Subject wise - correct answers of AIPG-2010

Discussion in 'NEET 2013 All india Exam' started by wellwisher., Jan 20, 2010.

  1. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest

    Anatomy ANSWERS

    1. Attachment of sustentaculum Tali, is closely related to
    a. Anterior tibilais
    b. Posterior Tibalis
    c. Flexor hallucis longus
    d. Digitorum longus
    ANS C
    2. Gluteus medius is supplied by
    a. Superior gluteal nerve
    b. Inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Obturator
    ANS A
    3. In post ductal Coarctation of aorta Collateral is formed by all EXCEPT- Repeat
    a. Vertebral artery
    b. Suprascapular artery
    c. Subscapular
    d. Tranverse cervical
    ANS A
    4. All are composite/ Hybrid muscle EXCEPT-
    a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
    b. FD superficialis
    c. pEctineus
    d. Bicep femorais
    ANS A
    5. Which passes through Foramen magnum
    a. Vertebral artery passes through
    b. 12th nerve
    c. Sympathetic chain
    d. ICA
    ANS A
    6. celiac plexus location
    a. Anterior lateral to abdominal aorta- side & front
    b. Posterior & around aorta
    c. Anteriomedial to left sympathetic chain
    d. Posteriomedial to Left sympathetic cahin
    ANS A
    7. left sided usually SVC drains into IB S260
    a. Right atrium
    b. Left atriam
    c. coronary sinus – open into RA through large cornary sinus
    d. pericardial space
    ANS C
    8. shoulder abduction all except.... Repeat AI08
    a. clavi movemnt at medial end
    b. Medial scapula rotation
    c. acromio clavicl jt movement
    d. humerus evelation
    ANS B
    9. Urigenital diaphragm is formed AE by repeat N08
    a. Colle’s fascia
    b. Deep transverse perinea
    c. Perineal membrane
    d. Sphincter uretherae
    ANS A
    10. Hypogastric sheath is condensation of
    a. Scarpa fascia
    b. Colle fascia
    c. Pelvic fascia
    d. Inferior layer of urogenital diaphragm
    ANS C
    11. Most commonly seen is renal vessel anomaly
    a. Supranumerary renal vein
    b. Suprnumerary renal; artery
    c. Double renal vein
    d. Double renal artery
    ANS B
    12. LN drainage of spongy urethra
    a. Deep inguinal
    ANS A
  2. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest

    Physiology ANSWERS

    1] Low CSF protein seen in A/E
    a. Infant
    b. Recurrent LP
    c. Hypothyroidism
    d. PSeudotumor cerebri
    ans c
    2]Lung non respiratory function
    a. Exchange of anion ion
    b. Sodium exchange
    c. Potassium exchange
    d. Calcium
    ANS B
    3] Maximum Water absorption is in
    a. Jejunum
    b. Colon
    c. Ileum
    d. Stomach
    ANS A
    4] Action of NO on intestine
    a. VAsodialation
    b. Inhibition of smooth muscle
    c. Act through cGMP
    ANS B
    5] Heart at, minimally mobile in
    a. Late systole
    b. Late diastole
    c. Mid systole
    d. Mid diastole
    ANS D
    6]Pt with head injury, damage to brain is aggravated by
    a. Hyperglycemia
    b. Hypothermia
    c. Hypocapnia
    d. Decrease osmolarity
    ANS A
    7]BMR depends upon
    a. Lean body mass
    b. BM index
    c. Obesity
    d. Body surface area
    ANS A
    8] Increase BMR seen A/E
    a. Obesity
    b. Hyperthyroidism
    c. Feeding
    d. Exercise
    ANS A
  3. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest


    1] Not moving on Electrophoresis
    a. Chylomicron
    b. LDL
    c. VLDL
    d. IDL
    ANS A
    2]. Branch cahin AAS oxidation is defective in
    a. Maple syrup
    b. HAr t nup
    c. PKU
    d. Alkaptunuria
    3] 29. Procedure consist of charged surface and a moving phase for separartion, what is the procedure
    a. Ion exchange chromatography
    b. Adsorption
    c. Electrophoresis
    ANS A
  4. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest

    Pathology ANSWERS

    1. Marker for LAngerhans cell histiocytosis-
    a. CD1a

    2. Bradykinin is for
    a. Pain
    b. Vasodilatation
    c. Vasoconstriction
    d. Increase vascular permeability
    ANS A

