PGI MAY 2010 Q & A With Explanations

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    RADIOLOGY Q 1-9
    1. Which combination is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:
    A. Ra-226 : 1626 years
    B. I-131 : 60 years
    C. Co-60: 5.26 years
    D. Ir-192:74 years
    E. Cs-137: 30 years

    Ans: B. (I-131 : 60 years) & D. (Ir-192:74 years)

    T1/2 of Ir-192 is 74 days & I-131 is 8 days


    2. Radium emits:
    A. α Rays
    B. β Rays
    C. γ Rays
    D. Neutron
    E. X-rays

    Ans: A. (α Rays), B. (β Rays), C. (γ Rays) & D. (Neutron)

    Radium emits alpha, beta, and gamma raysQ. It produces neutrons when mixed with beryllium.


    3. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t to:
    A. Enlargement of left atrial appendage
    B. Azygous vein enlargement
    C. Coronary artery aneurysm
    D. Pulmonary edema
    E. Right atrial hypertrophy

    Ans: A (Enlargement of left atrial appendage)

    4. Figure of eight is seen in:
    A. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)
    B. Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
    C. TOF
    D. Ebstein anomaly
    E. ASD

    Ans: A (Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC))

    5. Earliest investigation for diagnosing Ankylosing spondylitis is :
    A. MRI STIR sequence
    B. Bone scan
    C. CT scan
    D. X-ray
    E. USG

    Ans: A (MRI STIR sequence)

    Dynamic MRI with either short tau inversion recovery (STIR) sequence or T1-weighted images with contrast enhancement, is highly sensitive and specific for identifying early intraarticular inflammationQ, cartilage changes, and underlying bone marrow edema in sacroiliitis


    6. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:
    A. IVP
    B. X-ray
    C. PET- Scan
    D. USG
    E. CT scan

    Ans: C (PET- Scan)

    7. 1 Becquerel is equal (Disintegration/sec) to:
    A. 3.7 x 1010
    B. 2.7 x 1010
    C. 1.7x 1010
    D. 3.7x 10-2
    E. 1

    Ans: E (1)

    1Bq= 1 disintegration/second
    1 Curie (Ci)= 3.7 x 1010 disintegration/second

    8. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:
    A. Strontium-89
    B. I-131
    C. Gold-198
    D. P-32
    E. Rhenium-186

    Ans: A. (Strontium-89), B (I-131) & D(P-32) & E. (Rhenium-186)

    9. Teardrop bladder seen in :
    A. Pelvic hematoma
    B. Pelvic lipomatosis
    C. T.B
    D. Neurogenic bladder
    E. Intraperitoneal bladder rupture

    Ans: A.(Pelvic hematoma) & B. (Pelvic lipomatosis)

    Extraperitoneal bladder rupture causes teardrop bladder or Pear-shaped bladderâ€- Radiology Review Manual by Wolfgang Dahnert 5th/ 975


    Skin1-2
    1.Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:
    A. Leprosy
    B. Pinta
    C. Syphilis
    D. Pytriasis alba
    E. Pytriasis versicolor

    Ans: C (Syphilis)
    “Pinta: Secondary skin lesion is caused by hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentationâ€- Ananthanarayan 8th/378

    2. Acantholysis is/are seen in:
    A. SSSS
    B. Impetigo
    C. Hailey –Haiky disease
    D. Darrier’s disease
    E. Pemphigus vulgaris

    Ans: C (Hailey ...), D (Darrier’s disease) & E (Pemphigus ...)


    ANESTHESIA1-4


    1. True about propofol :
    A. Indicated in egg allergy
    B. Can be used in porphyria
    C. It is of barbiturate group
    D. Used in day care surgery

    Ans: B. (Can be ..) & D. (Used in...)

    2. True about Bain circuit:
    A. Mapleson type B
    B. Mapleson type D
    C. Can be used for spontaneous respiration
    D. Can be used for controlled ventilation
    E. Coaxial
    Ans: B. (Mapleson..), C. (Can be ...), D. (Can be used ....) & E. (Coaxial)

    3. True about Laryngeal mask airway:
    A. More reliable than face mask
    B. Prevent aspiration
    C. Alternative to Endotracheal tube (E.T.T)
    D. Does not require laryngoscope & visualisation
    E. Indicated in full stomach to prevent aspiration
    Ans: A. (More ...), C. (Alternative ...) & D. (Does not ...)

    4. True statement regarding pin index:
    A. Pin is present on cylinder
    B. Pin is present on machine
    C. Not effective if wrong gas is filled in cylinder
    D. Pin index of air is 2,5
    Ans: B. (Pin is ...) & C. (Not effective if ..)

    5. True about Epidural anesthesia:
    A. Effects start immediately
    B. C/I in coagulopathies
    C. Given in subarachnoid space
    D. Venous return decreases
    Ans: B. (C/I in ...) & D. (Venous ...)


    PSYCHIATRY1-7


    1.True about Autism:
    A. Persistent delusion
    B. Persistent hallucination
    C. Incoordinate social interaction
    D. Defective reciprocal interaction
    E. Onset after 5 yr

    Ans: C. (Incoordinate ....) & D. (Onset ...)


    2.SSRI is first line treatment for :
    A. OCD
    B. Panic disorder
    C. Social phobia
    D. Post traumatic stress disorder
    E. Adjustment disorder

    Ans: A. (OCD), B. (Panic disorder), C. (Social phobia), D. (Post ..)

    “The SSRIs are now 1st choice drugs for OCD, panic disorder, social phobia, eating disorders, premenstrual dysmorphic disorder & post traumatic stress disorder.â€- KDT 6th/446

    3.True about treatment of personality disorder:
    A. Antipsychotic drugs are used
    B. SSRI used in treatment
    C. Behaviour therapy
    D. No need of medication
    Ans: A. (Antipsychotic..), B. (SSRI ...), C. (Behaviour..) & D. (No need ...)

    4.Atypical (Second generation or newer) antipsychotics are:
    A. Aripiprazole
    B. Risperidone
    C. Pimozide
    D. Penfluridol
    E. Olanzapine

    Ans: A. (Aripiprazole), B. (Risperidone) & E. (Olanzapine)

    5.Indications of ECT is/are:
    A. Psychotic depression
    B. Catatonic schizophrenia
    C. Cyclothymia
    D. Dysthymia
    E. Post traumatic stress disorder

    Ans: A. (Psychotic depression) & B. (Catatonic schizophrenia)

    6.Features of serotonin syndrome associated with SSRI & MAOIs are:
    A. Tremors
    B. Agitation
    C. Cardiovascular collapse
    D. Hypothermia
    E. Suicidal tendency

    Ans: A. (Tremors), B. (Agitation) & C. (Cardiovascular collapse)

    7.Prophylactic blood level of Li is:
    A. 0.3 mEq/L
    B. 0.6 mEq/L
    C. 0.9 mEq/L
    D. 1.2 mEq/L
    E. 1.5 mEq/L

    Ans. B. (0.6 mEq/L), C. (0.9 mEq/L) & D. (1.2 mEq/L)

    Neeraj Ahuja 6th/84 : Writes about Li
    Therapeutic LevelsQ = 0.8-1.2 mEq/L
    Prophylactic LevelsQ = 0.6-1.2 mE/q


    ANATOMY1-10


    1.Which are not the flexors of forearm:
    A. Pronater teres
    B. Brachialis
    C. Brachioradialis
    D. Anconeus
    E. Flexor pollicis longus

    Ans: D (Anconeus) & E (Flexor pollicis longus)


    2.Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
    A. Femoral br. of genitofemoral nerve
    B. Superficial epigastric artery
    C. Psoas major
    D. Femoral vein
    E. Saphenous vein

    Ans: C (Psoas major) & D(Femoral vein)

    3. Flexor of lumbar spine is/are:
    A. Erector spinae
    B. External oblique muscle
    C. Internal oblique muscle
    D. Rectus abdominis
    E. Psoas major

    Ans: D(Rectus abdominis) & E(Psoas major)


    4.True about radial nerve:
    A. Branch of posterior cord
    B. Nerve of extensor compartment of forearm
    C. Arise from C5-T1
    D. Anterior interosseous nerve is branch of it
    E. Supply skin of extensor compartment

    Ans: A (Branch of..), B(Nerve of ..), C (Arise from..) & E(Supply..)

