increase in HR, decrease in BP
    B. Slight increase in HR, normal BP
    C. Decrease in HR and BP
    D. Prominent increase in HR
    Ans. B
    Q 18. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of
    heart is:
    A. Myocardial wall thickness
    B. Right atrial volume
    C. SA node pacemaker potential
    D. Sympathetic stimulation
    Ans. D
    Q 19. Which of the following is not mediated through negative FEEDBACK
    A. TSH release
    B. GH formation
    C. Thrombin formation
    D. ACTH release
    Ans. C
    Q 20. Force generating proteins are:
    A. Myosin and myoglobin
    B. Dynein and kinesin
    C. Calmodulin and G protein
    D. Troponin
    Ans. B
    Q 21. Which is true about measurement of BP with sphygmomanometer versus
    intraarterial pressure measurements:
    A. Less than intravascular pressure
    B. More than intravascular pressure
    C. Equal to intravascular pressure
    D. Depends upon blood flow
    Ans. B
    Q 22. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin D deficiency shows:
    A. Hypocalcemia
    B. Hypercalcemia
    C. Hypophosphatemia
    D. Hyperphosphatemia
    Ans. C
    Q 23. Maximum absorption of water takes place in:
    A. Proximal convoluted tubule
    B. Distal convoluted tubule
    C. Collecting duct
    D. Loop of Henle
    Ans. A
    Q 24. Basic amino acids are:
    A. Aspartate and glutamate
    B. Serine and glycine
    C. Lysine and arginine
    D. None of the above
    Ans. C
    Q 25. Amino acid with dissociation constant closest to physiological pH is:
    A. Serine
    B. Histidine
    C. Threonine
    D. Proline
    Ans. B
    Q 26. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are:
    A. Aspartate and ammonia
    B. glutamate and ammonia
    C. Arginine and ammonia
    D. Uric acid
    Ans. A
    Q 27. If urine sample darkens on standing: the most likely condition is:
    A. Phenylketonuria
    B. Alkaptonuria
    C. Maple syrup disease
    D. Tyrosinemia
    Ans. B
    Q 28. A baby presents with refusal to feed, SKIN lesions, seizures, ketosis
    organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
    A. Propionic aciduria
    B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
    C. Maple syrup urine disease
    D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
    Ans. B
    Q 29. Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
    A. Electrostatic
    B. Covalent
    C. Van der Wall
    D. Hydrogen
    Ans. C
    Q 30. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by:
    A. Cyanide
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Chocolate
    D. Carbonated beverages
    Ans. A
    Q 31. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
    A. A-T
    B. C-G
    C. A-G
    D. C-T
    Ans. B
    Q 32. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases:
    A. tRNA
    B. mRNA
    C. rRNA
    D. 16SRNA
    Ans. A
    Q 33. False regarding gout is:
    A. Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
    B. Due to increased metabolism of purines
    C. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
    D. Has a predilection for the great toe
    Ans. A
    Q 34. All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins except:
    A. VLDL transports endogenous lipids
    B. LDL transports lipids to the tissues.
    C. Increased blood cholesterol is associated with increased LDL receptors
    D. Increased HDL is associated with decreased risk of coronary disease
    Ans. C
    Q 35. A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and
    dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test
    would be desirable:
    A. Fouchet
    B. Rothera
    C. Hays
    D. Benedict’s
    Ans. B
    Q 36. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk:
    A. Linolaete
    B. Linolenic
    C. Palmitic
    D. d-hexanoic
    Ans. A
    Q 37. Blood is not a newtonian fluid because:
    A. Viscosity does not changing with velocity
    B. Viscosity changes with velocity
    C. Density does not change with velocity
    D. Density changes with velocity
    Ans. B
    Q 38. Regarding NK cells, false statement is:
    A. It is activated by IL-2
    B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
    C. It is a variant of large lymphocyte
    D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
    Ans. D
    Q 39. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following:
    A. Common variable immunodeficiency.
    B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
    C. Chronic granulomatous disease
    D. Nezelof syndrome
    Ans. B
    Q 40. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5%
    NaCI, is non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
    A. Strep. agalactiae
    B. Strep. pneumoniae
    C. Enterococcus
    D. Strep. bovis
    Ans. C
    Q 41. False statement about the streptococcus is:
    A. M protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies
    B. M protein is the major surface protein of group A streptococci
    C. Mucoid colonies are virulent
    D. Endotoxin causes rash of scarlet fever
    Ans. A
    Q 42. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is:
    A. Pyrogenic toxin
    B. Erythrogenic toxin
    C. Hemolysin
    D. Neurotoxin
    Ans. A
    Q 43. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best
    made by culture in:
    A. Loeffler medium
    B. LJ medium
    C. Blood agar
    D. Tellurite medium
    Ans. A
    Q 44. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspected of having typhoid. What
    investigation should be done:
    A. Blood culture
    B. Widal test
    C. Stool culture
    D. Urine culture
    Ans. B
    Q 45. All are true about EHEC except:
    A. Sereny test is positive
    B. Fails to ferment sorbitol
    C. Causes HUS
    D. Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
    Ans. A
    Q 46. An organism grown on agar shows green coloured colonies, likely organism
    A. Staphylococcus
    B. E. coli
    C. Pseudomonas
    D. Peptostreptococcus
    Ans. C
    Q 47. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by:
    A. IgM FTAbs
    B. IgG FTAbs
    C. VDRL
    D. TPI
    Ans. A
    Q 48. All are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum except:
    A. Non gonococcal urethritis
    B. Salpingitis
    C. Epididymitis
    D. Bacterial vaginosis
    Ans. D
    Q 49. Regarding HIV infection, not true is:
    A. p24 is used for early diagnosis
    B. Lysis of infected CD 4 cells is seen
    C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
    D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
    Ans. C
    Q 50. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The
    likely diagnosis:
    A. Hepatitis E
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Sepsis
    D. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
    Ans. A
    Q 51. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is:
    A. RSV
    B. Rhinovirus
    C. Adenovirus
    D. Rotavirus
    Ans. C
    Q 52. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED) medium is preferred over McConkey
    agar in UTI because:
    A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
    B. Is a selective medium
    C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas
    D. Promotes growth of candida
    Ans. A
    Q 53. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood:
    A. Tropical eosinophilia
    B. Early adenolymphangitis stage
    C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
    D. Elephantiasis
    Ans. B
    Q 54. Pancreatic CA is caused by:
    A. Fasciola
    B. Clonorchis
    C. Paragonimus
    D. None
    Ans. B
    Q 55. All of the following are true except:
    A. E.coli is an aerobe and facultative anaerobe
    B. Proteus forms uric acid stones
    C. E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella
    D. Proteus causes deamination of phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic acid
    Ans. B
    Q 56. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following
    helminthic disease:
    A. Tinea saginata
    B. Tinea solium
    C. Hydatid cyst
    D. Trichuris trichura
    Ans. B
    Q 57. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is:
    A. Myeloperoxidase
    B. Superoxide dismutase
    C. MAO
    D. Hydroxylase
    Ans. B
    Q 58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in:
    A. ALL B. AML
    C. CLL D. CML
    Ans. C
    Q 59. All of following are correct about thromboxane A2 except:
    A. Low dose aspirin inhibits its synthesis
    B. Causes vasoconstriction in blood vessels
    C. Causes broncoconstriction