    3. Rothera test for
    a. Glucose
    b. Ketone
    ANS B

    4. For examination of fungus form a sample uniformly stain by
    a. V
    b. PAS
    c. Alizarin
    d. MassonTrichome
    ANS B

    5. PNH associated with
    a. DAF
    b. MIRL
    c. GPI
    d. dj
    ANS A

    6. Retinoblastoma associated with
    a. Osteosarcoma
    b. RCC
    c. Pineoblastoma
    d. jsd
    ANS A

    7. CASPASES in
    a. Cell injury
    b. Apoptosis
    c. Necrosis
    d. D
    ANS B

    8. Chromophill RCC genetics-
    a. Mutant VHL gene
    b. Gain/loss of 3p
    c. Trisomy 7/17
    d. Loss of 5q

    9. Indicator of NTD
    a. Acetylcholinesterase
    10. AFP raised in
    a. HEpatoblastoma

    10. Pt with cystic fibrosis, AR, what are the chances the sister of involve female sibling will be carrier
    a. 1/4th
    b. ½
    c. 2/3rd
    d. none
    ANS B

    11. most common cause of abd.aortic aneurysm
    a. atherosclerosis
    ANS A

    12. Male are more commonly involve than female
    a. AR
    b. AD
    c. XR
    d. XD
    ANS c

    13. Lupus anticoagulant not associated with
    a. Bleeding
    b. Thrombosis
    c. Recurrent abortion
    d. Aspirin is given
    ANS A

    14. Cavitation is found in
    a. Mycoplasma
    b. Primary TB
    c. Staph
    d. Pneumococcus
    ANS C

    15. What is the caiuse hypercoagulation in nephrotic syndrome
    a. Loss of AT III
    b. Decrese fibrinogen
    c. Decrease metabolism of Vit K
    d. Increase in Protein C
    ANS A
  5. sahil.

    sahil. Guest

    Pharmacology ANSWERS

    1. Proton pump inhibitor
    a. Omeprazole

    2. HER 1 / 2 inhibitor – BL 109 table
    a. Geftinib
    b. Nilotinib
    c. Lepatinib
    d. Erlotinib
    ANS C

    3. With Rivastigmine for Alzheimer disease which drug cannot be given
    a. SSRI
    b. RIMA
    c. TCA
    d. Atypical Antidepressant
    ANS C

    4. Serotonin syndrome caused by
    a. Chlorpromazine
    b. SSRi
    c. RIMA
    d. TCA
    ANS A

    5. Hydantoin syndrome-
    a. Phenytoin

    6. tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in ??
    a. GIST
    b. receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors
    ANS A

    7. Not prophylactically use in MIGRAINE
    a. Sumitryptan
    b. VErapmil
    c. Amytripytline
    d. Proponolol
    ANS A

    8. Which antemetic has H1 antihistaminic
    a. Prometazine
    b. Metocloprmide
    c. Ondom setron
    d. Domperidone
    ANS A

    9. AMphotrecin B is to be given with…. To decrease its toxicity
    a. With glucose
    b. Decrease the dose
    c. Liposomal
    d. It is combine with flucytosine
    ANS C

    10. Which is a better steroid prearations in same concentration
    a. Gel
    b. Cream
    c. Ointment oil base
    d. Lotion
    ANS C

    11. Theophylline MA in Bronchial astham
    a. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
    b. Increase calcium from Sarcoplasmin reticulum
    c. Adenoine receptor inhibitor
    ANS A

    12. Allupurinol used
    a. GOUt
    ANS A

    13. In Treatment with LINEZOLID which system is monitored
    a. RENAl
    b. GIT
    c. Audiometry
    d. Platelet count
    ans d

    14. HIT TOC is In apt of HIT which is still require anticoagulation
    a. Abcixamib
    b. Liprudin
    c. Plasminogen
    d. Altiplase
    ANS B

    15. Myclonus seizure treatment AE
    a. Carbamazepine
    b. Zonasamide
    c. Valpromate
    d. Topiramate

    16. Narrow therapeutic index
    a. Lithium

    17. MC congenital anomaly with lithium
    a. Cardiac malformation
    b. NTD
    c. Renal anomaly
    ANS A

    18. Function of carbidopa
    a. Peripheral conversion
  6. sahil.

    sahil. Guest

    Microbiology ANSWERS

    1. A 2 month child with sepsis with beta hemolysis , bacitracin resistance.. CAMp Positive
    a. s.pyogenes
    b. s.agalactie
    c. Enterococcus
    ANS B