    5.Anterior triangles of neck are :
    A. Submental triangle
    B. Carotid triangle
    C. Supraclavicular triangle
    D. Digastric triangle
    E. Muscular triangle

    Ans: A. (Submental ...), B. (Carotid ..), D. (Digastric..) E. (Muscular ..)


    6.Features seen in common peroneal nerve injury:
    A. Inversion inability
    B. Loss of sensation of sole
    C. Foot drop
    D. Loss of extension of great toe
    E. Seen in Fibular neck #

    Ans: C. (Foot drop), D. (Loss of .....), E. (Seen ....)


    7.Teres major of liver is remanent of:
    A. Ductus venosus
    B. Umblical artery
    C. Ductus arteriosus
    D. Peritoneum
    E. Left umbilical vein

    Ans : E (Left umbilical vein)

    8.Rotator cuff is/are formed by all except:
    A. Supraspinats
    B. Infraspinatus
    C. Teres minor
    D. Teres major
    E. Subscapularis

    Ans: D (Teres major)

    9.Enchondral ossification is/are seen in:
    A. Long bones
    B. Flat bones of skull
    C. Clavicle
    D. Mandible
    E. Nasal bones

    Ans: A (Long bones)


    10.Deep venous system of brain consists of:
    A. Internal cerebral vein
    B. Great cerebral vein
    C. Basal veins
    D. Cavernous sinus

    Ans: A. (Internal cerebral vein), B. (Great cerebral vein) & (C Basal veins)


    PHYSIOLOGY1-6


    1.“Nerve terminal releases chemicalâ€- discovered by:
    A. Dale
    B. Withering
    C. Domagk
    D. Langley
    E. Loewi

    Ans: A. (Dale) & E. (Loewi)

    2.True about Nissl granule:
    A. Involves in RNA synthesis
    B. Present in axon
    C. Present in dendrite
    D. Involves in protein synthesis
    E. Structurally they are endoplasmic reticulum

    Ans: C. (Present in...), D. (Involves in ...) E. Structurally they..)


    3.Which of the following organ is not involved in Calcium metabolism:
    A. Lung
    B. Liver
    C. Spleen
    D. Skin
    E. Kidney

    Ans: C (Spleen)


    4.True about milk secretion:
    A. Neuroendocrine part of post. pituitary is involved
    B. Secretion by contraction of lactiferous sinus
    C. Oxytocin hormone is involved
    D. Prolactin cause contraction of Myoepithelial cells
    E. Affected by emotion

    Ans: A. (Neuroendocrine..), B. (Secretion..) C. (Oxytocin..) E. (Affected by emotion)


    6.CO2 retention is seen in:
    A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
    B. Respiratory failure
    C. High altitude
    D. Ventilatory failure
    E. Pulmonary edema

    Ans: B. (Respiratory...), D. (Ventilatory...), E. (Pulmonary ...)

    “As one ascends higher, the alveolar PO2 falls less rapidly & alveolar CO2 declines somewhat because of the hyperventilationQâ€- Ganong 23rd/618


    SPM 1-9

    1.True about Cardiovascular diseases (CVD):
    A. Urban & rural areas have equal incidence
    B. RHD is a important cause of CVD
    C. Primordial prevention is best strategy
    D. Coronary heart disease cause 25% of total death

    Ans: B. (RHD is ...), C. (Primordial ...) & D. (Coronary ...)

    2.All of the following are incinerated except :
    A. Mercury
    B. Radiological waste
    C. Halogen containing plastics
    D Human anatomical waste
    E. Animal waste

    Ans: A. (Mercury), B. (Radiological waste) & C. (Halogen ..)


    “Waste types not to be incinerated are : (a) pressurized gas containers; (b) large amount of reactive chemical wastes; (c) silver salts and photographic or radiographic wastes; (d) Halogenated plastics such as PVC; (e) waste with high mercury or cadmium content, such as broken thermometers, used batteries, and lead-lined wooden panels; and (f) sealed ampules or ampules containing heavy metalsâ€- Park 20th/696


    3.Zoonotic disease is/are transmitted by:
    A. Ticks
    B. Rat flea
    C. Sand fly
    D. Mosquito
    E. Mite

    Ans: All

    4.The states, where crude birth rate is higher than the national level:
    A. West Bengal
    B. Maharashtra
    C. Rajasthan
    D. Madhya pradesh
    E. Himanchal pradesh

    Ans: C. (Rajasthan) & D. (Madhya pradesh)

    CBR(2004 data) India:24.1
    Rajasthan:29
    MP : 29.8


    5.Assessment of Malnutrition is/are done by all except:
    A. Creatinine-height index
    B. Transferrin
    C. Total lymphocyte count
    D. Albumin concentration
    E. Folate concentration

    Ans: None (All option correct) Ref: (CSDT 11th/158)

    6.Feature of slow filter (w.r.t fast filter) is/are:
    A. Occupies less space
    B. Highly skilled operation
    C. Poor bacterial quality
    D. Take more time for purification
    E. Size of sand is smaller

    Ans: D. (Take more...) & E. (Size of sand is smaller)




    7.Features of RNTCP A/E:
    A. Active case findings is not done
    B. Included in NRHM in 2005
    C. Teachers act as DOTS agent
    D. Microscopy centre is established/1 Lac
    E. Achievement of atleast 85% cure rate

    Ans: B (Included in NRHM in 2005)

    “The NRHM has not advocated for integration for malaria, TB & HIV/AIDS program because they are the part of Milleniun Development Goalsâ€-National health Programs of India by Jugal Kishore 7th/91

    8.Dispersion of data is measured by:
    A. Coefficient of correlation
    B. Range
    C. Standard deviation
    D. Coefficient of variation
    E. Normal distribution curve

    Ans: B. (Range), C. (Standard deviation) & D. (Coefficient ...)


    9. Job functions of Health Assistant male are:
    A. ORS
    B. Collect Smear from any fever case
    C. Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough
    D. Immunisation
    E. Check minimum of 10% house in a village

    Ans: B. (Collect ....), D. (Immunisation) & E. (Check minimum ...)


    “ORS distribution is function of Health Worker Male & Femaleâ€- Park 20th/810-11
    “Collection of sputum smear from having person prolonged cough is function of Health Worker maleâ€- Park 20th/811


    PHARMACOLOGY 1-12

    1.Theophyllin toxicity level increased in all except:
    A. Smoking
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Increased alcohol intake
    D. Rifampicin
    E. Ciprofloxacin

    Ans: A. (Smoking), B. (Carbamazepine), C. (Increased...) & D. (Rifampicin)

    2.Following are drugs except:
    A. Nutrients
    B. Blood component
    C. Essential dietary ingredient
    D. Poison

    Ans: A. (Nutrients), B. (Blood ...) & C. (Essential ...)