    D. Secreted by WBC
    Ans. D
    Q 60. Which of the following complications is likely to result after several
    units of blood have been transfused:
    A. Metabolic alkalosis
    B. Metabolic acidosis
    C. Respiratory alkalosis
    D. Respiratory acidosis
    Ans. A
    Q 61. The mother has sickle cell disease and father is normal. Chances of
    children having sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
    A. 0 and 100%
    B. 25 and 25%
    C. 50 and 50%
    D. 10 and 50%
    Ans. A
    Q 62. Father has a blood group B, mother has AB; children are not likely to have
    the following blood group:
    A. O
    B. A
    C. B
    D. AB
    Ans. A
    Q 63. Protein involved in intercellular connections is:
    A. Connexin
    B. Integrin
    C. Adhesin
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 64. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly except:
    A. They are lean and their body mass is less
    B. Have decreasing renal function with age
    C. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
    D. Body water is decreased
    Ans. C
    Q 65. True statement regarding inverse agonists is:
    A. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
    B. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
    C. Binds to receptor and causes no action
    D. Binds to receptor and causes submaximal action
    Ans. B
    Q 66. True statement regarding first order kinetics is:
    A. Independent of plasma concentration
    B. A constant proportion of plasma concentration is eliminated
    C. T½ increases with dose
    D. Clearance decreases with dose
    Ans. B
    Q 67. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for TB suffers DVT. She is started
    on warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step should be:
    A. Long term heparin therapy
    B. Replace warfarin with acecoumarin
    C. Switch ethambutol for rifampin
    D. Use LMW heparin
    Ans. C
    Q 68. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is:
    A. Propranolol
    B. Pindolol
    C. Sotalol
    D. Nadolol
    Ans. A
    Q 69. All of the following are correct about steroids except:
    A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid from vessel wall through action of
    phospholipase A2
    B. Bind plasma membrane receptors and following internalization influence
    nuclear changes
    C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
    D. Increase glucose synthesis, glycogen deposition in liver
    Ans. B
    Q 70. All of the following statements are true except:
    A. PGs and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid
    B. COX I is an inducible enzyme
    C. COX II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation.
    D. Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction
    Ans. B
    Q 71. Which of the following is a false statement:
    A. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and cause tachycardia
    B. IV adrenaline increases systolic BP, no change or increase diastolic BP and
    causes tachycardia
    C. IV isoproterenol causes increase in systolic BP, decreases diastolic BP and
    causes tachycardia
    D. Dopamine improves renal function, increases cardiac output and systolic BP
    Ans. A
    Q 72. Digoxin is not indicated in:
    A. Atrial flutter
    B. Atrial fibrillation
    C. High output failure
    D. PSVT
    Ans. C
    Q 73. All of the following statements are true about theophylline except:
    A. Increase in dose is required in cardiopulmonary disease
    B. Increases cAMP
    C. Increase in dose is required in smokers
    D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
    Ans. A
    Q 74. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:
    A. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA.
    B. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
    C. Causes misreading of mRNA
    D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongation
    Ans. A
    Q 75. False statement about selegeline is:
    A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
    B. Does not cause cheese reaction
    C. Not useful in advanced cases of on-off phenomenon
    D. It is used in parkinsonism
    Ans. A
    Q 76. A patient on phenytoin for treatment of seizures develops depression for
    which he is prescribed tricyclics. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb
    reads 8. Next step in managing this patient should be:
    A. Chest X-ray
    B. MCV should be estimated
    C. GGT should be estimated
    D. Bone marrow examination
    Ans. B
    Q 77. Which of the following drugs would be removed by dialysis?
    A. Digoxin
    B. Salicylates
    C. Benzodiazepines
    D. Organophosphates
    Ans. B
    Q 78. In low doses aspirin acts on:
    A. Cyclooxygenase
    B. Thromboxane A2
    C. PGI2
    D. Lipoxygenase
    Ans. B
    Q 79. True statement about ticlopidine is:
    A. Directly interacts with platelet membrane
    B. Onset of action is delayed
    C. Inhibits platelet gp IIb/IIIa receptors
    D. Has fibrinolytic activity
    Ans. A
    Q 80. All of the following statements about methotrexate are true except:
    A. Folinic acid enhances the action of methotrexate
    B. Methotrexate inhibit dehydrofolate reductase
    C. Non proliferative cells are resistant to metho- trexate
    D. Methotrexate is used in treatment of PSORIASIS
    Ans. A
    Q 81. Drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule:
    A. BAL
    B. EDTA
    C. Pencillamine
    D. Desferioxamine
    Ans. A
    Forensic Medicine
    Q 82. Gettler’s test is done for death by:
    A. Drowning B. Hanging
    C. Bums D. Phophorus poisoning
    Ans. A
    Q 83. Feature indicative of antimortem drowning is:
    A. Cutis anserina
    B. Rigor mortis
    C. Washer woman’s feet
    D. Grass and weeds grasped in the hand
    Ans. D
    Q 84. A boy has 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth. His age is likely to
    A. 9 years
    B. 10 years
    C. 11 years
    D. 12 years
    Ans. C
    Q 85. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over his body. This may be
    effect of:
    A. Cocaine
    B. Alcohol
    C. Cannabis
    D. Benzodiazepines
    Ans. A
    Q 86. A person comes in contact with other. This is called:
    A. Locard principle
    B. Quetlet’s rule
    C. Petty’s principle
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 87. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires urgent cranial
    decompression; Doctor should:
    A. Operate without formal consent
    B. Take police consent
    C. Wait for relatives to take consent
    D. Take magistrate consent
    Ans. A
    Q 88. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctor and he is
    successfully cured. Doctor should:
    A. Inform police
    B. Not required to inform police
    C. Report to magistrate
    D. Refer to a psychiatrist
    Ans. B
    Q 89. All are true about DOTS except:
    A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi- blister combipack
    B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
    C. Alternate day treatment
    D. Improves compliance
    Ans. C
    Q 90. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar presents with active
    tuberculosis. She delivers baby. All of the following are indicated except:
    A. Administer INH to the baby
    B. Withhold breastfeeding
    C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
    D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of sputum
    Ans. B
    Q 91. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite
    A. Microscopy
    B. Microscopy plus Radiology
    C. Radiology
    D. None of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 92. A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago,
    now he presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury
    sustained 3 hours ago. He should now be given:
    A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
    B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
    C. Human tetanus globulin
    D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid
    Ans. B
    Q 93. The false statement regarding tetanus is:
    A. Five doses of immunisation provide life long immunity
    B. TT affords no protection in the present injury
    C. TIG is useful in lacerated wound
    D. TT and Ig both may be given in suspected tetanus
    Ans. A
    Q 94. A certain community has 100 children out of whom 28 are immunised against
    measles. 2 of them acquired measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles.
