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    1.Which of the following will be seen in a villous of the placenta :
    a. syncytiotrophoblast
    b. cytotrophoblast
    c. yolk
    d. decidual cells
    e. blood vessels

    2. as pregnancy progresses, the amniotic fluid :
    a. become more hypotonic
    b. concentration of Na will falls
    c. urea concentration increases
    d. LFP concentration increase
    e. PH become more acidic

    3. These methods of placenta transfer are appropriate for the following substances :
    a. oxygen _______________ active
    b. fats __________________pinocytosis
    c. iron __________________active
    d. co2 ___________________ passive
    e. antibodies _______________ pinocytosis


    4. morphine :
    a. the major pathway for it is detoxification is by oxidation to gentisic acid
    b. increase biliary tract pressure
    c. is eliminated mainly in the conjugated state via glomerular filtration
    d. is secreted in the bile
    e. produce excitement in male and female equally it does.

    5. codeine
    a. is not effective in large doses for severe pain
    b. large doses cause excitement
    c. large dose causes narcosis
    d. is strong anittusive agent
    e. aspirin and codeine are a useful combination against headache

    6. the hazards of induction of anesthesia by injection of thiopentone are :
    a. severe hypotension
    b. cessation of respiration
    c. necrosis following extra vascular injection
    d. bronchospasm
    e. stimulation of bronchial and salivary secretions

    7. pethidine:
    a. has analgesic properties . effective for biliary colic
    c.will often relieve bronchial spasm
    d.has quinidine like effect on myocardium
    e. may cause hypotension

    8. halothane :
    a. is potent anesthetic and poor analgesic
    b. cause uterine relaxation
    c. cause liver failure in biliary tract disease
    d. does not increase the catecholamine secretion
    e. cause increased blood loss in therapeutic abortion

    9. the gynecoid pelvis :
    a. is the second commonest type of female pelvis
    b. has wider anteroposterior than transverse diameter at the pelvic prim
    c. has less prominent ischial spines than android pelvis
    d. has ashallow ,wide sacrosciatic notch
    e. has a parallel pelvic side wall .

    10. the capsule of the hip joint :
    a. contain fibrous bands which convey nutrient arteries supplying neck of femur
    b. is strongest anteriorly and superiorly strongest posterior-inferior
    d. cover the neck of the femur completely

    11. the sacroiliac joint :
    a. is asynovial joint
    b. its main bond is the dorsal sacroiliac ligament
    c . the interossious ligament is the strongest ligament of the joint
    d. has anterioposterior rotary ligament
    e. movements here are impaired by pregnancy

    12. which of the following statements are correct in relation to the ischial spines :
    a. they lie between the greater and lesser sciatic notches
    b. they mark the begging of the forward curve of the birth canal
    c. they are of particular prominence in platypelloid pelvis
    d. when the head at its level , they consider that head is not yet engaged .
    e.the internal pudendal nerve lies in close relationship to the spines

    13. the following structures pass below the piriformis muscle through the greater sciatic notch :
    a. sciatic nerve
    b. the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
    c. the pudendal nerve
    d. the nerve to the obturator externus
    e. the inferior gluteal vessels

    14. an ideal pelvis has :
    a. a straight sacrum
    b. an angle of inclination of 135
    c. asubpubic angle of about 70
    d. palpable sacral promontory .
    e. parallel pelvic side walls


    15. chromatin negative conditions include :
    a. xx
    b. xo
    c. xxy
    d. xxx
    e. xy

    16.differentiation of sexual organs :
    a. is primarily directed by genetic factors
    b. is influenced by supra renal cortex
    c. is influenced by N((0)) of primordial germ cells
    d. is influenced by over ripeness of ovum at fertilization
    e. is not affected by chromosomal constitution

    17. male and female analogues :
    a. testis correspond to ovary
    b. prostatic utricle corresponds to vagina
    c. ventral penis corresponds to labia majora
    d. distal male urethra corresponds to female vestibule
    e. penis corresponds to crus clitoridis

    18. the barr body :
    a. arise from the Y chromosome
    b. is found in turner syndrome
    c. is found in testicular feminization S
    d. occurs in 10 % of normal male
    e. is found near the cell membrane on microscopic examination.