    “A drug can be defined as a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effectâ€- Rang & Dale Pharmacology

    3.Drug not effective in pseudomonas infection:
    A. Ciprofloxacin
    B. Norfloxacin
    C. Aminoglycosides
    D. Ampicillin
    E. Piperacillin

    Ans: B. (Norfloxacin) & D. (Ampicillin)



    4. Aminoglycosides used in all except:
    A. Staph. aureus
    B. Streptococci
    C. E. coli
    D. Anaerobes
    E. Salmonella typhi

    Ans: D. (Anaerobes) & E. (Salmonella typhi)


    “For salmonella typhi aminoglycosides are not usedâ€- Harrison 17th/959(table)


    5.A person driving a vehicle met with an accident. He was on certain medications. Which of the following drugs, he might be taking
    A. Fluoxetine
    B. Fexofenadine
    C. Tramadol
    D. Buspirone
    E. Chlorzoxazone

    Ans: C. (Tramadol) & E. (Chlorzoxazone)


    6.Which of the following are β1 selective antagonist:
    A. Propanalol
    B. Atenolol
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Pindolol

    Ans: B. (Atenolol) & C.(Metoprolol )


    7.Peptides drugs are :
    A. Polymixin B
    B. Valinomycin
    C. Streptomycin
    D. Gramicidin S
    E. Nodularin

    Ans: A. (Polymixin B), B. (Valinomycin), D. (Gramicidin S) & E. (Nodularin)

    “Streptomycin is an aminoglycosidesâ€- KDT 6th /668


    8.Correctly matched pairs are:
    A. Rifampicin – inhibit bacterial DNA polymerase
    B. Terbinafine- inhibit fungal DNA polymerase
    C. Acyclovir- inhibit viral DNA polymerase
    D. Cytarabine- inhibit human DNA polymerse

    Ans: C. (Acyclovir...) & D. (Cytarabine...)


    9.Drugs which precipitates in renal tubule & cause obstruction:
    A. Indinavir
    B. Ceftriaxone
    C. Guaifenesin
    D. Atazanavir

    Ans: A. (Indinavir), C. (Guaifenesin) & D. (Atazanavir)

    10.Drugs that crosses blood brain barrier:
    A. Erythromycin
    B. Cotrimoxazole
    C. Ampicillin
    D. Aminoglycosides
    E. Ceftriaxone

    Ans: B. (Cotrimoxazole), C. (Ampicillin) & E. (Ceftriaxone)


    “Erythromycin do not cross BBBâ€-KDT 6th/728
    “Aminoglycosides do not penetrate brain or CSFâ€- KDT 6th/719
    “Ceftriaxone: Penetration into CSF is goodâ€-KDT 6th/706
    “Ampicillin: Penetration into CNS is poor, but in presence of active inflammation of meninges, the drug concentration are sufficient to kill bacteriaâ€- Katzung 10th/ 829-30

    Cotrimoxazole
    “Trimethoprim adequately crosses BBB while sulfamethoxazole has a poorer entryâ€-KDT 6th/685
    “Sulfamethoxazole is distributed widely in tissue & body fluids including CNS & CSFâ€- Katzung 10th/ 763

    11.Amphotericin B toxicity is ↑ed by:
    A. Normal saline
    B. Cardiac failure
    C. Lipid formulations
    D. Aminoglycosides


    PHARMACOLOGY .......................missing portion

    Ans: B. (Cardiac failure) & D. (Aminoglycosides)


    12.True statement regarding Bioassay :
    A. Done to know activity of endogenous substance
    B. To know toxicity & efficacy of drug

    Ans: A. (Done to .....) & B. (To know ....)

    Bioassay (biological assay ) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bioassay
    Purpose
    1.measurement of the pharmacological activity of new or chemically undefined substances
    2.investigation of the function of endogenous mediators
    3.determination of the side-effect profile, including the degree of drug toxicity
    4.measurement of the concentration of known substances (alternatives to the use of whole animals have made this use obsolete)
    5.assessing the amount of pollutants being released by a particular source, such as wastewater or urban runoff.


    ENT 1-5
    1.Surfers ear is:
    A. Exostosis
    B. Otosclerosis
    C. Otitis externa
    D. Squamous cell Ca
    E. Fibrous dysplasia

    Ans: A (Exostosis)
    Exostosis : abnormal bone growth within the ear canal.


    2.True about sphenoid sinus:
    A. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
    B. Duct open in middle meatus
    C. Open in sphenoethmoid recess
    D. Present at birth
    E. Present in greater wing of sphenoid

    Ans: C (Open in sphenoethmoid recess)



    3.Not included in oral cavity Ca:
    A. Base of tongue
    B. Gingivobuccal sulcus
    C. Soft palate
    D. Hard palate
    E. Buccal mucosa

    Ans: A. (Base of tongue) & C. (Soft palate)

    “The oropharynx includes the base of the tongue and tonsilâ€- P.L. Dhingra 5th/257
    “The palate is divided anatomically into the hard palate (part of the oral cavity) and the soft palate (part of the oropharynx)†-. emedicine.medscape.com ›Head & Neck Surgery

    4.Sampters triad includes:
    A. Bronchiectesis
    B. Asthma
    C. Aspirin sensitivity
    D. Nasal polyposis
    E. Tinnitus

    Ans: B. (Asthma), C. (Aspirin sensitivity) & D. (Nasal polyposis)


    5.Mandibular hypoplasia seen in:
    A. Usher’s syndrome
    B. Treacher-Collins syndrome
    C. Crouzon’s syndrome
    D. Velocardio-facial syndrome
    E. Achondroplasia

    Ans: B. (Treacher...), C. (Crouzon’s ...) & D. (Velocardio...)


    Ophthalmology1-8

    1. Postcataract infection can be prevented by:
    A. Preop oral antibiotics
    B. Postop oral antibiotics
    C. Intraop IV antibiotics
    D. Postop topical antibiotics

    Ans: D (Postop topical antibiotics)
    “Role of systemic antibiotics has been severely questioned by the endophthalmitis vitrectomy study at least for the cases of post cataract surgery endophthalmitisâ€- Clinical Practice in Ophthalmology by Sandeep Saxena 1st/414


    2.Features of vernal conjunctivitis are:
    A. Shield ulcer
    B. Horner-Tranta's spots
    C. Pappilary hypertrophy
    D. Herbert pits
    E. Pannus

    Ans: A. (Shield ulcer), B. (Horner..) & C. (Pappilary hypertrophy)

    Herbert pits & pannus are feature of trachomaQ- Khurana 4th/64-65


    3.Cause of Cataract
    A. Infrared
    B. Microwaves
    C. UV rays
    D. Obesity

    Ans: A (Infrared), C (UV rays) & D (Obesity)

    American Academy of Ophthalmology Section 11/56-57: Writes•Microwave radiation has been shown to cause cataracts in laboratory animals. Human case reports and epidemiologic studies are more controversial and less conclusive than experimental studies (So should not marked as an answer).

    4.Causes of floaters in DM is:
    A. Vitreous hemorrahage
    B. Vitreal detachment
    C. Maculopathy
    D. Infarction

    Ans: A (Vitreous hemorrahage)

    “Sometimes the onset of new floaters is secondary to Vitreous hemorrahage, often caused by advanced Diabetic retinopathyâ€- Parson 20th/88

    5.All are true about optic nerve except :
    A. Arises from axons of bipolar neurons
    B. 4 cm long
    C. Covered by 3 layers continuous with meninges
    D. Crossed by ophthalmic artery

    Ans: A. (Arises from ....) & B. (4 cm long)


    6.True about fovea:
    A. Cones present
    B. Visual acquity lowest
    C. Optic nerve passes
    D. Rods present
    E. Visual acquity highest

    Ans: A. (Cones present) & E. (Visual acquity highest)

    7.Features of non-proliferative DR is all except:
    A. Neovascularisation
    B. Soft exudate
    C. Hard exudate
    D. Vitreous detachment
    E. Cotton-wool spot

    Ans: A. (Neovascularisation) & D. (Vitreous detachment)

    8.A 10 yr boy present with b/l chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered :
    A. Hemogram
    B. X -ray of sacroiliac jt.
    C. HIV test
    D. Mountaux test

    Ans: A. (Hemogram), B. (X -ray of sacroiliac jt.) & D. (Mountaux test)
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    ORTHOPAEDICS 1-5
    1.True about parosteal osteosarcoma:
    A. Same prognosis as medullary type
    B. Never go to medulla
    C. May involve medulla

    Ans: C (May involve medulla)

    Devita 7th/1671
    • It has a better prognosis than classic osteosarcoma
    • It has intramedullary extension


    2.True about carpal tunnel syndrome:
    A. Occur in pregnancy
    B. Affects medial 3 ½ finger
    C. Associated with Hypothyroidism
    D. Froment sign positive
    E. Median nerve involvement is present

    Ans: A. (Occur in ..), C. (Associated ...) & E. (Median nerve ..)