    Assuming the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the secondary attack
    A. 5%
    B. 10%
    C. 20%
    D. 21.5%
    Ans. C
    Q 95. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5
    maternal deaths were reported in the current year. The MMR is:
    A. 14.5
    B. 13.8
    C. 20
    D. 5
    Ans. B
    Q 96. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weigh 2.8 kg each.
    Calculate the standard deviation:
    A. Zero
    B. One
    C. Minus one
    D. 0.28
    Ans. A
    Q 97. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed
    less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
    A. Geometric average
    B. Arithmetic average
    C. Median
    D. Mode
    Ans. C
    Q 98. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35
    gms fat in his diet. The most applicable statement here is:
    A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
    B. The proportion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates is correct and in
    accordance with a balanced diet
    C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
    D. 30% of his total energy intake is derived from fat
    Ans. B
    Q 99. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is 23 and death
    rate is 6. In which phase of the demographic cycle does this country lie:
    A. Early expanding
    B. Late expanding
    C. Plateau
    D. Declining
    Ans. B
    Q 100. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; it was not
    given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of
    the other 4000 also got lung cancer. The best conclusion is:
    A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
    B. The p value is not significant
    C. The study is not designed properly
    D. Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
    Ans. A
    Q 101. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of:
    A. 1000
    B. 2000
    C. 3000
    D. 5000
    Ans. C
    Q 102. In a community, an increase in new cases denotes:
    A. Increase in incidence rate
    B. Increase in prevalence rate
    C. Decrease in incidence rate
    D. Decrease in prevalence rate
    Ans. A
    Q 103. More false positive cases on screening in a community signify that the
    disease has:
    A. High prevalence
    B. High sensitivity
    C. Low prevalence
    D. Low sensitivity
    Ans. C
    Q 104. The same screening test is applied to two communities X and Y; Y shows
    more false +ve cases as compared to X. The possibility is:
    A. High sensitivity
    B. High specificity
    C. Y community has high prevalence
    D. Y community has low prevalence
    Ans. C
    Q 105. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence of hepatitis B.
    What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests?
    A. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
    B. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
    C. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
    D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
    Ans. C
    Q 106. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levels were tested both
    before and after its use. Which test is best suited for the statistical analysis
    of the result:
    A. Paired t-test
    B. Student’s test
    C. Chi square test
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 107. Type 1 sampling error is classified as:
    A. Alpha error
    B. Beta error
    C. Gamma error
    D. Delta error
    Ans. A
    Q 108. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
    A. Proportional mortality rate
    B. Specific mortality rate
    C. Case fatality ratio
    D. Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
    Ans. C
    Q 109. Which of the following diseases needs not to be screened for in workers
    to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat ?
    A. Anemia
    B. Bronchial asthma
    C. Bladder cancer
    D. Precancerous lesion
    Ans. A
    Q 110. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:
    A. Serum transferrin
    B. Serum ferritin
    C. Serum iron
    D. Hemoglobin
    Ans. B
    Q 111. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent:
    A. Glutaraldehyde
    B. Absolute alcohol
    C. Hydrogen peroxide
    D. Sodium hypochlorite
    Ans. B
    Q 112. Seasonal trend is due to:
    A. Vector variation
    B. Environmental factors
    C. Change in herd immunity
    D. All of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 113. False statement about type I respiratory failure is:
    A. Decreased PaO2
    B. Decreased PaCO2
    C. Normal PaCO2
    D. Normal A-a gradient
    Ans. D
    Q 114. A 60 years old man presents with nonproductive cough for 4 weeks. He has
    grade III clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe on X-ray. Most likely
    diagnosis here is:
    A. Small cell CA
    B. Non-small cell CA
    C. Fungal infection
    D. Tuberculosis
    Ans. B
    Q 115. A 60 years old man is suspected of having bronchogenic CA. TB has been
    ruled out in this patient. What should be the next investigation:
    A. CT guided FNAC
    B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
    C. Sputum cytology
    D. X-ray chest
    Ans. B
    Q 116. A man presents with fever, weight loss and cough. Mantoux reads an
    induration of 17 × 19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely
    diagnosis is:
    A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
    B. Fungal infection
    C. Viral infection
    D. Pneumonia
    Ans. A
    Q 117. Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is observed, which of these
    is not a cause:
    A. High altitude
    B. Cocaine overdose
    C. Post cardiopulmonary bypass
    D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
    Ans. D
    Q 118. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3. Diagnosis is:
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
    C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
    D. Respiratory alkalosis
    Ans. C
    Q 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator shows decreased pCO2, normal pO2,
    pH 7.5. Diagnosis is:
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Respiratory alkalosis
    D. Metabolic acidosis
    Ans. C
    Q 120. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best modality of treatment is:
    A. IV fluids
    B. Digoxin
    C. Diuretics
    D. Vasodilators
    Ans. A
    Q 121. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is found to have arrhythmias and a
    systolic murmur associated with midsystolic ? . Which investigation would you
    A. Electrophysiological testing
    B. CT scan
    C. Echocardiography
    D. Angiography
    Ans. C
    Q 122. A patient complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness and headache.
