MODEL QS FOR FUTURE ALL INDIA PRE PG EXAM

Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by Guest, Jan 25, 2010.

  1. Guest

    Guest Guest

    1. FRUSTRATION IS TOLERATED BY ;;
    1. ID.
    2EGO.
    3SUPER EGO.
    4UNCONSCIOUS MIND

    arthritis is not a part of ;;
    1lupus.
    2psoriasids.
    3wegeners granulamatosis.
    4reiters syndrome;;

    NOT an alkylating agent amongst the following;;
    1.iphosphamide.
    2chlorambucil.
    3palcitaxel.
    4nitrosoureas

    the conc of which of the following increases with age;;
    1keratin sulphate.
    2chondroitin 4 sulphate.
    3chondroitin 6 sulphate.
    4chondroitin 8 sulphate;;pl anser;;see net if not given in maheswari / ennezar.

    which among the following fiits more correctltly as a mood stabiliser in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION;;
    1. VALPROATE.
    2LAMOTRIGINE.
    3LITHIUM.
    4CARBAMAZEPINE .

    DERIVATIVES of ventral mesogastrium are all, except ;;
    1falciform ligament.
    2coronary ligament.
    3gastrosplenic ligament.
    4lesser omentum;;

    RET ONCOGENE is associated with all, except ;;
    1papillary carcinoma.
    2medullary carcinoma.
    3hurthle cell carcinoma.
    4insular carcinoma

    amount of carbohydrate in plasma membrane of rbc;;
    1. 5 percent.
    2 8.
    3 15.
    4 20 percent.

    features of pterygium in histology is ;;
    1myxoid degeneration.
    2collagenous degeneration.
    3fatty degeneration.
    4hyaline degeneration
  2. sada.

    sada. Guest

    pterygium...collagenous degeneration..

    Pterygium in the conjunctiva is characterized by elastotic degeneration of collagen (actinic elastosis[2] ) and fibrovascular proliferation. It has an advancing portion called the head of the pterygium, which is connected to the main body of the pterygium by the neck. Sometimes a line of iron deposition can be seen adjacent to the head of the pterygium called Stocker's line.
  3. sada.

    sada. Guest

    ret protooncogene is associated with MEN2A so medullary carcinoma can be ruled out ...after reference i realised its also associated with papillary carcinoma....below is the reference from sabiston... so the ans should be either hurthle or insular both are subtypes of follicular ....


    RET Proto-Oncogene

    The PTC/RET proto-oncogene encodes for a tyrosine kinase receptor on the cell membrane. This proto-oncogene may well be involved in the differentiation of neuronal cells. Cells of neural crest origin appear to have increased expression of this oncogene because it has been found in neuroblastoma, pheochromocytoma, and MCT tissue. Alterations in this system have been shown to result in developmental abnormalities in a number of other neuronal tissues, as well as in patients with Hirschsprung's disease. Expression of the RET oncogene is predominantly found only in malignant tissue. It has not been detected to any substantial degree in nonmalignant thyroid disease processes. Rearrangement of the PTC/RET oncogene has been demonstrated in the development of PTC. It may also be that patients with the oncogene may have a predilection for distant metastasis. In addition, the RET proto-oncogene is associated with a high frequency of missense mutations in patients with MEN 2A. Genetic analysis for this mutation allows a secure diagnosis in children before the clinical appearance of MCT
  4. kalki.

    kalki. Guest

    MUTATION OF TRANSTHYRETIN CAUSES;;
    1.dialysis associated hemodialysis.
    2familial mediterranean fever.
    3familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy.
    4alzheimers disease

    all of the following causes non -scarring alopecia, except ;;
    1.androgenic alopecia.
    2sle.
    3telogen effluvium.
    4dle

    low -dose spiral ct is evolving as a screening tool for ;;

    1.ca lung.
    2ca breast.
    3ca prostate.
    4ca oesophagus

    blaskovics operation is done in ;;
    1.proptosis.
    2 ptosis.
    3lagoopthalmos.
    4 entropion

    in the foot, ZADECKS PROCEDURE IS ;;
    1.a tendon transfer for each deformity.
    a tendon trabsfer plus osteotomy for arcg deformity.
    3a procedure for ingrowing toe nail.
    4an osteotomy for hallux

    mean of two groups with very large number of sample is compared by ;;
    1.chi square test.
    2unpaired t test.
    3paired t teast.
    4.ANOVA

    low csf protein is associated with all, except ;;
    1infant.
    2 recurrent ;umbar puncture.
    3.hypothyroidism.
    4. pseutotumor cerebri

    all are concerned with -THE RULES OF INSANITY, EXCEPT ;;
    1. currens rule.
    2durhams rule.
    3mc naughtens rule.
    4rule of hasse

    regarding, kawasaki disease, all are true , except ;;
    1.cervical lymph node enlargement is the least common amongst diagnostic criteria.
    2conjunctival ingestion is last to disappear among the diagnostic criteria.
    3coronary artery involvement is less common in infants.
    4atypical kawasaki is more prone for cardiac involvement

    the term -tumescent Anaesthesia is ;;
    1.local anesthesia for liposuction.
    2eye block.
    3labour analgesia.
    4spinal Anaesthesia
  5. kalki.

    kalki. Guest

    Answer is 3
    Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy

    Transthyretin is a plasma protein consisting of 127 amino acids that binds retinol and thyroxine. The gene TTR that encodes transthyretin is in chromosome 18.It is produced in the liver and the choroid plexuses

    It is present in CSF (as albumin is absent)

    Many distinct forms of amyloidosis have been related to different point mutations in TTR. Transthyretin is also called prealbumin (because it migrates faster than albumin in an acidic starch gel).

    amyloidosis caused by transthyretin is called ATTR

    TTR binds with beta amyloid protein and prevents its accumulation into plaques. So it actually prevents Alzheimers Disease

    other causes of amyloid -

    1. Over production of Ig light chains (multiple myeloma) - AL
    2. Continuous over production of acute phase reactants - AA

    FAP is also called as Corino de Andrade's disease.
    NEURO DEGENERATIVE AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT DISEASE

    characterised by pain, paresthesia, muscle weakness and autonomic dysfunction. its an incurable disease. treatment is liver transplantation

    Familial mediterranean fever is also called Armenian disease and is charactersed by increased AA amyloid.

    what is dialysis associated hemodialysis ?
    And somebody answer the carbohydrate content in plasma membrane of CSF.
  6. aamir.

    aamir. Guest

    Gene Tumor
    Oncogenes
    RET Sporadic and familial MTC, PTC (RET/PTC rearrangements)
    MET Overexpressed in PTC
    TRK1 Activated in some PTC
    TSH-R Hyperfunctioning adenoma
    Gs (gsp)
    Hyperfunctioning adenoma, follicular adenoma
    ras Follicular adenoma and carcinoma, PTC
    PAX8/PPAR 1 Follicular adenoma, follicular carcinoma
    Tumor suppressors
    p53 Dedifferentiated PTC, FTC, anaplastic cancers
    p16 Thyroid cancer cell lines
    PTEN Follicular adenoma and carcinoma
    CTNNB1 anaplastic carcinoma

    above are a few genes and thyroid cancers association...
    between hurthle and insular; if anyone knows the correct ans with reference do contribute but spending too much time is not advisable..i could not get the ans in sabiston schwartz or robbins...above genes go through to answer any q from the topic ..harrison table 335-12 thyroid chap also gives genes n thyroid cancer association can refer
  7. sada.

    sada. Guest

    skeletal metastases are rare in ;;
    1.epithelial ovarian cancers and sarcomas.
    2malanomas and rcc.
    3lung cancers and breast cancer.
    4gi cancers and urothelial tumors

    FACTIOUS DISORDER INCLUDES ;;
    1.munchausens syndrome.
    2bulimia nervosa.
    3anorexia nervosa.
    4conversion reaction

    bitter taste is mediated by action of ;;
    1.guanylcyclase.
    2g protein.
    3tyrosine kinase.
    4epithelial sodium ion channels

    which is least sensitive ton radiotherapy;;
    1. ewigs sarcoma.
    2osteosarcoma.
    3chondrosarcoma.
    4fibrosarcoma

    mitten hand is seen in ;;
    1. epidemolysis [bleep] simplex.
    2epidemolysis [bleep] junctional.
    3epidermolysis [bleep] dystrophica.
    4con localised absence of skin

    COX2 PROMOTES;;
    1. CELL ADHESION.
    2CELL PROLIFERATION.
    3CELL DIFFERENTIATION.
    4CELL MIGRATION

    ON BARIUM SWALLOW, POSTERIOR INDENTATION IS SEEN due to ;;
    1.left atrium.
    2.aortic knuckle.
    3aberrant rt subclavian.
    4sling of pul artery

    the bone thjat is an exception to the law of ossification is ;;
    1. femur.
    2tibia.
    3ulna.
    4 fibia

    operant conditioning procedures for increasing a behaviour are all, except ;;
    1. neg reinforcement.
    2modelling.
    3timeout.
    4positive reinforcement

    diphtheria like colitis in ascending and transverse colon is caused by ;;
    1lead.
    2arsenic.
    3mercyry.
    4copper

    cochlear implants are placed at ;;
    1. lateral semicircular canal.
    2round window.
    3. oval window.
    4cochlear aqueduct

    which malignancy occurs more commonly in females;;
    1. supraglottic.
    2postcricoid.
    3subglottic.
    4nasopharyngeal
  8. kalki.

    kalki. Guest

    Regarding "factious" disorders.

    it should be FACTITIOUS instead of factious
    Answer is 1. MUNCHAUSEN SYNDROME

    Anorexia and bulima are definetely not factitious

    Conversion disorder is a somatiform disorder (Briquet syndrome)

    other somatiform disorders are -

    Somatization disorder
    Hypochondriasis
    Body dysmorphic disorder
    Pain disorder


    Ganser syndrome is another fictitious disorder (rare)
  9. kalki.

    kalki. Guest

    Regardint bitter taste -

    Bitter taste is mediated by g protein receptor.

    Salty taste with sodium ions

    sourness is by acids

    sweet is also detected by G protein coupled receptors apart from bitter taste

    GPCR - cAMP pathway and Phosphatidyl inositol pathways

    I will try to prepare a comprehensive list of all the sites in our body where GPCR are present.

    Some pharmacologist from India did some work on GPCR (based in Delhi) , he missed out being nominated for nobel prize. I'm not able to recollect his name. Can anyone help. I'm trying, but I'm not able to recollect.
  10. jaya.

    jaya. Guest

    skeletal metastases;;neelkanti and gsr ;;both gave rt anser;;option 1-epithelial ovarian cancers and sarcomas.
    2.cox 2 -promotes both cell migration and differentiation . no correct single can be given;
    cox 2 inhibits -cell proliferation., pl see the net.
    3.reg factitious disorders - asnser is def option 1/
    4bitter taste is mediated by g protein receptor. correct anser ;;docto neelakanti.
    5. which is least sensditive to rad;;key says ;;fibrisarcoma is the anser.
    6. mitten hand -epidermolysis [bleep] dystrophica-option 3 is correct/.
    7on barium swallow -posterior indentation ;;key says - aberrant rt subclavian artery;;this q was asked in aiims nov 09.
    8dophtheric like colitis;;mercury is the anser;;pl see reddy.
    8operant conditioning - modelling is the anser.\
    10;;cochlear implants;;anser is near the round window;;ideally placed in scala tympani;;
    11;;malignancy - females ;;post cricoid is correct;;well done ;;both of you;;. 12 shwartz sign0otospongiosis.
  11. sahit.

    sahit. Guest

    Operant conditioning is the use of consequences to modify the occurrence and form of behavior. Operant conditioning is distinguished from classical conditioning (also called respondent conditioning, or Pavlovian conditioning) in that operant conditioning deals with the modification of "voluntary behavior" or operant behavior. Operant behavior "operates" on the environment and is maintained by its consequences, while classical conditioning deals with the conditioning of respondent behaviors which are elicited by antecedent conditions. Behaviors conditioned via a classical conditioning procedure are not maintained by consequences.[1] The main dependent variable is the rate of response that is developed over a period of time. New operant responses can be further developed and shaped by reinforcing close approximations of the desired response.


    It's important to note that organisms are not spoken of as being reinforced, punished, or extinguished; it is the response that is reinforced, punished, or extinguished. Additionally, reinforcement, punishment, and extinction are not terms whose use is restricted to the laboratory. Naturally occurring consequences can also be said to reinforce, punish, or extinguish behavior and are not always delivered by people.

    * Reinforcement is a consequence that causes a behavior to occur with greater frequency.
    * Punishment is a consequence that causes a behavior to occur with less frequency.
    * Extinction is the lack of any consequence following a behavior. When a behavior is inconsequential, producing neither favorable nor unfavorable consequences, it will occur with less frequency. When a previously reinforced behavior is no longer reinforced with either positive or negative reinforcement, it leads to a decline in the response.

    Four contexts of operant conditioning: Here the terms "positive" and "negative" are not used in their popular sense, but rather: "positive" refers to addition, and "negative" refers to subtraction.

    What is added or subtracted may be either reinforcement or punishment. Hence positive punishment is sometimes a confusing term, as it denotes the addition of a stimulus or increase in the intensity of a stimulus that is aversive (such as spanking or an electric shock) The four procedures are:

    1. Positive reinforcement(Reinforcement) occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by a favorable stimulus (commonly seen as pleasant) that increases the frequency of that behavior. In the Skinner box experiment, a stimulus such as food or sugar solution can be delivered when the rat engages in a target behavior, such as pressing a lever.
    2. Negative reinforcement(Escape) occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of an aversive stimulus (commonly seen as unpleasant) thereby increasing that behavior's frequency. In the Skinner box experiment, negative reinforcement can be a loud noise continuously sounding inside the rat's cage until it engages in the target behavior, such as pressing a lever, upon which the loud noise is removed.
    3. Positive punishment(Punishment) (also called "Punishment by contingent stimulation") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by an aversive stimulus, such as introducing a shock or loud noise, resulting in a decrease in that behavior.
    4. Negative punishment(Penalty) (also called "Punishment by contingent withdrawal") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of a favorable stimulus, such as taking away a child's toy following an undesired behavior, resulting in a decrease in that behavior.

    Also:

    * Avoidance learning is a type of learning in which a certain behavior results in the cessation of an aversive stimulus. For example, performing the behavior of shielding one's eyes when in the sunlight (or going indoors) will help avoid the aversive stimulation of having light in one's eyes.
    * Extinction occurs when a behavior (response) that had previously been reinforced is no longer effective. In the Skinner box experiment, this is the rat pushing the lever and being rewarded with a food pellet several times, and then pushing the lever again and never receiving a food pellet again. Eventually the rat would cease pushing the lever.
    * Noncontingent reinforcement refers to delivery of reinforcing stimuli regardless of the organism's (aberrant) behavior. The idea is that the target behavior decreases because it is no longer necessary to receive the reinforcement. This typically entails time-based delivery of stimuli identified as maintaining aberrant behavior, which serves to decrease the rate of the target behavior. As no measured behavior is identified as being strengthened, there is controversy surrounding the use of the term noncontingent "reinforcement"
  12. sada.

    sada. Guest

    periosteum is attached to bone by ;;
    1.perripheral lamellae.
    2sharpes fibres.
    3elastic fibres.
    4purkinje fibres;;pl anser;

    ans 2. sharpeys fibres
    Periosteum is a membrane that lines the outer surface of all bones, except at the joints of long bones. Endosteum lines the inner surface of all bones.

    Periosteum consists of dense irregular connective tissue. Periosteum is divided into an outer "fibrous layer" and inner "cambium layer" (or "osteogenic layer"). The fibrous layer contains fibroblasts, while the cambium layer contains progenitor cells that develop into osteoblasts. These osteoblasts are responsible for increasing the width of a long boneand the overall size of the other bone types. After a bone fracture the progenitor cells develop into osteoblasts and chondroblasts, which are essential to the healing process.

