subject wise Q & A of AIIMS NOV 2007.

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    subject wise Q & A of AIIMS NOV 2007


    - Anatomy
    1. Which is the most superior structure at hilum of left lung?
    a.pulmonary vein
    b.pulmanary artery
    c.bronchius
    d. Bronchial artery Ans--B
    2. Intrinsic muscles of tongue develops from ?
    a.cervical somite
    b.mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
    c. Occipital somite
    d. Ans--C
    3. Gall bladder epithelium is:
    a. Simple squamous
    b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
    c. Simple columnar
    d. Simple columnar with brush border Ans--D
    4. Which does not occur in ulnar nerve injury in the arm?
    a)claw hand
    b)atrophy of hypothenar eminence
    c)loss of sensation of medial one third of hand
    d)adduction of thumb Ans--D
    5. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs is maintained by increased blood flow through:
    a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
    b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
    c. Subcostal and Umbilical
    d. …
    6. Urothelium lines all except:
    a.minor calyces
    b.ureter
    c.urinary bladder
    d.collecting duct Ans--D
    7. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
    a. Peroneus brevis
    b. Peroneus longus
    c. Peroneus tertius
    d. Extensor digitorum brevis Ans--A
    8. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
    a. Brachyury gene
    b. BMPR-4
    c. Nodal gene
    d. FGF-8
    9. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
    a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
    b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
    c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
    d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery Ans--B
    10. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
    a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
    b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
    c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
    d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
    11. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
    a. Right dominance
    b. Left dominance
    c. Balanced dominance
    d. .. Ans--B
    12. Regarding genital development, true is:
    a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
    b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
    c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
    d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
    13. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
    a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
    b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
    c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
    d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid Ans--B
    14. The ureter develops from:
    a. Metanephros
    b. Mesonephros
    c. Mesonephric duct
    d. Paramesonephric duct Ans--C
    15. Perforators are not present at the:
    a. Ankle
    b. Distal calf
    c. Mid thigh
    d. Below the inguinal ligament Ans—D
    16. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
    a. Deep cardiac plexus
    b. Superficial cardiac plexus
    c. Phrenic nerve
    d. Subcostal nerve Ans—C
    17. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
    a. Innermost intercostals
    b. Transverses thoracis
    c. External intercostals
    d. Internal intercostals Ans—B
    18. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
    a. Caudate lobe
    b. Quadrate lobe
    c. Left lobe
    d. Right lobe Ans—B
    19. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
    a. The penis and scrotum
    b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
    c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
    d. Shaft of the penis only Ans—D

     Physiology
    20. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
    a. Inverse relation with heart rate
    b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
    c. Constant relation to external work done
    d. Negligible in quiescent heart
    21. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
    a. Increase in anaerobic glycolysis
    b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
    c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
    d. Interference with electron chain transport
    22. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
    a. Seen in the lung of smokers
    b. Increases cAMP levels
    c. Used to treat hypertension
    d. .. Ans—B
    23. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
    a. FSH
    b. LH
    c. Inhibin
    d. .. Ans—A
    24. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
    a. PCT
    b. DCT
    c. Collecting duct
    d. Thick ascending loop of Henle Ans—A
    25. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
    a. Increased peak expiratory flow
    b. Increased total lung capacity
    c. Increased residual volume
    d. Decreased functional residual capacity Ans—C
    26. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
    a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
    b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
    c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
    d. .. Ans—A
    27. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
    a. Atrial contraction
    b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
    c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed Ans--B
    28. Fast axonal transport is by all except:
    a. Dynenin
    b. Kinesin
    c. Microfilaments
    d. Neurofilaments Ans—D
    29. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
    a. Sympathetic innervation
    b. Parasympathetic innervation
    c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
    d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis Ans—D
    30. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
    a. Mineralocortoid excess
    b. Increased excretion of base
    c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
    d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids Ans—A
    31. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
    a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
    b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
    c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
    d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex Ans—B
    32. All of the following occur when the blood flows through systemic capillaries except:
    a. Increase in hematocrit
    b. Hb curve shifts to the left
    c. Increased protein content
    d. Decrease in Ph Ans—B
    33. Exercise causes:
    a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
    b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
    c. Body temperature rise
    d. decreased muscle lymph flow Ans---C
    34. Which of the following is correctly matched:
    a. B cells – Somatostain
    b. D cells – Insulin
    c. G cells – Gastrin
    d. ….. Ans—C
    35. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
    a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
    b. Limitation of maximum inspiration during exercise
    c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
    d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected



     Biochemistry

    36. Peroxidase is used to detect:
    a. Glucose
    b. Ammonia
    c. Hemoglobin
    d. Creatinine Ans—C
    37. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
    a. Hydrochloric acid
    b. Phenol / xylol
    c. Formalin
    d. Fluoride Ans—D
    38. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
    a. Sodium hypochlorite
    b. Iodine
    c. Absolute alcohol
    d. Quarternary ammonium compounds Ans—A
    39. PCR requires:
    a. Li++
    b. Ca++
    c. Na++
    d. Mg++ Ans--D
    40. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
    a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
    b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
    c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
    d. .. Ans—A
    41. Vitamin K is required for:
    a. Carboxylation
    b. Hydroxylation
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans—A
    42. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure in the process of evolution are said to be:
    a. Convergent
    b. Divergent
    c. Opportunistic
    d. Incidental Ans—A
    43. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
    a. Drabkin’s method
    b. Sahli’s method
    c. Spectrometry
    d. Wintrobe’s method Ans—D
    44. Nephelometry is:
    a. Lambert-Beer law
    b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
    c. Defraction of light
    d. Decreased intensity of light Ans--B
     Pathology

    45. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
    a. Dedifferentiation
    b. Redifferentiation
    c. Transdifferentiation
    d. Subdifferentiation Ans—C
    46. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
    a. CD1a
    b. CD57
    c. CD3
    d. CD68 Ans—A
    47. Caspases are involved in:
    a. Apoptosis
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Ans—A
    48. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
    a. Hyalinization of the valve
    b. Fibrinoid necrosis
    c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
    d. .. Ans—C
    49. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. Proteins
    c. Carbohydrate
    d. Lipids Ans—A
    50. PAS does not stain:
    a. Fungal cell wall
    b. Basement membrane of bacteria
    c. Glycogen
    d. Lipids Ans—D
    51. Not used to stain fats:
    a. Oil red O
    b. Congo red
    c. Sudan III
    d. Sudan black Ans—B
    52. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
    a. Factor VIII
    b. Factor IX
    c. Von Willebrand factor
    d. Fibrinogen Ans—B
    53. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
    a. Type 1
    b. Type 2
    c. Type 3
    d. Type 4 Ans—B
    54. FNAC needle gauge size is:
    a. 26 – 28
    b. 22 – 26
    c. 18 – 22
    d. 16 – 18 Ans—B
    55. Basement membrane consists of all except:
    a. Laminin
    b. Nidogenin
    c. Entactin
    d. Rhodopsin Ans—D
    56. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
    a. β2 – microglobulin
    b. Transthyretin
    c. AANF
    d. Pyrin Ans—B
    57. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
    a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
    b. Hemosiderosis
    c. Interstitial pneumonia
    d. Pulmonary oedema Ans—A
    58. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
    a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans--A
    59. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
    a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
    b. Alcoholic hepatitis
    c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
    d. Hemochromatosis Ans—A
    60. Councilman bodies are seen in:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    b. Wilson’s disease
    c. Acute viral hepatitis
    d. .. Ans—C
    61. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
    a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
    b. Characteristic DNA polymorphism WITH A CLINICAL PHENOTYPE
    C.Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
    D.Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity Ans--A






