NOV 2007 AIIMS PR PG EXAM FULL PAPER ARRANGED SUBJECT WISE

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  1. PG Jam

    PG Jam Guest

    NOV 2007 AIIMS PR PG EXAM FULL PAPER ARRANGED SUBJECT WISE

    Anatomy ;
    1. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
    a. Peroneus brevis
    b. Peroneus longus
    c. Peroneus tertius
    d. Extensor digitorum brevis
    2. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is:
    a. Pulmonary artery
    b. Pulmonary vein
    c. Bronchus
    d. Bronchial artery
    3. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
    a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
    b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles
    c. Claw hand
    d. adduction of thumb
    Ans[d]
    4. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
    a. The penis and scrotum
    b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
    c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
    d. Shaft of the penis only.
    5. . Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
    a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
    b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
    c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
    d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery
    6. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
    a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
    b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
    c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
    d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
    7. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:
    a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
    b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
    c. Subcostal and Umbilical
    d. …
    8. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
    a. Ascending colon
    b. Hepatic flexure
    c. Splenic flexure
    d. Descending colon
    9. Gall bladder epithelium is:
    a. Simple squamous
    b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
    c. Simple columnar
    d. Simple columnar with brush border
    10. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
    a. Innermost intercostals
    b. Transverses thoracis
    c. External intercostals
    d. Internal intercostals
    11. . Dangerous area of the face is:
    a. Ciliary body
    b. Sclera
    c. Optic nerve
    d. Retina
    12. Urothelium does not line:
    a. Collecting ducts
    b. Minor calyx
    c. Ureter
    d. Urinary bladder
    13. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
    a. Caudate lobe
    b. Quadrate lobe
    c. Left lobe
    d. Right lobe
    14. . If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
    a. Right dominance
    b. Left dominance
    c. Balanced dominance
    d. ..
    15. Regarding genital development, true is:
    a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
    c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
    d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
    16. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
    a. Isthmus of the thyroid
    b. Inferior thyroid artery
    c. Thyroidea ima
    d. Inferior thyroid vein




    17. . Tongue develops from:
    a. Occipital somites
    b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch
    c. Cervical somites
    d. ..
    18. The ureter develops from:
    a. Metanephros
    b. Mesonephros
    c. Mesonephric duct
    d. Paramesonephric duct
    19. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
    a. Deep cardiac plexus
    b. Superficial cardiac plexus
    c. Phrenic nerve
    d. Subcostal nerve
    20. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
    a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
    b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
    c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
    d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
    21. Perforators are not present at the:
    a. Ankle
    b. Distal calf
    c. Mid thigh
    d. Below the inguinal ligament


    Physiology

    22. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
    a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
    b. Raised calcitonin levels
    c. Increased phosphate levels
    d. Increase in levels of 24,2% Hydroxylase in liver
    23. . Not seen in SIADH is:
    a. Hyponatremia
    b. Hypouricemia
    c. Volume depletion
    d. ..
    24. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
    a. Inverse relation with heart rate
    b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
    c. Constant relation to external work done
    d. Negligible in quiescent heart
    25. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
    a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis
    b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
    c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
    d. Interference with electron chain transport
    26. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
    a. Seen in the lung of smokers
    b. Increases cAMP levels
    c. Used to treat hypertension
    d. ..
    27. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
    a. FSH
    b. LH
    c. Inhibin
    d. ..




    28. . Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
    a. PCT
    b. DCT
    c. Collecting duct
    d. Thick ascending loop of Henle
    29. . A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
    a. Increased peak expiratory flow
    b. Increased total lung capacity
    c. Increased residual volume
    d. Decreased functional residual capacity
    30. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
    a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
    b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
    c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
    d. ..
    31. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
    a. Atrial contraction
    b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
    c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed
    d. ..
    32. . Fast axonal transport is by all except:
    a. Dynenin
    b. Kinesin
    c. Microfilaments
    d. Neurofilaments
    33. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
    a. Sympathetic innervation
    b. Parasympathetic innervation
    c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
    d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis

    34. . Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
    a. Mineralocortoid excess
    b. Increased excretion of base
    c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
    d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids
    35. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
    a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
    b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
    c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
    d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
    36. All of the following occur when the blood flows through systemic capillaries except:
    a. Increase in hematocrit
    b. Hb curve shifts to the left
    c. Increased protein content
    d. Decrease in Ph
    37. Exercise causes:
    a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
    b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
    c. Body temperature rise
    d. …
    38. Which of the following is correctly matched:
    a. B cells – Somatostain
    b. D cells – Insulin
    c. G cells – Gastrin
    d. …..
    39. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
    a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
    b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise
    c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
    d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected
    Biochemistry
    40. Peroxidase is used to detect:
    a. Glucose
    b. Ammonia
    c. Hemoglobin
    d. Creatinine
    41. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
    a. Hydrochloric acid
    b. Phenol
    c. Formalin
    d. Fluoride
    42. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
    a. Sodium hypochlorite
    b. Iodine
    c. Absolute alcohol
    d. Quarternary ammonium compounds
    43. PCR requires:
    a. Li++
    b. Ca++
    c. Na++
    d. Mg++
    Ans [d] Ref lippincoatt




    44. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
    a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
    b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
    c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
    d. ..
    45. Vitamin K is required for:
    a. Carboxylation
    b. Hydroxylation
    c. ..
    d. ..
    46. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be:
    a. Convergent
    b. Divergent
    c. Opportunistic
    d. ..
    47. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
    a. Drabkin’s method
    b. Sahli’s method
    c. Spectrometry
    d. Wintrobe’s method
    Ans.d.
    Wintrobe’s method for ESR
    Sahli's method of haemoglobin estimation has been used since long. The International Nutritional Anaemia Consultive Group (INACG) and International Committee for Standarization in Hematology (ICSH) have recommended the Drabkins as the method of choice and have suggested that all other methods should be adjusted to be comparable to this method
    48. . Nephelometry is:
    a. Lambert-Beer law
    b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
    c. Defraction of light
    d. Decreased intensity of light
    ans.b.
    Nephelometry
    This technique is widely used in clinical laboratories because it is relatively easily automated. It is based on the principle that a dilute suspension of small particles will scatter light (usually a laser) passed through it rather than simply absorbing it. The amount of scatter is determined by collecting the light at an angle (usually about 70 or 75 degrees).
    Antibody and the antigen are mixed in concentrations such that only small aggregates are formed that do not quickly settle to the bottom. The amount of light scatter is measured and compared to the amount of scatter from known mixtures. The amount of the unknown is determined from a standard curve.


    Forensic
    49. Telefona is:
    a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
    b. Pulling of hair
    c. Beating on both the ears
    d. ..
    Ans[c] ts a method of torture
    50. . In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
    a. Head
    b. Neck
    c. Thorax
    d. Abdomen
    51. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
    a. Loss of testis
    b. Loss of eye
    c. Loss of kidney
    d. Abrasion of the face
    52. Not a part of informed consent is:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Concealed information…..


    53. . In tandem [bleep] number of [bleep] fired
    a.1
    b.2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    ans ; tandem [bleep] = piggy back [bleep]



    SPM
    54. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
    a. Measles
    b. BCG
    c. DPT
    d. OPV
    55. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
    a. School teachers
    b. Medical officers of health centers
    c. Ophthalmologists
    d. Health assistants
    56. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
    a. Screening
    b. Surveillance
    c. Case finding
    d. Notification
    57. . A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
    a.Re-start the immunization according to age
    b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT
    58. . Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except:
    a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age
    59. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
    a. Immigration of healthy persons
    b. Increased cure rate of the disease
    c. Longer duration of the disease
    d. ..
    60. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
    a. BOAA
    b. Sanguinarine
    c. Aflatoxin
    d. ..
    61. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
    a. Index case
    b. Primary case
    c. Secondary case
    d. Tertiary case



    62. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
    a. Maternal deaths/live birth
    b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
    c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
    d. Maternal deaths/100000 population