    2. Septate hyphae branched at 45 degree-
    a. Rhizopus
    b. Mucor
    c. Aspergillus
    ANS C

    3. Diabetic with fungal infection, branched septate hyphae-
    a. Aspergillus
    b. Mucor
    ANS A

    4. Resurgent Malaria is due to AE
    a. Drug resistant in host
    b. Drug resistant in parasite
    c. Antgenic variation in parasite
    d. Nf
    ANS C

    5. SCRUB typhus AE
    a. Caused by Tsugumushi
    b. Tetracycline TOC
    c. adult form bite vertebrate
    d. Mite is RESERVOIR
    ans c larval form bites

    6. Chlamydia in pregnancy
    a. Tetracycline
    b. Doxy
    c. Erthyrmycin
    d. Penicillin
    ANS C

    7. MC genital ulcer in HIV
    a. Chlamydia
    b. Herpes
    c. Syphilis
    d. Candida
    ANS B

    8. vibrio EI-TOR true all except
    b. survives boiling for 30s
    c. entertoxin has other effects also
    d. live for 4 /6 weeks on ice
    ANS C
  7. sahil.

    sahil. Guest


    1. asha is posted at the – P379
    a. village level
    b. phc
    c. community health centre
    d. sub centre
    ANS A

    2. to eradicate by 2015-
    a. filariasis
    b. malaria,
    c. tb,..
    ANS A

    3. 99. Red cross AE
    a. Symbol contain two vertical / horizontal crosses with equal
    b. Can be used all UNO member
    c. Punisable by Indian law 1960
    d. Permission of Indian Govt require for use
    ANS D

    4. 40 casees detected, true negative [snip], total 9920 not detected by test, Incidence
    a. 33%
    b. 50%
    c. S
    d. S
    ANS A

    5. Janani suraksha Jojna (JSy full form)

    6. Perinatal mortality includes true is
    a. Still birth + death within 7 days
    ANS A

    7. IMNCI defers from IMCI by all EXCEPT P 387
    a. 0-7 days age gr included
    b. It included malaria & anemia
    c. Give more time for sick infant
    d. Not focussed on single disease, it is genralized
    ANS D

    8. PHCare include AE
    a. Parovison of essential drug
    b. Cost effectiveness
    c. Community participation
    d. Helath education
    ANS B

    9. Latest trend in health acre
    a. Community partipicaipation
    b. Qualitative inquiry
    c. Equitable distribution
    d. PHC
    ANS A

    10. Highest level of community participation is measured
    a. Based on felt need of people
    b. They plan & decide their own action
    c. Provide resources for programme
    d. Cooperation with workers

    11. In a population of community on 1st june is 1,65,000. 22 new cases of Tb is detected till 1st june starting from the yr. Total 220 ases reported during that yr. Calculate the incidence per 10 lac population
    a. 133
    b. 13/10 lac
    c. 100/lac
    d. 266/lac
    ANS A
  8. sanjiv.

    sanjiv. Guest


    1. A pt with tremor , increased salivation, black blue line on gum, disturb personality
    a. Mercury poisoning
    b. dk
    c. lead
    ans a

    2. Aconite poisoning
    a. Increased BP
    b. Tingling sensation all over body
    c. Hypersalivation
    ans B

    3. Death of married women within 3 years of marriage, autopsy done under, Exhumation sec 176
    a. IPC 304
    b. IPC 307
    c. CRPC 174
    d. CRPC 176
    ANS A even if magistrate is doing inquest then also he is doing under ipc 304 ask any lawyer

    4. Used in NARCO test
    a. Scoplamine HCL
    b. Atropine
    c. Opium
    d. Phenobarb
    ans a

    5. Primary impact injuries are located at
    a. Chest
    b. Abdomen
    c. Legs
    d. Head
    ANS C

    6. Which leaves a visible mark in pathway si that a person can see
    a. Tandem
    b. Tracer
    c. Dumdum
    d. Incendiary
    ANS B

    7. Light flashes AE
    a. Compression of air infront of travelling wave
    b. Direct impact of electric
    c. Heated air surrounding the lightening current
    d. repulssion of air infront of travelling wave
  9. sanjiv.

    sanjiv. Guest

    Medicine ANSWERS

    1. Pt with ataxia, urinary incontinence & dementia
    a. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
    b. Multie system atrophy
    c. Alzheimer disease
    ANS A

    2. A truck driver wit
    h patchy lung lesion, non productive cough, agent
    a. Pneumocystits
    b. Tuberculosis
    ANS A