    As opposed to osseous tissue, periosteum has nociceptors nerve endings, making it very sensitive to manipulation. It also provides nourishment by providing the blood supply. Periosteum is attached to bone by strong collagenous fibers called Sharpey's fibres, which extend to the outer circumferential and interstitial lamellae. It also provides an attachment for muscles and tendons.
  13. vibha.

    vibha. Guest

    Feature Partial Mole Complete Mole
    Karyotype Usually 69,XXX or 69,XXY 46,XX or 46,XY
    Pathology
    Embryo-fetus Often present Absent
    Amnion, fetal red blood cells Often present Absent
    Villous edema Variable, focal Diffuse
    Trophoblastic Variable, focal, slight to moderate variable slight/severe
    Clinical presentation
    Diagnosis Missed abortion Molar gestation
    Uterine size Small for dates 50% large for dates
    Theca-lutein cysts Rare 25–30%
    Medical complications Rare Frequent
    Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia <5–10% 20%


    ""Generally, gestational trophoblastic neoplasia follows 20 percent of complete moles, whereas it develops in only 0.5 percent of women after a partial mole "" sentence from williams

    role of usg in partial i could not get any information....but from the table ( williams text) for sure partial mole presents as triploid,missed abortion and gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is rare when compared to complete mole....
  14. aamir.

    aamir. Guest

    Q36. ekboms syndrome;;or delusional parasitosis;;
    is caused by ;;
    1.cocaine;;
    2amphetamine;;
    3cannabis;;
    4opiods .

    37. GOLDTHWAITES SIGN -is a clinical sign used for the presence of active inf in -
    1.strnoclavicular joint;;
    2knee joint;;
    3sacroiliac joint;;
    4acromioclavicular joint;;

    38. the femoral ring is bouded by all of the following structures, except ;;
    1.sup ramus of pubis;;
    2lacunar ligament;;
    3 inguinal ligament ;;
    4 femoral artery

    39. NOT A PREMALIGNANT LESION OF THE OESOPHAGUS;;
    1. MEDIASTINAL FIBROSIS;;
    2 CAUSTIC BURN;;
    3 HUMAN PAPILLOMA VIRUS;;
    4DIVERTICULA OF OESOPHAGUS

    40. in catatonic schizophrenia, the following is primarily effected;;
    1behaviour;;
    2 suspiciousness;;
    3 mood ;;
    4 thought

    41. SENTINEL NODE BIOSY MOST USEFUL FOR ;;
    1. ca endometruium.
    2 ca cervix..
    3 ca vagina;;
    4 ca vulva

    42. SIN OF GOMORRAH IS ;;
    1. anal intercourse.
    2buccal coitus;;
    3incest;;
    4lesbianism

    43. peyers patches are present in ;;
    1mucosa;;
    2lamina propriya.
    3submucosa;;
    4 serosa

    44. hunners ulceris seen in ;;
    1. ureter.
    2bladder.
    3urethra;;
    4kidney

    45. addis test is used for ;;
    1urinary sodium.
    2urinary sediment;;
    3blood lactate;;
    4serum magnesium

    46. ACALCULOUS cholecystitis is usually seen following all, except ;;
    1nephrectomy;;
    2burns;;
    3lomg term ptn;;
    4abdominal aortic aneurysm repair

    47. 100 day glaucoma is seen in ;;
    1. central retinal artery occlusion;;
    2central retinal vein occlusion.
    3neovascular glaucoma;;
    4steroid induced glaucoma

    48. pseudoexotropia;; is a feature of ;;
    1.high hypermetropia;;
    2.high myopia;;
    3epicanthus;;
    4high astigmatism
  15. adesh.

    adesh. Guest

    Restless legs syndrome (RLS), also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom's syndrome, and colloquially as "the jimmylegs" is a condition that is characterized by an irresistible urge to move one's body to stop uncomfortable or odd sensations. It most commonly affects the legs, but can also affect the arms or torso and even phantom limbs. Moving the affected body part modulates the sensations, providing temporary relief.RLS causes a sensation in the legs or arms that can most closely be compared to a burning, itching, or tickling sensation in the muscles. Some controversy surrounds the marketing of drug treatments for RLS. It is a 'spectrum' disease with some people experiencing only a minor annoyance and others experiencing major issues””
    """Delusional parasitosis (also known as Delusions of parasitosis:60) is a form of psychosis whose victims acquire a strong delusional belief that they are infested with parasites, whereas in reality no such parasites are present. Very often the imaginary parasites are reported as being "bugs" crawling on or under the skin; in these cases the experience of the sensation known as formication may provide the basis for this belief.
    Delusional parasitosis is also sometimes referred to as Ekbom's syndrome, named after a Swedish neurologist, Karl Axel Ekbom, who published seminal accounts of the disease in 1937 and 1938. But this can be confusing because others use the term Ekbom's syndrome interchangeably with Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, another name for restless legs syndrome (RLS). Although delusional parasitosis and RLS were both researched by Ekbom, and RLS sufferers sometimes describe some of their symptoms as if they have, for example, "ants in my veins" the similarities stop there. RLS is a physical condition with physical causes, whereas delusional parasitosis is a false belief.

    delusional parasitosis is divided into primary, secondary functional and secondary organic groups.

    Primary
    In primary delusional parasitosis, the delusions comprise the entire disease entity, there is no additional deterioration of basic mental functioning or idiosyncratic thought processes. The parasitic delusions consist of a single delusional belief regarding some aspect of health. This is also referred to as "monosymptomatic hypochondriacal psychosis":389, and sometimes as "true" delusional parasitosis. In DSM-IV, this corresponds with "delusional disorder, somatic type".

    Secondary functional
    Secondary functional delusional parasitosis occurs when the delusions are associated with a psychiatric condition such as schizophrenia or clinical depression.

    Secondary organic
    Secondary organic delusional parasitosis occurs when the state of the patient is caused by a medical illness or substance (medical or recreational) use. In the DSM-IV this corresponds with "psychotic disorder due to general medical condition." Physical illnesses that can underlie secondary organic delusional parasitosis include: hypothyroidism, cancer, cerebrovascular disease, tuberculosis, neurological disorders, vitamin B12 deficiency, and diabetes mellitus. Any illness or medication for which formication is a symptom or side effect can become a trigger or underlying cause of delusional parasitosis.
    Other physiological factors which can contribute to the condition include: menopause (i.e. hormone withdrawal); allergies; drug abuse, including but not limited to cocaine and methamphetamine (as in amphetamine psychosis); certain medical conditions; and poor nutrition. It appears that many of these physiological factors, as well as environmental factors such as airborne irritants, are capable of inducing a "crawling" sensation in otherwise healthy individuals, however some people become fixated on the sensation and its possible meaning, and this fixation may then develop into delusional parasitosis.”””

    “”Formication is the medical term for a sensation that resembles that of insects crawling on (or under) the skin. It is one specific form of a set of sensations known as paresthesia, which also include the more common prickling, tingling sensation of "pins and needles". Formication is a well-documented symptom that has numerous possible causes.
    The experience of formication may sometimes cause feelings of itchiness, tingling, pins and needles, burning, or even pain. When it is perceived as itchiness, it may trigger the scratch reflex and because of this, some people who are suffering from the sensation are at risk of causing skin damage through excessive scratching. More rarely, susceptible individuals who fixate on the sensation may develop delusional parasitosis, becoming convinced that this sensation is being caused by actual insects, despite repeated reassurances from physicians, pest control experts, and entomologists.
    The term is derived from formica, the Latin word for ant.
    Causes
    Causes of formication include normal states such as onset of menopause (i.e. hormone withdrawal). Other causes are medical conditions such as diabetic neuropathy, skin cancer, syphilis, or herpes zoster.
    Formication can also sometimes be experienced during high fevers. Itching, tingling and formication ("the creeps") often occur when surfacing from a dive or during ascent to altitude (decompression sickness).””

    So this is wat i concluded by ekboms syndrome is also called restless leg syndrome(RLS)..delusional parasitosis and RLS are similar but in rls pts wil have physical symtoms als....
    ''Any illness or medication for which formication is a symptom or side effect can become a trigger or underlying cause of delusional parasitosis.
    Other physiological factors which can contribute to the condition include: menopause (i.e. hormone withdrawal); allergies; drug abuse, including but not limited to cocaine and methamphetamine (as in amphetamine psychosis); certain medical conditions; and poor nutrition'' this means both cocaine and amphetamine can present with delusional parasitosis
  16. adesh.

    adesh. Guest

    Acute Acalculous Cholecystitis

    Acute inflammation of the gallbladder can occur without gallstones. Acute acalculous cholecystitis accounts for 5% to 10% of all patients with acute cholecystitis and is the diagnosis in about 1% to 2% of patients undergoing cholecystectomy. It has a more fulminant course than acute calculous cholecystitis and more commonly progresses to gangrene, empyema, or perforation. Acute acalculous cholecystitis occurs most frequently in elderly and critically ill patients after trauma, burns, long-term parenteral nutrition, and major operations such as abdominal aneurysm repair and cardiopulmonary bypass. Although the exact etiology is unclear, gallbladder stasis and ischemia have been implicated as causative factors. Stasis is common in critically ill patients not being fed enterally and may lead to colonization of the gallbladder with bacteria. Visceral ischemia is also common in patients with acute acalculous cholecystitis and may explain the high incidence of gallbladder gangrene.

    The signs and symptoms of acute acalculous cholecystitis parallel acute calculous cholecystitis. Patients may also present with only unexplained fever, leukocytosis, and hyperamylasemia without right upper quadrant tenderness. If untreated, rapid progression to gangrene and perforation may occur. Radiologic findings are also similar except for the absence of gallstones. Ultrasonography is the diagnostic test of choice, especially because it can be done at the bedside. Cholescintigraphy demonstrates absent gallbladder filling, but the false-positive rate may be as high as 40%.

    Emergency cholecystectomy is the appropriate treatment for acute acalculous cholecystitis for patients who are stable enough to tolerate the anesthetic and procedure. Because of the high incidence of gangrene, perforation, and empyema, open cholecystectomy is often the preferred approach. Because most patients are critically ill, the morbidity rate of acute acalculous cholecystitis in recent series is 40%. If patients are unfit for surgery, percutaneous, ultrasound-guided, or CT-guided cholecystostomy is the treatment of choice. If the diagnosis is uncertain, percutaneous cholecystostomy can be both diagnostic and therapeutic. About 90% of patients will improve with percutaneous cholecystostomy
  17. adesh.

    adesh. Guest

    Q49. thickening of the medial third of the clavicle in congenital syphilis is called;;
    1.parrots node.
    2higoumenakis sign.
    3henneberts sign;;
    4wimbergers sign

    50. LANDOLTS BROKEN RING TEST IS USED FOR ;;
    1. knowing the type of squint;;
    2recording the visual acuity;;
    3testing the power of extraocular muscles;;
    4testing the binocular single vision

    Ans. Testing visual acuity.
    Landolt rings are discontinuous circles; the child points to a similar ring on a hand-held card. The test often confuses the younger child and perhaps is more useful for illiterate adults; it does have the advantage of corresponding directly to the Snellen chart.

    51. investigation of choice for small bowel GIST;;
    1CAPSULE ENDOSCOPY;;
    2MULTISLICE CT;;
    3MRI;;
    4ENETROCOLYSIS

    52. lateral funiculus of spinal cord has all, except ;;
    1fasciculus gracilus and cuneatus;;
    2lateral spinothalamic tract;;
    3rubrospinal tract;;
    4vestibulospinal tract

    53. best method to increase , the muscle strength is ;;
    1.isometric exercises;;
    2isotonic exercises;;
    3aerobic isotonic exercises;;
    4electrical stimulation

    54. which fruit juice helps in preventing uti;;
    1. grape;;
    2raspberry;;
    3 craneberry;;
    4orange

    55. HAM TEST IS DONE FOR ;;
    1. GPI ANCHOR PROTEIN;;
    2COMPLEMENT DEFECT;;
    3SPECTRIN DEFECT;;
    4MANNOSE BINDING PROTEIN

    56. COUVELAIRE UTERUS IS SEEN IN ;;
    1. septic abortion;;
    2missed abortion;;
    3placenta previa;;
    4abruptio placenta
  18. adesh.

    adesh. Guest

    Q 51: GIST investigation is by CT.
    Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are the most common mesenchymal tumors of the GI tact and arise from the pacemaker cell (interstitial cell of Cajal) in the smooth muscle. They are distinctly different from smooth muscle tumors (leiomyoma and leiomyosarcoma), as evidenced by their positive immunohistochemical staining to KIT, a tyrosine kinase growth factor. The stomach is the most common organ involved, but they can arise anywhere in the GI tract, even primarily in the mesentery or omentum. They are considered intramural in origin yet appear as a large exophytic mass. They have a predilection for ulceration, and thus usually present at an earlier stage with bleeding. The majority are benign, with the few malignant ones having a high mitotic index, central necrosis, larger mass, local invasion, or metastases. Radiographically, it is impossible to differential benign from malignant tumor, but larger lesions have a greater risk of malignancy. Upper GI studies detect filling defects or ulceration. Most intraluminal GISTs present at around 6 cm in diameter while extraluminal ones often grow to 12 cm or more before discovery. CT usually discovers these small, round, or larger lobulated masses. They heterogeneously enhance with intravenous contrast and occasionally calcify.
    Ref:Grainger & Allison's Diagnostic Radiology, 5th ed

    Q 53: Fibrillation.
    The Pathology of OA provides evidence of the panarticular involvement of disease. Cartilage initially shows surface fibrillation and irregularity. As disease progresses, focal erosions develop there, and these eventually extend down to the subjacent bone. With further progression, cartilage erosion down to bone expands to involve a larger proportion of the joint surface, even though OA remains a focal disease with nonuniform loss of cartilage.
    Ref: Harrison's 17th.

    Q 54: Craneberry juice.
    Patients with postvoidal residual urine volumes are predisposed to infections. Prevention by urine acidification with craneberry juice or vitamin C inhibits some bacteria.
    Ref: Harrison's 16th.

    Q 55: Ham test: Complement-Based Assays.The Ham test and the sucrose hemolysis test (sugar water test) were two of the first assays used to diagnosis PNH. Both assays are performed on erythrocytes and discriminate PNH cells from normal cells based on a differential sensitivity to the hemolytic action of complement. In the Ham test, complement is activated by acidification of the serum. This results in lysis of PNH erythrocytes but not normal erythrocytes. The Ham test is relatively specific for PNH, but is not very sensitive.