    63. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
    a. Evaluation
    b. Monitoring
    c. Input - output analysis
    d. Network analysis
    64. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
    a. Tetanus toxoid
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. BCG
    d. Measles
    65. Kala-azar, vector is:
    a. Flea
    b. Tsetse fly
    c. Sand fly
    d. Mite
    66. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
    a. Reduvid bug
    b. Trombiculid mite
    c. Enteric pathogens
    d. Cyclops
    Ans
    67. Mirena is:
    a. Used in abortion
    b. Anti-progesterone
    c. Progesterone IUCD
    d. Hormonal implant
    Ans contain LNG

    68. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:
    a. Preclinical studies
    b. Phase I studies
    c. Phase II studies
    d. Phase IV studies
    Ans[a] internet ref
    69. True about dietary allowance are all except:
    a. Adequate intake
    b. RDA
    c. Dietary intake according to food composition
    d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA


    70. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
    a. Multipurpose worker
    b. Laboratory technician
    c. Health educator
    d. Medical officer
    71. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
    a. Trachoma
    b. Glaucoma
    c. Diabetic retinopathy
    d. Cataract
    72. . Regarding flourosis all are true except:
    a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
    b Deposition of flurides in the skeletal system and muscles
    c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
    d. Genu valgum
    73. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
    a. Mustard oil
    b. Groundnut oil
    c. Corn oil
    d. Fish oil
    74. Not a measure of central tendency:
    a. Mode
    b. Range
    c. Variable
    d. Standard deviation
    75. Primary Health Care is:
    a. Health for all
    b.
    c.
    d.



    Microbiology
    76. HACEK group includes all except:
    a. Hemophilus aprophillus
    b. Acinetobacter baumanni
    c. Eikenella corrodens
    d. Cardiobacterium hominis
    77. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question):
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis
    b. H.ducreyi
    c. Treponema pallidum
    d. ..
    78. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
    a. M protein
    b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
    c. Group C carbohydrate antigen
    d. ..
    Ans [c]
    79. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
    a. Thayer-martin
    b. TCBS medium
    c. Scirrow’s medium
    d. Loeffer’s

    Ans
    80. Prions consist of:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. DNA, RNA and proteins
    c. RNA and proteins
    d. Only proteins
    Ans[d]
    81. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
    a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
    b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
    c. ..
    d. ..
    82. . In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
    a. HbsAg
    b. IgM anti-HbcAg
    c. HbeAg
    d. Anti-HbsAg
    Ans
    83. True about polioviruses is:
    a. Most cases are symptomatic
    b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
    c. ..
    d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
    84. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
    a. Immune to diphtheria
    b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
    c. Susceptible to diphtheria
    d. Carrier of diphtheria

    Ans [c]

    85. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is:
    a. Deep invasion is not seen
    b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
    c. Metachromatic granules are seen
    d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change


    Pharmacology
    86. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
    a. Rifampicin
    b. Ethambutol
    c. Streptomycin
    d. Pyrazinamide
    Ans[a]


    87. A 40 year old man, HEAVY smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations IN INFERIOR LEADS. WHAT THERAPY HE SHOULD RECIEVE IMMEDIEATELY
    a. Aspirin
    b. Thrombolytics
    c. Pantoprazole
    d. Beta-blockers
    Ans ?
    88. True about fibrates is all except:
    a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
    b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
    c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
    d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
    89. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
    a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
    b. More sedative than other hypnotics
    c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
    d. ..
    90. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with rheumatic heart disease , which is contraindicated:
    a. Misoprostol
    b. Methyl ergometrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. Carboprost.