    3. Hyperglycemia associated with
    a. Multiple myeloma
    b. Ewing sarcoma
    c. OSteosarcoma
    d. Chondroblstoma
    ANS C it is paraneoplastic manifestation of osteosarcoma d/t somatomedins

    4. Site for MND
    a. AHC
    b. PEriheral NMJ
    ans a

    5. Vit K asso wt cloting factor-
    a. IX, X
    ANS A

    6. A 13 yr girl with fatigue MCV 70, MCh 22, RDW 28
    a. IDA
    b. Thalassemia
    c. Sideroblastic anemia
    d. Dk
    ANS A

    7. Not associated with Thymoma
    a. SIADH
    b. MG
    c. Polymyoistis
    d. Hypogammaglobinemia
    ANS A

    8. A pt with PCO2 30, pO2 102, pH 7.5, which type of compensation is this( because in metabolic alkalosis, compensation done by CO2 & it will be retained inroder to compenstae alkalosis)
    a. REsp alkalosis
    b. Met alkalsois
    c. REsp acidosis
    d. Met acidosis
    ANS A

    9. Sphingomyelin
    a. NeimenPick disease
    b. Dj
    c. dj
    ANS A

    10. Criteria for Polycythemia vera as per who
    a. absentd Erythropoietin
    B. jak stat mutn
    ANS B GIVEN BY who site
    11. KF ring
    a. Wilson
    ANS A

    12. True about Wilson, disease
    a. Low serum ceruloplasmin & urinary copper excretion
    ANS A

    13. Accelerated idioventricular Rhythm
    a. AV node lesion
    b. Ventricular proarrhythmias
    c. Digitalis
    d. Dk
    ANS C

    14. Secondary amenorrhea with hypogonadism—
    a. Sheehan syndrome

    15. Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism associated with in male
    a. Viral orchitis
    b. Klinefelter syndrome
    c. Kallman syndrome
    ANS B

    16. Cherry red spot AE
    a. Nieman pick
    b. GM1 gangliosidosis
    c. Tay Sach disease
    d. Gaucher’s disease
    ANS D

    17. Brwon tumor-
    a. Hyperparathyroidism
    ANS A

    18. Pzrimary Gouty arthritis NOT TRUE
    a. 90% cases are due to overproduction rather than under secretion
    b. Uric acid level is normal in acute attack of gouty arthritis
    c. Common male more than female

    19. GOUT is a disorder of
    a. Purine metabolis
    b. Pyrimidine
    c. Dk
    ANS A

    20. Boy with seizure BP 200/140 mmHg, Femoral pulse not palpable, Likely diagnosis
    a. Takayasu’s aortoarterits
    b. Renal parenchymal disease
    c. GTCS
    d. Firbomuscular dysplasia
    ANS A

    21. Pathogenesis of ll of the following is Granulomatosis EXCEPT
    a. WG
    b. Buerger’s disease
    c. Takayasu’s disease
    d. churg
    ANS B

    22. MCC of abd aorta aneurysm
    a. Atherosclerosis
    146. Past H/O APL
    a. Start low dose aspirin with LMWH

    23. BECK’s traid seen in
    a. Constrctive pericarditis
    b. Cardiac temponade
    c. LVMI
    ans a

    24. GISt TOC-
    a. Imatinib

    25. GIST marker
    a. CD117

    26. Bence jones protein seen in which Heavy chain disease- H17th 707
    a. Gamma heavy chain
    b. Alfa heavy chain
    c. Meu Heavy chain
    d. Beta heavy chain
    ANS A

    27. GBS EXCEPT
    a. Albuminocytological dissociation
    b. Ascending paralysis
    c. Sensory
    d. Flaccidity
    ANS C

    28. Pancreatitis
    a. Diadanosine
    ANS A

    29. 13 yr female with hypertension no other sign
    a. Chr Gn
    ANS A

    30. Grey patches on back with MR-
    a. Tuberous cslerosis
    ANS A

    31. Paraganglioma associated with
    a. Dense granules
    ANS A

    32. Adrenal Adenoma radiological association Repeat
    a. Slow wash out
    ANS A

    33. Meningococcal eningitis allergic to beta lactam- H912
    a. Chloramphenicol
    b. Meropenem
    c. cipro
    d. Teicoplanin
    ANS C