    Complement is also activated in a low ionic strength sucrose-containing medium. Preferential lysis of PNH erythrocytes through the activation of complement in this sucrose-containing medium forms the basis for the sugar water test.This assay is easier to perform and is more sensitive than the Ham test but not as specific; other hemolytic anemias and even leukemias can produce false positive results. The complement lysis assay in which complement is activated with antibody will also detect PNH erythrocytes.These complement-based red cell assays are important from a historical perspective, but should no longer be used to establish the diagnosis of PNH.
    Ref:Hoffman: Hematology: Basic Principles and Practice, 5th ed

    Q 56: Couvelaire Uterus: placental abruption
    It is a widespread extravasation of blood into the uterine musculature and beneath the uterine serosa.First described by Couvelaire in the early 1900s as uteroplacental apoplexy, it is now termed Couvelaire uterus. Such effusions of blood are also occasionally seen beneath the tubal serosa, between the leaves of the broad ligaments, in the substance of the ovaries, and free in the peritoneal cavity. Its precise incidence is unknown because it can be demonstrated conclusively only at laparotomy. These myometrial hemorrhages seldom interfere with myometrial contraction to cause atony, and they are not an indication for hysterectomy.
    Ref:Williams Obstetrics, 23 rd Ed
  19. danny.

    danny. Guest

    Q57. which amomg the following drug causes, epilation;;
    1. adriamycin;;
    2methotrexate.
    3cisplatin;;
    4sfu

    58. which behaviour technique is commonly used in chronic schizophrenic patients;;
    1.hypnosis;;
    2token economy;;
    3response prevention;;
    4 aversion

    59. SECTION 376-D DEALS WITH ;;
    1.CHILD RAPE;;
    2CUSTODIAL RAPE;;
    3MARITAL RAPE;;
    4PUNISHMENT FOR RAPE

    60. ALLOF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE PRESENT IN THE FREE MARGIN OF LESSER OMENTUM, EXCEPT ;;
    1. inf vena cava;;
    2common bile duct;;
    3hepatic artery;;
    4portal vein

    61. development of recombinant DNA methodology is based on discovery of ;;
    1the polymerase chain reaction.
    2restiction endonucleases;;
    3plasmids;;
    4complementary dna

    Ans: 2.restriction endonucleases.
    Recombinant DNA technology was made possible by the discovery, isolation and application of restriction endonucleases by Werner Arber, Daniel Nathans, and Hamilton Smith, for which they received the 1978 Nobel Prize in Medicine.

    62. all of the following are common precipitants of epilepsy, excepyt ;;
    1hyperventilation.
    2flickering light;;
    3overhydration.
    4acidosis

    Ans: 3.overhydration.
    From a physiologic standpoint, hyperventilation is beneficial in patients who are hypoxemic, because the alveolar hypocapnia is associated with an increase in alveolar and arterial PO2. Conversely, hyperventilation can also be detrimental. In particular, the alkalemia associated with hypocapnia may produce neurologic symptoms, including dizziness, visual impairment, syncope, and seizure activity (secondary to cerebral vasoconstriction); paresthesia, carpopedal spasm, and tetany (secondary to decreased free serum calcium); and muscle weakness (secondary to hypophosphatemia).

    Reflex epilepsies: seizures can be evoked in certain individuals by a discrete physiologic or psychologic stimulus. The term reflex epilepsy is reserved for this small subgroup. Forster classified these seizures in accordance with their evocative stimuli into five types: (
    1) visual—flickering light, visual patterns, and specific colors (especially red), leading to rapid blinking or eye closure;
    (2) auditory—sudden unexpected noise (startle), specific sounds, musical themes, and voices;
    (3) somatosensory—either a brisk unexpected tap or sudden movement after sitting or lying still, or a prolonged tactile or thermal stimulus to a certain part of the body;
    (4) writing or reading of words or numbers; and
    (5) eating.
    Severe seizures may be accompanied by a systemic lactic acidosis with a fall in arterial pH, reduction in arterial oxygen saturation, and rise in PCO2. These effects are secondary to the respiratory arrest and excessive muscular activity.
    Ref: harrison's 17, Adams & Victor’s Principles of Neurology, 9th Ed

    63. not seen in neuroblastoma;;
    1diarrhoea.
    2orbital prolapse;;
    3splenomgaly;;
    4bone involvement

    Ans: 3.splenomegaly.
    Neuroblastoma (NB) is an embryonal cancer of the peripheral sympathetic nervous system.
    NB is the third most common pediatric cancer, accounting for about 8% of childhood malignancies.
    NB may develop at any site of sympathetic nervous system tissue. The signs and symptoms of NB reflect the tumor site and extent of disease. Most cases of NB arise in the abdomen, either in the adrenal gland or in retroperitoneal sympathetic ganglia. Usually a firm, nodular mass that is palpable in the flank or midline is causing abdominal discomfort. On plain radiography or CT the mass often contains calcification and hemorrhage.
    NB originates from cervical, thoracic, or pelvic ganglia in 30% of cases. Metastatic disease can be associated with myriad signs and symptoms, including fever, irritability, failure to thrive, bone pain, bluish subcutaneous nodules, orbital proptosis, and periorbital ecchymoses . The most common sites of metastasis are the long bones and skull, bone marrow, liver, lymph nodes, and skin. Lung metastases are rare, occurring in <3% of cases.
    Less commonly, children present first with neurologic signs and symptoms. Location in the superior cervical ganglion can result in Horner syndrome. Paraspinal NB can invade the neural foramina, producing symptoms of spinal cord and nerve root compression. NB can present as a paraneoplastic syndrome of autoimmune origin manifesting as ataxia or opsomyoclonus (“dancing eyes and dancing feetâ€). In such cases, the primary tumor is in the chest or abdomen, and the brain is negative for tumor. Some tumors produce catecholamines that can cause increased sweating and hypertension, and some release vasoactive intestinal peptide, causing a secretory diarrhea. Children <1 yr of age also can present with a unique stage, 4S, which often includes subcutaneous tumor nodules, massive liver involvement, and a small primary tumor without bone involvement.
    Ref:Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 18th ed

    64. which of the following is the most common comorbidity seen in ADHD;;
    1.personality disorder.
    2.eating disorder.
    3depression;;
    4conduct disorders

    65. wlms tumour is charecterised by chromosomal aberration ;;
    111p;;
    213 p.
    311q.
    413q

    Ans: 1. 11p
    Wilms tumor is the most common primary renal tumor of childhood and the fourth most common pediatric malignancy. The peak incidence for Wilms tumor is between 2 and 5 years of age, and 95% of tumors occur before the age of 10 years.
    Wilms tumor–associated gene, WT1, and a contiguously deleted autosomal dominant gene for aniridia, PAX6, both located on chromosome 11p13.
    Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease 8th

    66. RNA POLYMERASE 2 IS INVOLVED IN THE TRANSCRIPTION OF ;;
    1.hnRNA.
    2tRNA.
    345 Sr rna;;
    4.5Sr RNA

    67. in the three glass test , haze in the second glass indicates;;
    1.ant urethritis;;
    2post urethritis;;
    3cystitis;;
    4either posturethritis or cystitis

    68. relative color and luminosity of photoreceptive input under changing light conditions are regulated and maintained by ;;
    1muller cells.
    2anacrine cells.
    3ganglion cells.
    4retinal astrocytes

    69. neo-osteoid formation is the charecteristic feature of ;;
    1.teoclastoma;;
    2osteosarcoma;;
    3osteoblastoma;;
    4osteoid osteoma

    Ans. Osteoid osteoma
    Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are terms used to describe benign bone tumors that have identical histologic features but differ in size, sites of origin, and symptoms. Osteoid osteomas are by definition less than 2 cm in greatest dimension and usually occur in the teens and 20s. Seventy-five percent of affected individuals are younger than 25 years old, and men outnumber women 2 : 1. They can arise in any bone but have a predilection for the appendicular skeleton and posterior elements of the spine. In 50% of cases the femur or tibia is involved, wherein they commonly arise in the cortex and less frequently within the medullary cavity. Osteoid osteomas produce severe nocturnal pain that is relieved by aspirin. The pain is probably caused by excess prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) production by the proliferating osteoblasts. Osteoblastoma is larger than 2 cm and involves the spine more frequently; the pain is dull, achy, and unresponsive to salicylates, and the tumor usually does not induce a marked bony reaction.
    Morphology. Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are round-to-oval masses of hemorrhagic gritty tan tissue. They are well circumscribed and composed of randomly interconnecting trabeculae of woven bone that are prominently rimmed by osteoblasts . The stroma surrounding the neoplastic bone consists of loose connective tissue that contains many dilated and congested capillaries. The relatively small size, well-defined margins, and benign cytologic features of the neoplastic osteoblasts help distinguish these tumors from osteosarcoma. Osteoid osteomas, especially those that arise beneath the periosteum, usually elicit a tremendous amount of reactive bone formation that encircles the lesion. The actual tumor, known as the nidus, manifests radiographically as a small round lucency that may be centrally mineralized.
    Ref: Robbins 8th

    70. increse in threshold level with a slowly incresing stimulus;;
    1.adaptation..
    2accommodation;;
    3electroclonus;;
    4,refractoriness

    71. balaclava helmet type of sensory loss over the face is charecteristc of ;;
    1syringomyelia;;
    2multiple sclerosis.
    3tabes dorsalis;;
    4 all of the above

    72. atrophy of mamillary bodies and fornix on mri is suggestive of diagnosis ;;
    1. hypothalamic hamartomas.
    2lehermite-duclos disease.
    3sspe.
    4temporal lobe epilepsy

    73. the system used for classification of diabetic foot is ;;
    1. robsons classification.
    2modified wagners classification.
    3mulliken and glowackis classification.
    4columbias classification
  20. dass.

    dass. Guest

    HAM Test/ Acid Serum Test/ PNH Test/ Paroxysmal Noctural Hemoglobinuria test, Serum lysis.
    Test HAM Test/ Acid Serum Test/ PNH Test/ Paroxysmal Noctural Hemoglobinuria test, Serum lysis.
    Indication HAM test is used to evaluate patients with suspected PNH (Paroxysmal Noctural Hemoglobinuria) or suspected congential dyserythropoietic anemia, especially with hemosiderinuria, Pancytopenia, decreased RBC acetyl cholinesterase, decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, negative direct Coomb’s test, and/or apparent marrow failure.
    Physiology Diagnosis of PNH shows that the suspected patient’s red cells have a high sensitivity to complement mediated hemolysis. Partial hemolysis occurs with hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity disease. PNH is a disease of increased complement sensitivity of red ell membranes, granulocytes and platelet membrane.

    HAM TEST IS BASED ON COMPLEMENT MEDIATED LYSIS PRINCIPLE....
  21. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q74. chordoma can occur in the following sites, except ;;
    1. rib.
    2 clivus.
    3 sacrum.
    4 vertebral body

    Ans.1.rib

    Chordoma is a neoplasm originating from ectopic cellular remnants of the notochord and therefore arises from the midline of the axial skeleton. It accounts for 2–4% of all primary malignant bone tumours. Chordoma is the second commonest primary malignancy of the spine and accounts for over 50% of primary sacral tumours. The neoplasm has a predilection for the sacrococcygeal (50%) and clival (40%) regions, with other areas of the spine rarely involved. More than one vertebral body can be affected in half the cases. Chordomas most commonly present between 50 and 70 years of age. Sex incidence is equal below 40 years, but men are affected twice as often at older ages, particularly in the sacral region.

    The most frequent radiographic appearance of chordoma is that of a destructive lesion of a vertebral body centered in the midline, with a large, associated soft-tissue mass.
    Ref:Grainger & Allison's Diagnostic Radiology, 5th

    Q75. the value of chronaxie is minimum in ..
    1.type a fibres.
    2type c fibres.
    3skeletal muscle fibres.
    4cardiac muscle fibres

    Q76. FULL EXPRESSION OF THE LAC OPERON REQUIRES;;
    1. LACTOSE AND CYCLIC AMP;;
    2ALLOLACTOSE AND CYCLIC AMP;;
    3LACTOSE ALONE;;
    4ALLOLACTOSE ALONE

    Q77. AIR CRESCENT SIGN on chest x-ray can be seen with ;;
    1. aspergilloma;;
    2hydatid cyst.
    3vira;l pneumonia;;
    4;;staphylococcal pneumonia

    Ans. 1.aspergilloma

    The radiological diagnosis of aspergillus depends on recognizing a mass within a cavity and formation of an air crescent.
    Ref:Grainger & Allison's Diagnostic Radiology, 5th

    The air crescent sign is
    an indicator of late angioinvasive pulmonary aspergillosis,
    usually after recovery from neutropenia.
    Ref:Fishman’s Pulmonary Diseases and Disorders, Fourth Edition

    Q78. anal incontinance will result from division of
    1the second sacral nerve roots bilaterally;;
    2the third sacral nerve bilaterally;;
    3the fourth sacral nerve roots bilaterally;;
    4all four sacral nerve roots on one side

    Q79. all the following are the anterior relations of the duodenum, except ;;
    1gallbladder.
    2transverse colon;;
    3sup mesenteric artery.
    4common bile duct

    Q80. following are embryological remnants, except ;;
    1BERGEMEISTERS PAPILLA;;
    2EPICAPSULAR STARS;;
    3MITTENDORFS DOT;;
    4POSTERIOR EMBRYOTOXON

    Q81. EACH human nucleus contains dna of about the following length;;
    1.0.5 metre.
    21 metre.
    31.5 metre.
    42 metre

    Q82. bowens disease is associated with poisoning with ;;
    1mercury.
    2selenium.
    3arsenic.
    4chromium

    Causes of BD include solar damage, arsenic, immunosuppression (including AIDS), viral infection (human papillomavirus or HPV) and chronic skin injury and dermatoses.

    Q83. persistant bucconasal membrane results in ;;
    1.cleft lip.
    2choanal atresia;;
    3cleft palate;;
    4 t-o fistula

    Q84. BISPECTRAL INDEX IS USED TO ;;
    1. measure Fio2.
    2predict difficult intubation;;
    3measure obesity.
    4measure depth of anesthesia

    ANS--4
    The Bispectral Index Scale is a dimensionless scale from 0 (complete cortical electroencephalographic suppression) to 100 (awake). BIS values of 65–85 have been recommended for sedation, whereas values of 40–65 have been recommended for general anesthesia. At BIS values lower than 40, cortical suppression becomes discernible in a raw electroencephalogram as a burst suppression pattern.

    Q85. following hormones are produced by adipose tissue , except ;;
    1. leptin.
    2adiponectin.
    3resistin.
    4motilin

    Q86. the direct measure of the strength of the association between sus cause and effect is ;;
    1 relative risk.
    2attributable risk.
    3odds ratio,
    4population attributable risk

    ans. Odds ratio
    The odds ratio is a measure of effect size, describing the strength of association or non-independence between two binary data values. It is used as a descriptive statistic, and plays an important role in logistic regression. Unlike other measures of association for paired binary data such as the relative risk, the odds ratio treats the two variables being compared symmetrically, and can be estimated using some types of non-random samples.

    Q87. conduct money is the fee offered toa witness by a defence party in all cases , except ;;
    1civil court.
    2criminal court.
    3consumer forum.
    4departmental proceedings

    Q88. the oral cavity tumor with high bilateral spread is ;;
    1.tongue.
    2buccal mucosa.
    3lip.
    4alveolus

    Q89. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SENSATIONS DOES NOT relay through thalamus;;
    1.smell.
    2taste.
    3touch.
    4hearing

    Q90. highest mri signalsare seen with ;;
    1pneumoencephalocele.
    2simple renalcyst.
    3liver cirrhosis.
    4grey matter disease

    Q91. all of the following are components of cognitive behavioural therapy except ;;
    1.exposure and response prevention.
    2punishment;;
    3 interpretation.
    4behavioural modification
  22. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q92. which bone tumor occurs in epiphysis;;
    1 osteoclastoma;;
    2ewings sarcoma;;
    3chondromyxoid fibroma;;
    4osteosarcoma

    Ans. 1.Osteoclastoma

    Q93. tumour with best prognosis is ;;
    1medulloblastoma;;
    2ependymoma;;
    3cerebellar astrocytoma;;
    4glioblastoma multiformae

    Ans.3.cerebellar astrocytoma

    Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma (JPA) is the most common astrocytoma in children, accounting for 20% of all brain tumors.
    Although JPA can occur anywhere in the CNS, the classic site of presentation is the cerebellum. The presence of Rosenthal fibers, which are condensed masses of glial filaments occurring in the compact areas, helps establish the diagnosis.
    JPA has a low metastatic potential and rarely is invasive.