    19. drugs which affect the fetus in late pregnancy :
    a. oxytetracycline
    b. long acting sulfa
    c. streptomycin
    d. ampicillin
    e. erythromycin

    20. cytotoxic drugs :
    a. antimetabolites include methotrexate 5FU, 6 mercaptopurine
    b. methotrexate block folic reductase
    c. alkaylating agents include thiotepa and synthetic progestins
    d. cycophosamide causes hemorrhagic cystitis
    e. vincristine causes peripheral neuropathy

    21. the drug of choice for typhoid fever :
    a. sulphadiazine
    b. penicillin
    c. chloramphenicol
    d. tetracycline
    e. neomycin

    22. the following karyotypes are appropriate :
    a. turners syndrome 46 XO
    b. testicular feminization 47 XY
    c. klinfelters syndrome 47 XXY
    d. super female 46 XXX
    e.down syndrome 47 trisomy 21

    23. ambiguous external genitalia at birth :
    a. are commonly due to congenital adrenal hypoplasia
    b. are associated with drug ingestion during pregnancy
    c. occurs in testicular feminization syndrome
    d. occurs in true hermaphroditism
    e. are commonly associated with abnormal karyotype

    24. the following effective against penicillinase producing staph :
    b. carboncillin
    c. ampicillin
    d. phenoxy methyl penicillin

    25. the following items are useful for prevention of side effect of chemotherapy :
    a. full body irradiation
    b.folinic acid
    c. scalp cooling
    d. corticosteroids
    e. leucocytes transfusion

    26. the clotting mechanism :
    a. the clotting factors may be assayed chemically
    b. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin monomer by splitting fibrinopeptides A + B
    c. thrombin alters antihaemophilic factor VIII
    d. thrombin is important in platelets haemostatic behavior
    e. platelets accelerate the intirinsic clotting pathway by providing Ca
    27.estrogen metabolism by the liver :
    a. all the estrogens are inactivated by the liver
    b. estrogen is 16 alpha- hydroxylated to 16 alpha hydroxytesterone
    c. excretion in the bile is either in the conjugated or free form
    d. in the liver cellular disease , impaired hydroxylation occur
    e. urinary estrogen determination is a useful liver function test

    28. cholesterol :
    a. is a constituent of most cell membranes
    b. is a precursor of steroid only
    c. synthesis take place mainly from acetate
    d. synthesis occurs in microsomes and cell supply
    e. bile salts are important un the regulation of its metabolism

    29. amniotic fluid contains the following protein :
    a. alpha 1 globulin
    b. alpha 2 globulin
    c. B globulin
    d. Y globulin
    e. all the above

    30. normal haemopoiesis requires the following elements of vitamins :
    a. iron
    b. folic acid
    c. cyanocobaamine
    d. copper
    e. manganese

    31. is it true that :
    a. insulin promote the uptakes of glucose by muscle cells
    b. glucose 6- phosphatase occurs in muscle but not in liver
    c. adrenalin promotes the breakdown of hepatic glycogen
    d. lactate is the end product of the aerobic metabolism of glucose
    e. insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of langerhans

    32. which of the following are correct :
    a. DNA is found in the nucleus and cytoplasm
    b. RNA is found in the nucleus only
    c. RNA is found in the cytoplasm only
    d. RNA is found in the cytoplasm and nucleus
    e. DNA is the chief constituent of ribosomes

    33. which of the following are active process :
    a. Ca ++ transport in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    b. Hcl secretion in the gastric epithelium
    c. amino acid transport in the gut
    d.glucose transport in the erythrocyte
    e. C1/HCO exchange in erythrocytes

    34. statistics :
    a. the median is a value such that 50 % of the observation fall above it and 50 % below it
    b. the mode describes the most frequent value
    c. the standard deviation measures scatter of distribution
    d. the variance measures the greatest spread
    e. sequential trials allow a trial to be discontinued at the earliest moment at which a judgment can be objectively formed

    35. the standard deviation of a group of observation :
    a. is the square of variance of this group
    b. is a measure of the scatter observation around the mean
    c. has a normal Gaussian distribution
    d. may be used as the basis of the calculation of X 2
    e. about 91 % of observation lie within 2 standard deviation of the mean

    a. beta rays may be +ve or –ve electrone
    b. gamma rays are similar to x-ray
    c.a roentgen is equal to 48 ergs/gm
    d. a rad measures emitted radiation
    e. a rad is equal to 100 ergs for energy/gm

    37. Radiation: the following isotopes have the half lives:
    a. cesium 137 - 15 years
    b. cobalt 60 - 5.2 years
    c. radium 226 - 158 years
    d. radium 222 - 1620 years
    e. strontium 90 – 25 years

    38. Respiratory changes in pregnancy:
    a. with increasing pressure , the ribs flare out
    b. the normal 168 subcostal angle increase to +_ 103 at turn
    c. the diaphragm rise by +_ 4 cm
    d.the transverse diameter of the chest increase by +_ 2 cm
    e. respiratory is mainly diaphragmatic in pregnancy.