     Pharmacology
    62. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
    a. Rifampicin
    b. Ethambutol
    c. Streptomycin
    d. Pyrazinamide Ans--A
    63. True about fibrates is all except:
    a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
    b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
    c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
    d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and hypertriglyceridemia
    Ans—B
    64. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
    a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
    b. More sedative than other hypnotics
    c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
    d. .. Ans—C
    65. Thiazides cause all except:
    a. Hyperglycemia
    b. Increased calcium excretion
    c. Increased uric acid excretion
    d. Useful in congestive heart failure Ans—B
    66. Regarding furosemide, true is:
    a. Given by parenteral route only
    b. Used in pulmonary oedema
    c. Acts at the PCT
    d. Causes hypercalcemia Ans—B
    67. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
    a. Ritodrine
    b. MgSO4
    c. Nifedipine
    d. Progesterone Ans—B
    68. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
    a. Hypercalcemia
    b. Osteoporosis
    c. Cancer
    d. Vitamin D intoxication ans—D
    69. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
    a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by MDR-1 gene
    b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
    c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
    d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
    70. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
    a. Tacrolimus
    b. Metformin
    c. Cyclosporine
    d. Phenytoin Ans—B
    71. Antiemetic with most "affinity" for "5Ht3" is:
    a. Ondansetron
    b. Granisetron
    c. Dolasetron
    d. Pavalosetron Ans—D
    72. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
    a. Induces microsomal enzymes
    b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
    c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
    d. Highly protein bound Ans—B
    73. Hyperglycemia is caused by:
    a. Beta blockers
    b. Glucocorticoids
    c. NSAID
    d. .. Ans—B
    74. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
    a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
    b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
    c. Macrolides,…
    d. .. Ans—B
    75. All but one acts via GABA Aexcept:
    a. Thiopentone
    b. Midazolam
    c. Zolpidem /zopiclone
    d. Promethazine Ans--D
    76. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
    a. Atenolol
    b. Amlodepine
    c. Statins
    d. Metformin Ans—D
    77. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
    a. Loop diuretics
    b. Lithium
    c. Vitamin D intoxication
    d. .. Ans—A
    78. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
    a. Heparin
    b. Aspirin
    c. Warfarin
    d. Antithrombin-III Ans—D
    79. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
    a. 5HT-1A
    b. 5HT-1B
    c. 5HT-1F
    d. 5HT-3 Ans—B

    80. good clinical practices equired in all except
    a. preclinical phase
    b. phase 1
    c. phase 2
    d. phase 4 Ans--A
     F.M.T.
    81. Telefona is:
    a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
    b. Pulling of hair
    c. Beating on both the ears
    d. .. Ans--C
    82. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
    a. Head
    b. Neck
    c. Thorax
    d. Abdomen Ans—B
    83. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
    a. Loss of testis
    b. Loss of eye
    c. Loss of kidney
    d. Abrasion of the face Ans—D
    84. Not a part of informed consent is:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Concealed information….. Ans—D
    85. In tandem [bleep] number of [bleep] fired
    a.1
    b.2
    c. 3
    d. 4 Ans—B
     Microbiology
    86. HACEK group includes all except:
    a. Hemophilus aprophillus
    b. Acinetobacter baumanni
    c. Eikenella corrodens
    d. Cardiobacterium hominis Ans—B
    87. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis
    b. H.ducreyi
    c. Treponema pallidum
    d. .. Ans—A
    88. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
    a. M protein
    b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
    c. Group C carbohydrate antigen Ans—C
    89. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
    a. Thayer-martin
    b. TCBS medium
    c. Scirrow’s medium
    d. Loeffer’s Ans—B
    90. Prions consist of:
    a. DNA and RNA
    b. DNA, RNA and proteins
    c. RNA and proteins
    d. Only proteins Ans-D
    91. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
    a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
    b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
    c. ..
    d. .. Ans—B
    92. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
    a. HbsAg
    b. IgM anti-HbcAg
    c. HbeAg
    d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—B
    93. True about polioviruses is:
    a. Most cases are symptomatic
    b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
    c. ..
    d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
    94. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
    a. Immune to diphtheria
    b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
    c. Susceptible to diphtheria
    d. Susceptible & hypersensitive to diphtheria Ans—D
    95. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: A/E
    a. Deep invasion is not seen
    b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
    c. Metachromatic granules are seen
    d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change Ans—D
     SPM
    96. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
    a. Immigration of healthy persons
    b. Increased cure rate of the disease
    c. Longer duration of the disease
    d. .. Ans--C
    97. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
    a. Measles
    b. BCG
    c. DPT
    d. OPV Ans—C
    [snip]. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
    a. School teachers
    b. Medical officers of health centers
    c. Ophthalmologists
    d. Health assistants Ans—A
    99. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
    a. Screening
    b. Surveillance
    c. Case finding
    d. Notification Ans—A
    100. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
    a. Re-start the immunization according to age
    b. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    c. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
    d. Give BCG and second doses of OPV and DPT Ans—B
    101. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except:
    a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
    b. ..
    c. ..
    d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age Ans—D
    102. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
    a. BOAA
    b. Sanguinarine
    c. Aflatoxin
    d. .. Ans—B
    103. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
    a. Index case
    b. Primary case
    c. Secondary case
    d. Tertiary case Ans—A
    104. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
    a. Maternal deaths/live birth
    b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
    c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
    d. Maternal deaths/100000 population Ans—B
    105. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
    a. Evaluation
    b. Monitoring
    c. Input - output analysis
    d. Network analysis Ans--A
    106. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
    a. Tetanus toxoid
    b. Hepatitis B
    c. BCG
    d. Measles Ans—B
    107. Kala-azar, vector is:
    a. Flea
    b. Tsetse fly
    c. Sand fly
    d. Mite Ans—C
    108. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
    a. Reduvid bug
    b. Trombiculid mite
    c. Enteric pathogens
    d. Cyclops Ans—B
    109. Mirena is:
    a. Used in abortion
    b. Anti-progesterone
    c. Progesterone IUCD
    d. Hormonal implant Ans—C
    110. True about dietary allowance are all except:
    a. Adequate intake
    b. RDA
    c. Dietary intake according to food composition
    d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA Ans—D
    111. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
    a. Multipurpose worker
    b. Laboratory technician
    c. Health educator
    d. Medical officer Ans--A
    112. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
    a. Trachoma
    b. Glaucoma
    c. Diabetic retinopathy
    d. Cataract Ans—A
    113. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
    a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
    b Deposition of flurides in the skeletal system and muscles
    c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
    d. Genu valgum Ans—A
    114. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
    a. Mustard oil
    b. Groundnut oil
    c. Corn oil
    d. Fish oil
    115. Not a measure of dispersion:
    a. Mode
    b. Range
    c. Variable
    d. Standard deviation Ans—A
    116. Primary Health Care is:
    a. Health for all
    b.
    c.
    d. Ans—A