    Q94. ADAMSONS FRINGE REPRESENTS;;
    1. BEGINNING OF KERATINISATION;;
    2BEGINNING OF HAIR ROOT SHEATH;
    3.BEGINNING OF INFUNDIBULUM.
    4BEGINNING OF BULB

    Q95. prognosis in a newborn with congenital diaphragmatic hernia is most closely related to ;;
    1size of hernial defect;;
    2extent of herniation.
    3degree of pulmonary hypoplasia;;
    4associated congenital anomalies

    Ans. 3.degree of pulmonary hypoplasia

    Relative predictors of a poor prognosis include an associated major anomaly, symptoms before 24 hr of age, severe pulmonary hypoplasia, herniation to the contralateral lung.
    Pulmonary problems continue to be a source of morbidity for long-term survivors of CDH.

    Q96. BURCH COLPOSUSPENSION is used for surgical treatment of ;;
    1idiopathic detrusor overactivity associated with incontinence;;
    2genuine stress incontinence;;
    3ant vaginal wall prolapse associated with incontinance;;
    4complete vaginal prolapse asssociated with incontinance

    Ans. 2.Stress Incontinence.
    The Burch colposuspension is the elevation of the anterior vaginal wall and paravesical tissues toward the iliopectineal line of the pelvic sidewall with use of two to four sutures on either side.
    Burch colposuspension is as effective as any other procedure in primary or secondary surgery at curing SUI, with proven long-term success. Thus, it should be regarded as the standard open retropubic procedure for incontinence.

    Q97. which one of the following congenital malformation has the highest incidence in live born infants;;
    1.hypospadias;;
    2cleft lip;;
    3cong heart disease.
    4pelviureteric junction disturbance

    Q98.
  23. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q98. special stain for calcium is ;;
    1.von kossa;;
    2von gieson;;
    3gomori;;
    4masson fontanna

    Q99. most common post fossa tumor in children ;;
    1medulloblastoma;;
    2g. multiforme;;
    3astrocytoma;;
    4. meningioma

    Q100. most common tumor of lacrimal gland is ;;
    1benign pleomorphic adenoma;;
    2mucoepidermoid tumor.
    3benign lymphoepithelial tumor
    4.adenoid cystic carcinoma

    ans.1.benign pleomorphic adenoma

    Q101. MIESCHERS GRANULOMA IS SEEN IN HISTOPATHOLOGY OF ;;
    1.erythema nodosum.
    2erythema induratum.
    3nodular vasculitis;;
    4erythema marginatum

    Ans.1.
    Miescher's radial granuloma. A characteristic marker of erythema nodosum.
    Miescher, in 1947 and 1951, described peculiar radial nodules in erythema nodosum (EN). They consisted of relatively small histiocytes, radially placed around a central cleft. In early lesions, these nodules occurred in association with edema and infiltration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes; later, giant cells originated from the outer borders of the granuloma. Miescher's radial granulomas (MRGs) are mainly located in the interlobular septa and in the deeper layers of the cutis.

    Q102. aconite plant is also known by the following names, except ;;
    1monks hood.
    2wolfs bane.
    3blue rocket.
    4pila kaner

    Ans. 4.

    Aconitum known as aconite, monkshood, wolfsbane, leopard's bane, women's bane, Devil's helmet or blue rocket,is a genus of flowering plant belonging to the buttercup family (Ranunculaceae).

    Q103. neoadjuvant chemotherapy is useful in all of the following, cancers, except ;;
    1breast carcinomas.
    2osteosarcomas.
    3ovarian carcinomas.
    4hepatocellular carcinomas

    Ans.4

    The role of adjuvant chemotherapy for patients after resection or orthotopic liver transplant remains unclear. No clear advantage in disease-free or overall survival has been found for either adjuvant or neoadjuvant approaches, though a meta-analysis of several trials revealed a significant improvement in disease-free and overall survival. Analysis of postoperative adjuvant systemic chemotherapy trials demonstrated no disease-free or overall survival advantage, but single studies of TACE and neoadjuvant 131I-ethiodol have shown enhanced survival after resection.
    Ref: Harrison's 17

    Q104. drug causing pigmantary retinopathy is ;;
    1. haloperidol.
    2pimozide.
    3trifluperazine;;
    4thioridazine

    Ans. 4

    Thioridazine is the only antipsychotic drug that causes retinal deposits, which in advanced cases may resemble retinitis pigmentosa.
    Ref:katzung

    Q105. following are features of paranoid personality disorder, except ;;
    1hypersensitivity.
    2inability to relax.
    3expended affectivity.
    4pervasive suspicious ness

    Ans. 3

    Q106. the tail of pancreas extends into the ;;
    1lesser omentum.
    2lienorenal ligament;;
    3gastrospenic ligament;;
    4greater omentum

    Ans. 2

    tail of the pancreas extends into the splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament toward the hilum of the spleen.

    Q107. where does the transmigration of white blood cells, occur , in response to infectious agents;;
    1arterioles.
    2lymphatic ducts.
    3venules.
    4.inflamed arteries'

    Ans. 3
    The process of leukocyte recruitment is migration of the leukocytes through the endothelium, called transmigration or diapedesis. Transmigration of leukocytes occurs mainly in post-capillary venules. Chemokines act on the adherent leukocytes and stimulate the cells to migrate through interendothelial spaces toward the chemical concentration gradient, that is, toward the site of injury or infection where the chemokines are being produced.

    Q108. which of thefollowing , best describes the mechanism of action of amiodarone ;;
    1blocks potassium channels.
    2shortens qt interval.
    3blocks sodium channels.
    4opens sodium channels

    Ans. 1
    Amiodarone markedly prolongs the action potential duration (and the QT interval on the ECG) by blockade of IKr. During chronic administration, IKs is also blocked. The action potential duration is prolonged uniformly over a wide range of heart rates; that is, the drug does not have reverse use-dependent action. In spite of its present classification as a class 3 agent, amiodarone also significantly blocks inactivated sodium channels.

    Q109. GLUT 5 IS ;;
    1. glucose transporter.
    2fructose transporter.
    3pentose transporter.
    4all of the above

    Ans. 2
    Fructose is absorbed by the brush border transport protein GLUT 5, a facilitated diffusion process that is not Na-dependent and is distinct from SGLT1.

    Q110. the laser procedure , most often used for treating iris neovascularisation is ;;
    1goniophotocoagulation.
    2laser trabeculoplasty.
    3panretinal photocoagulation;
    4laser iridoplasty

    Ans.3.
    Neovascularization of the iris (rubeosis iridis) and anterior chamber angle is most often secondary to widespread retinal ischemia such as occurs in advanced diabetic retinopathy and ischemic central retinal vein occlusion.
    The most effective treatment for retinal and iris neovascularization is panretinal photocoagulation (PRP), which usually consists of treating the entire retina except for the area within the temporal vascular arcades, with burns 200–500 m in diameter separated by 0.5–1 burn diameter. PRP requires a total of at least 2000 and sometimes 6000 or more burns, usually delivered over two or more sessions spaced 1–2 weeks apart. Retrobulbar, peribulbar, or sub-Tenon anesthesia is sometimes required, particularly if areas of the retina need to be treated again because of recalcitrant or recurrent neovascularization.
    Ref: Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology
    17th Ed
  24. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q111. at the onset of exrecise, which of the following normally occurs;;
    1.decreased cerebral blood flow.
    2increased venous constriction;;
    3decreased coronary blood flow.
    4decreased mean systemic filling pressure

    Q112. necrobiosis is seen in all, except ;;
    1granuloma annulare.
    2necrobiosis lipoidica.
    3rheumatoid nodules.
    4sarcoidosis
    Ans. 4

    Q113. which of the folowing is not a recognised cause of tunnel vision;;
    1papilloedema.
    2chorioretinitis;;
    3pituitary microadenoma;;
    4glaucoma

    Q114. in preanaesthetic checkup. the duration of breath holding test -indicating -diminished cardiopulmonary reserve is ;;
    1 35 seconds.
    2 25 sec.
    3 15 sec.
    4 05 sec

    answer is 25 sec ...ref ajay yadav anaesth...preopratine assessment..

    more than 25 sec ..normal
    15 -25 sec ...borderline
    less than 15..significant...

    Q115. excision of fractured segment is practised in all fractures, except ;;
    1patella;;
    2olecranon;;
    3head of radius;;
    4lateral condyle of humerus

    Q116. increased conc of cytosolic calcium promotes;;
    1glycogenesis;;
    2glycogenolysis;;
    3gluconeogenesis;;
    4glycolysis
  25. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q117. if achlorohydria is present , person may escape poisoning due to ;;
    1opium.
    2tobacco;;
    3cocaine;;
    4cyanide

    Q118. which is not a sign of fumgal infection in nail;;
    1onycholysis;;
    2pits;;
    3thickening of nail plate;;
    4subungual hyperkeratosis

    Q119. in brown -sequard syndrome, true is ;;
    1no sensory loss;;
    2ipsilateral corticospinal signs;;
    3flexor plantar reflexes;;
    4contralateral flaccid paralysis

    Q120. foster 0kennedy syndorme, involves, which lobe ;;
    1temporal;;
    2occipital;;
    3frontal;;
    4parietal

    Q121. cone biopsy is indicated in all of the following conditions, except ;;
    1microinvasive carcinoma;;
    2indefinite disgnosis on colposcopy;;
    3cin-111;;
    4cervical metaplasia

    Q122. allof the following are features of HER2NEU positive breast cancer, except ;;
    1poorer prognosis;;
    2transtuzumab is indicated in both adjuvant and palliativesettings;;
    3better response to cmf chemotherapt y than anthracycline ct;;
    4likely to be er/ pr negative

    Q123. a membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is ;;
    1lecithin;;
    2sphingomyelin;;
    3cardiolipin;;
    4ceramide

    Q124. pulse oximetre works on the following principle;;
    1beer - lambarts law;;
    2raman scattering effect;;
    3venturi principle;;
    4mass spectroscopy

    Q125. WORM 0LIKE FILLING DEFECT IS SEEN IN ;;
    1.erosive gastritis;;
    2esophagealvarices;;
    3ca oseophagus;;
    4schatzkis ring

    Q126. primordial germ cells are derived from ;;
    1primitive streak;;
    2germinal epithelium.
    3intermediate intraembronic mesoderm;;
    4wall of yolk sac

    Q127. rhese view is a special x-ray position to visualise ;;
    1sup orbital fissure.
    2lacrimal fossa;;
    3optic foramina;;
    4orbital floor

    Q128. smooth enlargement of optic canal is seen with ;;
    1retinoblastoma;;
    2glioma;;
    3meningioma;;
    4pagets disease

    Q129. which of the following is not seen in chronic regional pain syndrome;;
    1anhydrosis;;
    2pain;;
    3swelling;;
    4osteoporosis

    Q130. inversion injury at the ankle can cause all of the following, except ;;
    1fracture tip of lateral malleolus;;
    2fracture base of the 5 th metatarsal;;
    3sprain of ext digitorum brevis;;
    4fracture of sustentaculum tali

    Q131. the three anastomoses in whipple are all, except ;;
    1gastrojejunostomy;;
    2pancreatico-jejunostomy;;
    3hepaticojejunostomy;;
    4cholecystojejunostomy

    Q132. leucine zipper motif isa mediator for ;;
    1membrane attack complexes;;
    2receptor ligand protein;;
    3binding of regulatory protein to dna;;
    4b-cell epitopes
  26. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q133. hat sign on double conytrast barium enema is see wiyth;;
    1ulcer.
    2polyp;;
    3carcinoma;;
    4diverticulum

    Ans.2.polyp
    A thin layer of contrast medium covering the mucosa forms a meniscus around the base of a polyp. Seen en face this creates a ring shadow with a sharp inner border and an outer margin that fades into normal surface coating, but viewed obliquely, the meniscus around the base and the coating over the surface produce the hat sign.

    Q134. one of the following types of cells, which would have a lot of mitochondria in their apical portions is ;;
    1liver parenchymal ceells.
    2skeletal muscle cells;;
    3ciliated cells;;
    4steroid secreting cells

    Q135. stellate wound is seen in which of the following, [bleep] injury;;
    1two feet distance;;
    2distant shot;;
    3contact wound;;
    4close range

    Q136. substrate level phosphorylation is seen in the conversion of ;;
    1acetoactate to alpha keto glutaratr;;
    2succinyl coa to succinate;;
    3fumarate to malate;;
    4succinate to fumarate

    Q137. treatment of choice of COUVADE SYNDROME;;
    1NEUROLEPTICS;;
    2ANTIDEPRESSANTS;;
    3HYPNOTICS;;
    4PSYCHOTHERAPIES

    HRCT is performed using a conventional CT scanner. However, imaging parameters are chosen so as to maximize spatial resolution:

    UCSF ILD Program Protocol for High-Resolution CT Scanning of the Chest

    A narrow slice width is used (usually 1-2 mm)
    A high spatial resolution image reconstruction algorithm is used
    Field of view is minimized, so as to minimize the size of each pixel
    Other scan factors (e.g. focal spot) may be optimized for resolution at the expense of scan speed
    Depending on the suspected diagnosis, the scan may be performed in both inspiration and expiration. The patient may also lie prone (face down) rather than the more usual supine (face up).

    As HRCT's aim is to assess a generalized lung disease, the test is conventionally performed by taking thin sections 10-40 mm apart. The result is a few images which should be representative of the lungs in general, but which cover only approximately one tenth of the lungs.

    Because HRCT does not image the whole lungs (by using widely spaced thin sections), it is unsuitable for the assessment of lung cancer or other localised lung diseases. Similarly, HRCT images have very high levels of noise (due to thin sections and high-resolution algorithm) which may make them non-diagnostic for the soft-tissues of the mediastinum.

    Intravenous contrast agents are not used for HRCT as the lung inherently has very high contrast (soft tissue against air), and the technique itself is unsuitable for assessment of the soft tissues and blood vessels, which are the major targets of contrast agents.


    Q138. KEY PRINCIPLE OF HRCT;;
    1. piezoelecrytric effect;;
    2restricted diffusion;;
    3pulse repition frequency;;
    4edge-enhancing algorithm

    Q139. BRIMONIDINE IS ;;
    1.BETA 1 RECEPTOR BLOCKER;;
    2BETA 2 AGONIST;;
    3BETA 2 RECEPTOR BLOCKER;;
    4ALPHA2 AGONIST

    Ans. 4

    Brimonidine Tartrate (Alphagan-P): Brimonidine is a relatively specific alpha 2 adrenergic agonist that lowers intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous production and perhaps also by increasing outflow through the uveoscleral pathway. It has only minimal effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
    Dosage: 1 drop two or three times daily. May be used as monotherapy or in combination with other glaucoma medications. Frequently used as a replacement drug in patients unable to tolerate beta-blockers.
    Toxicity: Dry mouth, stinging, and redness are the most common side reactions.

    Q140. which of the following agents cause an increase in the -intracranial pressure to the greatest extent;;
    1halothane;;
    2isoflurane;;
    3sevoflurane;;
    4desflurane

    ans.1. halothane

    order is enflurane>halothane>sevoflurane>isoflurane=desflurane

    Q141. haemangioma commonly involves;;
    1.large bone metaphysis;;
    2diaphysis;;
    3spine;;
    4flat bones

    Ans. 3
    Hemangioma is a common benign bone lesion. It is estimated that 10% of the population has asymptomatic lesions of the vertebral bodies. Hemangionus also are common in the skull. Hemangiomas of the long bones of the extremities are relatively uncommon.
    The radiographic appearance in the spine usually is characteristic, with thickened, vertically oriented trabeculae giving the classic "jailhouse" appearance.

    Q142. microscopically sheets of small dark polyhydral cells, with no ground substance are seen in ;;
    1osteosarcoma;;
    2ewings sarcoma;;
    3osteoid osteoma;;
    4vertbral hemangioma

    Q143. the most important index for assessment of pulmonary reserve, before lung resection is ;;
    1. FVC;;
    2TIDALVOLUME;;
    3FEV1.
    4DLco

    ans. 3. FEV1.