    39. the following respiratory functions increase in pregnancy:
    a. vital capacity
    b. tidal volume
    c. residual volume
    d. inspiratory capacity
    E. minute ventilation

    40. Cardiac action in pregnancy:
    a. the mean COP is +_ 61/min
    b. COP rises by +_1.5 L/M during 1st 10 weeks
    c. COP rises by 1/3 during pregnancy
    d. pulse rate rise by 1/5 during pregnancy
    e. stroke volume falls during pregnancy

    41. Effects of changed respiratory functions in pregnancy:
    a. blood pH falls in pregnancy
    b. plasma bicarbonate fall
    c. plasma Na level fall
    d. plasma osmolality fall
    e. dyspnea is common even in absence of pathology

    42. Erythrocytes & haemoglobin in pregnancy:
    a. RBC fall from the average non – pregnant level of +_4.5 mill/ml to a minimum of +_3.5 mill/ml at about 30 weeks
    b. the RBC count rises after 30 weeks
    c. the hematocrit rises progressively to 38 weeks
    d. erythrocytes tend to be more spherical in shape
    e. Hb falls from 137 – 140 g/L to 110 – 120 g/L

    43. Total body water:
    a. may be as low as 30 % of body weight in newborn
    b. is greater in male than female
    c. is one half to 2/3 of body weight measured by dentrium oxide
    e. is less in thin people

    44. Lymphatics:
    a. are characterized by their fast flow
    b. are lined by endothelial cells
    c. are permeable to protein
    d. are scarce in cellular tissue
    e. of intestine , transport and absorbed fat

    45. Na reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubules:
    a. is under hormonal control
    b. is a passive process
    c. is related to K secretion
    d. is accompanied by passive absorption of CL
    e. increased in pregnancy .

    46. Which of the following dietary component are most likely to be inadequate in human pregnancy?
    a. ascorbic acid
    b. vitamin E
    c. Ca++
    b. Nacl
    e. Iron

    47. Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to left with:
    a. raised temp
    b. raised PCO2
    c. reduced PH
    d. anemia
    e. stored blood

    48. Hyperventilation:
    a. in necessarily followed by period of apnea
    b. decreased H2CO3 in the plasma
    c. leads to tetany
    d. increased Po2 of arterial blood
    e. correct pH in metabolic acidosis

    49. Veins:
    a. of lower limbs have no valves
    b. of neck are never collapse in erect position
    c. are thin walled
    d. Are innervated
    e. of upper limb have no valves

    50. Insulin cause:
    a. increase utilization of glucose by the cells
    b. increase glycogen store by the liver
    c. decrease the amino acids and level in blood
    d. decrease protein synthesis
    e. decrease fatty acids levels in the blood

    51. in respiratory acidosis:
    a. the blood plasma reaction is acid
    b. the kidney excrete an alkaline urine
    c. the plasma bicarbonate is decreased
    d. the primary defect is hypoventilation
    e. cause can be ventilation/perfusion imbalance

    52. Toxoplasmosis:
    a. the dog is the definite host
    b. the parasite exist in 2 forms cyst & oocyst
    c. invasion is by the cyst
    d. the oocyst is also important in human infection
    e. cause cervical lymphadenopathy

    53. The following diseases have an incubation period less than 10 days:
    a. rabies
    b. filariasis
    c. dengue
    d. yellow fever
    e. hepatic amoebiasis

    54. Anaerobic bacteria:
    a. include gm +ve as well as gm –ve organism
    b. produce hyaluronidase
    c. bacteroid fragilis is most commonly seen
    d. corticosteroid therapy lessen the chance of infection
    e. the anaerobic gm –ve bacilli & anaerobic coccci are the major agent in aerobic infection
    55. Hepatitis B antigen:
    a. consist of Hbs Ag fraction
    b. consist of Hbc Ag fraction
    c. is only found in the serum sufferers (2-6) weeks after evidence of transaminase activity
    d. occurs in 1/10000 of Caucasian
    e. may spread in faeces

    56. Structure of the simpler virus:
    a. in the simpler viruses , the mature virus particle is the virion
    b. the protein coat is the capsid
    c. the centre is a single molecule of nuclei A
    d. the nucleocapsid is the nucleic acid core plus the protein coat
    e. capsids are composed of repeating units of one or a small number of polypeptides .