    Carpal tunnel syndrome affects lateral 3 ½ fingers
    Froment sign is seen in ulnar nerve injury


    3.Complication of # radius are:
    A. Volmann ischemic contracture
    B. Myositis ossificans
    C. Infection
    D. Tendon rupture
    E. Angiodysplasia

    Ans: A. (Volmann ...), B. (Myositis..), C. (Infection) & D. (Tendon...)


    4.True about Duputurens contracture:
    A. A/w peyronie’s disease
    B. First affect index finger
    C. Nodule formation & thickening of palmar fascia
    D. Amputation may be required

    Ans: A. (A/w ...), C. (Nodule ...) & (D. (Amputation...)

    The ring finger is affected most commonly.


    5.All are true statement regarding talipes equinovarus except:
    A. Cubitus valgus
    B. Inversion of the foot
    C. Abduction of the forefoot
    D. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita causes it
    E. Treatment should start after 3 month

    Ans: A.(Cubitus valgus ), C (Abduction of the forefoot)& E( Treatment should start after 3 month)

    Initial treatment is always nonoperative and should be started as soon as possible, preferably the day the infant is born
    Adduction of the forefoot occurs


    BIOCHEMISTRY & Immunogenetics/MolecularBiology 1-13


    1.Non coding RNAs are :
    A. siRNA
    B. miRNA
    C. tRNA
    D. mRNA
    E. rRNA

    Ans: A. (siRNA), B. (miRNA), C. (tRNA) E. (rRNA)


    2.Which component transfers four protons :
    A. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
    B. Cytochrome c Oxidase
    C. Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase
    D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
    E. Succinate Q Reductase

    Ans:A (NADH-Q Oxidoreductase) & C(Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase)

    “Estimates suggest that for each NADH oxidized, complex I & III translocate four proton each & complex IV translocates twoâ€- Harper 28th/106
    Complexes I (NADH-Q oxidoreductase), III (Cytochrome-Q c oxidoreductase) and IV (Cytochrome c Oxidase) acts as proton pumps that cause pumping of protons from matrix across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the intermembrane space -Harper



    3.Hydrophobic aminoacids are:
    A. Methionine
    B. Isoleucine
    C. Tyrosine
    D. Alanine
    E. Asparagine

    Ans:ABD

    Satyanarayan 3rd/48
    Non-polar amino acids Q : These amino acids are also referred to as hydrophobic (water hatings). They have no change on the 'R' group. The amino acids included in this group are-alanine, leucine, isoleucine, valine, methionine, phenylalanine, tryptophan and proline.

    4.True about competitive inhibition of enzyme:
    A. ↑ Km
    B. ↓ Km
    C. ↑Vmax
    D. No change in Km or Vmax
    E. Vmax remain same

    Ans: AE

    5.Urea cycle enzymes are :
    A. Glutaminase
    B. Asparginase
    C. Arginosuccinate synthetase
    D. Ornithine transcaroxylase
    E. Glutamate dehydrogenase

    Ans: C (Arginosuccinate synthetase) & D (Ornithine transcaroxylase)



    6.Epimer combination(s) is/are:
    A. D-glucose & D- fructose
    B. D-mannose & D-talose
    C. D-glucose & D-mannose
    D. D-glucose & D- gulose
    E. D-galactose & D-glucose

    Ans:CE


    “Biologically, the most important epimers of glucose are mannoseQ (epimerized at carbon 2) & galactoseQ (epimerized at carbon 4)â€- Harper 28th /115
    “Galactose & mannose are not epimersâ€- Lippincott 4th/84 en.wikipedia.org /wiki/Gulose


    7.Glycosphingolipid is made up of :
    A. Glucose
    B. Glycerol
    C. Sphingosine
    D. Fatty acids
    E. Thromboxane A2

    Ans:ACD

    8.Calvin cycle enzymes are:
    A. G-6-PD
    B. Sedoheptulose- 1-7-bisphosphatase
    C. Glycerol Kinase
    D. Phosphoribulose kinase

    Ans: BD

    Calvin Cycle - Photosynthetic Carbon Reactions en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Calvin_cycle
    The Calvin cycle or Calvin–Benson cycle or Reductive Pentose Phosphate cycle is a series of biochemical reactions that take place in the stroma of chloroplasts in photosynthetic organisms.
    The Calvin Cycle, earlier designated the photosynthetic "dark reactions" pathway, is now referred to as the carbon reactionsQ pathway. Sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphatase (one of only three enzymes of the Calvin cycle that are unique to plants) cleaves sedoheptulose-1,7-bisphosphate into sedoheptulose-7-phosphate, releasing an inorganic phosphate ion into solution.
    Finally, phosphoribulokinase (another plant-unique enzyme of the pathway) phosphorylates RuP into RuBP, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, completing the Calvin cycle.


    9.High energy phosphate compounds are :
    A. ATP
    B. ADP
    C. Creatinine phosphate
    D. Acetyl CoA

    Ans: ACD






    10.Trypsin cleaves
    A. Arginine
    B. Glutamate
    C. Lysine
    D. Proline

    Ans:AC

    “Trypsin catalyses hydrolysis of lysine & arginine esters, chymotrypsin esters of aromatic amino acids & elastase ester of small neutral aliphatic amino acidsâ€- Harper 28th/462
    “Trypsin: It cannot hydrolyse any peptide bond with proline residueâ€- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/435


    11. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:
    A. Releasing factor
    B. Stop codon
    C. Peptidyl transferase
    D. UAA codon
    E. AUG codon

    Ans: E(AUG codon)


    “AUG is initiation codon while UAA is terminating codonâ€- Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/249-50

    12. Nucleosome consists of :
    A. Histone
    B. DNA
    C. RNA
    D DNA & RNA both
    E. Carbohydrate

    Ans: A (Histone) & B (DNA)


    13. Method (s) to determine protein structure is/are:
    A. X-RAY Crystallography
    B. NMR Spectroscopy
    C. Electrophoresis
    D. Ultrasonography
    E. Infra red spectroscopy

    Ans: A(X-RAY..), B (NMR Spectroscopy) & E (Infra red spectroscopy)

    ElectrophoresisQ is used for protein purification- Satyanarayan 3rd/60


    Forensic 1-8
    1.True about battered baby syndrome:
    A. Posterior rib # may be seen in xray
    B. Injury at the side of metaphysic is specific
    C. Epiphyseal injury common
    D. Babygram is diagnostic
    E. MC cause of death is extradural hemorrhage

    Ans: All

    2.All are true about postmortem staining except
    A. Occur immediately after death
    B. MC in dependent part
    C. Disappear with rigor mortis
    D. Margins are raised
    E. Not found in internal organ

    Ans: A. (Occurs..), C ( Disappear..),D( Margins..) & E. (Not found in internal organ)
    “PM staining persists until putrefaction sets inâ€- Reddy 27th/137
    ““PM staining does not appear elevated above the surface, but has sharply defined edgesâ€- Modi’s Medical Jurisprudence & Toxicology 23nd/429