    The forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) is regarded as being the best spirometric value for predicting complications of lung resection. the patients with a preoperative FEV1 greater than 2L (or >80% predicted) generally tolerate pneumonectomy. Those with a preoperative FEV1 in excess of 1.5L tolerate lobectomy2,3.
  27. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q144. in temporal lobe epilepsy, which of the following is not seen ;;
    1dreamy states.
    2visual hallucinations;;
    3familiarity;;
    4fortification spectra

    Q145. most charecteristic cns lesion of hiv is ;;
    1perivascular giant cells;;
    2vasculitis;;
    3spongiform degeneration;;
    4microglial nodule

    Q146. GILLES DE LA TPURETTE syndrome is seen in the chronic poisonng due to ;;
    1opium.
    2barbiturate.
    3amphretamine.
    4cocaine

    Q147. lymph node metastasis is seen with ;;
    1liposarcoma;;
    2neurofibrosarcoma;;
    3histiocytoma;;
    4angiosarcoma

    Q148. nail 0 patella syndrome is charrecterised by ;;
    1iliac horns.
    2sphenoid dysplasia;;
    3absent patella;;
    4sacral horns

    Ans:1
    Patients with nail-patella syndrome develop iliac horns on the pelvis and dysplasia of the dorsal limbs involving the patella, elbows, and nails, variably associated with neural-sensory hearing impairment, glaucoma, and abnormalities of the GBM and podocytes, leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and FSGS. The syndrome is autosomal-dominant, with haploinsufficiency for the LIM homeodomain transcription factor LMX1B; pedigrees are extremely variable in the penetrance for all features of the disease.

    Q149. head -light sign is seen in ;;
    1seborrhoec dermatitis;;
    2atopic dermatitis;;
    3infective dermatitis;;
    4stasis dermatitis

    Q150. angry sun appearance is a feature of ;;
    1primary optic atrophy;;
    2papilloedema;;
    3papillitis;;
    4drussens rings

    Q151. spinal; cord monitorong usually involves thje testing of ;;
    1ant column.
    2post column.
    3lat column.
    4thalamic tract

    Q151. insulin increases the activities of all the following enzymes, except ;;
    1glucokinase.
    2pyruvate carboxylase.
    3glycogen synthase.
    4acetyl-co a carboxylase

    Q152. the stomach conduit is based on ;;

    1.rt gastroepiploisc artery.
    2left gastric artery.
    3short gastric aretries.
    4left gastroepiuploic arteries

    Q153. interstitial brachytherapy is useful in allof the following cancers, except ;;
    1prostate.
    2breast.
    3soft tissue sarcoma;;
    4melanoma

    Ans. 3
    Brachytherapy or interstitial therapy, in which the radiation source is inserted into the tumor bed, is comparable in efficacy (except in low-grade lesions), less time-consuming, and less expensive.

    Q154. which anaesthetic agent causes least increase in the cerebral blood flow;;
    1nitrous oxide.
    2halothane;;
    3enflurane;;
    4isoflurane

    Q155. the BIOTHESIOMETER measures;;
    1vsual perception threshold.
    2vibration.
    3touch pressure sensation.
    4continuous long fibre stimulatory sensation

    Ans 2
    The Bio-Thesiometer is an instrument designed to measure simply and accurately the threshold of appreciation of vibration in human subjects
  28. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q154. best therapy to teach daily life skill to a mentally challenged child;;
    1cognitive behavioural therapy;;
    2contingency.
    3cognitive reconstruction;
    4 self instruction

    Q155. which of the following is not an aminosteroid derivative;;
    1.alcuronium;;
    2vecuronium;;
    3pancuronium;;
    4pipecuronium

    Q156. KIESSELBACHS PLEXUS is formed by septal branches of all, except ;;
    1post etmoidal artery.
    2ant ethmoidal artery.
    3sphenopalatine artery.
    4greater palatine artery

    Q157. satellite nodule on a corneal ulcer is seen due to ;;
    1fungal infection.
    2bacterial infection;;
    3viral inf.
    4protozoalinf

    Q158. which female genital malignancy is most common in pregnancy;;
    1ovarian cancer.
    2vaginal vulval cancer.
    3endometrial cancer.
    4cervical cancer

    Q159. which one of the following is not an operation for uterine inversion;;
    1o sullivans.
    2haultains.
    3spinellis.
    4fentonis

    Sullivans is done for Inversion...

    ans is d ) Fentons .. Fentons operation is done for severe vaginismus, not inversion

    Q160. wide alveolar -arterial oxygen gradient is seen in following, except ;;
    1bronchiectasis;;
    2ARDS.
    3interstitial fibrosis;;
    4central hypoventilation

    Q161. diuretic with uricosuric action ;;
    1ticynafen;;
    2bumetanide.
    3mannitol;;
    4spironolactone

    Q162. not used in pul arterial hypertension ;;
    1epoprostenol.
    2treprostinil.
    3nitric oxide.
    4verapamil

    Q163. not used in alzheimers disease;;
    1memantine;;
    2galantamine;;
    3. donepezil;;
    4cevimeline;

    Q164. under , which level of prevention should SENTINEL SURVEILLANCE be categorised;;
    1primordial prevention.
    2primary prewvention;;
    3sec prevention;;
    4tertiary preventuion

    Q165. assocation can be measured by all the following, except ;;
    1correlation coefficient;;
    2cronbachs alpha''
    3P VALUE;;
    4 ODDS RATIOO

    Q166. stabilising induction is a term related to ;;
    1intrauterine death.
    2antepartum death.
    3malpresentation;;
    4IUGR

    Q167. REISSNERS MEMBRANE IS SEEN IN ;;
    1ext ear.
    2middle ear.
    3semicircular canals.
    4cochlea

    Q168. following are appropriate indications for mri breast, except ;;
    1differentiating postoperative scar and local recurrence.
    2evaluation of an indeterminate mass;;
    3local sataging of breast cancer in dense breast.
    4differentiating solid from cystic lesion

    Q169. which of the following is placed most posteriorly in the thorax;;
    1trachea.
    2oesophagus.
    3thoracic duct.
    4sympatheticchain

    Q170. therapeutic action of , which of the following does not involve -GABA;;
    1.invermectin.
    2propofol.
    3alfaxalone;;
    4phencyclidine
  29. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q171. receptor for ebv and its location is
    EBV;;
    1CD4 T CELLS.
    2CD21 , B CELLS.
    3CD 19 B CELLS.
    4CD16 NK CELLS

    Q172. THE FIRST SITE OF AMYLOID DEPOSITION IN KIDNEY IS
    1GLOMERULAR BASEMENT MEMBRANE;;
    2MESANGIAL MATRIX;;
    3PERITUBULAR;
    4 PERARTERIOLAR

    Q173. ABNORMAL ISOTYPE SWITCHING is invoved inthe pathogenesis of ;;
    1SCID.
    2DI GEORGE SYNDROME;;
    3ISOLATED IGA DEF ;;
    4HYPER IGM SYNDROME

    Q174. CHARECTERISTIC FEATURE OF DERMATOMYOSITIS IS ;;
    1.perifascicular atrophy.
    2panfascicular atrophy.
    3nemaline rods;;
    4 . none of the above

    Q175. intimal fibrosis of the vessel wall is charecteristic ogf ;;
    1hyperacute rejection;
    2acute rejection.
    3chronic rejection;;
    4GVHD

    Q176. THE QUANTITATIVE METHOD TO ASSESS -ESTROGEN AND PROGESTERONE RECEPTORS AND HE2NEU ONCOPROTEIN IN BREAST CANCER IS ;;
    1IMMUNOHISTOCHEMISTRY.
    2FISH.
    3ASCHOFFS TECHNIQUE.
    4NONE OF THESE OPTIONS

    Q177. preoperative radiotherapy is used in all of the following cancers, except ;;
    1rectum.
    2esophagus.
    3colon;;
    4cervix

    Q178. raschkes nomogram is is used for adjusting the dose of ;;
    1iv heparin;;
    2subcutaneous heparin;;
    3warfarin;;
    4streptokinase

    Q179. all of the following are hypercoagulable states, except ;;
    1behcets syndrome;;
    2hyperhomocystinemia;;
    3PNH;;
    4MAGNESIUM DEF

    BEHCETS SYNDROME INCLUDES ORAL AND GENITAL ULCERS WITH OCCULAR INVOLVEMENT [UVEITIS???]

    Epidemiological studies have shown that too much homocysteine in the blood (plasma) is related to a higher risk of coronary heart disease, stroke and peripheral vascular disease.

    PNH IS ACQUIRED BONEMARROW STEM CELL DISORDER IN WHICH THERE IS DEFECTIVE PRODUCTION OF ALL CELL LINES AND ASSOCIATED WITH VENOUS THROMBOSIS

    Magnesium Deficiency can lead to kidney damage and kidney stones, muscle cramps, arteriosclerosis, heart attack, epileptic seizures, nervous irritability, marked depression and confusion, impaired protein metabolism, and premature wrinkles.
    Magnesium deficiency increases an individual’s susceptibility to high blood pressure.

    ANS A

    Q180. hamptons lump is seen in ;;
    1.PUL HYPERTENSION;;
    2MASSIVE PE.
    3SMALL PE;;
    4NON -CARDIOGENIC PUL EDEMA

    Q181. which of the following is not a rate limiting enzyme;;
    1hmg coa reductase.
    2phosphofructokinase.
    3acetyl coa carboxylase;;
    4malonate dehydrogenase

    Q182. the following separation technique depends onthe molecular size of protein;;
    1chromatography on a carboxy methylcellulose medium;
    2isoelectric focussing;
    3gel filtration chromatography.
    4chromatography on a diethyl amino ethyl cellulose medium

    Q183. the earlist paranasal sinus to develop is ;;
    1ethmoid.
    2sphenoid.
    3frontal;;
    4maxillary

    Q184. the main antagonistic muscle of rectus abdominis muscle is ;;
    1psoas major;
    2latissmus dorsi.
    3quadratus lumborum;;
    4erector spinae

    Q185. IN TRIAGE, GREEN COLOR INDICATES;;
    1ambulatory patients.
    2dead/ moribound pts.
    3high priority treatment or transfer.
    4medium priority

    Q186. PIMOZIDE BELONG TO ;;
    1.thoxanthines;;
    2pheniothiazines;;
    3buprenorphine group;;
    4diphenyl group

    Q187. which ofthe following is not an rna virus;;
    1ebola;;
    2simian 40;;
    3rabies;;
    4vesicular stomatitis virus

    Q188. caspers dictum is used for ;;
    1identification of the body;;
    2estimation of time since death;
    3establishing cause of death.
    4establishment of weapon of injury

    Q189. CORACOID PROCESS IS BEST SEEN IN WHICH VIEW OF THE SHOULDER;;
    1west point view.
    2axillary view.
    3rockwood view;
    4stryker notch view

    Q190. which ofthe following is based upon principle of first purkinje images;;
    1retinoscope;;
    2 slit lamp;;
    3cross cylinder;;
    4keratometer
  30. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q191. la belle indifference is seen in ;;
    1conversion reaction.
    2schizoophrenia;;
    3manic depressive episode;;
    4 depression

    Q192. indian lunacy act was passed in ;;
    11857;
    21812.
    31932.
    41847

    Q193. color perimetry is useful in the diagnosis of ;;
    1retinal detachment;;
    2retinitis pigmentosa;;
    3retrobulbar neuritis;;
    4papillloedema;;

    Q194. breslaus second life test means;;
    1air in stomach and intestine;;
    2putrefaction.
    3mummification;;
    4negative hydrostatic test

    Q195. which of the following muscle relaxant does not cause histamine release;;
    1metocurine;;
    2gallamine;;
    3d0tubocurarine;;
    4altracurium

    Q196. SAMPTERS TRIAD INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING, EXCEPT ;;
    1nasal polyposis;;
    2asthma;;
    3DNS;;
    4ASPIRIN INTOLERANCE

    Q197. SPECIAL APPLICATION OF MULTISLICE CT INCLUDE , THE FOLLOWING, EXCEPT ;;
    1.ct angiography;;
    2insulinoma screening;;
    3cartilage imaging;;
    4virtual colonography

    Q198. X-RAY signof pneumoperitoneum;;
    1.1.string of beads sign.
    2coiled sprongsign;;
    3medusa lock sign;;
    4cupola sign

    Q199. ICE CREAM CONE sign ON MRI BRAIN IS SEENIN ;;
    1PILOCYTIC ASTROCYTOMA;;
    2ACOUSTIC NEUROMA;;
    3GLOMUS JUGULARE;;
    4MENINGIOMA

    Q200. in pregnancy , the most common cause of transient diabetes insipidus is ;;
    1acute fatty liver of pregnancy;;
    2hydramnios;;
    3multiple pregnancy;;
    4IUGR

    Q201. RETINITIS PIGMENTOSA IS NOT ASSOCIATED WITH ;;
    1USHERS SYNDROME;;
    2KORNZWEIGS SYNDROME;;
    3KEARN-SAYRE SYNDROME;;
    4MARFAN SYNDROME

    Q202. a drug is more likely to cause toxicity in elderly patients due to all of the following reasons, except ;;
    1decreased renal excretion of drugs.
    2decreased hepatic metabolism.
    3increased receptor sensitivity.
    4decreased volume of distribution

    Q203. which of the following drugs does not produce central anticholinergic syndrome;;
    1atropine sulphate.
    2glycopyrrolate.
    3antihistamines;
    4tricyclic antihistamines

    Q204. ALISKIREN IS ;;
    1.RENIN ANTAGONIST;;
    2RENIN SYNTHESIS INHIBITOR;;
    3RENIN MODULATOR;;
    4RENIN RELEASER

    Q205. treatment based on gate theory is ;;

    1.short wave diathermy;;
    2ultrasound;;
    3electrical nerve stimulation;;
    4infra red therapy

    Q206. false negative sweat chloride test is seen in ;;
    1ectodermal dysplasia;;
    2hypothyroidism.
    3hypoparathyroidism;;
    4hypoproteinaemic edema

    Q207. montenegro test is used to detect , delayed hypersensitivity to which infection ;;
    1chlamidia pneumonia;;
    2leishmaniasis;;
    3shigella;;
    4salmonella

    Q208. HOSEKEEPING GENES;;
    1MAINTAIN THE INTEGRITY OF THE CELL;;
    2INHIBIT THE PROLIFERATION OR PROMOTE THE DEATH OF CELLS WITH DAMAGED DNA;;
    3ARE E4XEMPLIFIED BY THE P53 GENE;;
    4ARE REGULARED BY VARIOUS CIS OR TRANS ACTIVATING FACTORA

    Q209. REEFER OR POT IS RELATED TO ;;
    1COCAINE;;
    2MARIJUANA;;
    3SMACK.
    4AMPHETAMINE

    Q210. acanthocytosis is seen in ;;
    1cystic fibrosis;;
    2abetalipoprotenaemia;;
    3hereditary spherocytosis;;
    4g6pd def

    Q211. the arachnoid villi responsible for csf absorption , protrude mainly in the ;;
    1sup sagittal sinus;;
    2inf sagittal sinus;;
    3straight sinus;;
    4transverse sinus

    Q212. macrocephaly is seen in all, except ;;
    1rett syndrome;;
    2canavans disease;;
    3alexanders disease;;
    4tay sachs disease

    Q213. viscosity of synovial fluid depends upon ;;
    1n 0acetyl galactosamine;;
    2n acetyl glucosamine;;
    3glucuronic acid;;
    4hyaluronic acid

    Q214. lack of insight is not a feature of ;;
    1panic disorder.
    2schizophrenia;;
    3mania;;
    4reactive psychosis

    Q215. opera glass deformity is seen in ;;
    1rh arthritis;;
    2osteoarthritis;;
    3psoriatic arthritis;;
    4ankylosing spondylitis
  31. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q216. sudden increase in blood sugar in DM causes;;
    1myopia;;
    2presbyopia;
    3anisometropia;;
    4none of the above