    57. the agents of first choice for the organism mentioned are :
    a. N. gonorrhea : cephalothin
    b. T. palladium : tetracycline
    c. C. wechiu : penicillin G
    d. E. coli : gentamycin
    e. S. aureus : methicillin, oxacillin or norfloxacin

    58. consider cell necrosis , a nucleus which shrivels and become more dense is described as:
    a. karyorhexis
    b. karyolysis
    b. pyknosis
    d. vacular degeneration
    e. condensation

    59. Mismatched blood transfusion may lead to:
    a. haemoglobinemia
    b. haemoglobiuria
    c. bilirubinuria
    d. polycythaemia
    e. renal failure

    60. The characteristic reaction to be found in a tubercle usually includes:
    a. pus cells
    b. siderocyte
    c. foreign body giant cells
    d. epithelioid cells
    e. lymphocytes

    61. Multinucleated giant cells are seen in man in association with:
    a. cat-scratch disease
    b. measles
    c. rheumatic fever
    d. syphilis
    e. TB

    65. Necrosis is an important feature of the lesion in:
    a. acute anterior poliomyelitis
    b. labour pneumonia
    c. rheumatic fever
    d. tertiary syphilis
    e. viral hepatitis

    66. the following are true of a normal distribution :
    a. 95 % of observations lie within mean +- 1 standard deviation (SD)
    b. 2.5 % of observations lie below 2 standard deviation of the mean.
    c. student s t-test could be used to compare the date with those of another population which is normally distributed
    d. anon-parametric test may may be used to compare the data with those of another population .
    e. 99 % of observational lie within 2.6 standard errors of the mean

    67. The following statements are correct:
    a. the standard error of the mean (SEM) provides an index of the spread of observations around the mean
    b. the standard error of the mean is calculated as the square root of variance
    c. the standard deviation is generally smaller than the standard error of the mean
    d. the standard deviation is an index of the reliability of the mean
    e. one advantage of the standard deviation is that it could be manipulated mathematically

    68. Hyperpigmenation can occur in pregnancy in the following sites:
    a. nipples and areolae
    b. umbilicus
    c. axillae
    d. perineum
    e. face
    69. Alkalinization of the urine will enhance the excretion of:
    a. phencyclidine
    b. amiphetamine
    c. phenobarbitone
    d. aspirin
    e. imipramine

    70. Which of the following drugs may be administered orally with tetracycline?
    a. magnesium trisilicate
    b. aluminum hydroxide
    c. salicylates
    d. indomethacin
    e. ferrous sulphate
    71. Cell cycle specific antineuplastic agents act during following diseases:
    a. DNA synthesis
    b. transcription
    c. function of the mitotic spindle
    d. predna synthetic phase
    e. G0 phase

    72. Normal amniotic fluid contains:
    a. glucose
    b. fructose
    c. lactose
    d. lactic acid
    e. citric acid

    73. Concerning the physiology of amniotic fluid:
    a. at term , it consist only of fetal urine
    b. is removed mainly by fetal swallowing
    c. is maximum at term
    d. 400 – 500 ml are produced /24hrs
    e. 5 ml/kg/hr is produced by a term fetus

    74. which of the following separate maternal and fetal blood in human placenta :
    a. trophoblast
    b. maternal vascular endothelium
    c. fetal vascular endothelium
    d. maternal connective tissue
    e. fetal connective tissue

    75. Tinea capitis:
    a. is very common in adult
    b. can be caused by epidermophyton floccosum
    c. can be easy treated topically
    d. is common in children than adult
    e. can occur in an epidemic

    76. Hepatitis A is commonly transmitted by:
    a. shared needles of drug users
    b. faecal oral transfer
    c. airborne respiratory droplets
    d. blood transfusion
    e. insect vectors

    77. Human papilloma viruses:
    a. are typed by DNA hyperdization
    b. are associated with condylomata acuminate
    c. rarely cause infection in sexually active men
    d. are associated with cervical cancer
    e. should be subtyped for identification

    78. digestive function in a healthy adult involves :
    a. decreased production of saliva following parasympathetic activity
    b. voluntary oesophageal contraction
    c. release of gastrin from the antral portion of the stomach
    d. delayed gastric emptying after a fatty meal
    e. increased pepsin secretion with vagal stimulation

    79. Monocytes in peripheral blood :
    a. are less common than eosinophil granulocytes
    b. are more common than basophil granulocytes
    c. are phagocytic .
    d. may migrate into tissues
    e. are decreased in pregnancy

    80. when blood vessel is injured :
    a. factor XII is activated by collagen
    b. factor VII is activated by thromboplastin
    c. the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms share a common pathway following activation of factor VII
    d. tissue factors are responsible for the speed of clot formation
    e. the fibrin monomer first formed is soluble in plasma

    81. comparing the male and female (gynaecoid ) bony pelvis :
    a. the subpubic angle is greater in the female
    b. in the female the diameter of the acetabulum is less than the distance between the acetabular rim and the symphysis pubis
    c. the interspinous distance is greater in the female
    d. the greater sciatic notch is larger in the male
    e. the curvature of the sacrum is greater in the female