    91. Thiazides cause all except:
    a. Hyperglycemia
    b. Increased calcium excretion
    c. Increased uric acid excretion
    d. Useful in congestive heart failure
    92. Regarding furosemide, true is:
    a. Given by parenteral route only
    b. Used in pulmonary oedema
    c. Acts at the PCT
    d. .
    93. . Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
    a. Ritodrine
    b. MgSO4
    c. Nifedipine
    d. Progesterone
    94. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
    a. Hypercalcemia
    b. Osteoporosis
    c. Cancer
    d. Vitamin D intoxication
    95. . True about protease inhibitors are all except:
    a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene
    b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
    c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
    d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
    96. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
    a. Tacrolimus
    b. Metformin
    c. Cyclosporine
    d. Phenytoin
    97. Antiemetic with most "affinity" for "5Ht3" is:
    a. Ondansetron
    b. Granisetron
    c. Dolasetron
    d. Pavalosetron
    [snip]. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
    a. Induces microsomal enzymes
    b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
    c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
    d. Highly protein bound
    99. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
    a. Beta blockers
    b. Glucocorticoids
    c. ..
    d. ..
    100. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
    a. Propofol
    b. Ketamine
    c. Atracurium
    d. Fentanyl
    101.
    All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
    a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
    b. Bronchospasm
    c. Flushing
    d. Hypertension
    102. All are true about Thiopentone except:
    a. NaCO3 is a preservative
    b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
    c. Agent of choice in shock
    d. Cerebroprotective
    103. . Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
    a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
    b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
    c. Macrolides,…
    d. ..
    104. All but one acts via GABA Aexcept:
    a. Thiopentone
    b. Midazolam
    c. Zolpidem
    d. Promethazine
    105. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
    a. Atenolol
    b. Amlodepine
    c. Statins
    d. Metformin
    106. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
    a. Loop diuretics
    b. Lithium
    c. Vitamin D intoxication
    d. ..
    107. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
    a. Heparin
    b. Aspirin
    c. Warfarin
    d. Antithrombin-III




    108. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
    a. 5HT-1A
    b. 5HT-1B
    c. 5HT-1F
    d. 5HT-3

    Pathology
    109. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
    a. Dedifferentiation
    b. Redifferentiation
    c. Transdifferentiation
    d. Subdifferentiation
    110. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
    a. CD1a
    b. CD57
    c. CD3
    d. CD68

    111. Caspases are involved in:
    a. Apoptosis
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d.
    112. . In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
    a. Hyalinization of the valve
    b. Fibrinoid necrosis
    c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
    d. ..
    113. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. Proteins
    c. Carbohydrate
    d. Lipids
    Ans[a]

    114. PAS does not stain:
    a. Fungal cell wall
    b. Basement membrane of bacteria
    c. Glycogen
    d. Lipids

    115. Not used to stain fats:
    a. Oil red O
    b. Congo red
    c. Sudan III
    d. Sudan black

    116. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
    a. Factor VIII
    b. Factor IX
    c. Von Willebrand factor
    d. Fibrinogen
    Ans
    Contains,100 U of factor VIII, 250* mg of fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, factor XIII, and fibronectin.

    117. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
    a. Type 1
    b. Type 2
    c. Type 3
    d. Type 4
    Ans
    118. FNAC needle gauge size is:
    a. 26 – 28
    b. 22 – 26
    c. 18 – 22
    d. 16 – 18
    Ans[
    119. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
    a. Foramen of Monro
    b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
    c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
    d. Fourth ventricle
    120. Basement membrane consists of all except:
    a. Laminin
    b. Nidogenin
    c. Entactin
    d. Rhodopsin

    121. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
    a. β2 – microglobulin
    b. Transthyretin
    c. AANF
    d. Pyrin
    122. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
    a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
    b. Hemosiderosis
    c. Interstitial pneumonia
    d. Pulmonary oedema
    123. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
    a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. ..

    124. . In HIV window period indicates:
    a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
    b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
    c. .
    d. .

    125. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
    a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
    b. Alcoholic hepatitis
    c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
    d. Hemochromatosis


    126. Councilman bodies are seen in:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    b. Wilson’s disease
    c. Acute viral hepatitis
    d. ..
    Ans[c]
    127. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
    a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
    b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
    C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
    D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity
    128. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
    a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
    b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
    c. Tuft necrosis
    d. Mesangiolysis
    129. The BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol



    Medicine
    130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
    a. Congenital renal defect
    b. Obstructive uropathy
    c. Intrauterine infections and scar
    d. Is a normal variety

    131. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Glomerulonephritis
    b. Ca-Urinary bladder
    c. Ureteral calculus
    d. ..
    132. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
    a. MEN 1
    b. MEN 2A
    c. MEN 2B
    d. MEN 2C
    133. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
    a. PNH
    b. Megaloblastic anaemia
    c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
    d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
    134. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
    a. Astrocytoma
    b. Optic tract glioma
    c. Glioblastoma multiforme
    d. .
    135. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen in:
    a. Pre-renal azotemia
    b. ATN
    c. Intrinsic renal failure
    d. Renal artery stenosis