    34. VZ remain latent in
    a. Trigeminal ganglia
    b. Microglia
    c. T cell
    d. B cell
    ANS A

    35. Burkitt
    a. 8:14 ,
    ANS A

    36. t(2:8) 11 q 24 seen in
    a. T cell ALL
    b. Burkitt Mature B
    c. Pre B cell ALL
    d. AML
    ANS B

    37. A pt hypoglycaemia with hepatomegaly, BSL not increasing even after epinephrine, diag
    a. Von Gierk disease
    ANS A

    38. Protective mutation for sickle cell
    a. Malaria
    ANS A

    39. Low calcium & high Phosphate
    a. Low PTh
    b. High PTH
    c. sdj
    ANS A

    40. Plasmphresis is Not done
    a. Acute Polymyositis
    b. Cholinergic crisis
    c. AIDp
    d. MG
    ANS B

    41. NOT a Feature of PSeudohypoparhyroidism
    a. Low level PTH
    b. Peripheral resistance to PTH
    c. Calcium level are low, PO4 is high
    d. Associated with Albright SOteodystrophy
    ANS A

    42. Most friable vegetation
    a. Vegetation – Infective endocarditis
    b. Libman scah
    c. Rheumatic hear disease
    d. Rheumatoid
    ANS A

    43. Following causes Biliary obstruction
    a. Giardia
    b. Strongloides
    c. Ancylostoma
    d. Chlorenchis
    ANS D

    44. Mass prophylaxsis in endemic area
    a. YAW
    b. Leprosy
    c. Trachoma
    d. Filaria
    ANS B

    45. A female with FEV >86, progressive breathlessness, 6 month histroy90, FEV1/FEC 92
    a. Primary hypoventilation
    b. PPHT
    c. Anoxia
    d. Mitral stenosis
    ANS B

    46. Unconjugated bilirubinemia, increased excretion of urobilinogen AE
    a. G6 PD
    b. HEmolytic anemia
    c. HS
    d. Biliary cirrhosis
    ANS B

    47. Pt with ITP, clottin factor should be given at- Repeat
    a. After ligation of splenic artery

    48. FEemale with click on ausculataion, Myomatous degeneration – REpeat
    a. MVP

    49. Nuchal transluceny at 14 weeks Hypoechoic shadow –
    a. Down syndrome
    ANS A

    50. 3rd heart sound seen in
    a. ASD
    b. Constrictive pericarditis
    c. Rapid filling during ventricular systole
    d. AS
    ANS B

    51. Urea/creatinne ratio was 20;1, relatively creatinine not increase in found in
    a. CGN
    b. Pre renal failure
    c. Rhabdomyolysis
    d. lead nephropathy
    ans a

    52. prerenal renal will have AE
    a. Fractional excretion <1
    b. Urinary osmolality >500
    c. Urnaru Na excretion >40
    d. Urine flow not increased on giving dose of diuretics
    ANS C
  10. sanjiv.

    sanjiv. Guest

    Paediatrics ANSWERS

    1. Klippel Flail syndrome AE AI2005
    a. Short neck
    b. Low hair line
    c. Limited neck movement
    d. Elevated scapula
    ANS D

    2. child with runny nose since 6 mth, fever, proptosis, opaque ethamoid, leucocytosis, hb normal no growth on culture, u/l Nasal discharge, next best
    a. Blood culture
    b. CT orbit
    c. Repeat culture of conjuctival secretion
    d. Urine culture
    ANS B

    3. non immune hydrops
    a. CMV
    b. PARVO
    c. HPV
    d. HBV
    ANS B

    4. regarding fanconi anaemia wrong statement-is
    a. AD
    b. Bone marrow show atrophy
    c. Usually normocytic/macrocytic anemia
    d. j
    ANS A

    5. In pediatric age gr recuurent CSF leak organism causing meningitis
    a. Meningococci
    b. Strept Pneumonia
    c. H I
    d. E Coli
    ANS B

    6. In SCURVY bone affects by
    a. Decreae mineralization of bone
    b. Less formation of bone matrix
    ANS B

    7. Ethosuximide used in
    a. DOC is Absence seizure
    ANS A

    8. Boy with weakness in Lower limb, Calf hypertrophy, Positive Gower sign CPK 10,000, diagnosis
    a. DMD
    b. SMA
    ANS A

    9. MCC of meningoencephalitis in children (pg nelson 2044)
    a. Mumps
    b. Arbovirus
    c. Herpes
    d. Enterovirus
    ANS D

    10. Frontotemporal yound adult male with fiocal seizure, ASM, with MRI fronto & temporal lobe
    a. HSV
    b. TB meningitis
    c. MEnigococcal
    ANS A
  11. sanjiv.