    82. The peritoneum:
    a. is lined by stratified squamous epithelium
    b. has a visceral layer united firmly with underlying organs
    c. has a parietal layer innervated by somatic spinal nerves
    d. has venous drainage to the portal vein
    e. can function as a dialyzing membrane

    83. concerning the rectus sheath :
    a. above the costal margin rectus abdominis lies on the costal cartilages
    b. below the arcuate line the internal oblique splits to enclose rectus abdominis
    c. it contains the musculo-phrenic artery
    d. it is innervated by the ilio – inguinal nerve
    e. pyramidalis is innervated by the subcostal nerve

    84. The following drugs are effective systemically when given by mouth:
    a. tetracycline hydrochloride
    b. gentamicin sulphate
    c. streptomycin
    d. chloramphenicol
    e. nifedipine

    85. The administration of chloroquine phosphate may cause:
    a. retinopathy
    b. bleaching of the hair
    c. changes in the cornea
    d. deafness
    e. photosensitivity

    86. Calcification is associated with:
    a. chronic renal failure
    b. renal calculi
    c. parathyroid adenoma
    d. hyaline degeneration in uterine fibroids
    e. secondary deposits in bone from prostatic carcinoma

    87. collagen
    a. is the most abundant protein in the body
    b. contains hydroxyproline
    c. depends in part on non-covalent bonds for its strength
    d. is a component of basement membranes
    e. is formed from procollagen

    88. Wound healings is delayed by:
    a. insulin
    b. ultraviolet light
    c. zinc deficiency
    d. low temperature
    e. glucocorticoids

    89. Prostaglandins:
    a. are synthesized from endoperoxides
    b. have half live in the circulation of 6 hrs
    c. are metabolized in the lungs
    d. are synthesized in platelets
    e. are synthesized by vascular endothelium

    90. compare with cow milk, human milk contains more:
    a. lactose
    b. casein
    c. sodium
    d. water
    e. ascorbic acid

    91. The pelvic surface of the sacrum:
    a. gives origin to the piriformis muscle
    b. gives origin to the levator ani muscle
    c. is broader in the male than in the female
    d. transmit the dorsal rami of the sacral nerves
    e. is in contact with the anal canal

    92. Chromaffin cells:
    a. are innervated by pre – ganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
    b. are present in the adrenal cortex
    c. are derived from neuro- ectoderm
    d. can decarboxylate amino acids
    e. are present in celiac ganglia

    93. in the fetal circulation:
    a. the ductus venosus delivers blood directly into the superior vena cava
    b. the umbilical artery returns blood from the placenta
    c. the ductus aretriosus carries blood to the lungs
    d. blood returning from the lungs is 90 % saturated with oxygen
    e. blood from the inferior vena cava is largely directed through the foramen ovale

    94. The following structures take part in the formation of the anterior fontanelle in the fetal skull:
    a. lambdoidal suture
    b. occipital suture
    c. sagittal suture
    d. glabella
    e. frontal suture

    95. The ductus venosus:
    a. is part of the embryonic heart
    b. is a shunt preventing blood from passing to the fetal lungs
    c. gives rise to the legamentum teres
    d. caries blood with a higher po2 than umbilical blood
    e. is derived from the anterior cardinal vien

    96. Successful lactation is:
    a. maintained by estrogens
    b. maintained by progesterone
    c. initiated by a prolactin surge
    d. maintained by human placental lactogen
    e. inhibited by dopamine

    97. in a woman of reproductive age, serum concentration of the following hormones exhibit a recognized pattern of diurnal variation:
    a. progesterone
    b. melatonin
    c. cortisol
    d. oestrone
    e. follicle stimulating hormone

    98. Serum concentration of the following increases during pregnancy:
    a. sex hormone binding globulin
    b. prolactin
    c. total thyroxin
    d. follicle stimulating hormone
    e. 17 alpha – hydroxyprogesterone

    99. Luteinzing hormone:
    a. is required for normal corpus luteum survival
    b. has a half life in the circulation of 30 hrs
    c. is released in pulses
    d. in the male stimulates testosterone production
    e. plasma concentration are increased in post menopausal women

    100. The secretion of growth hormone:
    a. occurs in the hypothalamus
    b. ceases when the adult stage is reached
    c. is decreased during stress
    d. is increased during fasting
    e. is increased with exercise

    101. Parathyroid hormone:
    a. decrease the renal secretion of phosphate
    b. increase calcium resorption in the bone
    c. depresses pituitary activity
    d. concentration in blood are raised when the calcium level falls
    e. increases renal tubular resorption of calcium