    136. With CSF all are true except:
    a. Persistent leakage causes headache
    b. Neutrophils are normally not present
    c. pH is less than that of blood
    d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi


    137. . Not a feature of DKA is:
    a. Tachypnoea
    b. Bradycardia
    c. Abdominal pain
    d. Dehydration
    138. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT

    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude

    139. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
    a. Central obesity
    b. Episodic hypertension
    c. Easy bruisability
    d. Glucose intolerance
    140. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
    141. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
    a. Astereognosis
    b. Hemiparesis
    c. Hemisensoriloss
    d. No neurological deficit
    142. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
    a. HBV-DNA polymerase
    b. IgG anti-HBc
    c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
    d. Anti-HbsAg

    143. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
    a. Brachyury gene
    b. BMPR-4
    c. Nodal gene
    d. FGF-8

    144. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
    a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    b. Depletion of glycogen
    c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
    d. Perinuclear staining
    145. VHL syndrome includes all except:
    a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
    b. Pheochromocytoma
    c. Hemangioendotheliomas
    d. Islet cell tumours
    146. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
    a. Pregnancy..
    b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
    c. DM with acute MI
    d. Post kidney transplant


    147. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in:
    a. Alexander’s disease
    b. Krabbe’s ds.
    c. Canavan’s ds
    d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
    148. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
    a. Intradural extramedullary
    b. Extradural
    c. Intramedullary
    d. All have equal distribution
    149. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
    a. D-dimer levels
    b. Multidetector CT angiography
    c. Colour Doppler USG
    d. Catheter angiography
    150. .{ ECG was shown}. 70 year old man with no previous significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Vasovagal shock
    b. Pulmonary embolism
    c. Complete heart block
    d. Temporal lobe epilepsy
    151. All are essential components of TOF except:
    a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
    b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    c. Infundibular stenosis
    d. Aorta overriding
    Ans[c]
    152. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
    a. Deep myometrial invasion
    b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
    c. Enlarged uterine cavity
    d. Poor tumour differentiation
    Surgery
    153. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Medial rotation
    d. Lateral rotation




    154. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
    a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
    b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
    c. It occurs after previous surgery
    d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use

    155. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
    a. Subphrenic abscess
    b. CO2 narcosis
    c. Positioning of the patient
    d. Compression of the lung
    156. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
    a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    b. Observation in hospital
    c. Surgical drainage
    d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks
    157. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
    a. Percutaneous aspiration
    b. I.V. antibiotics
    c. Surgical removal
    d. Observation

    158. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. Bilateral renal agenesis
    d. ..

    159. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
    a. Proton pump inhibitors
    b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
    c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
    d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer

    160. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
    a. Abdomen – Neck
    b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
    c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
    d. Chest – Neck
    Paeds
    161. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
    a. Clonic
    b. Tonic
    c. Subtle
    d. Myoclonic
    Ans[c] refrence Farnoff neonatology

    subtile seizure the most frequently observed category of neonatal seizures, which include repetitive buccolingual movements, orbital-ocular movements, unusual bicycling or peddling, and autonomic findings

    162. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
    a. Increased PAPP-A
    b. Increased β-HCG
    c. Absent nasal bone
    d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow
    163. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
    b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
    c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
    d. Disseminated HSV infection
    164. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
    a. Medullary sponge kidney
    b. Bladder extrophy
    c. Unilateral renal agenesis
    d. Double ureter

    165. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Post viral syndrome
    b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
    c. Follicular bronchitis
    d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
    166. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
    a. Bronchoscopy
    b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
    c. CT scan of the chest
    d. Allergen sensitivity test
    167. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
    a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
    b. Nasal electrode potential difference
    c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
    d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation
    168. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
    a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
    b. Manometry
    c. Lower bowel contrast enema
    d. Oesophagoscopy