    Most likely cardiac lesion is:
    A. TOF
    B. ASD
    C. PDA
    D. Coarctation of aorta
    Ans. D
    Q 123. All of the following are true about ASD except:
    A. Right atrial hypertrophy
    B. Left atrial hypertrophy
    C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    D. Pulmonary hypertension
    Ans. B
    Q 124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually embolise to:
    A. Lung
    B. liver
    C. spleen
    D. brain
    Ans. A
    Q 125. A woman has septic abortion done, vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely
    to go to:
    A. Septic infarcts to lung
    B. liver
    C. spleen infarcts
    D. Emboli to brain
    Ans. A
    Q 126. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
    A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
    B. Constrictive pericarditis
    C. Cardiac tamponade
    D. RV infarct
    Ans. C
    Q 127. A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate
    of 100/min following blunt trauma to the chest. Diagnosis is:
    A. Pneumothorax
    B. Right ventricular failure
    C. Cardiac tamponade
    D. Hemothorax
    Ans. C
    Q 128. Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in
    sickle cell anemia:
    A. HbA
    B. HbA2
    C. HbF
    D. HbS
    Ans. A
    Q 129. False statement regarding DIC is:
    A. Thrombocytopenia
    B. Decreased fibrinogen
    C. Decreased PTT
    D. Increased PT
    Ans. C
    Q 130. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except:
    A. Henoch Schonlein purpura
    B. TTP
    C. DIC
    D. Leukemia
    Ans. A
    Q 131. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of 2000/cmm, has a normal
    different count except for having 6% blasts, platelets are reduced to
    80,000/cmm; moderate splenomegaly is present. Possible diagnosis is:
    A. Leukemia
    B. Aplastic anemia
    D. lTP
    Ans. A
    Q 132. A patient being investigated for anemia has a dry marrow tap; peripheral
    smear reveals tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Leukemia
    B. Lymphoma
    C. Myelofibrosis
    D. Polycythemia rubra vera
    Ans. C
    Q 133. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera is:
    A. Sarcoma
    B. Pituitary adenoma
    C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
    D. None of the above
    Ans. C
    Q 134. A young patient presents with jaundice. Total bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct
    is 9.6 mg%, alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units. Diagnosis is:
    A. Hemolytic jaundice
    B. Viral hepatitis
    C. Chronic active hepatitis
    D. Obstructive jaundice
    Ans. D
    Q 135. A young male with gallbladder stones shows the following test results:
    serum bilirubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive for urobilinogen.
    Diagnosis is:
    A. Hemolytic jaundice
    B. Obstructive jaundice
    C. Hepatocellular jaundice
    D. Protoporphyria
    Ans. A
    Q 136. An 18 years old male presents with massive hematemesis. He has history of
    fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs. Moderate
    splenomegaly is present. Diagnosis is:
    A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
    B. Drug induced gastritis
    C. Esophageal varices
    D. None of the above
    Ans. C
    Q 137. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Likely source is:
    A. kidney
    B. Ureter
    C. Bladder
    D. Urethra
    Ans. A
    Q 138. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after an attack of URTI. Most
    likely renal Pathology is:
    A. Acute glomerulonephritis
    B. Minimal change disease
    C. IgA nephropathy
    D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    Ans. C
    Q 139. A patient’s CSF report reads as follows: sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%,
    chloride 550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The picture is suggestive of:
    A. Fungal meningitis
    B. Viral meningitis
    C. TB meningitis
    D. Leukemia
    Ans. C
    Q 140. Lacunar infarcts are caused by:
    A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
    B. Middle carotid artery involvement
    C. Emboli to anterior circulation
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 141. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents with complaints of slowness of
    movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Most likely
    diagnosis is:
    A. Multi-infarct dementia
    B. Alzheimer’s disease
    C. Parkinsonism
    D. None of the above
    Ans. C
    Q 142. All of the following may be seen in Wilson’s disease except:
    A. Cerebellar ataxia
    B. Peripheral neuropathy
    C. Dysphagia
    D. Chorea
    Ans. B
    Q 143. An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in
    downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Parkinson disease
    B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
    C. Alzheimer’s disease
    D. None of the above.
    Ans. B
    Q 144. A chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
    A. Trisomy 18
    B. Patau syndrome
    C. Trisomy 21
    D. Turner syndrome
    Ans. C
    Q 145. All are true about Huntington’s disease, except:
    A. Chorea
    B. Depression, apathy
    C. Progressive dementia
    D. Cog-wheel rigidity
    Ans. D
    Q 146. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he has low testosterone
    and high prolactin level in blood. What is the likely diagnosis:
    A. Pituitary adenoma
    B. Testicular failure
    C. Craniopharyngioma
    D. Cushing’s syndrome
    Ans. A
    Q 147. A patient meets with an accident with resultant transection of the
    pituitary stalk. What will not occur:
    A. Diabetes mellitus
    B. Diabetes insipidus
    C. Hyperprolactinemia
    D. Hypothyroidism
    Ans. A
    Q 148. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress. She
    has two children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis is:
    A. Migraine
    B. Cluster headache
    C. Tension headache
    D. Trigeminal neuralgia
    Ans. C
    Q 149. A female aged 30 years, presents with episodic throbbing headache for
    past 4 years with nausea and vomiting. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Migraine
    B. Cluster headache
    C. Angle closure glaucoma
    D. Temporal arteritis
    Ans. A
    Q 150. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the right
    upper and lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Trigeminal neuralgia
    B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
    C. Migraine
    D. Cluster headache
    Ans. C
    Q 151. All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except:
    A. Pituitary tumor
    B. Pheochromocytoma
    C. Medullary CA thyroid
    D. Parathyroid adenoma
    Ans. A
    Q 152. A patient with Cushingoid features presents with hemoptysis. He shows no
    response to dexamethasone suppression test. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Adrenal hyperplasia
    B. Adrenal adenoma
    C. CA lung with ectopic ACTH production
    D. Pituitary microadenoma
    Ans. C
    Q 153. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconscious state. His blood
    sugar measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for sugar and ketones. Drug most
    useful in management is:
    A. Glibenclamide
    B. Troglitazone
    C. Insulin
    D. Chlorpropamide
    Ans. C
    Q 154. Which of the following is not associated with thymoma:
    A. Red cell aplasia
    B. Myasthenia gravis
    C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
    D. Compression of the superior mediastinum
    Ans. C
    Q 155. A young basketball player with height 188 cm and arm span 197 cm has a
    diastolic murmur best heard in second right intercostal space. Likely cause of
    murmur is:
    A. AS
    B. Coarctation of aorta
    C. AR
    D. MR
    Ans. C
    Q 156. A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmen- tation of SKIN and
    hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of lung
    C. Wilson’s disease
    D. Rheumatoid arthrits
    Ans. A
    Q 157. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regarding thymectomy is:
    A. Should be done in all cases
    B. Should be done in cases with ocular involvement only
    C. Not required if controlled by medical management
    D. Should be done only in cases that are associated with thymoma
    Ans. A
    Q 158. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is:
    A. Aspergillus niger
    B. Candida
    C. Mucormycosis
    D. Aspergillus fumigatus
    Ans. B
    Q 159. The following group of tests should be done to optimise graft uptake in
    bone marrow transplant:
    A. Blood grouping
    B. HLA matching
    C. Culture for infection
    D. All of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 160. True statement about neurocysticercosis is:
    A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are resistant to antiepileptic drugs
    B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel in the treatment of above condition
    C. Common presentation is 6th cranial nerve palsy and hemiparesis
    D. Steroids are used in the management of hydrocephalus
    Ans. B
    Q 161. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic
    disease except:
    A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDs
    B. DU is preventable by the use of single night-time H2 blockers
    C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
    D. Misoprostol is DOC in pregnant patients
    Ans. D
    Q 162. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexure invading renal
    papillae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True statement is:
    A. II E stage
    B. III E stage
    C. IV E stage
    D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed
    Ans. C