    102. Aldosterone:
    a. reduce sodium resorption in the proximal convoluted tubules
    b. reduces sodium absorption in the descending loop of Henle
    c. increase sodium absorption in the distal convoluted tubules
    d. increase potassium loss from the tubule
    e. increase sodium absorption in the collecting tubule

    103. The germination of tetanus spores in a wound is inhibited by :
    a. tissue trauma
    b. oxygen
    c. injection of toxin
    d. injection of toxoid
    e. removal of devitalized tissue

    104. cytomegalovirus :
    a. is adenovirus
    b. may be cultured readily in cell free media
    c. is a cause of cerebral calcification
    d. causes haemolytic anaemia in the neonate
    e. may be transmitted in the saliva

    105. hypokalaemia may be caused by :
    a. bendrofluazide
    b. digoxin
    c. spironolactone
    d. carbenoxolone

    e. amiloride

    106. The following are required for haemostatic clot formation:
    a. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
    b. platelet phospholipids
    c. active conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
    d. fibrin degradation product
    e. antithrombin

    107. Myometrial contractility:
    a. is calcium dependant
    b. is associated with phosphorylation of myosin light chain
    c. is independent of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
    d. is mediated by somatic nerves
    e. depend on myometrial gap junctions

    108. The following values fall within the normal range for the adult female bladder:
    a. residual urine of 100 ml
    b. voiding volume of 250 ml
    c. bladder capacity of 900 ml
    d. intravesical pressure rise to less than 10 cm H2O during early filling
    e. maximum urine flow rate of 60 ml / second

    109. in the testis:
    a. maturation from spermatogonia to spermatozoa takes about 29 days
    b. sertoli cells can mature into spermatids
    c. leydig cells produce inhibin
    d. luteinzing hormone inhibits the secretion of testosterone
    e. large quantities of fructose are present in the seminal fluid

    110. Function of the spleen in the healthy adult includes:
    a. erythropoiesis
    b. destruction of erythrocytes
    c. formation of B lymphocytes
    d. phagocytosis of bacteria
    e. production erythropoietin

    111. metronidazole :
    a. is effective against giardia lamblia
    b. is effective when administered by rectum
    c. should not be administered intravenously
    d. is usually effective against Entamoeba histolytica
    e. interfere with ethanol metabolism

    112. carcinoma in situ in epithelium ( intraepithelial neoplasia) is characterized by :
    a. increased mitotic activity
    b. loss of polarity
    c. increased adhesiveness to underlying stroma
    d. pyknosis
    e. increased thickness of epithelium

    113. the following provide conclusive evidence of pregnancy in uterine curetting :
    a. deciduas compacta
    b. arias-stella changes in endometrial glands
    c. spiral arterioles
    d. plasma cell infiltration
    e. chorionic villi

    114. Complications of myocardial infarction include:
    a. fibrous pericarditis
    b. aortic aneurysm
    c. ventricular mural thrombi
    d. coronary atherosclerosis
    e. ventricular aneurysm

    115. in the pathogenesis of thrombi :
    a. prostacyclin induces platelet aggregation
    b. platelets synthesized thromboxane A2
    c. thromboxane A2 induces vasoconstriction
    d. contact with subendothelial collagen causes platelet

    116. the characteristic features of addisonian pernicious anaemia include :
    a. leucocytosis
    b. inheritance as an autosomal dominant trait
    c. a raised corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
    d. an increased incidence of gastric neoplasia
    e. an increased incidence of primary hypothyroidism

    117. immunodeficiency states may be associated with :
    a. viral infection of T lymphocytes
    b. B cell lymphomas
    c. glucocorticoids administration
    d. haemolytic disease of the new born
    e. untreated Hodgkins lymphoma

    118. concerning immunoglobulins :
    a. IgG contain tow heavy chains
    b. IgM is produced before IgG in the immune response
    c. IgE is the principle immunoglobulin secreted by mucous membranes
    d. IgA is the principle immunoglobulin involved in allergic reactions
    e. IgA is secreted in breast milk

    119. antibodies :
    a. are proteins
    b. are formed in the fetus before 12 weeks of intrauterine life
    c. have an average molecular weight of around 10,000 Daltons
    d. of rhesus type are genetically transmitted
    e. are produced by the ribosomes of plasma cells

    120. the following disorders have an X linked pattern of inheritance :
    a. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
    b. kleinfelters syndrome
    c. adrenogenital syndrome
    d. haemophilia B
    e. familial hypercholesterolemia

    121. the following genetic disorders are inherited as autosomal recessives :
    a. Duchene muscular dystrophy
    b. Huntingdon’s chorea
    c. tay-sachs disease
    d. retinoblastoma
    e. achondroplasia