    Q217. which of the following glaucoma drugs -produce fatigue as a side effect;;
    1brimonidine;;
    2dorzolamide;
    3bimatoprost;;
    4dipivefrine

    Q218. app;antation tonometer is based on ;;
    1imbert-ficks law.
    2lincoffs rule;;
    3strokes law;;
    4burgers law

    Q219. MAGNESIUM IS REQUIRED FOR THE ACTIVITY OF WHICH ENZYME;;
    1PHOSPHATASE.
    2ALDOLASE.
    3DISMUTASE.
    4ATPASE

    Q220. ABZYMES ARE ;;
    1.carbohydrates;
    2ribozymes;;
    3catalytic antibodies;;
    4absurd enzymes

    Q221. investigation of choice for detection of syphilis in pt after 2 courses of complete therapy ;;
    1 FTA-ABS.
    2VDRL.
    3TPI;;
    4DARK GROUND MICROSCOPY

    Q222. all are true about -wilkies syndrome, except ;;
    1ALSO KINOWN AS CAST SYNDROME;;
    2YOUNG ASTHENIC FEMALES;;
    3DISGNOSIS BY SMA ANGIOGRAPHY;;
    4IF SURGICAL INTERVENTION REQUIRED DUODENOJEJUNOSTOMY IS THE TREATMENT OF CHOICE

    Q223. all of the following enzymes are secreted in active form from pancres, except ;;
    1amylase;
    2lipase;
    3ribonuclease;;
    4carboxypeptidase

    Q224. PORT SCORING IS DONE FOR THE PROGNOSIS OF ;;
    1.copd;;
    2asthma;;
    3 pneumonia;;
    4cystic fibrosis

    Q225. which of the following is an iv vasopressin receptor antagonist ;;
    1conivapten;;
    2tolvapten;;
    3lixivapten;;
    4satavapten

    Q226. which of the following is an encephalinase inhibitor;;
    1dexemedetomidine;;
    2racecadotril''
    3cilostazole;;
    4prucalopride

    Q227. linelidomide -is used to treat ;;
    1hairy cell leukaemia;;
    2prostate carcinoma;;
    3multiple myeloma;;
    4kaposis sarcoma

    Q228. NITAZOXAMIDE CAN BE USED IN ;
    1.CHROMOBLASTOMYCOSIS;;
    2CRYPTOCOCCOSIS;;
    3COCCIDIOMYCOSIS;;
    4CRYPTOSPORIDIOSIS

    Q229. tolperisone is used in the treatment of ;;
    1parkinson;;
    2multiple sclerosis;;
    3muscle spasm;;
    4alzheimers disease

    Q230. in situ, DNA nick end labelling of cell is useful in quantization of ;;
    1fraction of cells in apoptic pathway;;
    2fraction of cells in s phase.
    3p53 gene product;;
    4bcr/abl gene product

    ANS--4
    Chancres are commonly found on the cervix, vagina, or vulva, but may also form in the mouth or around the anus----williams Gyn.

    Q231. which of the following is not affected by syphilis;;
    1vulva;;
    2vagina;;
    3cervix;;
    4fallopian tubes

    Q232. ECULIZUMAB IS USED IN THE TREATMENT OF ;;
    1mm;;
    2cll;;
    3pnh;;
    4aml

    Q233. which of the following chemotherapeutic drug has selective action on hypoxic tumor cells;;
    1mitomycinc;
    2cisplatin;;
    3doxorubicin;;
    45 0florouracil

    Q234. most common ovarian tumor to undergo torsion is ;;
    1pseudomucinous cystadenoma;;
    2brenners tumor;;
    3adenomyoma;;
    4dermoid cyst

    in pregnancy it is dermoid....n in general pseudomucinous cystadenoma,,no ref though

    Q235. the number of muscles inserted into the scapula are ;;
    1 9;;
    2 12;;
    3 15;
    4 17;
  32. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q235. a newer agent, which acts by blocking metaborophic excitation aminoacid receptors;;
    1tigabine;;
    2zonisamide;;
    3lomotrigene;;
    4topiramate

    Q236. gutter fracture is caused by ;;
    1hard blunt weapon;;
    2sharp weapon;;
    3bullet;;
    4fall from ht

    Q237. anniversary reactions are typically seen in a patient suffering from ;;
    1cardiac disease.
    2bronchial asthma;;
    3ulcerative colitis;;
    4rheumatoid arthritis

    Q238. sec glaucoma associated with angle recession is seen in ;;
    1radiation injury.
    2chemical injury.
    3penetrating injury.
    4concussion injury

    Q239. erythrocyte membrane has ;;
    1lactosyl ceramide;;
    2beta sulfogalactocerebroside;;
    3glucocerebraside;;
    4galactocerebroside;

    Q240. best time to perform myocardial infarct imaging with thallium-201;;
    11 to 12 hrs;;
    212 to 24 hrs;;
    31 to 3 days;;
    43 to 7 days

    Q241. the following nerves bear a pseudoganglion at their termination , except ;;
    1nerve to pteres minor.
    2post interosseous nerve;;
    3sup branch of rad nerve;;
    4deep peroneal nerve;

    Q242. the most abundant glycoprotein in basement membrane is ;;
    1collagem
    2 laminin;;
    3.fibrillin;;
    4fibronectin;

    Q243. SPEAR TACKLERS SPINE IS SEEN IN ;;
    1gymnastics;;
    2football players;;
    3ballet dancer;;
    4basket ball player;

    Q244. WOOLY HEADEDNESS IS THE ADVERSE EFFECT OF ;;
    1. dapsone;;
    2 clofazimine;;
    3rifamopicin;;
    4ethionamide;

    Q245. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LOCAL ANAESTHETICS IS HIGHLY CARDIOTOXIC;;
    1 lignocaine;;
    2bupivacaine;;
    3procaine;;
    4 mepivacaine

    Q246. the last tributary of the azygos vein is ;;
    1rt superior intercostal vein;;
    2hemi-azygos vein;;
    3rt bronchial vein;;
    4accessory azygos vein;

    Q247. vascular involvement and thrombosis is seen in inf with ;l;
    1coccidiomycosis;;
    2aspergillosis;;
    3mucormycosis;;
    4histoplasmosis;

    Q248. GERSTMAN SYNDROME , IS CHArecterised by following, except ;;
    1ALEXIA.
    2 AGNOSIA.
    3AGRAPHIA;;
    4ACALCULIA;

    Q249. rapid antigen test for meningitis organisms in a child can be done on the following specimens, except ;;
    1.blood;;
    2csf;;
    3urine;;
    4throat swab;

    Q250. primary sinusoidal dilatation of liver is also known as ;;

    1.hepar lobatum;;
    2peliosis hepatitis;;
    3von-meyenburg complex;;
    4carolis disease;

    Q251. most sensitive investigation for identification of insulinoma;;
    1octeroide nuclear scan;;
    2intraoperative ultrasound;;
    3multislice ct;;
    4mri;

    Q252. BENDER -GESTALT TEST IS USED IN THE DIAGNOSIS OF ;;
    1.psychosis;;
    2organicity.
    3neurosis.
    4depression ;

    Q253. whichof the following does not change with age ;;
    1FEV1;;
    2GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE;;
    3GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST;;
    4HAEMATOCRIT;

    Q254. VENTURI MASK WORKS ON ;;
    1.bernoullis principle;;
    2hagen poiseuilie law;;
    3avogadro number;;
    4grahams law;

    Q255. THE REID INDEX IS CHARECTERISTICALLY INCREASED IN ;;
    1. bronchiectasis;;
    2interstitial lung fibrosis;;
    3bronchial asthma;;
    4chronic bronchitis;
  33. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q256. PSYCHOLOGICAL PILLOW IS SEEN IN ;;
    1. psychosomatic disorder.
    2simple schizophrenia;;
    3catatonic schizophrenia;;
    4delusion of doubles;

    Q257. steady state conc can give us information about ;;
    1.plasma half life;;
    2saturation kinetics;;
    3frequency of drug admn;;
    4plasma protein binding;

    Q258. reactive oxygen intermediates are released by ;;
    1catalases;;
    2nadph oxidases;;
    3glutathione peroxidase;;
    4superoxide dismutase;

    Q259. which of the following is an example of -CC CHEMOKINE;;
    1.eotaxin;;
    2fractalkine;;
    3il-8;;
    4lymphotactin;

    Q260. TUOTON GIANT CELLS ARE SEEN IN ;;
    1tuberculosis;;
    2sarcoidosis;;
    3xanthoma;;
    4fat necrosis;

    Q261. STEENERS LESION IS ASSOCIATED WITH ;;
    1.JERSEY FINGER.
    2BOXERS KNUCKLE;;
    3DRUMMERS WRIST;;
    4GAMEKEEPERS THUMB

    Q262. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA OF VOGTTT TRIAD IN CHRONIC ANGLE CLOSURE GLAUCOMA;;
    1.goniosynechiae;;
    2iris atrophy;;
    3glaucomaflecken;;
    4pigment dispertsal;

    Q263. high tracheostomy is done in ;;
    1laryngeal carcinomas;;
    2vocal cordpalsy;;
    3laryngomalacia;;
    subglottic stenosis;

    Q264. which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure;;

    1mivacurium;;
    2atacurium;;
    3suxamethonium;;
    4vecuronium;

    Q265. chorea is seen in all, except ;;
    1.neuroacanthocytosis;;
    2toxoplasmosis;;
    3cysticercosis;;
    4echinococcosis

    Q266. MUTATION OF TRANSTHYRETIN CAUSES;;
    1.dialysis associated hemodialysis.
    2familial mediterranean fever.
    3familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy.
    4alzheimers disease;
  34. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q267. which of the following pairing is correct ;;
    1. sle-anti sm antibody;;
    2sjogrens syndrome -antiss -b;;
    3pan-antiscl;;
    4crest syndrome

    Q268. LASER USED FOR MYOPIC REFRACTIVE CORRECTION IS ;;
    1.argon laser;
    2excimer laser;
    3yag laser.
    4diode laser;

    Q269. most severe papilloedema is caused by ;;
    1pituitary tumor;;
    2frontal lobe tumoer;;
    3post cranial fossa tumor;;
    4medulloblastoma

    Q270. apob 48 and apob 100 are expressed as two different apoproteins because of difference in ;;
    1rna editibg;;
    2rna splicing;;
    3chromosomal loci;;
    4apo-b gene;

    Q271. rewceptor mediated endocytosis is by ;;
    1/. clathrin;;
    2porine;;
    3cytocin;;
    4vimentin;

    Q272. all are true about rhinitis caseosa, except ;;
    1is called nasal cholesteatoma;;
    2females are more prone;;
    3usually uni8lateral;;
    4possibly arises from chrionic sinusitis

    Q273. defence mechanisms
    a mechanism charecteristic of borderline personality disorder is ;;
    1denial;;
    2undoing;;
    3splitting;;
    4conversion;

    Q274. what is the most common cause of a high anion gap metabolic acidosis;;
    1ketoacidosis;;
    2lactic acidosis;;
    3persistant disrrhoea;;
    4pancreatic fistula;

    Q275. lateral winging of the scapula is due to ;;
    1trapezius palsy;;
    2rhomboideus palsy;;
    3injury to long thoracic nerve;;
    4sprengels deformity;
  35. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q272. all, except one is useful in treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder;;
    1sertaline;;
    2fluvoxamine;;
    3citalopram;;
    4dothiepin;

    Q273. narrowest part of res tract in children is ;;
    1glottis;;
    2supraglottis;;
    3subglottis;;
    4trachea;

    Q274. stripping of vocal cords is done in ;;
    1.reinkes edema;;
    2glottic carcinoma;;
    3atrophic laryngitis;;
    4none of the above;

    Q275. all of the following show miliary shadows on chest x ray , except ;;
    1pneumoconoiocis;;
    2mitral stenosis;;
    3sarcoidosis;;
    4staphylococcal pneumonia;

    Q276. extra -parenchymal restrictive lung disease occurs in all of the following, except;;
    1 sarcoidosis;;
    2myastenia gravis;;
    3ankylosing spondylitis;;
    4kyphoscoliosis;

    Q277. RATCHET -PRINCIPLE is applicable in relation to ;;
    1.performance apprisal;;
    2system analysis;;
    3network analysis;;
    4none of the above;

    Q278. BRAS system is a method of ;;
    1system analysis;;
    2performance apprisal;;
    3network analysis;;
    4none of the above

    Q279. out of the following . which is not a radiotherapy equipment ;;
    1betatron;;
    2telecurie-cobalt unit;;
    3linear accelrator;;
    4thimble chamber;

    Q280. monospot test is used for''

    1monitoring compliance of dapsone;;
    2detecting compliance of clofazamine;;
    3detecting dapsone resistance;;
    4testing integrity of dermal nerve;

    Q281. THE GENE IN HIV that is replaced by vpx gene in hiv 2 is ;;
    1vpu;;
    2vpr;;
    3vif;;
    4env;

    Q282. short fourth metacarpal bone is seen in ;;
    1. downs syndrome;;
    2edward syndrome;;
    3turners syndrome;;
    4feltys syndrome;

    Q283. the preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland travel in ;;
    1lesser petrosal nerve;;
    2greater petrosal nerve;;
    3.deep petrosal nerve;;
    4none of the above;

    post ganglionic is auriculotemporal n. and da ganglion is otic gn.

    Q284. detergent action of bile salts is due t ;;
    1amphipathic property;;
    2actsas zwitter ions;;
    3hydropathic property;;
    4allof the above;

    Q285. shine-dalgarno sequence in bacterial mrna is near ;;
    1AUG CODON;;
    2UAA CODON;;
    3UAG CODON;;
    4UGA CODON;

    Q286. GARTNERS DUCT IS A REMNANT OF ;;
    1MULLERIAN DUCT;;
    2WOLFIAN DUCT;;
    3CLOACAL DUCT;;
    4EPOOPHARON

    Q287. WHICH ANTIARRYTHMIC is not a class 1 c agent;;
    1propafenone;;
    2tocainide;;
    3.flecainide;;
    4encainide;

    Q288. which of the following is not a technique of cardiac output measurement ;;
    1impedance plethysmography;;
    2doppler ultrasonography;;
    3radial artery canulation;;
    4thermodilution method;

    Q289. DELLEN IS ;;
    1localised thinning of peripheral cornea;;
    2raised lesions in coneo-limbal junction;;
    3age related macular degeneration;;
    4marginal keratitis;

    Q290. ESI CORPORATION WORKS UNDER;;
    1MINISTRY OF LABOR;;
    2MINISTRY OF HEALTH;;
    3AN AUTONOMOUS BODY;;
    4RES PECTIVE STATE GOVT;

    Q291. according to the newer hypothesis, ewings sarcoma arises from the ;;
    1epiphysis;;
    2diaphysis;;
    3medullary cavity;;
    4cortex;

    Q292. PELLEGRINI STEIDA disease usually involves the ;
    1rotator cuff of the shoulder;
    2.deltoid ligament of the ankle;;
    3tibial collateral ligament at the knee;;
    4omentum;

    Q293. a fixed oxygen delivery device is ;;
    1face mask;;
    2ventimask;;
    3laryngeal mask airway;;
    4nasal cathter;
    circuit of choice for spontaneous ventilation ;;magillis;;

    Q294. all of the following factors decrease the MAC of an inhalation agent, except ;;
    1hypothermia;;
    2hyponatremia;;
    3hypocalcaemia;;
    4anaemia;

    Q295. trigoencephaly is due to premature closure of ;;
    1lamboid suture;;
    2metopic suture;;
    3coronal suture;;
    4sagittal suture;

    Q296. which type of cerebral palsy is common in preterms and is associated with periventricular leukomalacia;;
    1spastic diplegia;;
    2spastic quadriplegia;;
    3spastic hemiplegia;;
    4spastic triplegia;

    Q297. causes of pseudotumor cerebri are all, except ;;
    1galactosemia;;
    2wiskott-aldrich syndrome;;
    3vit a overdosage;;
    4cephalosporin usage;

    Q298. disproportionate short stature isa feature of ;;
    1hypothyroidism;;
    2growth hormone def;;
    3hypopituitarism;;
    4iugr;

    Q299. oldest medicolegal code is ;;
    1code of hittite;;
    2code of hummurabi;;
    3justinian code;;
    4roman law;

    Q300. death sentence can be awarded by ;;
    1executive magistrate;;
    2chief judicial magistrate;;
    3coroner;;
    4sessions judge;
  36. subha.

    subha. Guest

    Reid's Index is increased in Chronic bronchitis.