    sanjiv. Guest

    Skin Answers

    1. While lacy lesion in oral cavity
    a. Lichen planus
    ANS A

    2. Treatment of erythematous rash in pregnant female- Repeat
    a. Corticosteroid
    b. Iostretenoin
    c. MTX
    d. Psoralen with PUVA
    ANS A

    3. Child with HO infantile spasm, Hypopigemented macule on back, delayed mile stone
    a. Tuberous cslerosis
    b. NF
    c. Sturge weber
    ANS A
  12. sahid.

    sahid. Guest

    Surgery ANSWERS

    1. Hot water bottles to relieve intestinal spasm act by
    a. Cholinergic receptor inhibition
    b. Adrenergic receptor inhibition
    c. Cold receptor
    d. Peritoneal sensory supply
    ANS A as epigastrium has cholinergic vagus supply.

    2. MC site for urethral carcinoma
    a. Urtehral ext meatus
    b . memb penile urethra
    ANS B

    3. Lord placation is for
    a. Hydrocele
    ANS A

    4. Time of surgery in undescended Testis
    a. 12 month
    b. 24 month
    c. 6 month
    d. Just after birth
    ANS C

    5. a patient with stab injury abdomen.FAST positive. CECT shows a 2 cm left liver lobe laceration..hemodynamicaly stable.laproscopy was planned..the PO2 of patient suddenly dropped after producing pneumoperitoneum..likely cause?
    a. air embolism through splenic artery
    b. diaphragmatic rent, Peumothorax
    ANS B

    6. Orthoptic liver trasnpalnt,- which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver?? – H1986/ BL 1426
    a. donor bile duct with Roux en Y choleduchola jujenostomy
    b. donor bile duct with duodenum of reciepient
    c. donor bile duct with BILE DUCT of reciepient
    d. external drainage.... for few days follwed by Choleduchol jujenostomy

    7. stone hard to break
    a. ca oxalate monohydrate
    b. ca oxalate dehydrate
    c. struvite
    d. uric acid
    ANS B

    8. TRISS stands for\TRAUMA INJURY Severity score- SCh 179
    a. GCS
    b. GCS + BP+ RR
    c. RTS + ISS + Age index
    d. RTS
  13. sahid.

    sahid. Guest

    Contd. Surgery Answers

    9. PCNL done bilaterally at site of upper r[part11th rib, MC complication I this case
    a. Hydrothorax
    b. Hematuria
    c. Damage to colon
    d. Remnants fragments
    ANS A

    10. Scale used specifically for SAH
    a. GCS
    b. Hess & Hunt
    ANS B

    11. ANNULAR pancreas treatment
    a. Division of pancreas
    b. Duodenoduedenostomy
    c. Dudenojujenostomy
    ANS B

    12. A pt with recurrent hypoglycaemia with seizures, cpeptide level is 6 ( 1-2 is normal, BSL 20-30, diagnosis
    a. Insulinoma
    b. Sulphonylurea excess
    c. Accidental Injection of insulin
    d. Sadkl
    ANS A

    13. A pt with occult GI bleed, anemia, weakness, Next step
    a. Colonoscopy
    b. Barummeal
    c. Barium enema
    ANS A

    14. achild with Volvulus with suspected perforation
    a. XR
    b. Barium enema
    c. Sigmoidoscopy
    d. Barium meal follow through
    ANS. A

    15.Heart in carcinoid syndrome
    a. Calcification TV
    b. Intimal fibrosis of right Ventricel TV, Pul valve
    c. Thickening of Rv
    ANS A

    16. True about CARCINOID AE see Bailey
    a. 60% occur in ileum & appendix
    b. Rectum rarely involve
    c. 5 yr survival is >60%
    d. Females are more affected
    ANS B

    17. Electron microscopy is diagnostic im
    a. Alport
    b. Goodpasture
    c. Chur strauss
    d. WG
    ANS B

    18. 235. Restrictive operation AE
    a. Restricetd band gastropathy
    b. DUODENAL Switch operation
    c. Bypass operation
    d. Adjustable band
    ANS B

    19.CSF leak all except
    a. MC site Ethamoidal
    b. Beta transferring is specific
    c. MRI GD T1 used for diagnsosi
    d. Fluorescin Dye used in intrathecally for diagnosis

    20. 1st surgery for uretric replacemt done by
    a. Hardy
    b. Koyonessy
    c. Higgin
    ANS A
  14. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest

    Orthopaedics ANSWERS

    1. Median nerve lesion causes AE
    a. Thenar atrophy
    b. Adductur pollicies
    ANS B

    2. Synovial sarcoma AE- 1323 robbins
    a. Originate in synovium, unclear
    b. Seen>50 yrs
    c. Occurs in extraarticular site more often KNEE ANKLE
    ANS A

    3.Lift off test
    a. Supraspinatus
    b. Infraspinatus
    c. Teres minor
    d. Subsacpularis
    ANS D

    4. After hip surgery , pt develops sudden breathless, hemodynamic collapse, reason
    a. Embolism
    ANS A
  15. wellwisher.

    wellwisher. Guest

    Obs & Gyne Qs/Ans

    1. Methyldopa used in
    a. PIH
    ANS A

    2. Best for female fertility hormonal assay during menstrual cycle
    a. Fern test
    b. Sex hormone study
    c. Vaginal cytology
    d. Spinbarkiett
    ANS B

    3. In human which of the following is not associated ith menstrual cycle
    a. Change in steroid level
    b. Endometrial gland changes
    c. Estrus
    d. Vaginal cytology
    ANS C

    4. A 40 yr old woman presenting with CIN III on pap smear..treatment of choice?
    a. hysterectomy
    b. colposcopy with LEEP
    c. trahelectomy
    d. conization
    ANS B

    5. pregnancy can b continued in-
    a. wpw syn,
    b. eisenmengers,
    c. primary pul ht
    ANS A

    6. r hiv pregnancy delivery- all reduces the rsik except
    a. ergotamine, NOT GIVEN
    b. nevirapine administration intrapartum
    c. elective caes section,..
    d. Antenatal AZT

    7. Primary amenorrhea with normal external genitilia
    a. RKH syndrome
    b. Turner syndrome
    c. Noonan syndrome
    ANS A

    8. A pt with HO amenorrhea after abortion, FSh level 6 mIU, diagnosis (1-8 Normal)
    a. Uetrine synechia
    b. Sec pregnancy
    c. Ptuitary failure seehan syndrome
    d. Ovarian failure
    ANS C

    9. Polyhydramnios seen in A/E
    a. PUV
    b. Cleft palate
    c. Congenital disphragmatic hernia
    d. Exstrophy epispadias complex

    10. Leaky discharge at 34 wek of pregnancy
    a. Listeria
    b. CMV
    ANS A

    11. MC associated with Malignancy caused by HPVCA CX
    a. HPV16
    b. HPV 18
    c. HPV 31
    d. HPV 33
    ANS A

    12. Sentinel biopsy most useful in which gyveoclogical
    a. Ca Endo
    b. CaCX
    c. Ca Vulva
    d. Ca Bereast
    ANS A

    13. VVF most useful investigation in a case of VVF
    a. 3 swab test
    b. Urine culture
    c. Cystoscopy
    ANS A

    14. Mulleraain duct & wolfian duct together is impossible with
    a. Anti mullerian hormone def
    b. FSH receptor mutation
    c. Gonadal dysgenesis
    d. Mixed ovotestis

    15. 265. A female 17 yr presents with diarrhea, pain at the time of mesnses & stress, Diarhhea with mucus & no blood, no weight loss, redominat constipation
    a. IBD
    b. IBS
    c. Amebic
    d. Endometriosis
    ANS B

    16. Druing pregnancy wt gain depends on AE
    a. Socioecnomic stautus
    b. Pregestation al weight
    c. SMOKING
    d. Ethinicity
    ANS B

    17. What is not done in shoulder dystocia
    a. Wood
    b. Suprpubic preesure
    c. Mac Roberston manuever
    d. Maursion- Smit-Veil technique
    ANS D

    18. What is not done in 3rd stage of labor
    a. Ureterotonic oxytocine
    b. Gentle massage of uterus
    c. Clamping of cord
    d. Ergiometrine
    ANS B

    19. True about Chornicity
    a. Same sex rule out dichorniocity
    b. Twin Pick sign in di chorniocity
    c. Thick membrane is present in monochorion
    d. Best detected after 16 weeks
    ANS B

    20. All are commonly associared with polycystic ovary syndrome EXCEPT
    a. Ca Ovary
    b. Ca Endometrium
    c. Insulin resistance
    d. Osteoporosis
    ANS A