     ENT

    117. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
    a. Isthmus of the thyroid
    b. Inferior thyroid artery
    c. Thyroidea ima
    d. Inferior thyroid vein Ans—A
    118. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
    a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
    b. Observation in hospital
    c. Surgical drainage
    d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks Ans—C
    119. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
    a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
    b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
    c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
    d. Total laryngectomy Ans--B
    120. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flacida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
    a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
    b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
    c. Tympanoplasty
    d. Tympano-mastoid exploration Ans—D
    121. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
    a. MRI of the brain
    b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
    c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
    d. Inferior meatus puncture Ans--B
     Ophthalmology
    122. Dangerous area of the eye is:
    a. Ciliary body
    b. Sclera
    c. Optic nerve
    d. Retina Ans—A
    123. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
    a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
    b. Wide separated collagen bands
    c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
    d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
     MEDICINE

    124. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
    a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
    b. Raised calcitonin levels
    c. Increased phosphate levels
    d. Increase in levels of 24,2% Hydroxylase in liver Ans—A
    125. Not seen in SIADH is:
    a. Hyponatremia
    b. Hypouricemia
    c. Volume depletion causing hypotension
    d. .. Ans—C
    126. A 40 year old man, heavy smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations in inferior leads. What is the immediate therapy.
    a. Aspirin
    b. Thrombolytics
    c. Pantoprazole
    d. Beta-blockers Ans—B
    127. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
    a. Foramen of Monro
    b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
    c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
    d. Fourth ventricle Ans—B
    128. In HIV window period indicates:
    a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
    b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
    c. .
    d. . Ans—B
    129. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
    a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
    b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
    c. Tuft necrosis
    d. Mesangiolysis Ans—A
    130. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
    a. Congenital renal defect
    b. Obstructive uropathy
    c. Intrauterine infections and scar
    d. Is a normal variety ans—D
    131. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
    a. MEN 1
    b. MEN 2A
    c. MEN 2B
    d. MEN 2C