    Reid's index = glands / wall thickness.

    From Robbin's 8/Ed:

    Histologically, the diagnostic feature of chronic bronchitis in the trachea and larger bronchi is enlargement of the mucus-secreting glands (Fig. 13-10). The magnitude of the increase in size is assessed by the ratio of the thickness of the submucosal gland layer to that of the bronchial wall (Reid index; normally 0.4).

    ----

    There is another Reid index, called RCI - (modified) Reid colposcopic index, which I found in a WHO/IARC website. It takes into account 4 factors seen on colposcopy following 5% acetic acid + Lugol's iodine:
    1) Colour
    2) Lesion margin and surface configuration
    3) Vessels
    4) Iodine staining

    Each is given a score of 0, 1 or 2 points for grading, as follows:

    RCI score : Histology
    0-2: Likely to be CIN1
    3-4: maybe CIN 1 or 2
    5-8: maybe CIN 2 or 3

    It's for screening for Ca Cx at the peripheries, I think. Down-staging, sort of.

    I'll try and participate more actively from next week.
  37. subha.

    subha. Guest

    antimicrobial drugs whose dose need to be reduced in mild renal failure------


    pnemonic is v-face---------------v-vancomycin
    f-flucytosine
    a-aminoglycosides
    acyclovir
    amphotericin -b
    c-cephalexin
    e-ethambutol.



    antimicrobial drugs which need dose reduc'n in severe renal failure-----c4m


    c-ctz
    carbenicillin
    cefotaxim
    ciprofloxacin
    metronidazole
  38. sabina.

    sabina. Guest

    according to the newer hypothesis, ewings sarcoma arises from the ;;
    1epiphysis;;
    2diaphysis;;
    3medullary cavity;;-----answer
    4cortex
    ewings sarcoma:
    age:5-15yr
    translocations: t(11:22)>t(7:22)
    aiims nov '09:MIC-2 GENE-useful 4 screening
    a/c CD99
    sx:pain,swelling,fever
    d/d:eek:steomyelitis
    PATHOLOGY: arise in MEDULLARY CAVITY,PAS+,DIASTASE DIGESTABLE BCZ gkycogen+......onion peel appearance
    rx of choice:preop chemo+surgery+radiotherapy
    *melts like ice 4 radiotherapy
    chemo:ABCD{actinomycin d,bleomycin,cyclophospamide,doxorubucin}

    bleomycin:antitumor antibody....G2 CELL CYCLE SPECIFIC.......causes pulmonary fibrosis,minimum bone marrow depression
    cyclophosphamide:alkylating agent....not cell cycle specific.........causes SIADH,HAEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS(bcz oftoxic metabolite ACROLEIN).....mesna given by iv route is best to treat above condition.......oral or intravesical route is under investigation
    actinomycin-d:doc for wilms tumor,2nd doc for chorio carcinoma if jaundice present in the patient
    s.e:RADIATION RECALL
    DOXORUBUCIN:doc 4 SOT TISSUE SARCOMAS,SOLID TUMORS
    s/e:cardiotoxicity(>550mg/square m) dis is mediated by a free radical known as SEMIQUINONE
    to treat dis cardiotoxicity :DEXROZAXONE,ALPHA TOCOPHEROL ARE USED
    but dose limiting side effect is BONE MARROW DEPRESSION
  39. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q301. the magnitude of an electrical difference that exists across the membrane can be determined by ;;
    1gibbs-donnan equation;;
    2henderson-hasselbach equation;;
    3nernst equation;;
    4picvks law

    Q302. which muscle is relatively spared in fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy;;
    1deltoid;;
    2biceps;;
    3triceps;;
    4orbicularis oris;

    Q303. OIL DROPLET REFLEX ON OPTHALMOSCOPY IS SEEN IN ;;
    1pellucid marginal degeneration;;
    2keratoconus;;
    3limbal girdle of vogt;;
    4terriens marginal degeneration

    Q304. BRIQUETS SYNDROME;; is charecterised by
    1multiple delusions;;
    2multiple mood symptoms;;
    3multiple somatic symptoms;;
    4mulrtiple cognitive defects;

    Q305. a new drug -BECAPLEMIN -is of good use in ;;
    1.for control of sugar level;;
    2for retinopathy treatment;;
    3as a topicalgelfor ulcers;;
    4.for treatment ogf gastroparesis;

    Q306. hereditary spherocytosis is associated with all , except ;;
    1. ankyrin;;
    2anion exchanger;
    3paladin;;
    4glycoporin c;

    Q307. the beta pleated structure of amyloid is confirmed by ;;
    1electron microscope;;
    2x-ray crystallography;;
    3apple green birefrengence with congo red;;
    4scanning electron microscopy;

    Q308. TIGERED EFFECT OF HEART IS SEEN , WHEN;;
    1SEVERE HYPOXIA LEADING TO FATTY CHANGE;;
    2MODERATE HYPOXIA LEADING TO FATTY CHANGE;;
    3LIPOFUSCIN DEPOSITION AFTYER INJURY;;
    4EFFECT OF DIPHTHERIC MYOCARDITIS;

    Q309. MULTIPLE GATED RADIONUCLIDE CARDIAC -MUGA SCAN IS USED FOR ;;
    1TESTING DRUG TOXICITY ON MYOCARDIUM;;
    2MYOCARDIAL PERFUSION ASSESSMENT;;
    3TESTING VENTRICULAR FUNCTION;;
    4DETECTING MYOCARDIAL ANEURYSM;

    Q310. WHICH IS NOT CHARECTERISTIC OF CAUDA EQUINA SYNDROME;;
    1.perianal Anaesthesia ;;
    2sphicter dysfunction;;
    3presence of radicular pain;;
    4normal leg strength;
  40. subah.

    subah. Guest

    the beta pleated structure of amyloid is confirmed by ;;
    1electron microscope;;
    2x-ray crystallography;; ----answer
    3apple green birefrengence with congo red;;
    4scanning electron microscopy

    beta pleated structure confirmed by:XRAY CRYSTALLOGRAPHY AND INFRARED SPECTROSCOPY...
    some more points abt amyloidosis
    ...amyloid deposition is xtra cellular
    ...with congo red amyloid gives bright red color
    ...viewed under polarising microscope:green birefrengence.....it is due 2 beta pleated configuration
    ....with lugols iodine:amyloid turns 2 yellow
    ....with H&E:dark pink
    ...electron microscope app.:non branching fibrils of 7.5-10nm
    ....von veigen stain:khaki color
    other polychromati dyes used 4 amyloid stainin:methyl violet,thioflavin t&s
  41. sadhna.

    sadhna. Guest

    some more points abt amyloidosis:
    primary amyl.: AL type
    secondary amyl + familial meditteranian fever:AA type
    (familial meditteranian fever:pYRIN gene)
    hemodialysis:beta 2 microglobulin
    familial neuropathy+senile cardiac-ATTR(transthyretin)
    *m/c cause of restictive cardiomyopathy:AMYLOIDOSIS
    alzheimer's d/s:A.beta

    some more points abt amyloidosis:
    m/c & most serious organ involved:KIDNEY
    kidney:widening of basement membrane of all capillaries
    SPLEEN:sago(white granules),Lardaceous(LAL=RED pulp)
    LIVER:1st place 2 be involved in liver: SPACE OF DISSE
    carpal tunnel syndrome associated with CRF with hemodialysis
    DIAGNOSIS: biopsy..best site is RECTUM
    but most specific and less sensitive site 4 biopsy is ABDOMINAL OMENTAL fat
  42. sadhna.

    sadhna. Guest

    some more mcqs on nuclear scanning:
    -warthins tumor:tc99m pertectinate
    -parathyroids:sessatimibi tc99m>tc99m thallium subtraction scan
    -bone scan:tc 99m MDP(methy di phosponate)
    *double density sign:OSTEOID OSTEOMA
    *bone tumor with ground glass appearance: FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
    -thyroid:I-123(*I131 never used 4 scan it is used in treatment of graves d/s & CA.thyroid bcz its a beta emitter)
    -kidney:a)for scarring detection:DMSA
    b)for gfr:MAG 3>DTPA
    -LUNGS:V/Q:V BY KRYPTON OR XENON
    Q BY RADIOLABEELED ALBUMIN
    -LIVER:TC99M SULPHUR COLLOID
    *FOCAL NODULAR HYPEPLASIA HOW HOT SPOT
    -MECKEL'S DIVERT:TC99M PERTECTINATE
    -ABCESS LOCATION: WBC LABELLED GALLIUM67
    LEUKOCYTE TAGGED INDIUM111
  43. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q311. all of the folowing can be done for femoral hernia repair, except ;;
    1. lockwood repair;;
    2mcevedy repair;;
    3lothessions repair;;
    4 beclad s repair

    Q312. aqueductal stenosis is seen in all, except ;;
    1mumps;;
    2neurocysticercosis;;
    3toxoplasmosis;;
    4herpes encephalitis;

    Q313. which is an age -independant criterian for measuring the growth of child is ;;
    1weight;;
    2height;;
    3head circumference;;
    4mid arm circumference;

    Q314. BLASKOWICZ OPERATION ISA DONE FOR ;;
    1. PROPTOSIS;;
    2 PTOSIS;;
    3.LAGOPHTHALMOS;;
    4ENTROPION;

    Q315. TRANSCRPTION AND REPLICATION differ in all, aspects. except ;;
    15 to 3 direction ;;
    2requirement of primer;;
    3requirement of of helicase;;
    4 proof reading

    Q316. majority of rotationalmovement of the cervical spine occurs in which , joint;;
    1.atlanto-occipital;;
    2atlanto- axial;;
    3c3-c4;;
    4c4 -c5;
  44. sunaina.

    sunaina. Guest

    Q10. persistent priapism is rarely seen as a consequence of:
    1.sickle cell disease
    2.leukemia
    3.spinal cord disease
    4.prolonged sexual activity

    Q34. streess induced ulcers are most commonly found in:
    1.fundus of stomach
    2.antrum of stomach
    3.pyloric channel
    4.duodenum 1st part

    Q54. risk of scar rupture in classical caesarean section is:
    1.0.5-1.5%
    2.1.5-4%
    3.4-9%
    4.10-12%

    Q57. which of the following not used in severe wide spread psoriasis:
    1.methotrexate
    2.oral retinoids
    3.cyclosporine
    4.oral glucocorticoids

    Q65. all of the following are renal vasoconstrictors except:
    1.Angiotensin 2
    2.carbon monoxide
    3.norepinephrine
    4.endothelin

    Q74. choledochectomy indicated in all of the following except:
    1.palpable cbd stone
    2.h/o jaundice or cholangitis
    3.abnormal alkaline phospatase
    4.abnormal gamma glutamyl transferase

    Q78. ubiquitin is involved in:
    1.intracellular proteolysis
    2.electron transport chain
    3.transport of atp
    4.protein folding

    which of the following is used to view corneal endothelium?
    1.focal illumination
    2.retro illumination
    3.specular reflection
    4.scleral scatter

    most likely cause of fluctuating jaundice in a middle aged or eldery man:
    1.periampullary carcinoma
    2.liver fluke infestation
    3.choledochal cyst
    4.carcinoma head of pancreas

    Q103. which of the following att drug require dose modification in renal failure?
    1.inh
    2.thiacetazone
    3.rifampcin
    4.ethambutol

    Q134. most common type of AML
    1.hyper granular promyelocytic leukemia
    2.monocytic leukemia
    3.myeloblastic leukemia
    4.erthyroleukemia

    Q139: deficiency of ADAMTS13 enzyme is seen in:
    1. ITP
    2. TTP
    3. HUS
    4. VWD

    Q176: most important prognostic factor of breats carcinoma:
    1.tumor size
    2.dna content of tumor
    3.histologic subtype
    4.tumor grade

    Q180: thickened gastric folds on barium meal are seen in:
    1.leiomyo sarcoma
    2.scleroderma
    3.amyloidosis
    4.linitis plastica

    which migrates fastest on paper chromatography on methyl cellulose medium:
    1.aspartic acid
    2.glycine
    3.lysine
    4.valine

    Q198: most common cause of puberty mennorhagia?
    1.anovulation
    2.malignancy
    3.endometriosis
    4.dub
  45. kiran.

    kiran. Guest

    Causes

    Priapism can result from idiopathic or secondary causes. In the United States, the most common cause of priapism in the adult population involves agents used to treat erectile dysfunction. The most common cause of priapism in the pediatric population is SCD. Internationally, the most common cause is idiopathic.

    * Uncommonly, both low- and high-flow priapism are idiopathic in nature.
    * Secondary causes of low-flow priapism are as follows:
    o Thromboembolic/hypercoagulable states
    + Sickle cell anemia (SCD) - Polycythemia: A recent study found that, in unscreened children with SCD, priapism was the first presentation in 0.5% of cases.2
    + Thalassemia
    + Total parenteral nutrition
    + Fabry disease
    + Dialysis
    + Vasculitis
    + Fat embolism (after multiple long-bone fractures or after iatrogenic intravenous lipids as part of total parenteral nutrition)
    o Neurogenic disease
    + Spinal cord stenosis (ie, trauma to the medulla)
    + Autonomic neuropathy and cauda equina compression
    o Neoplastic disease (metastatic to the penis or obstructive to venous outflow)
    + Prostate cancer and GU (highest risk) bladder cancer
    + Hematological (leukemia)
    + Renal carcinoma
    + Melanoma
    o Pharmacologic causes
    + Intracavernosal agents - Papaverine, phentolamine, prostaglandin E1
    + Intraurethral pellets (ie, medicated urethral system for erection with intracavernosal prostaglandin E1)
    + Antihypertensives - Ganglion-blocking agents (eg, guanethidine), arterial vasodilators (eg, hydralazine), alpha-antagonists (eg, prazosin), calcium channel blockers
    + Psychotropics - Phenothiazine, butyrophenones, hypnotics (eg, mesoridazine, perphenazine), trazodone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (eg, fluoxetine, sertraline)3
    + Anticoagulants - Heparin, warfarin
    + Recreational drugs - Cocaine, marijuana, ethanol
    + Hormones - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), tamoxifen, testosterone
    + Herbal medicine - Ginkgo biloba with concurrent use of antipsychotic agents4
    + Miscellaneous medications - Metoclopramide, omeprazole, penile injection of cocaine, epidural infusion of morphine and bupivacaine5
    * Secondary causes of high-flow priapism are as follows:
    o GU trauma
    + Straddle injury
    + Intracavernous injections with direct cavernosal artery injury
    o Drugs - Cocaine
    * Other causes of priapism (rare) are as follows:
    o Amyloidosis (massive amyloid infiltration)
    o Gout (one case report)
    o Carbon monoxide poisoning
    o Malaria
    o Black widow spider venom
    o Asplenia
  46. kiran.

    kiran. Guest

    Role in disease

    Deficiency of ADAMTS13 was originally discovered in Upshaw-Schülman syndrome, the recurring familial form of TTP. By that time it was already suspected that TTP occurred in the autoimmune form as well, owing to its response to plasmapheresis and characterisation of IgG inhibitors. Since the discovery of ADAMTS13, specific epitopes on its surface have been shown to be the target of inhibitory antibodies.