    3.Differentiating features of contusion (Vs postmortem staining) are :
    A. Bluish in color
    B. Disappear on pressure area
    C. Margin irregular
    D. Limited to intravascular compartment
    E. Extravasation of blood occurs

    Ans: C (Margin irregular) & E (Extravasation of blood occurs)




    4.Rape even after consent is considered when age of woman is:
    A. < 16yr
    B. <17 yr
    C. <21 yr
    D. <25yr and in police custody
    E. < 18 yr

    Ans: A (< 16yr)


    5.True about suspended animation:
    A. Common phenomenon in yogic person
    B. Can be voluntary
    C. Similar to molecular death
    D. Similar to brain death
    E. Person can be revived

    Ans: A ( Common), B (Can be voluntary) & E (Person..)
    Suspended animation is apparent death ( not real death)

    Signs of Molecular or Cellular death follow within 12-24 hrs after death & includes – cooling of body, changes in eye, changes in the skin, PM staining & changes in muscleâ€- Parikh 6th/ 3.7
    “Brain death is irreversible loss of cerebral functionâ€- Reddy 27th/119


    6.True about pugilistic attitude:
    A. Indicate antemortem burn
    B. Indicate postmortem burn
    C. Can not differentiate b/w ante & post mortem burn
    D. Occur d/t intense heat
    E. Indicate defence by victim

    Ans: C ( Can ..), D. (D/t intense heat) & E. (indicate defence by victim)

    “Pugilistic attitude is present whether a living or dead body is burnt & has therefore no medicolegal significanceâ€- Parikh 6th/ 4.156

    7.Dimercaprol is used in poisoning with:
    A. Pb
    B. Hg
    C. As
    D. Acetaminophen

    Ans: A (Pb), B. (Hg) & C. (As)


    8.Not a grievous hurt:
    A. Emasculation
    B. Contusion over scalp
    C. # of bone
    D. Endanger life
    E. Severe bodily pain for 15days

    Ans: E (Severe bodily pain for 15days)


    MICROBIOLOGY 1-0
    1.Feature of congenital Syphilis are:
    A. Snuffles is late manifestation
    B. Perforation in cartilaginous part of nose
    C. Mulberry molar
    D. Saddle nose deformity

    Ans: B CD

    •The earliest sign of congenital syphilis (appearing 2–6 weeks after birth) is usually rhinitis, or "snuffles

    2.All are true about secondary syphilis except:
    A. Gumma formation
    B. Condyloma lata
    C. Palmar erythema
    D. Chancre may occur
    E. Mucosal patch

    Ans. A ( Gumma..) & C( Palmar erythema)


    3. All are true regarding autoimmune disease except:
    A. T cell recognize self antigen
    B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an example
    C. Higher incidence among male
    D. Polyclonal B cell activation
    E. Co-stimulatory molecule involvement
    Ans: C (Higher ..)
    •Co-stimulatory molecules such as B7-1 (CD80) or B7-2 (CD86) are involved in autoimmunity.
    •Higher incidence among female- Ananthnarayan 8th/172

    4. Hypersensitivity to metal is diagnosed by
    A. Skin patch test
    B. Total IgE level
    C. Leucocyte histamine release test
    D. Classic delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reactions
    E. Lymphocyte assay

    Ans: A(Skin patch ..) & D ( Classical ..)


    4.Which of the following is not the manifestation of borellia burgdorferi:
    A. Erythema chronicum migrans
    B. Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans
    C. Lymphogranuloma venerum
    D. Granuloma faciale
    E. Lichen planus

    Ans:CDE



    6.Larva is seen in stool with :
    A. Ankylostoma duodenale
    B. Strongyloids stercoralis
    C. Enterovius vermicularis
    D. ascaris lumbroid
    E. Loa loa

    Ans: A(Ankylostoma duodenale) & B (Strongyloids stercoralis)

    “Hookworm (A. duodenale and N. americanus): In a stool sample that is not fresh, the eggs may have hatched to release rhabditiform larvae, which need to be differentiated from those of S. stercoralisâ€- Harrison 17th/1321



    7.Antigenic variation is seen in:
    A. Treponema pallidum
    B. Neisseria
    C. Corynebacterium
    D. Borrelia recurrentis

    Ans:B ( Neisseria ) & D (Borrelia recurrentis)




    8.True about diphtheria:
    A. Gram –ive bacilli
    B. I.P 2-5 days
    C. Chemoprophylaxis is done with rifampicin
    D. Previously immunized asymptomatic household contact should receive booster dose
    E. Child recovered from illness- give active immunization

    Ans: B (I.P 2- days) & D( Previously ..)



    9.Genital ulcer seen in all except:
    A. H. aegypticus
    B. H. ducreyi
    C. HSV
    D. Chlamydia
    E. T. pallidum

    Ans:A (H. aegypticus)


    10. The term “viable not cultivable†(VNC) is used for:
    A. M. Leprae
    B. M. Tuberculosis
    C. Trepenoma pallidum
    D. H.pylori
    E. Staphylococcus

    Ans: A (M. Leprae) & B (Trepenoma pallidum)
  3. Guest

    Guest Guest

    PATHOLOGY1-14


    1.Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte:
    A. Lipofuschin
    B. Pseudomelanin
    C. Bile pigment
    D. Iron
    E. Melanin

    Ans: B (Pseudomelanin) & E (Melanin)



    2. True about p53 :
    A. Proapoptotic
    B. Tumor supressor gene
    C. Protooncogene
    D. Tumor necrotic factor
    E. Cause cell cycle arrest

    Ans: A. (Proapoptotic), B. (Tumor supressor gene) & E. (Cause cell cycle arrest)


    3.Stains used in amyloidosis :
    A. Congo red
    B. Thioflavin
    C. Reticulin
    D. Gram iodine
    E. PAS

    Ans: A. (Congo red), B. (Thioflavin) & E. (PAS)


    4.Which Ca metastases to heart :
    A. Ca breast
    B. Ca stomach
    C. Ca lung
    D. Ca Urinary bladder
    E. Osteosarcoma

    Ans: A. (Ca breast), C. (Ca lung) & E. (Osteosarcoma)

    5.HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis:
    A. DR1
    B. DR2
    C. DR3
    D. DR4
    E. DR 5

    Ans: D (DR4)

    6.Schistocyte is found in:
    A. TTP
    B. DIC
    C. Severe iron deficiency
    D. Prosthetic heart valve
    E. March hemoglobinuria

    Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC), C. (Severe iron ...) D. (Prosthetic ...) E. March ...)

    7Breast Ca is not a/w:
    A. BRCA1 & BRCA2
    B. Apocrine metaplasia
    C. Atypical ductal hyperplasia
    D. Fibroadenoma
    E. Moderate hyperplasia

    Ans: B (Apocrine metaplasia) & D( Fibroadenoma)


    8.Modified bloom Richardson criteria for Ca breast includes:
    A. Desmoplasia
    B. Lymphovenous embolism
    C. Mitotic rate
    D. Tubule formation
    E. Nuclear polymorphism

    Ans: C. (Mitotic rate), D. (Tubule formation) & E. (Nuclear ...)