    169. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
    a. Fusion of podocytes
    b. Acute tubular necrosis
    c. Deposition of IgA
    d. Thickened basement membrane
    170. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
    a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
    b. Put a nasogastric tube
    c. Surgery
    d. Tube thoracostomy
    orthopaedics

    171. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
    a. Tenosynovitis
    b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
    c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    d. Trigger finger
    172. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
    a. Enneking
    b. Manchester
    c. Edmonton
    d. TNM

    173. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
    a. Head
    b. Chest
    c. Legs
    d. Abdomen
    174. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
    a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    b. Increased serum calcium
    c. Looser’s zones
    d. Proximal myopathy
    Obs & Gyn
    175. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
    a. Holoprosencephaly
    b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
    c. Ureteral agenesis
    d. Medullary sponge kidney
    176. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
    a. Coarcatation of aorta
    b. Eisenmenger’s complex
    c. Aortic stenosis
    d. Mitral stenosis
    177. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
    a. Polycystic ovarian disease
    b. Multiple pregnancies
    c. Ovarian cancer
    d. Teratogenecity




    178. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
    a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
    d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV
    179. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
    a. Sperm count > 20 million
    b. Volume > 1 ml
    c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
    d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %
    180. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
    a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
    b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
    c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
    d. Apply McDonald’s stitch
    181. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transverse lie is associated with the following complication:
    a. Uterine rupture
    b. Vaginal laceration
    c. Uterine atony
    d. Cervical laceration

    182. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
    a. Down’s syndrome
    b. Molar pregnancy
    c. Over estimated gestational age
    d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
    183. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Anorexia nervosa
    b. Occult carcinoma
    c. Hypothyroidism
    d. HIV

    184. Goniometry is measurement of:
    a. Number of gonococci
    b. Length of the genital hiatus
    c. Urethrovesical angle
    d. ..
    Ans [c]? As per dictionary , “measuring anglesâ€



    185. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
    a. HSG
    b. Hysteroscopy
    c. Endometrial culture
    d. Saline infusion USG
    Opthal
    186. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
    a. Hydration
    b. Wide separated collagen bands
    c. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
    d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
    ENT
    187. . A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
    a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
    b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
    c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
    d. Total laryngectomy

    188. child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
    a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
    b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
    c. Tympanoplasty
    d. Tympano-mastoid exploration
    189. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
    a. FACIAL MRI
    b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
    c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
    d. Inferior meatus puncture
    Skin
    190. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Androgenetic alopecia
    b. Telogen effluvium
    c. Anagen effluvium
    d. Alopecia areata




    191. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
    a. Lichen planus
    b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
    c. Alopecia areata
    d. Lupus vulgaris
    Ans[c]
    192. True about vitiligo are all except:
    a. Topical steroids give good results
    b. Genetic predisposition
    c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment
    d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis
    Psychiatry
    193. Regarding type A personality, false is:
    a. Hostility
    b. Time pressure
    c. Competitiveness
    d. Mood fluctuations

    Ans [c]
    194. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
    a. Third person auditory hallucinations
    b. Inappropriate emotions
    c. Long stretches of mood changes
    d. Formal thought disorder
    195. Altered perception of real objects is:
    a. Illusion
    b. Delusion
    c. Hallucination
    d. Delirium
    196. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
    a. Unconscious conflict
    b. Maladjusted reinforcement
    c. Organic neurological problem
    d. ..

    197. Learning does not include:
    a. Modeling
    b. Catharsis
    c. Exposure
    d. Sensitization

    Radiology
    198. Hampton’s hump in:
    a. Pulmonary embolism
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Bronchogenic Ca
    d. ..
    Ans [a] Hampton's hump, also Hampton hump, is a radiologic sign seen on chest X-rays indicating pulmonary infarction and classically due to pulmonary embolism induced atelectasis.
    199. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot
    b. Uncorrected TGA
    c. Tricuspid atresia
    d. Ebstein’s anomaly
    Ans Chest X-ray showing 'egg on end' appearance suggestive of transposition of great arteries!
    200. Floating ‘Water-Lilly sign is seen in:
    a. Hydatid ds.
    b. Aspergillosis
    c. Tuberculous cavity
    d. ..
    Ans [a] USG sign of Hydatid disease!

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