    132. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
    a. PNH
    b. Megaloblastic anaemia
    c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
    d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia Ans--D
    133. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
    a. Astrocytoma
    b. Optic tract glioma
    c. Glioblastoma multiforme Ans—B
    134. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen in:
    a. Pre-renal azotemia
    b. ATN
    c. Intrinsic renal failure
    d. Renal artery stenosis Ans—A
    135. With CSF all are true except:
    a. Persistent leakage causes headache
    b. Neutrophils are normally not present
    c. pH is less than that of blood
    d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi Ans—D
    136. Not a feature of DKA is:
    a. Tachypnoea
    b. Bradycardia
    c. Abdominal pain
    d. Dehydration Ans—B
    137. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension IS CAUSED BY ALL EXCEPT
    a. Hyperventilation
    b. Morbid obesity
    c. Fenfluramine
    d. High altitude Ans—A
    138. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
    a. Central obesity
    b. Episodic hypertension
    c. Easy bruisability
    d. Glucose intolerance Ans—B
    139. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
    a. renal artery stenosis
    b. End stage renal disease
    c. Cushing’s disease
    d. Primary hyperaldosteronism Ans—B
    140. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
    a. Astereognosis
    b. Hemiparesis
    c. Hemisensoriloss
    d. No neurological deficit Ans—A
    141. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
    a. HBV-DNA polymerase
    b. IgG anti-HBc
    c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
    d. Anti-HbsAg Ans—A
    142. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
    a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
    b. Depletion of glycogen
    c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
    d. Perinuclear staining Ans—A
    143. VHL syndrome includes all except:
    a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
    b. Pheochromocytoma
    c. Hemangioendotheliomas
    d. Islet cell tumours Ans—A
    144. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
    a. Pregnancy..
    b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
    c. DM with acute MI
    d. Post kidney transplant
    145. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on MRI of the brain is seen in:
    a. Alexander’s disease
    b. Krabbe’s ds.
    c. Canavan’s ds
    d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy Ans--A
    146. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
    a. Intradural extramedullary
    b. Extradural
    c. Intramedullary
    d. All have equal distribution Ans—B
    147. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
    a. D-dimer levels
    b. Multidetector CT angiography
    c. Colour Doppler USG
    d. Catheter angiography Ans—B
    148. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no previous significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Vasovagal shock
    b. Pulmonary embolism
    c. Complete heart block
    d. Temporal lobe epilepsy Ans--C
    149. All are essential components of TOF except:
    a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
    b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    c. Infundibular stenosis
    d. Aorta overriding Ans—A
     SURGERY
    150. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
    a. Flexion
    b. Extension
    c. Medial rotation
    d. Lateral rotation Ans—B
    151. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
    a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
    b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
    c. It occurs after previous surgery
    d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use Ans—A
    152. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
    a. Subphrenic abscess
    b. CO2 narcosis
    c. Positioning of the patient
    d. Compression of the lung Ans—A
    153. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
    a. Percutaneous aspiration
    b. I.V. antibiotics
    c. Surgical removal
    d. Observation Ans—C
    154. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
    a. Proton pump inhibitors
    b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
    c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
    d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
    155. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
    a. Abdomen – Neck
    b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
    c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
    d. Right chest – Neck Ans—D
    156. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Glomerulonephritis
    b. Ca-Urinary bladder
    c. Ureteral calculus
    d. .. Ans—C
     O&G
    157. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with rheumatic heart disease , which is contraindicated:
    a. Misoprostol
    b. Methyl ergometrine
    c. Oxytocin
    d. Carboprost Ans—B
    158. The BEST agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
    a. Ethyl alcohol
    b. Acetone
    c. Formalin
    d. Xylol Ans--A
    159. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
    a. Deep myometrial invasion
    b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
    c. Enlarged uterine cavity
    d. Poor tumour differentiation Ans—C
    160. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
    a. ..
    b. ..
    c. Bilateral renal agenesis
    d. .. Ans—C
    161. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
    a. Holoprosencephaly
    b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
    c. Ureteral agenesis
    d. Medullary sponge kidney Ans—B
    162. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
    a. Coarcatation of aorta
    b. Eisenmenger’s complex
    c. Aortic stenosis
    d. Mitral stenosis Ans—B
    163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
    a. Polycystic ovarian disease
    b. Multiple pregnancies
    c. Ovarian cancer
    d. Teratogenecity Ans—D
    164. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
    a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
    c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
    d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV Ans--C
    165. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