    9.Characteristic finding of biopsy in mesothelioma includes:
    A. Myelin
    B. Desmosin
    C. Weibel palade bodies
    D. Branching microvilli
    E. Fibrosis

    Ans: D (Branching microvilli)


    10.True about Dyskeratosis congenital:
    A. Pancytopenia
    B. Nail dystrophy
    C. Hyperkeratosis
    D. X linked
    E. Leucoplasia

    Ans: A. (Pancytopenia), B. (Nail ...), D. (X linked) & E. (Leucoplasia)


    11Mitochondrial abnormality seen in
    A. Oncocytoma
    B. Kearn-Sayre syndrome
    C. Farber disease
    D. Mitochondrial myopathy
    E. Leigh’s disease

    Ans: A. (Oncocytoma), B. (Kearn-Sayre...), D. (Mitochondrial...) & E. (Leigh’s disease)



    12.Diseases having autosomal recessive inheritance:
    A. Cystic fibrosis
    B. Hydrocephalous
    C. Duchene muscular dystrophy
    D. Albinism
    E. Vit. D resistant ricket

    Ans: A. (Cystic fibrosis) & D. (Albinism)


    13.Subepithelial deposits are seen in:
    A. Minimal change disease
    B. MPGN
    C. Membranous GN
    D. PSGN
    E. IgA Nephropathy

    Ans: C. (Membranous GN) & D. (PSGN)

    14.True about apoptosis
    A. Increase in lysosomal enzyme
    B. Increase in caspases
    C. Phosphatidyl serine has important role
    D. Internucleosomal cleavage of nucleus

    Ans: B (Increse in caspase), C (Phosph.. ) & D ( Intern…)
  4. Guest

    Guest Guest

    MEDICINE1-28



    1.True about PEComa (perivascular epithelioid cell tumour) :
    A. Melanin & HMB45 are markers
    B. Malignant melanoma variant
    C. Contain perivascular epithelioid cells
    D. Angiomyolypoma(AML) is a subtype

    Ans. A. (Melanin ...), C. (Contain ...) & D. (Angiomyolypoma...)



    2.True about third heart sound (H3):
    A. Heard in MR
    B. Diastolic sound

    Ans: A (Heard in MR) & B (Diastolic sound)

    3.Investigstions in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis is done by:
    A. Mantoux test (in children)
    B. Sputum AFB
    C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold
    D. Bactec
    E. T-SPOT-TB

    Ans. All (A,B,C,D& E)


    4.All are true about Zollinger Ellison syndrome except:
    A. Surgery is done
    B. Exocrine tumour
    C. Endocrine disorder
    D. Secretory diarrhoea seen
    E. Metastasis seen

    Ans. B (Exocrine tumour)

    5.True about malignant melanoma:
    A. Lymphatic spread
    B. Lymph node biopsy is always done
    C. Biopsy to be done when sentinel node is involved
    D. Microsatellitism seen

    Ans: All


    6.True about Septic shock
    A. ↓ Cardiac output is initially present
    B. Vascular dilation
    C. Hypotension is a late sign
    D. Widespread endothelial dysfunction

    Ans: B. (Vascular dilation), C. (Hypotension ...) & D. (Widespread ...)

    7.True statement about GERD:
    A. Associated with H.pylori
    B. Fundoplication is done
    C. Smoking is protective
    D. PPI is used in treatment
    E. Bernstein test is done

    Ans: B. (Fundoplication ...), D. (PPI is used ...) & E. (Bernstein ...)


    8.Which of the following manifestation of Crohn’s Disease not respond to treatment/occur after treatment:
    A. Pyoderma gangrenosum
    B. Primary scleorosing colitis
    C. Erythema nodosum
    D. Nephrolithiasis
    E. Ankylosing spondylitis

    Ans: A. (Pyoderma...), B. (Primary...), D. (Nephrolithiasis) & E. (Ankylosing ...)

    9.Manifestation (s) of hypokalemia includes:
    A. Prominent U wave
    B. Rhabdomyolysis
    C. Diarrhoea
    D. Tetany
    E. Muscle cramp

    Ans: A. (Prominent ...), B. (Rhabdomyolysis), D. (Tetany) & E. (Muscle cramp)



    10.True about Myasthenia gravis :
    A. Defect at myoneural junction
    B. ↑ Ach receptor
    C. ↓Ach receptor
    D. Thymoma occur
    E. Autoimmune disease

    Ans. A. (Defect...), C. (↓Ach receptor), D. (Thymoma...) &
    E. (Autoimmune ...)

    11.False statement about extraadrenal pheochromocytoma:
    A. 50% extraadrenal
    B. May occur in Bladder
    C. May occur in thorax
    D. Involve carotid body


    Ans : A (50% extraadrenal)

    12.Feature of NF1 are:
    A. Axillary freckle
    B. Ash leaf macules
    C. Optic glioma
    D. Acoustic neuroma
    E. Family history

    Ans: A. (Axillary ...), B. (Ash ...), C. (Optic glioma) & E. (Family ...)


    13.Reactive arthritis is a/w
    A. C jejuni
    B. Yersenia
    C. Salmonella
    D. Chlamydia
    E. Mycoplasma

    Ans: A. (C jejuni), B. (Yersenia), C. (Salmonella) & D. (Chlamydia)

    14. All are true about congenital erythropoetic porphyria except :
    A. Can occur from infancy to adult
    B. Erythrodontia
    C. Ferrochelase def.
    D. Corporophyrins III in urine
    E. Uroporphyrin in urine

    Ans: C. (Ferrochelase def.) & D. (Corporophyrins ...)

    15.Drug used in unstable angina & NSTMI :
    A. Morphine
    B. Aspirin
    C. Nitrates
    D. Thrombolytic agents
    E. CCB

    Ans: All

    16.Causes of secondary hypertension are:
    A. Old age
    B. Parenchymal kidney disease
    C. Pregnancy
    D. Hypothyroidism


    Ans: All



    17.Severe diarrhea is associated with:
    A. Met acidosis
    B. Met alkalosis
    C. Normal anion gap
    D. Inc. anion gap

    Ans: A (Met acidosis) & C (Normal anion gap)

    18.Nephrogenic dibetus insipidus causing drugs are:
    A. Li
    B. Demeclocyclin
    C. Acyclovir
    D. Amphotericin B

    Ans: A. (Li), B. (Demec..) & D. (Amphotericin B)



    19.Thrombotic thrombocytopenic microangiopathy are seen in:
    A. TTP
    B. DIC
    C. HUS
    D. Polycythemia

    Ans: A. (TTP), B. (DIC) & C. (HUS)


    20.Anti ds DNA is specific for:
    A. SLE
    B. Systemic sclerosis
    C. Wegener granulomatosis

    Ans. A (SLE)

    21.All are feature of Sjogren syndrome except:
    A. Interstitial nephritis
    B. Subcutaneous fibrosis
    C. Lack of tear
    D. Xerostomia
    E. More common in male

    Ans: B (Subcutaneous fibrosis) & E (More common in male)


    22.Extra articular manifestation of RA are all except:
    A. Subcut Nodule
    B. Renal failure
    C. Spleen atrophy
    D. Scleritis
    E. Pleural effusion

    Ans: B (Renal failure) & C (Spleen atrophy)

    23.False about mesial temporal lobe epilepsy :
    A. Respond well to medical treatment
    B. Most common syndrome associated with tonic clonic seizure
    C. MRI is diagnostic
    D. Surgery is TOC
    E. Hippocampal sclerosis seen

    Ans: A ( Respond..) & B (Most..)

    24.Hydrogen breath assay is used for:
    A. Lactose intolerance
    B. GERD
    C. H.Pylori

    Ans: C (H.Pylori)

    25.True about pulmonary sarcoidosis :
    A. Schaumann & asteroid bodies are present
    B. CD4/CD8 <2.5
    C. Non caseating granuloma
    D. Intravascular granuloma
    E. Perihilar & peribronchial granuloma

    Ans. A (Schaumann..)C. (Non caseating ...), D. (Intravascular ...) & E. (Perihilar ...)