    21. Threatened abortion true all EXCEPT
    a. Antibiotics given with intact amniotic membrane
    b. antibiotics given in asymptomatic bacteriurea
    c. metro in bac vagnosis prevents preterm labour
    ANS A
  16. sanjiv.

    sanjiv. Guest

    Opthalmology ANSWERS

    1. Arden ratio
    a. EOG
    b. ERG
    c. EEG
    ANS A

    2. endophthalmitis include all except
    a. vitreous
    b. sclera
    c. uvea
    d. retina
    ANS b

    3. A person who is wearing contact lens for 1-2 month comes with irritation of left with diagnosis of keratiis, corneal scraping revealed presence of Ps Aeruginos which is Multi drug resistant, what is the cause of resistance
    a. By transfer of gene form commensal bacteria of eye
    b. Improper contact lens hygiene
    c. Frequent & prior use of antibiotics, steroid preparations
    d. Biofilm formation
    ANS D

    4. In corneal transplant what is true
    a. Whole eye is preserved in culture
    b. Donor Not taken if age is >60years
    c. Specular microscopyAnalysis is used to count the number of corneal endothelial cell
    ANS C

    5. Reraction of ptosis results form chewing & cramming condition, pterygoid & retraction of eye lid
    a. Marcus jaw winking pheneomenon—
    ANS A

    6. Least common condition
    a. Macular dstrophy
    b. Lattice 1
    c. Lattice 2
    d. Granular dystrophy
    ANS A

    7. Affrent pupillary defect
    a. Optic nerve
    ANS A
  17. hyder.

    hyder. Guest


    1. Vestibular schwanoma arises from
    a. Superior vestibular
    b. Inferior vestibular
    c. Cohlear nerve
    d. Js
    ANS A

    2. Auto acoustic emission arises form M09
    a. Inner har cell
    b. Outer hair cell
    c. Organ of corti
    d. Spiral ganglion in vestibule
    ANS b

    3. not seen in bronchoscopy- REpeat
    a. vocal cords
    b. Subcarinal LL
    ANS B

    4. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma AE
    a. Bimodal distribution
    b. sURGERY with BL neck dissection
    c. IgA antibody to EBV antigen
    d. Squamous cell carcinoma is Mc histopatholical finding
    ANS b

    5. Sodium Fluoride act in otosclerosis by all these method EXCEPT
    a. It act on enzyme for bone degradation
    b. It inhibit osteoblast activity
    c. Positive schwart sign is indication
    d. NaF contraindicated in chronic nephritis
    ANS B

    6. Laser used in lAryngeal operation
    a. Nd YAG
    b. CO2
    c. Argon
    d. Krypton
    ANS B

    7. Doc in Laryngeal stenosis
    a. CTX
    b. Doxorubicin
    c. Adriamycin
    d. Mitomycin C
    ANS D

    8. Child with Biphasic stridor , Barking cough, , all are ture about case XECEPT- D 347
    a. Hypophrayngeal dilaation, subglottic stenosis on XR
    b. Involve subglottis most commonly
    c. Male is more common than female
    d. Antibiotics main stay of treatment
  18. hyder.

    hyder. Guest

    Radiology & RT answers

    1. Egg on side appearance
    a. tricuspid atresia with vsd
    b. Hypoplastic right ventricle
    d. completely TGA
    ANS D

    2. Most ionizing radiation
    a. alpha
    b. beta
    c. x ray
    d. gamma
    ANS A

    3. Difference between X ray and light
    a. energy
    b. mass of photon
    c. type of wave
    d. speed
    ANS A

    4. a patient present with sudden anuria and renal failure..USG kub is normal. which investigation will give best information?
    a. IVP
    b. retrograde pyelography
    c. anterograde pyelography
    d. DTPA
    ANS D

    5. To get intense dense nephrogram
    a. dehydration of pt
    b. increase dye concentration
    c. Inject the dye rapidly
    d. Non ionic
    ANS A

    6. what is background radiation.
    a. Radiation after disaster
    b. Radiation after atom bomb explosion
    c. Radiation received by all people EVERYWHEREON EARTH
    d. Radiation exposure during radiological investigations
    ANS C

    7. CT scan room doors
    a. Glass
    b. Tungesten
    c. Steel
    d. Lead
    ANS D

    8. Radiotherpay unit== Eqivalence
    a. Equivalent dose REM
    b. Absorbed dose
    c. Exposure dose
    ANS A

    9. Gray Back shunt is

    10. Acute flaccid paralysis
    a. 60 days
    b. 90
    C 30

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