    Q 163. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has sudden abnormal
    flinging movements in right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of
    hemorrahge is:
    A. Substantia nigra
    B. Caudate nuclei
    C. Pons
    D. Subthalamic nuclei
    Ans. D
    Q 164. True about haemophilia A are all except:
    A. PTT increased
    B. PT increased
    C. Clotting time is increased
    D. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
    Ans. B
    Q 165. IPPV can cause:
    A. Barotrauma
    B. Pleural effusion
    C. Increased venous return
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 166. Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is:
    A. Exudate seen in basal cistern
    B. Hydrocephalus is non communicating
    C. Calcification commonly seen in cerebellum
    D. Ventriculitis is a common finding
    Ans. A
    Q 167. Vegetations on undersurface of AV valves are found in:
    A. Acute rheumatic carditis
    B. Limban Sack’s endocarditis
    C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
    D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
    Ans. B
    Q 168. Triage means:
    A. Sorting out of cases on availability of medical resources and severity of
    patient’s condition
    B. Patients are divided into 3 groups
    C. Severely injured patients are attended first in military camps
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 169. Which of the following is not true about atrial septal defect:
    A. There is a defect in region of fossa ovalis
    B. Blood flow from left atrium to right atrium
    C. Increased blood flow through lungs lead to pulmonary plethora
    D. There is splitting of first heart sound
    Ans. D
    Q 170. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy
    giant cells are seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Physiological jaundice
    B. Neonatal hepatitis with extra biliary atresia
    C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
    D. Extra biliary atresia
    Ans. B
    Q 171. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and
    froth at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
    A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    B. Tetralogy of Fallot
    C. Respiratory distress syndrome
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 172. Ramu, a 8-years-old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. On examination,
    he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs of ascites, or
    hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on UGIE. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Budd Chiari syndrome
    B. Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
    C. Cirrhosis
    D. Veno-occlusive disease
    Ans. B
    Q 173. A 5-years-old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome is responding well
    to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:
    A. No finding
    B. Basement membrane thickening
    C. Hypercellular glomeruli
    D. Fusion of foot processes
    Ans. A
    Q 174. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a male infant is:
    A. Anterior urethral valves
    B. Posterior urethral valves
    C. Stone
    D. Stricture
    Ans. B
    Q 175. A 5-years-old child presents with a calculus of size 2 cm in the upper
    ureter. He also complains of haematuria. USG shows no further obstruction in the
    urinary tract. Treatment of choice for this patient would be:
    A. Ureterolithotomy
    B. Endoscopic removal
    C. ESWL
    D. Observation
    Ans. C
    Q 176. A patient presents with LVH and pulmonary complications. ECG shows left
    axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. TOF
    B. Tricuspid atresia
    C. TAPVC
    D. VSD
    Ans. B
    Q 177. Potts shunt is anastomosis of:
    A. Right subclavian artery to right pulmonary artery
    B. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
    C. Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
    D. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
    Ans. B
    Q 178. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless, irritability
    and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur.
    He is believed to be at risk for MI. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. ASD
    B. VSD
    C. TOF
    D. Anomalous coronary artery
    Ans. D
    Q 179. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of
    anemia. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic
    microcytic picture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has ‘a positive family history’.
    Next investigation of choice is:
    A. Hb electrophoresis
    B. Coombs’ test
    C. liver function tests
    D. Osmotic fragility test
    Ans. A
    Q 180. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6 months to 2 years
    of age is:
    A. Pneumococcus
    B. Staphylococcus
    C. H. influenzae
    D. E. coli
    Ans. C
    Q 181. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear
    discharge and hepatosplenomegaly. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Leukemia
    B. Lymphoma
    C. Histiocytosis X
    D. Multiple myeloma
    Ans. C
    Q 182. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism:
    A. Short limbs compared to trunk
    B. Proportionate shortening
    C. Short limbs and short stature
    D. Short limbs and long stature
    Ans. C
    Q 183. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include:
    A. Deafness and facial nerve involvement
    B. Blindness and hypothyroidism
    C. Goitre and hypothyroidism
    D. Multinodular goitre and mental retardation
    Ans. A
    Q 184. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite child with 46 XY karyotype presents
    with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is:
    A. 21 hydroxylase
    B. 17 hydroxylase
    C. 11 hydroxylase
    D. 3-beta hydroxylase
    Ans. B
    Q 185. Treatment of Kawasaki disease in children is:
    A. Oral steroids
    B. IV steroids
    C. IV Ig
    D. Mycophenolate mefentil
    Ans. C
    Q 186. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilator. X-ray shows
    ‘white out lung’ and ABG reveals PO2 of 75. Ventilator settings are on, FIO2 of
    70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be taken should be:
    A. Increase rate to 60 per minute
    B. Increase FIO2 to 80
    C. Continue ventilation with the same settings
    D. Weaning ventilator
    Ans. C
    Q 187. A man aged 50 years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalp swelling and
    easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing the diagnosis would be:
    A. KOH smear
    B. Culture sensitivity
    C. Biopsy
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 188. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is:
    A. Trichophyton tonsurans
    B. Microsporum
    C. Epidermophyton
    D. Candida albicans
    Ans. A
    Q 189. A young man aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after
    sexual intercourse with a professional SEX worker. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Chancroid
    B. Herpes
    C. Primary chancre
    D. Traumatic ulcer
    Ans. C
    Q 190. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin and prepuce. All of
    the following are indicated in this patient except:
    A. Bathe and apply scabicidal solution
    B. Treatment should be extended to all family members
    C. Dispose all clothes by burning
    D. Start the patient on IV antibiotics
    Ans. D
    Q 191. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anesthetic,
    nonscaly, hypopigmented macule on his face. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Pityriasis alba
    B. Pityriasis versicolor
    C. Indeterminate leprosy
    D. Pure neuritic leprosy
    Ans. C
    Q 192. A 20 years old, male patient, from jaipur presents with an erythematous
    lesion on the cheek with central crusting. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. SLE
    B. LUPUS vulgaris
    C. Chillblains
    D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
    Ans. D
    Q 193. A 19 year old pregnant girl presents with light brown pigmentation over
    the malar eminences. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Chloasma
    B. SLE
    C. Melasma
    D. Melanoma
    Ans. A
    Q 194. A girl aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosensitive rash on the
    cheek. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. SLE
    B. Chloasma
    C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
    D. Lyme’s disease
    Ans. A
    Q 195. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to the hospital. He
    suddenly ceases to recognize the doctor and staff, thinks that he is in jail and
    complains of scorpions attacking him. He is in altered sensorium. This condition
    A. Acute delirium
    B. Acute dementia
    C. Acute schizophrenia
    D. Acute paranoia
    Ans. A
    Q 196. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well
    groomed, and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Dissociative fugue
    B. Dissociative amnesia
    C. Schizophrenia
    D. Dementia
    Ans. A
    Q 197. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden onset palpitations and
    apprehension. He is sweating for the last 10 minutes and fears of impending
    death. Diagnosis is:
    A. Hysteria
    B. Cystic fibrosis
    C. Panic attack
    D. Generalized anxiety disorder
    Ans. C
    Q 198. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. She was admitted in
    an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and
    feels terrified She is afraid to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is:
    A. Panic disorder
    B. Phobia
    C. Conversion disorder
    D. Post traumatic stress disorder
    Ans. D
    Q 199. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity.