    122. concerning radiation physics :
    a. an electron has a greater mass than a proton
    b. a positron has the same charge as an electron
    c. a proton has a positive charge
    d. a neutron has almost the same mass as a proton
    e. the hydrogen nucleus is a neutron

    123. the conversion of glucose to lactic acid :
    a. occur in a single enzymatic reaction
    b. is the only pathway for the synthesis of ATP in the red blood cell
    c. is a reversible process in skeletal muscle
    d. is inhibited by high cellular concentration of ATP
    e. occurs in skeletal muscle when the availability of oxygen is limited

    124. normal human seminal fluid :
    a. coagulates in vitro
    b. conatins sucrose
    c. has a pH of 5
    d. may contain 15 % of morphologically abnormal spermatozoa
    e. is predominantly produced within the testis

    125. glucocorticoids :
    a. promotes hepatic gluconeogenesis
    b. suppress uptake of glucose by the muscle
    c. promote protein breakdown
    d. promote fat breakdown
    e. increase glycolysis in adipose tissue

    126. cholesterol :
    a.Is essential dietary requirement
    b. is present in the plasma membrane of all human cells
    c. can not be synthesized by the liver
    d. is transported in the circulation bound to albumin
    e. is a precursor for the synthesis of steroid hormones .

    127. fetal haemoglobin (HbF) :
    a. is not formed before 20 weeks of intrauterine life
    b. is more resistant than adult haemoglobin to denaturation by alkali
    c. in the fetus constitutes 80-90 % of the haemoglobin at term
    d. represent less than 5 % of total haemoglobin 8 weeks after birth
    e. is increased in adult patients with beta thalassaemia

    128. glucagon :
    a. is a polypeptide hormone
    b. is secreted by beta cells of the pancreatic islets
    c. causes muscle glycogenolysis
    d. has a half life of 5-10 minutes in the circulation
    e. secretion is stimulated by cortisol

    129. the female breast :
    a. has a base which extend to the ninth rib
    b. consist of up to 10 lobes
    c. partially overlies the latissmus dorsi muscle
    d. receives blood from the internal thoracic artery
    e. is supplied in part by supraclavicular nerves

    130. labia majora :
    a. have a subcutaneous layer of non-striated muscle
    b. have a fibro-fatty cord
    c. contain the termination of the round ligament of the uterus
    d. unite anteriorly forming the fourchette
    e. have the openings of the greater vestibular glands on their medial surfaces .

    131. the external dural (epidural) space :
    a. contains the vertebral venous plexus
    b. lie between pia and dura mater
    c. contains no cerebrospinal fluid
    d. ends at the level of the second lumbar vertebra
    e. begins at the level of the first cervical vertebra

    132. the following become occluded at or shortly after birth :
    a. hepatic veins
    b. ductus venosus
    c. sinus venosus
    d. ductus arteriosus
    e. proximal ends of the hypogastric arteries

    133. in the cell cycle :
    a. DNA synthesis takes place during the M (mitosis) phase
    b. RNA synthesis takes place predominantly during the S (synthesis ) phase
    c. protein synthesis occurs during the G1 (pre-synthesis ) phase
    d. microtubule assembly takes place during the G2 (post-synthesis ) phase
    e. chromatids migrate to poles during metaphase

    134. the peritoneum :
    a. is lined by a stratified squamous epithelium
    b. has a visceral layer united firmly with underlying organs
    c. has a parietal layer innervated by somatic spinal nerves
    d. has venous drainage to the portal vein
    e. can function as a dialysing membrane

    135. the following are clinical manifestation of infection of Coxsackie’s viruses :
    a. aseptic meningitis
    b. endometritis
    c. epidemic myalgia
    d. herpangina
    e. pericarditis

    136. prolactin secretion :
    a. increases during sleep
    b. increases during exercise
    c. is increased by thyrotropin-realising hormone (TRH)
    d. is decreased by dopamine
    e. is increased by estrogen

    137. in statistics a normal distribution :
    a. has 50 % of its values on or above the mean
    b. has 95 % of its values within tow standard deviations of the mean
    c. has 10 % of its values below the 90th centile
    d. has all its values below the third quartile
    e. has 99 % of its values within three standard deviations of the mean

    138. after the menopause :
    a. calcium excretion decreases
    b. there is a decreased secretion of follicle stimulating hormone
    c. there is an increased secretion of progesterone
    d. the vagina pH is increased
    e. the endometrium becomes unresponsive to the action of estrogen

    139. in the human female :
    a. no new ova are formed after birth
    b. miotic division is completed by puberty
    c. prostaglandins are produced in the endometrium
    d. average menstrual blood loss is about 150 ml
    e. menstrual flow is maintained from the basal arteries