    a. Sperm count > 20 million
    b. Volume > 1 ml
    c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
    d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 % Ans—D
    166. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
    a. Administer Dinoprostone and bed rest
    b. Administer mifipristone and bed rest
    c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
    d. Apply McDonald’s stitch Ans—D
    167. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transverse lie is associated with the following complication:
    a. Uterine rupture
    b. Vaginal laceration
    c. Uterine atony
    d. Cervical laceration Ans—A
    168. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
    a. Down’s syndrome
    b. Molar pregnancy
    c. Over estimated gestational age
    d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome Ans—D
    169. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Anorexia nervosa
    b. Occult carcinoma
    c. Hypothyroidism
    d. HIV Ans—A
    170. Goniometry is measurement of:
    a. Number of gonococci
    b. Length of the genital hiatus
    c. Urethrovesical angle
    d. Genital secretion Ans—C
    171. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
    a. HSG
    b. Hysteroscopy
    c. Endometrial culture
    d. Saline infusion USG Ans—C
     PEDIATRICS
    172. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
    a. Clonic
    b. Tonic
    c. Subtle
    d. Myoclonic Ans—C
    173. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
    a. Increased PAPP-A
    b. Increased β-HCG
    c. Absent nasal bone
    d. Increased ductus venous blood flow Ans—A
    174. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
    b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
    c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
    d. Disseminated HSV infection Ans—C
    175. In a survey, many children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
    a. Medullary sponge kidney
    b. Bladder extrophy
    c. Unilateral renal agenesis
    d. Double ureter Ans—B
    176. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Post viral syndrome
    b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
    c. Follicular bronchitis
    d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis Ans—B
    177. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
    a. Bronchoscopy
    b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
    c. CT scan of the chest
    d. Allergen sensitivity test
    178. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
    a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
    b. Nasal electrode potential difference
    c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
    d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation Ans—B
    179. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
    a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
    b. Manometry
    c. Lower bowel contrast enema
    d. Oesophagoscopy Ans—B
    180. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
    a. Fusion of podocytes
    b. Acute tubular necrosis
    c. Deposition of IgA
    d. Thickened basement membrane Ans—C
    181. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
    a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
    b. Put a nasogastric tube
    c. Surgery
    d. Tube thoracostomy Ans—B
     SKIN & VD
    182. 22 year female taken medicine for typhoid fever 3 months back. She developed generalized loss of hair,
    a. Telogen effluvium
    b. Anagen effluvium
    c. Alopecia areata Ans—A
    183. Vitligo not true…….
    a. Occcurs in genetically predisposed individual
    b. UV B therapy given
    c. Local steroid
    d. Leucotrychia is a good prognosis Ans—D
    184. Cicatrical alopecia A/E
    a. Alopecia areata
    b. Pseudpalady
    c. Lichen planus
    d. DLE Ans—A
     RADIOLOGY
    185. Floating water- lilly sign on X ray chest
    a. hydatis dis of liver
    b. asperigilosis
    c. tubercular cavity Ans—A
    186. Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot
    b. Uncorrected TGA
    c. Tricuspid atresia
    d. Ebstein’s anomaly Ans—B
    187. Hamptun’s hump is seen in:
    a. Pulmonary embolism
    b. Tuberculosis
    c. Broncogenic CA Ans--A
     ANASTHESIA
    188. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
    a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
    b. Bronchospasm
    c. Flushing
    d. Hypertension Ans--D
    189. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
    a. Propofol
    b. Ketamine
    c. Atracurium
    d. Fentanyl Ans--B
    190. All are true about Thiopentone except:
    a. NaCO3 is a preservative
    b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
    c. Agent of choice in shock
    d. Cerebroprotective Ans—C
     Psychiatry
    191. Regarding type A personality, false is:
    a. Hostility
    b. Time pressure
    c. Competitiveness
    d. Mood fluctuations Ans—D
    192. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
    a. Third person auditory hallucinations
    b. Inappropriate emotions
    c. Long stretches of mood changes
    d. Formal thought disorder Ans—C
    193. Altered perception of real objects is:
    a. Illusion
    b. Delusion
    c. Hallucination
    d. Delirium Ans—A
    194. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
    a. Unconscious conflict
    b. Maladjusted reinforcement
    c. Organic neurological problem
    d. ..
    195. Learning does not include:
    a. Modeling
    b. Catharsis
    c. Exposure
    d. Sensitization
     orthopaedics
    196. Canaval sign…….
    a. Tenosynovitis
    b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
    c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
    d. Trigger finger Ans—A
    197. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
    a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
    b. Increased serum calcium
    c. Looser’s zones
    d. Proximal myopathy Ans—B
    198. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
    a. Enneking
    b. Manchester
    c. Edmonton
    d. TNM Ans—A
    199. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
    a. Head
    b. Chest
    c. Legs
    d. Abdomen
    200. Indication of surgery in Pectus excavetum:
    a. Fev1/Fvc <0.6
    b. TLC <80%
    c. Decreased residual olume
    d. Exercise intolerance Ans--C

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