    Diagnosis is:
    A. Catatonic schizophrenia
    B. Paranoid schizophrenia
    C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
    D. Simple schizophrenia
    Ans. A
    Q 200. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also
    complains of some psychiatric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely
    diagnosis is:
    A. Intermittent porphyria
    B. Hypothyroidism
    C. Hyperthyroidism
    D. Hysteria
    Ans. A
    Q 201. Basanti 27 years aged, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed
    and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face
    with a cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next step would be:
    A. Investigate and then operate
    B. Refer to psychiatrist
    C. Reassure the patient
    D. Immediate operation
    Ans. B
    Q 202. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He regurgitates food that is eaten
    3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Zenker’s diverticulum
    B. Meckel’s diverticulum
    C. Scleroderma
    D. Achalasia cardia
    Ans. A
    Q 203. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
    A. Upper third
    B. Middle third
    C. Lower third
    D. Gastro-esophageal junction.
    Ans. B
    Q 204. What is true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
    A. More common in girls
    B. Hypochloremic alkalosis
    C. Heller’s myotomy is the procedure of choice.
    D. Most often manifests at birth
    Ans. B
    Q 205. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size. Procedure
    of choice is:
    A. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
    B. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
    C. Highly selective vagotomy
    D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
    Ans. A
    Q 206. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis of gastrointestinal tract
    A. Presents with a mass in RIF
    B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
    C. Most common site is ileocecal junction
    D. ATT is the treatment of choice
    Ans. D
    Q 207. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days. X-ray
    shows no air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
    A. Paralytic ileus
    B. Aganglionosis of the colon
    C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
    D. Duodenal obstruction.
    Ans. C
    Q 208. A man aged 60 years has history of IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents
    with abdominal pain and maroon stools. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Acute intestinal obstruction
    B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
    C. Peritonitis
    D. Appendicitis
    Ans. B
    Q 209. True statement regarding ‘fistula in ano’ is:
    A. Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
    B. High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
    C. High and low divisions are made in relation to the pelvic floor
    D. Intersphincteric is the most common type
    Ans. D
    Q 210. In a 27 year old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would
    A. Crohn’s disease
    B. Ulcerative colitis
    C. TB
    D. Cancer colon
    Ans. A
    Q 211. Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of
    urinary meatus. He complains of inability to pass urine. Next step should be:
    A. IVP should be done
    B. MCU should be done
    C. Catheterize, drain bladder and remove the catheter thereafter
    D. Catheterize, drain bladder and retain the catheter thereafter
    Ans. D
    Q 212. Chandu, a 45 years male shows calcification on the right side of his
    abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the
    spine. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. Gallstones
    B. Calcified mesenteric nodes
    C. Renal stones
    D. Calcified rib
    Ans. C
    Q 213. CA prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because:
    A. Valveless communication exist with Batson’s prevertebral plexus
    B. Via drainage to sacral lymph node
    C. Of direct spread
    D. None of above
    Ans. A
    Q 214. Following sexual intercourse, a person develops pain in the left testes
    that does not get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is:
    A. Epididymo-orchitis
    B. Torsion testis
    C. Fournier’s gangrene
    D. Tumor testes
    Ans. B
    Q 215. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most likely to be:
    A. Germ cell tumor
    B. Sertoli cell tumor
    C. Teratocarcinoma
    D. Lymphoma
    Ans. D
    Q 216. A patient presents with bilateral proptosis, heat intolerance and
    palpitations. Most unlikely diagnosis here would be:
    A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    B. Thyroid adenoma
    C. Diffuse thyroid igoitre
    D. Reidel’s thyroiditis
    Ans. D
    Q 217. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of
    voice. Also, the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis
    A. Follicular CA
    B. Papillary CA
    C. Medullary CA
    D. Anaplastic CA
    Ans. A
    Q 218. A patient presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy.
    What is the most likely resulting complication:
    A. Respiratory obstruction
    B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
    C. Hypovolemia
    D. Hypocalcemia
    Ans. A
    Q 219. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomy presents with a
    swelling in the neck and difficulty in breathing. Next management would be:
    A. Open sutures immediately
    B. Intubate oro-tracheally
    C. Wait and watch
    D. Administer oxygen by mask
    Ans. A
    Q 220. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours
    after a thyroidectomy Surgery . Next management would be:
    A. Open immediately
    B. Tracheostomy
    C. Wait and watch
    D. Oxygen by mask
    Ans. A
    Q 221. A patient undergoes thyroid Surgery , following which he develops
    perioral tingling. Blood Ca2+ is 8.9 mEq. Next step is:
    A. Vitamin D orally
    B. Oral Ca2+ and vitamin D
    C. Intravenous calcium gluconate and serial monitoring
    D. Wait for Ca2+ to decrease to < 7.0 before taking further action
    Ans. C
    Q 222. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency in a state of shock.
    He is not responding to IV crystalloids. Next step in his management would be:
    A. Immediate laparotomy
    B. Blood transfusion
    C. Albumin transfusion
    D. Abdominal compression
    Ans. A
    Q 223. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road- traffic accident. He
    is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is:
    A. spleen
    B. Mesentery
    C. kidney
    D. Rectum
    Ans. A
    Q 224. A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following
    a head on collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is
    present. Most likely diagnosis is:
    A. EDH
    B. SDH
    C. Intracranial hemorrhage
    D. Intra-abdominal bleed
    Ans. D
    Q 225. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
    A. Marjolin’s
    B. Rodent
    C. Melanoma
    D. Curling’s
    Ans. A
    Q 226. An elderly man presents with history of abdominal pain. He is found to
    have a fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta. Likely cause is:
    A. Trauma
    B. Atherosclerosis
    C. Right ventricular failure
    D. Syphilitic aortitis
    Ans. B
    Q 227. All of the following are correct regarding AV fistula except:
    A. Arterialization of the veins
    B. Proximal compression causes increase in heart rate
    C. Overgrowth of a limb
    D. Causes LV enlargement and LV failure
    Ans. B
    Q 228. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis except:
    A. May be caused by a cervical rib
    B. Treated with IV anticoagulant
    C. Embolectomy is done in all cases
    D. May occur following excessive exercise
    Ans. C
    Q 229. A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw,
    involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of choice is:
    A. Hemimandibulectomy
    B. Commando operation
    C. Segmental mandiblectbmy
    D. Marginal mandibulectomy
    Ans. C
    Q 230. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 year old male
    A. Warthin’s tumor
    B. Pleomorphic adenoma
    C. Adenocarcinoma
    D. Haemangioma
    Ans. B
    Q 231. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast.