    26.Sclerodema like disorder is/ are caused by:
    A. Vinyl chloride
    B. Bleomycin
    C. Aromatic hydrocarbon
    D. Pentazocin
    E. Gold

    Ans. A. (Vinyl ...), B. (Bleomycin), C. (Aromatic ...) & D. (Pentazocin)

    27.Not a risk for cholangio ca
    A. Hepatolithiasis
    B. Hepatitis C
    C. Clonorchi sinensis
    D. Choledocholithiasis
    E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

    Ans: None

    28.True about wegener’s granulomatosis:
    A. Sinusitis
    B. CD4/CD8 ratio reversed (Confirm as answer or not)
    C. ANA positive
    D. Hypocomplementia

    Ans: A. (Sinusitis) & C. (ANA positive)
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    O & G 1-19


    1.True statement regarding use of antiepileptic drugs in pregnancy:
    A. Valproate is associated with NTD
    B. Multiple drug should be given
    C. Carbamazepine is safe
    D. Phenytoin can produces foetal hydantoin syndrome

    Ans: A (Valproate is associated ...) & D (Phenytoin ...)

    2.Risk factors for pre-eclampsia:
    A. Age >35yr
    B. Obesity
    C. Previous h/o preeclampsia
    D. Multigravida
    E. Antiphospholipid syndrome

    Ans: All


    3.True statement (s) regarding Ca cervix involving parametrium but not pelvic involvement:
    A. Stage II A
    B. Stage II B
    C. Radiotherapy should be given
    D. Hysterectomy can be useful
    E. Staging should be done only after cystoscopy

    Ans: B (Stage II B), C ( Radio..) & E ( Staging)


    4.In Ca cervix low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) in Bethesda system includes:
    A. CIN I
    B. CIN II
    C. CIN III
    D. Squamous metaplasia

    Ans:A (CIN I)


    5.A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy . T/t includes:
    A. Cold knife conization
    B. Hysterectomy
    C. Radical hysterectomy
    D. Lap assisted hysterectomy
    E. LEEP

    Ans: E (LEEP)

    “Although CIN can be treated with a variety of techniques, the preferred treatment for CIN 2 and 3 has become LEEP. Hysterectomy is currently considered too radical for treatment of CIN”- Novak’s 14th/582,485

    6True statement regarding cholestasis in pregnancy:
    A. Reccurs in subsequent pregnancy
    B. Ursodeoxyholic acid relieves pruritus
    C. Mild jaundice occurs in majority of patients
    D. Pruritus may precedes laboratory findings
    E. Serum alkaline phosphatase is most sensitive indicator

    Ans: A. (Reccurs...), B. (Ursodeoxyholic ...), C. (Mild ...) & D. (Pruritus ....)

    7Oligohydramnios is/are associated with:
    A. Neural tube defect
    B. Renal agenesis
    C. Postmature birth
    D. Premature birth

    Ans: B. (Renal agenesis) & C. (Postmature birth)


    8True about MRKH (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome:
    A. Absent uterus
    B. Absent ovary
    C. Absent vagina
    D. XX phenotype
    E. XY phenotype

    Ans: A. (Absent uterus), C. (Absent vagina) & D. (XX phenotype)


    9.True about Klinefelter syndrome:
    A. XXY
    B. XO
    C. Male hypogonadism
    D. Female hypogonadism
    E. ↑FSH

    Ans: A. (XXY), C. (Male hypogonadism) & E. (↑FSH)

    10.True about PCOS
    A. High FSH/LH ratio
    B. Unilateral large ovarian cyst in 60-80%
    C. Hirsutism
    D. ↑ed. risk of DM
    E. OCP given for treatment

    Ans: C. (Hirsutism), D. (↑ed. risk ...) & E. (OCP given for treatment)


    11.Regarding H1N1 influenza in pregnancy, true statement (s) is/are:
    A. Oseltamavir is used
    B. H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
    C. Should start t/t only after confirmation of diagnosis

    Ans: A. (Oseltamavir is used) & B. (H1N1 more ...)

    12.True regarding changes during pregnancy:
    A. Hyperplasia of parathyroid
    B. Hyperplasia of thyroid
    C. Increased Pigmentation
    D. ↓ BMR
    E. ↑ Insulin

    Ans: A. (Hyperplasia ...), B. (Hyperplasia ...), C. (Increased ....) &
    E. (↑ Insulin)


    13.True about vaccum extraction of fetus :
    A. Can be used in non dilated cervix
    B. Can be used in incompletely dilated cervix
    C. Used in face presentation
    D. Applied 3cm post. to Anterior fontanel
    E. Applied 3cm ant. to post fontanel

    Ans: B (Can be used ...) & E (Applied 3cm ....)

    14.True about MgSO4
    A. Tocolytic
    B. Used in Management of eclampsia
    C. Cause neonatal respiratory depression

    Ans: A. (Tocolytic), B. (Used in ...) & C. (Cause neonatal ...)

    15.True statement regarding ectopic pregnancy :
    A. Pregnancy test positive
    B. βhCG levels should be >1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
    C. βhCG levels should be <1000 mIU/ml for earliest detection by TVS
    D. Methotrexate is used

    Ans: A. (Pregnancy ...), B. (βhCG levels ...) & D. (Methotrexate)
    “A intrauterine sac should be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels of approximately 1000 mIU/ml”- COGDT 10th/268




    16.All are true about Prelabour rupture of membrane (PROM) except:
    A. Amnioinfusion is done
    B. Amoxiclav antiobiotic should be given
    C. Asceptic cervical examination
    D. Steroid is used
    E. Preterm labour

    Ans: A (Amnioinfusion is done)

    17.Prolong latent phase is/are seen in:
    A. Placenta praevia
    B. Unripe cervix
    C. Abruptio placentae
    D. Excessive sedation
    E. Early epidural analgesia

    Ans: B. (Unripe cervix), D. (Excessive sedation) & E. (Early ...)


    18.True statement regarding sarcoma botryoides:
    A. Involvement of vagina
    B. Grape like growth seen
    C. Common in old age
    D. Malignant

    Ans: A. (Involvement ...), B. (Grape like ...) & D. (Malignant)


    19.Abortion (in men!!!, misprinted in paper, should be women) is/are caused by:
    A. Borrelia recurrentis
    B. HIV
    C. Listeria
    D. Syphilis
    E. HBV

    Ans: B. (HIV), C. (Listeria) & D. (Syphilis)
  6. Guest

    Guest Guest

    PAEDS 1-6


    1.What are the complication (s) of pyogenic meningitis in a child:
    A. Arachinoidits
    B. Mental retardation
    C. Status epilepticus
    D. Sensorineural hearing loss


    Ans: All

    2.True statement(s) about posterior urethral valves in neonate:
    A. B/l hydroneprhosis may be present
    B. Creatinine & urea levels remain normal
    C. Enlarge & widen prostatic urethra
    D. More common in girls

    Ans:A (B/l hydroneprhosis ...) C (Enlarge ...)

    3Organic cause of constipation in infant are all except:
    A. High fibre diet
    B. Cystic fibrosis
    C. Hypothyroidism

    Ans:A (High fibre diet)



    4.True regarding neonatal resuscitation:
    A. Ist nasal suctioning done
    B. Ist mouth suctioning done
    C. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 3cm and mouth is upto 5cm
    D. Max. length of nasal suctioning is upto 5cm and mouth
    upto 3cm

    Ans:B (Ist mouth ...) & C (Max. length of ....)


    5.A 1 & 1/2 yr child can do:
    A. Build tower of 4 blocks
    B. Speak 10-25 meaningful word
    C. Scribble
    D. Points 3-4 body parts
    E. Copies parents in task

    Ans: B. (Speak 10-25 ...), C. (Scribble) & E. (Copies parents ...)