    140. the following viruses are commonly transmitted by coitus :
    a. hepatitis B virus
    b. human papilloma virus
    c. herpes simplex virus
    d. ebstein bar virus
    e. cytomegalovirus

    141. therapeutic substances predominantly metabolized by the liver include :
    a. gentamicin
    b. frusemide
    c. morphine
    d. phenothiazine
    e. chlorpropamide

    142. the following drugs are frequently used in the treatment of the named infections :
    a. co-trimoxazole __ vaginal candidiasis
    b. ampicillin – tuberculosis
    c. tetracycline – trachoma
    d. chloramphenicol – purulent conjunctivitis
    e. trimethoprim – trichomoniasis

    143. concerning haemoglobin :
    a. haem contain ferric iron
    b. the alpha globulin chain contains more than 100 amino acids
    c. the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is modified by the red blood cell concentration of 2-3 , diphosphoglycerate
    d. the oxygen affinity of deoxyhaemoglobin is greater than that of haemoglobin
    e. a fall in pH shifts the haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve to the left

    144. Hereditary spherocytosis:
    a. is inherited as a sex linked recessive characteristic
    b. is associated with a deficiency of red cell pyrineratekinase
    c. is associated with decreased fragility of red cells
    d. may present in the first month of life
    e. is associated with splenomegaly

    145. stimulation of alpha adrenergic receptors :
    a. does not occur with nor adrenaline
    b. in the blood vessels of the skin leads to vasoconstriction
    c. increases intestinal peristalsis
    d. leads to contraction of erector pili muscles
    e. leads to constriction of the pupil

    146. epithelioid cells :
    a. are transformed tissue macrophages
    b. are found in Crohns disease
    c. are found in granulation tissue
    d. contains phagosomes (secondary lysosomes )
    e. may undergo mitosis

    147. in chronic infectious disease :
    a. there is hyperplasia of the reticulo – endothelial system
    b. specific IgG production is diminished
    c. humorally mediated hypersensitivity reactions are common
    d. anaemia is often of microcytic type
    e. serum albumin levels are reduced

    148. the following ions are predominantly extracelluar :
    a. sodium
    b. chloride
    c. magnesium
    d. phosphate
    e. potassium

    149. disease transmitted by insect vector :
    a. trypansomiasis
    b. yellow fever
    c. achistosomiasis
    d. leishmaniasis
    e. filariasis

    160. penicillin :
    a. may be active against gram negative bacteria
    b. interferes with normal cell wall synthesis
    c. is inactivated by beta lactamase enzymes
    d. is effective against resting bacterial cells
    e. is contraindicated in pregnancy

    don hesitate to contact me

  2. Guest

    Guest Guest

    74. which of the following separate maternal and fetal blood in human placenta :
    a. trophoblast
    b. maternal vascular endothelium
    c. fetal vascular endothelium
    d. maternal connective tissue
    e. fetal connective tissue[/b]
  3. obgspl

    obgspl Guest


    Where can I get answers of these all 74 questions. :?:
  4. Guest

    Guest Guest

    look this is a large number of MCQS and the answers of some of them i will bring it , but for others it need group discussion and already i have the answers but it is better to do it as group
  5. obgspl

    obgspl Guest


    How to join group discussion :?: :?: Pl guide...........
  6. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Plz also give the key,or lets start discussion
  7. Guest

    Guest Guest

    hi mandible,
    thanks for the support u r providing for the people preparing for part one. i wud really appreciate if u add the answers for these questions soon since there is very less time left for the exam, i tried a lot to search a study partner but didnt find one so its difficult to be sure of the answers i find out. thanks again
  8. Guest

    Guest Guest

    hi mandible will u plz provide key for these qs.....reply plz.thanks.
  9. Guest

    Guest Guest

    last mrcog exam 06.09.2010 easy or difficult
  10. Guest

    Guest Guest

    last MRCOG part 1 exam 6th of september

    paper one was of acceptable difficulty
    most of my other friends who appeared together for exam felt that paper 2 was tough

    I remember some of the EMQs which are abit peculiar, will share it with you guys once my registration has gone through( I have sent in request for registration for this forum, but havent got my email yet)

    one thing for sure, there is a whole new exam bank which is quite tough and not easily found on other MRCOG online courses
  11. shalinik

    shalinik Guest

    mrcog part 1 experience

    paper was not very difficult but anatomy and stats was bit difficult.
    please anybody tell me what is cut off passing score? :roll:
  12. enigma

    enigma Guest

    hi ,can any one tell me how to do study for Mrcog part 1,either site or books.
  13. Guest

    Guest Guest

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