    Next investigation is:
    A. FNAC
    B. USG
    C. Mammography
    D. Excision biopsy
    Ans. A
    Q 232. A 45 years old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes
    enlargement since 3 month. Most diagnostic investigation is:
    A. X-ray soft tissue
    B. FNAC
    C. Lymph node biopsy
    D. None of the above
    Ans. C
    Q 233. All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver
    A. Equal incidence in males and females
    B. Better prognosis than HCC
    C. AFP levels always greater than > 1000
    D. Occur in younger individuals
    Ans. C
    Q 234. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose .
    Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Teratoma
    B. Meningocele
    C. Dermoid cyst
    D. Lipoma
    Ans. B
    Q 235. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a patient develops
    weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect fore
    arm. Nerve injured is:
    A. Radial nerve
    B. Musculocutaneous nerve
    C. Axillary nerve
    D. Ulnar nerve
    Ans. B
    Q 236. Babloo a 10 years old boy presents with FRACTURE of humerus. X-ray
    reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likely condition is:
    A. Unicameral bone cyst
    B. Osteosarcoma
    C. Osteoclastoma
    D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
    Ans. A
    Q 237. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 years back. He now
    presents with valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias over the medial
    border of the hand. The injury is likely to have been:
    A. Supracondylar FRACTURE humerus
    B. Lateral condyle FRACTURE humerus
    C. Medial condyle FRACTURE humerus
    D. Posterior dislocation of the humerus
    Ans. B
    Q 238. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall. Her lower limb is abducted and
    externally rotated. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Neck of femur FRACTURE
    B. Intertrochanteric femur FRACTURE
    C. Posterior dislocation of hip
    D. Anterior dislocation of hip
    Ans. D
    Q 239. Triple arthrodesis involves:
    A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
    B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
    C. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 240. Babu a 19 years old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling
    over diaphysis of femur. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Osteoclastoma
    B. Osteosarcoma
    C. Ewing’s sarcoma
    D. Osteoid osteoma
    Ans. D
    Q 241. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:
    A. Femur, upper end
    B. Femur, lower end
    C. Tibia, upper end
    D. Tibia, lower end
    Ans. B
    Q 242. Involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpometacarpal joint of base
    of thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in:
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    B. Osteoarthritis
    C. Psoriatic arthritis
    D. Pseudogout
    Ans. B
    Q 243. The pivot test is for:
    A. Anterior cruciate ligament
    B. Posterior cruciate ligament
    C. Medial meniscus
    D. Lateral meniscus
    Ans. A
    Q 244. Iliotibial band contracture following polio is likely to result in:
    A. Extension at hip
    B. Extension at knee
    C. Flexion at hip and knee
    D. Extension at hip and knee
    Ans. C
    Q 245. All of the following agents can be given for induction of Anaesthesia in
    children except:
    A. Halothane
    B. Servoflurane
    C. Morphine
    D. Nitrous oxide
    Ans. C
    Q 246. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is:
    A. Methoxyflurane
    B. Isoflurane
    C. Enflurane
    D. None of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general Anaesthesia for
    Surgery . Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
    A. Ether
    B. Halothane
    C. Methoxyflurane
    D. Isoflurane
    Ans. D
    Q 248. All of the following are true except:
    A. Halothane is good as an analgesic agent
    B. Halothane sensitises the heart to action of catacholamines
    C. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preferred as anaesthetics
    D. Halothane may cause liver cell necrosis
    Ans. A
    Q 249. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP= 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy
    cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye . Diagnosis is:
    A. Acute anterior uveitis
    B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
    C. Acute open angle glaucoma
    D. Senile cataract
    Ans. A
    Q 250. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in the evening, with
    nausea and vomiting, IOP is normal. Diagnosis is:
    A. Incipient stage, glaucoma open angle
    B. Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
    C. Migraine
    D. Raised ICT
    Ans. B
    Q 251. Babloo, a 5 years old child, presents with large cornea, lacrimation and
    photophobia. Diagnosis is:
    A. Megalocornea
    B. Congenital glaucoma
    C. Congenital cataract
    D. Anterior uveitis
    Ans. B
    Q 252. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus causes all except:
    A. Nummular keratitis
    B. Vitreal haemorrhage
    C. Uveitis
    D. Cranial nerve palsies
    Ans. B
    Q 253. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
    A. Marfan’s syndrome
    B. Myaesthenia gravis
    C. Myotonic dystrophy
    D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
    Ans. A
    Q 254. eye is deviated laterally and downwards and patient is unable to look up
    or medially. Likely nerve involved is:
    A. Trochlear
    B. Trigeminal
    C. Oculomotor
    D. Abducent
    Ans. C
    Q 255. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
    A. Right frontal lobe
    B. Right occipital lobe
    C. Left occipital lobe
    D. Left frontal lobe
    Ans. A
    Q 256. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in
    one eye . Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:
    A. Central retinal vein occlusion
    B. Central retinal artery occlusion
    C. Amaurosis fugax
    D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
    Ans. B
    Q 257. Which of following, is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus
    A. Microaneurysms
    B. Retinal hemorrhages
    C. Arteriolar dilatation
    D. Neovascularisation
    Ans. C
    Q 258. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause:
    A. Bitemporal hemianopia
    B. Binasal hemianopia
    C. Heteronymous hemianopia
    D. Centrocecal scotoma
    Ans. D
    Q 259. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
    A. Decreased visual acuity
    B. Decreased pupillary reflex
    C. Abnormal electroretinogram
    D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
    Ans. C
    Q 260. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
    A. Syphilis
    B. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
    C. Post papilledema optic neuritis
    D. Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
    Ans. D
    Q 261. A 3 months old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely
    cause is:
    A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
    B. Laryngomalacia
    C. Respiratory obstruction
    D. Foreign body aspiration
    Ans. B
    Q 262. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy following head trauma with
    FRACTURE of the mastoid. Best intervention here is:
    A. Immediate decompression
    B. Wait and watch
    C. Facial sling
    D. Steroids
    Ans. A
    Q 263. A case of Bell’s palsy on steroids shows no improvement after 2 weeks.