    • Scribbles – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28
    • Tower of 3 blocks – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/28
    • Tower of 6 blocks – 2 years O.P. Ghai 7th/28
    • Copies parents in task – 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
    • Vocabulary of 10-15 words- 18 month O.P. Ghai 7th/30
    • Vocabulary of 100 words – 2 yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30
    • Point 3-4 body part – 2yr O.P. Ghai 7th/30

    6.A child presented with cola coloured urine, proteinuria 2+ & h/o rash 2 week ago. Probable Dx is:
    A. IgA nephropathy
    B. HSP
    C. HUS
    D. Wegener Granulomatosis

    Ans:B (HSP)


    SURGERY 1-12

    1.True about parotid tumor:
    A. Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy
    B. Pleomorphic adenoma is MC variety
    C. Malignant disease is MC variety


    Ans: AB


    2.All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:
    A. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
    B. Multifocal abscess can not be treated by aspiration
    C. More common in left side
    D. More common in female

    Ans: C (More common in left side) & D (More common in female)

    3.True about Hirschprung's disease :
    A. Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated
    B. Descending colon is most common site of aganglionosis
    C. Barium enema is diagnostic
    D. It is seen in infants & children only
    E. Barium enema show calcification

    Ans: A (Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated)


    4.True about Ischemic rest pain :
    A. More in night
    B. MC in calf muscle
    C. Increase upon elevation of limbs
    D. Relieved by dependent position
    E. Often associated with trophic changes

    Ans. All


    5.All are true about intermittent claudication except :
    A. Most common in calf muscle
    B. Pain is positional
    C. Atherosclerosis is important predisposing factor
    D. Relieved by rest

    Ans: B (Pain is positional)




    6.Hypogastric pain arise from:
    A. Uterus
    B. Left colon
    C. Urinary bladder
    D. Gall Bladder

    Ans: ABC

    7.True about Intussusceptions in children :
    A. Most common variety is ileocolic
    B. A/w pathological lead point
    C. May be seen after viral infection
    D. Can be relieved by barium enema
    E. Surgery is always indicated

    Ans:ABCD



    8.True about treatment of intussusceptions :
    A. Air enema
    B. Saline enema
    C. Ba enema
    D. Hydostatic reduction under sedation
    E. Colonoscopy is always done to confirm diagnosis

    Ans:ACD


    9.True about volvulus
    A. Most common in caecum
    B. Common in psychiatric pt.
    C. Bird's beak sign
    D. May present as intestinal obstruction

    Ans: B. (Common ....), C. (Bird's ...) & D. (May present ....)

    10. About papillary carcinoma true statement is/are:
    A. Radiation cause it
    B. Multi focal
    C. Hematogenous spread is common
    D. Distant metastasis is seen
    E. More common in iodine deficient area

    Ans. A. (Radiation ...), B. (Multi focal), D. (Distant ....) & E. (More common ....)

    11.Colonic disease can be diagnosed by all except:
    A. Virtual colonoscopy
    B. Ba enema
    C. Ba swallow
    D. Ba meal follow through
    E. Enteroclysis

    Ans: C (BA..), D (Ba..),E (Enteroclysis)
    Ba swallow & Ba meal follow through is meant for upper GI tract (oesophagus,stomach & small intestine)

    Enteroclysis (Small bowel enema) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enteroclysis
    • It is a fluoroscopic X-ray of the small intestine.

    12.T/t of CBD stone includes
    A. ERCP
    B. Cholecystectomy
    C. Ursodeoxy cholic acid
    D. Hepatojejunostomy
    E. Choledochotomy

    Ans: ABCE
  7. Guest

    Guest Guest

    SURGERY 1-12

    1.True about parotid tumor:
    A. Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancy
    B. Pleomorphic adenoma is MC variety
    C. Malignant disease is MC variety


    Ans: AB


    2.All are true about amoebic liver abscess except:
    A. Metronidazole is mainstay of treatment
    B. Multifocal abscess can not be treated by aspiration
    C. More common in left side
    D. More common in female

    Ans: C (More common in left side) & D (More common in female)

    3.True about Hirschprung's disease :
    A. Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated
    B. Descending colon is most common site of aganglionosis
    C. Barium enema is diagnostic
    D. It is seen in infants & children only
    E. Barium enema show calcification

    Ans: A (Aganglionic segment is contracted not dilated)


    4.True about Ischemic rest pain :
    A. More in night
    B. MC in calf muscle
    C. Increase upon elevation of limbs
    D. Relieved by dependent position
    E. Often associated with trophic changes

    Ans. All


    5.All are true about intermittent claudication except :
    A. Most common in calf muscle
    B. Pain is positional
    C. Atherosclerosis is important predisposing factor
    D. Relieved by rest

    Ans: B (Pain is positional)




    6.Hypogastric pain arise from:
    A. Uterus
    B. Left colon
    C. Urinary bladder
    D. Gall Bladder

    Ans: ABC

    7.True about Intussusceptions in children :
    A. Most common variety is ileocolic
    B. A/w pathological lead point
    C. May be seen after viral infection
    D. Can be relieved by barium enema
    E. Surgery is always indicated

    Ans:ABCD



    8.True about treatment of intussusceptions :
    A. Air enema
    B. Saline enema
    C. Ba enema
    D. Hydostatic reduction under sedation
    E. Colonoscopy is always done to confirm diagnosis

    Ans:ACD


    9.True about volvulus
    A. Most common in caecum
    B. Common in psychiatric pt.
    C. Bird's beak sign
    D. May present as intestinal obstruction

    Ans: B. (Common ....), C. (Bird's ...) & D. (May present ....)

    10. About papillary carcinoma true statement is/are:
    A. Radiation cause it
    B. Multi focal
    C. Hematogenous spread is common
    D. Distant metastasis is seen
    E. More common in iodine deficient area

    Ans. A. (Radiation ...), B. (Multi focal), D. (Distant ....) & E. (More common ....)

    11.Colonic disease can be diagnosed by all except:
    A. Virtual colonoscopy
    B. Ba enema
    C. Ba swallow
    D. Ba meal follow through
    E. Enteroclysis

    Ans: C (BA..), D (Ba..),E (Enteroclysis)
    Ba swallow & Ba meal follow through is meant for upper GI tract (oesophagus,stomach & small intestine)

    Enteroclysis (Small bowel enema) en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Enteroclysis
    • It is a fluoroscopic X-ray of the small intestine.

    12.T/t of CBD stone includes
    A. ERCP
    B. Cholecystectomy
    C. Ursodeoxy cholic acid
    D. Hepatojejunostomy
    E. Choledochotomy

    Ans: ABCE
    Rajesh Saagar likes this.
  8. Guest

    Guest Guest

    ORTHOPAEDICS 1-5
    1.True about parosteal osteosarcoma:
    A. Same prognosis as medullary type
    B. Never go to medulla
    C. May involve medulla

    Ans: C (May involve medulla)


    - parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade malignant bone tumor that usually occurs on the surface of the metaphysis of long bones;
    - arises between cortex and muscle as a low grade stage I-A surface tumor (ie does not initially invade underlying medullary canal);
    - most common in adolescents and yound adults;
    - parosteal osteosarcoma is distinguished from classic osteosarcoma by its much slower, less aggressive clinical course.
    - there is a low propensity to metastasize;
    - about 10% of parosteal tumors exhibit areas of dedifferentiation into high grade sarcoma & are thus considered stage IIb lesions.
    - recognition of dedifferentiated areas with angiography can localize the area that should be biopsied in order to obtain the diagnosis;
    - tumor remains separated from normal bone, especially in the early stage;
    - extension into the underlying bone is associated with a higher incidence of dedifferentiation and pulmonary metastasis;
    - as growth continues, radiolucent zone between tumor & underlying bone may be obliterated as cortex becomes involved;
    - late in dz, tumor extends through the underlying cortex to invade medullary canal as well, converting to a stage Ib tumor;
    - invasion into the overlying displaced soft tissues is rare;

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