    Especially since the link between aortic valve stenosis and angiodysplasia was proven to be due to high shear stress (Heyde's syndrome), it has been accepted that increased exposure of vWf to ADAMTS13 due to various reasons would predispose to bleeding by causing increased degradation of vWf. This phenomenon is characterised by a form of von Willebrand disease (type 2a).

    ADAMTS13 (a disintegrin and metalloproteinase with a thrombospondin type 1 motif, member 13)—also known as von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease (VWFCP)—is a zinc-containing metalloprotease enzyme that cleaves von Willebrand factor (vWf), a large protein involved in blood clotting. It is secreted in blood and degrades large vWf multimers, decreasing their activity.
  47. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q316. impairment of optokinetic nystagmus is seen in lesion of ;;
    1frontal lobe;;
    2parietal lobe;;
    3occipital lobe;;
    4temporal lobe

    Q317. WEBER -FECHNER LAW deals with ;;
    1.FREQUENCY DISCRIMINATION;;
    2RECEPTIVE FIELD ORGANISATION;;
    3INTENSITY DISCRIMINATION;;
    4TWO POINT DISCRIMINATION

    Q318. PERICYTES ARE ASSOCIATED WITH WALLS OF ;;
    1VEINS;;
    2ARTERIES;;
    3CAPILLARIES;;
    4ARTERIOLES

    Q319. COMMONEST MALIGNANCY ARISING IN A THROGLOSSAL CYST IS ;;
    1.FOLLICULAR ADENOCARCINOMA;;
    2PAPILLARY ADENOCARCINOMA;;
    3SQAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA;;
    4MEDULLARY CARCINOMA

    Q320. SORRY, THE PRECEDING Q NO IS 319AND NOT 318;;
    ACUTE BONE CRISIS IS SEEN IN ;;
    1.gauchers diseaqse;;
    2blounts disease;;
    3pagets disease;;
    4trevors disease;

    Q321. the codon of which aminoacid is also an initiating codon for translation mechanism of all proteins;;
    1leucine;;
    2isoleucine;;
    3methionnine;;
    4lysine;

    Q322. for measurement of long dna molecules, following is used;;
    1chromosome walking;;
    2nitch;;
    3rflp;;
    4sslp;

    Q323. the most common site of cerebral contusion associated with a subdural haematoma is the ;;
    1frontal lobe;;
    2cerebral convexity;;
    3temporal pole;;
    4occipital pole;

    Q324. the active principle in ratti seeds is ;;
    1crotin;;
    2ricin;;
    3cannabinol;;
    4abrin;

    Q325. portion of immunoglobulin molecule with a molecular wt of 50000 is ;;
    1secretory piece;;
    2H CHAIN;;
    3 L CHAIN;;
    4J PIECE;

    Q326. IN [bleep] keratopathy, there is damage to ;;
    1endothelium;;
    2epithelium;;
    3stroma;;
    4basal lamina;
  48. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q327. photochemotherapy of vitiligo is best administered ;;
    1daily;;
    2alternate days;;
    3every 5 th day;;
    4once a week,

    Q328. the term -fountain spray splatters -pigmentation is charecteristic of which of the following disease;;
    1arsenic pigmentation;;
    2incontinentia pigmenti;;
    3xeroderma pigmentosum;;
    4phenylketonuria;

    Q329. succinylcholine produces all of the following effects, except ;;
    1. incresed intraocular pressure;;
    2rise in serum potassium levels;;
    3malignant hyperthermia;;
    4tachycardia;

    Q330. number of compartments in the foot are ;;
    1 1;;
    2 3;;
    3 7;;
    49;;

    Q331. empty can sign is seen in ;;
    1impringement syndrome;;
    2frozen shoulder;;
    3sprengels shoulder;;
    elbow dislocation

    Q332. all of the following aminoacids are converted to succinyl coa , except ;;
    1methionine;;
    2isoleucine;;
    3valine;;
    4histidine;

    Q333. imagining tool of choice for -CJD;;
    1dwmri with adc mapping;;
    2hmpao spect scan;;
    3mr spectroscopy;;
    4pet scan;

    Radiology has historically played a limited role in the diagnosis of CJD. Computed tomography is usually normal, but may show atrophic changes that progress rapidly over time. MRI may show increased T2 signal in the basal ganglia, thalamus, occipital cortex, or white matter. The sensitivity of increased T2 signal in the basal ganglia has been reported to be only 79%.

    Newer MRI sequences have been shown to be useful in diagnosing early lesions in CJD. Diffusion-weighted MRI abnormalities have been shown to be more sensitive than T2-weighted or FLAIR sequences in detecting lesions in patients who were clinically either definite or probable for the diagnosis of CJD based on the World Health Organization criteria. A recent study showed DWI abnormalities in 24 of 26 (92.3%) patients with a subacute clinical presentation, with 100% interobserver agreement between 2 experienced neuroradiologists. These DWI abnormalities included lesions in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia (45.8%), linear lesions in the cerebral cortex only (41.7%), and lesions only in the caudate heads and putamen (12.5%).

    The specificity of DWI lesions in this study was 92.3% and the sensitivity was 93.8%. The sensitivity of DWI was significantly higher than either FLAIR or T2 sequences. As an added benefit, DWI is more tolerant of motion artifacts than other sequences. This is an advantage since these patients may suffer from myoclonic jerking. The sensitivity of DWI was also greater than either CSF protein 14-3-3 or EEG. Although in the case of CSF protein 14-3-3, this difference was not statistically significant (P = 0.36). These DWI findings could be seen as early as 3 weeks after initial symptom onset.

    Diffusion-weighted imaging is very useful in distinguishing CJD from the differential diagnoses of CJD, including Alzheimer´s disease, vascular dementia, and dementia with Lewy bodies. Other causes of similar DWI abnormalities include infectious meningoencephalitis, mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis, Wilson´s disease, and Wernicke´s encephalopathy. These can usually be distinguished from CJD based on clinical and CSF findings. The underlying Pathology of these DWI lesions is unknown but may represent spongiform changes or prion protein deposits. These lesions often become less apparent with disease progression.
    Conclusion

    Radiology now plays a significant role in the diagnosis of CJD. Diffusion-weighted MRI findings allow the radiologist to suggest the diagnosis of CJD early in the course of the disease in the appropriate clinical setting, permitting appropriate treatments to be instituted.

    Q334. transferance - counter transferance is imp in ;;
    1hypnosis;;
    2psychoanalysis;;
    3counselling;;
    4behaviour therapy;

    Q335. acute diffuse proliferative gn has all the features, except ;;
    21microscopic haematuria;;
    2raised blood urea;;
    3raised serm creatinine;;
    4marked hypoalbunaemia;

    Q336. for cerebral angiography, the contrast is injected into;;
    1femoral artery;;
    2radial artery;;
    3common carotid;;
    4internal carotid;

    Q337. the following types of cells are associated with retina, except ;;
    1.bipolar cells.
    2amacrine cells;;
    3horizontal cells;;
    4stellate cells;

    Q337. commonest feature of frontal lobe lesion ;;
    1psychic blindness;;
    2aphasia;;
    3distractibility;
    4amnesia;

    Q338. advantages of kangaroo mother care are all, except ;;
    1facilitates breast feeding;;
    2improves growth.
    3increases infection;;
    4improves mother infant -bonding

    Q339. asymmetrical moros reflex is seen in all, except ;;
    1.fracture humerus;;
    2erbs palsy;;
    3spastic hemiplegia;;
    4premature neonate
  49. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q339. the most practcal clinical application of the indocyanine green chorioangiography is ;;
    1minimal claqssical cnv;;
    2age related macular degeneration;;
    3angioid streaks with cnv;;
    4polypoid choroidal vasculopathy

    Q340. antidepressant medications would be least effective in the treatment of, which of the following psychiatric disorders;;
    1bulimia;;
    2obsessive -compulsive disorder.
    3delusional disorder.
    4panic disorder;

    Q341. ROKITANSKY SYSTEM OF POSTMORTEM ;;
    1organs are removed one by one;;
    2in situ -dissection is done;;
    3thoracic abnd cervical organs, abdominal organs and the urogenital system is removed in separate organ blocks;;
    4 no 3 -optioncontents are removed as one large block;

    Q342. which of the following is not a component of inner photoreceptor matrix;;
    1matrix metalloproteinase;;
    2timps;;
    3SPARC;;
    4 MIMECAN;

    Q343. anagrelide is used in the treatment of ;;
    1ACUTE MYELOID LEUKAEMIA;;
    2. MULTIPLE MYELOMA;;
    3 ESSENTIAL THROMOBOCYTOSIS;;
    4HAIRY CELL LEUKAEMIA

    Q344. trickling filter IS USED IN ;;
    1.primary treatment of sewage;;
    2sec treatment of sewage;;
    3oxygen ponds;;
    4sewage farming;

    Q345. congenital heart block is seen in ;;
    1hypothyroidism;;
    2pompes disease;;
    3maternal sle;;
    4carnitine deficiency;

    Q346. NORWOOD PROCEDURE IS DONE IN ;;
    1TAPVC;;
    2TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS;;
    3HYPOPLASTIC LEFT HEART;;
    4TAUSIG BING ANOMALY;

    Q347. THE MOST COMMON INCOMPLETE SPINAL CORD INJURY;;
    1post cord syndrome;;
    2ant cord syndrome;;
    3centralcord syndrome;;
    4brown-sequard syndrome

    Q348. MOVIE SIGN OR THEATRE SIGN IS SEEN IN ;;
    1bipartite patella;;
    2synovial chondromatosisl;;
    3neuropathic joints;;
    4chondromalacia patellae;

    Q349. following is true about -magnocellular pathway;;
    1.IT CAN DIFFERENTIATE COLORS;;
    2IT IS A FAST CONDUCTING PATHWASY;;
    3IT DOES NOT REACH UPTO THRE LEVEL OF CORTEX;;
    4MEANT FOR ACUITY OF VISION

    Q350. CHEMICALS LIKE -MONOBENZYL ETHER OF HYDROQUINONE CAUSE -SKIN DEPIGMENRARTION BY ;;
    1INHIBITING TYROSINASE;;
    2DESTROYING MELANOCYTES;;
    3PREVENTING TRANSFER OF MELANOSOMES;;
    4DECREASING MELANIN SYNTHESIS;

    ans 1
    mechanism of depigmentation of MBEH is selective melanocytic destruction through free-radical formation and competitive inhibition of the tyrosinase enzyme system.
  50. divakar.

    divakar. Guest

    Q350. the type of filter , which has silver catalyst is ;;
    1chamberland filter.
    2candle filter.
    3berekefield;
    4katadyn filter

    ans 4 katadyn filter

    Water can be purified on a small scale by filtering through ceramic filters such as Pasteur Chamberland filter, Berkefeld filter and Katadyn filter. The essential part of a filter is the 'candle' which is made of porcelain in the Chamberland type, and of kieselgurh or infusorial earth in the Berkefeld filter.
    In the Katadyn filter, the surface of the filter is coated with a silver catalyst so that bacteria coming in contact with the surface are killed by the 'oligodynamic' action of the silver ions, which are liberated into the water.

    Q352. the neurotransmitter involved in the PGO spikes of REM sleep is ;;
    1norepinephrine;;
    2epinephrine;;
    3serotinin;;
    4acetylcholine

    Q353. THE VEIN OF GALEN IS PRESENT IN ;;
    1.quadrigeminal cistern;;
    2ambient cistern;;
    3suprasellar sisatern;;
    4interpeduncular cistern

    # Cerebellomedullary cistern (Cisterna magna) - the largest of the subarachnoid cisterns.
    # Pontine cistern (Prepontine cistern or cisterna pontis)
    # Interpeduncular cistern (Cisterna interpeduncularis)
    # Superior cistern (Quadrigeminal cistern or cistern of the great cerebral vein)
    # Ambient cistern (Cisterna ambiens) - thin, sheet-like extensions of the superior cistern that extend laterally about the midbrain, connecting it to the interpeduncular cistern. Ambient cistern may also refer to the combination of these extensions and the superior cistern

    Also, since some of the feeders may belong to arteries of the velum interpositum and of the ambient cistern, this suggests that the vessel cannot represent the vein of Galen or an internal cerebral vein but a persistent fetal vein: the median prosencephalic vein

    Q354. CALCIFIED BRAIN METASTASES OCCUR WITH ;;
    1bronchogenic carcinoma;;
    2ca breast;;
    3ovariamn ca;;
    4renal cell ca

    Q355. the most common genetic abnormality in medulloblastoma is ;;
    1isochromosome of chromosome 17;;
    2deletion of the short arm of chromosome 17;;
    3deletion on chromosome 1q and 10 q;;
    4amplification of MYC;

    ans 1/2 ...

    reference 7th edi robbins
    medulloblastoma
    Molecular Genetics.

    The most common genetic alteration is loss of material from the short arm of chromosome 17. This often occurs in the setting of an abnormal chromosome derived from duplication of the long arm of chromosome 17 (isochromosome 17q or i(17q)). The identity of the tumor suppressor gene that is lost from chromosome 17 is not clear; although the p53 gene is located on this chromosome, it does not appear to be the relevant gene. A variety of other genetic alterations have been found in medulloblastomas, including in the Sonic hedgehog/patched pathway (involved in control of normal proliferation of cerebellar granule cells), the Wnt signaling pathway (including APC and β-catenin), and others. Tumors that have increased levels of neurotrophin receptor trkC have a better clinical outcome. Microarray analysis has recently demonstrated that there are distinct patterns of gene expression that are found in classic, compared to desmoplastic, medulloblastomas, and that patterns of expression can be used to stratify tumors according to clinical outcome

    Q356. ABDUCTOR POLLICIS LONGUS IS SUPPLIED BY ;;
    1ANT INTEROSSEOUS NERVE;;
    2POST INTEROSSEOUS NERVBE;;
    3MEDIAN NERVE;;
    4 RADIAL NERVE;

    Q357. WHICH of the following is not a post transcrptional modification of RNA;;
    1SPLICING;;
    25 ' CAPPING;;
    33 ' POLYADENYLATION;;
    4GLYCOSYLATION

    Q358. ADAMSONS FRINGE IS DUE TO ;;, WHICH INFECTION;;
    1BACTERIAL;;
    2VIRAL;;
    3FUNGI;;
    4PROTOZOAL

    Q359. CARDINAL SIGN OF ECZEMA IS ;;
    1PAPULE;;
    2MACULE;;
    3ERYTHEMA AND ITCHING;;
    4VESCICLE;

    Q360. FOLLOWING TUMORS ARE known to occur with VHL DISEASE , EXCEPT ;;
    1ENDOLYMPHATIC SAC TUMORS;;
    2PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA;;
    3MANDIBULAR OSTEOMAS;;
    4.ISLET CELL TUMORS

    Q361. SECTION 377 OF THE INDIAN PENAL CODE DEALS WITH ;;
    1RAPE;;
    2ADULTERY;;
    3INCEST;;
    4UNNATURALSEXUAL OFFENCES

    Q362. pseudo community is seen in ;;
    1dementia;;
    2drug dependance;;
    3schizotypal personality disoder;;
    4paranoid delusional disorders;

    4paranoid delusional disorders;;----answer

    A shared paranoid belief system was identified among members of a sect-like group. The imagined ldquoparanoid pseudocommunityrdquo includes both persecutorial conspiracies and networks extending and supporting the group. Delusional hypotheses are frequently reorganized within this paradigm, as are accompanying verbal styles. A paranoid perceptual and cognitive style is maintained by leader influence, information-processing roles of members, and the dogmatic, insular, elitist, and antagonistic qualities of this encapsulated subculture.

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