    The next step in management should be:
    A. Vasodilators and ACTH
    B. Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
    C. Increase steroid dosage
    D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
    Ans. D
    Q 264. Chandu a 15 years aged boy presents with unilateral nasal blockade, mass
    in the cheek and epistaxis. Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Nasopharyngeal CA
    B. Angiofibroma
    C. Inverted papilloma
    D. None of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 265. A 40 years old diabetic presents with blackish nasal discharge and a mass
    in the nose . Likely diagnosis is:
    A. Mucormycosis
    B. Actinomycosis
    C. Rhinosporiodosis
    D. Histoplasmosis
    Ans. A
    Q 266. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
    A. Supraglortic CA
    B. CA glottis
    C. CA nasopharynx
    D. Subglottic CA
    Ans. C
    OBSTETRICS & Gynaecology
    Q 267. Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is associated with:
    A. Ovarian agenesis
    B. Absent fallopian tube
    C. Vaginal atresia
    D. Bicornuate uterus
    Ans. C
    Q 268. A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The
    likely diagnosis is:
    A. Turner syndrome
    B. Klinefelter syndrome
    C. Edward syndrome
    D. Down syndrome
    Ans. B
    Q 269. A girl presents with primary amenorrhea, grade V thelarche, grade II
    pubarche, no axillary hair. The likely diagnosis is:
    A. Testicular feminization
    B. Mullerian agenesis
    C. Turner syndrome
    D. Gonadal dysgenesis
    Ans. A
    Q 270. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the
    right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:
    A. USG abdomen
    B. Laparoscopy
    C. CT scan
    D. Shielded X-ray
    Ans. A
    Q 271. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal
    pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
    A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
    B. Ruptured ecotopic pregnancy
    C. Threatened abortion
    D. Septic abortion
    Ans. B
    Q 272. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG
    shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
    A. Ovarian cyst
    B. Ectopic pregnancy
    C. Complete abortion
    D. None of the above
    Ans. B
    Q 273. A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden
    severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely
    diagnosis is:
    A. Torsion of subserous fibroid
    B. Torsion of ovarian cyst
    C. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
    D. Rupture of ovarian cyst
    Ans. B
    Q 274. Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea,
    presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration
    yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:
    A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
    B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
    C. Red degeneration of fibroid
    D. Pelvic abscess
    Ans. B
    Q 275. A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per
    speculum examination. Next step should be:
    A. Colposcopic biopsy
    B. Conization
    C. Pap smear
    D. Culdoscopy
    Ans. A
    Q 276. A 50 years old woman presents with post coital bleeding. A visible growth
    on cervix is detected on per speculum examination. Next investigation is:
    A. Punch biopsy
    B. Colposcopic biopsy
    C. Pap smear
    D. Cone biopsy
    Ans. A
    Q 277. Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical
    curretage. Next step in management will be:
    A. Colposcopy
    B. Vaginal hysterectomy
    C. Conization
    D. Wartheim’s hysterectomy
    Ans. D
    Q 278. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having
    hiccups. The likely cause is:
    A. Septicemia
    B. Uremia
    C. Raised ICT
    D. Intestinal obstruction
    Ans. B
    Q 279. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for
    malignant cells. Stage is:
    A. I
    B. II
    C. III
    D. IV
    Ans. B
    Q 280. The true regarding adenomyosis is:
    A. More common in nullipara
    B. Progestins are the agents of choice for medical management
    C. Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea, and an enlarged uterus
    D. More common in young women
    Ans. C
    Q 281. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes.
    Which hormone should be preferred?
    A. MDPA
    B. Desogestrel
    C. Norethisterone
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 282. A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million sperms/ml, 60 % normal
    morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no agglutination is seen.
    Diagnosis is:
    A. Azoospermia
    B. Aspermia
    C. Oligospermia
    D. Normospermia
    Ans. C
    Q 283. Primary peritonitis is more common in females because:
    A. Ostia of fallopian tubes communicate with abdominal cavity
    B. Peritoneum overlies the uterus
    C. Rupture of functional ovarian cysts
    D. None of the above.
    Ans. A
    Q 284. False statement regarding HCG is:
    A. It is secreted by cytotrophoblasts
    B. It acts on same receptor as LH does
    C. It has luteotrophic action
    D. It is a glycoprotein
    Ans. A
    Q 285. All of the following are false except:
    A. Oxytocin sensitivity increased during delivery
    B. Prostaglandins should be given during 2nd trimester
    C. Ergot derivatives relax lower segment of uterus
    D. Oxytocin is best for induction of labour in IUD
    Ans. A
    Q 286. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:
    A. Hydatidiform mole
    B. Ectopic pregnancy
    C. Anencephaly
    D. None of the above
    Ans. A
    Q 287. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH
    patient except:
    A. 37 weeks
    B. IUD
    C. Transverse lie
    D. Continous bleeding
    Ans. C
    Q 288. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina.
    Invetigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
    A. Immediate CS
    B. Blood transfusion
    C. Conservative
    D. Medical induction of labour
    Ans. A
    Q 289. A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management
    A. Myomectomy
    B. Conservative
    C. Hysterectomy
    D. Termination of pregnancy
    Ans. B
    Q 290. An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman. Management is:
    A. Immediate removal by laprotomy
    B. Wait and watch
    C. Removal by laparotomy in second trimester
    D. Remove at time of caesarean section
    Ans. C
    Q 291. Most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify risk of
    fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:
    A. Glycosylated Hb
    B. Ultrasound
    C. MS-AFP
    D. Amniocentesis
    Ans. A
    Q 292. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin.
    All of the followings are true regarding this, except:
    A. Oral hypoglycaemics cause PIH
    B. Insulin does not cross placenta
    C. Oral hypoglycaemics cross placenta and deplete fetal insulin
    D. During pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be met with
    Ans. A
    Q 293. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:
    A. Robert’s pelvis
    B. Naegele’s pelvis
    C. Rachitic pelvis
    D. Osteomalacia pelvis
    Ans. B
    Q 294. Consequence of maternal use of cocaine is:
    A. Hydrops fetalis
    B. Sacral agenesis
    C. Cerebral infarction
    D. Hypertrichosis
    Ans. C
    Q 295. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/amniocentesis is not likely to detect:
    A. Tay Sachs’ disease
    B. Hemophilia A
    C. Sickle cell disease
    D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    Ans. A
    Q 296. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third
    one is:
    A. 0%
    B. 10%
    C. 25%
    D. 50%
    Ans. B
    Q 297. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal
    shift and multiple cystic airfilled lesions in the chest. Most likely

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