Which statements are true regarding Gradenigo.s syndrome

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  1. sendiony

    sendiony Guest

    Neuro questions with ans.

    Correlated letters and numbers: A=1+2+3, B=1+3, C=2+4, D=4, E=all
    Solution:
    1. Vertigo is a sign of:

    1. Méniere syndrome
    2. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
    3. cerebellar infarct of neoplasm
    4. central pontine myelinolysis
    A B C D E

    2. Vertical gaze paralysis results from a damage to the:

    1. Westphal-Edinger nucleus
    2. nucleus interstitialis Cajal
    3. nucleus ambiguus
    4. nucleus commissurae posterioris
    A B C D E

    3. The medial longitudinal fasciculus is an association tract linking the:

    1. nuclei of the ocular muscles
    2. vestibular nuclei
    3. cervical spinal cord
    4. pontine and mesencaphalic subcortical gaze centres
    A B C D E

    4. Hearing loss may be associated with:

    1. inner ear concussion
    2. long term furosemide therapy
    3. acustics neurinoma
    4. frontobasal neoplasms
    A B C D E

    5. Inputs to the thalamus include:

    1. visual pathway
    2. spinothalamic tract
    3. medial lemniscus
    4. olfactory pathway
    A B C D E

    6. Ptosis or proptosis is a common sign of:

    1. Horner syndrome
    2. sinus cavernous thrombosis
    3. myasthenia gravis
    4. tegmental lesion of the midbrain
    A B C D E

    7. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Gradenigo's syndrome:

    1. the underlying disorder is generally otitis media
    2. it occurs due to abscess formation in petrous apex
    3. one of the characteristic sign is: ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy
    4. one of the characteristic sign is: ipsilateral facial pain
    A B C D E

    8. The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between:

    1. L4-L5
    2. C5-C6
    3. L5-S1
    4. C6-C7
    A B C D E

    9. Anosmia may associate with:

    1. head trauma
    2. leukodystrophy
    3. olfactory groove meningioma
    4. parasagittal meningoma
    A B C D E

    10. Muscular rigidity is a common sign of:

    1. malignant hyperthermia
    2. Parkinson disease
    3. stiff-man syndrome
    4. Guillain-Barré syndrome
    A B C D E

    11. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the pupillary light reflex:

    1. the pretectal area projects to the contralateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus
    2. the fibers bypass the lateral geniculate body
    3. the fibers does not reach the posterior commissure
    4. the fibers run through the brachium of the superior colliculus to synapse in the pretectal region
    A B C D E

    12. The visual system receives its blood supply from the:

    1. anterior choroidal artery
    2. middle cerebral artery
    3. posterior cerebral artery
    4. pericallosal artery
    A B C D E

    13. The most common causes of aquired diplopia include:

    1. meningitis tuberculosa
    2. multiple sclerosis
    3. Wernicke encephalopathy
    4. herpes zoster
    A B C D E

    14. The nuclei of the trigeminal nerve can be found in the:

    1. pons
    2. spinal cord
    3. midbrain
    4. medulla oblongata
    A B C D E

    15. Which of the following structures play(s) a role in the initiation of the optokinetic nystagmus:

    1. occipital lobe
    2. frontal lobe
    3. superior colliculus
    4. inferior colliculus
    A B C D E

    16. The amnesic syndrome results from lesion in:

    1. prefrontal area
    2. hippocampus
    3. red nucleus
    4. medial thalamus
    A B C D E

    17. A lesion involving the nucleus ambiguous could produce:

    1. double vision
    2. dysphagia
    3. myoclonus
    4. dysarthria
    A B C D E

    18. Which nuclei are located in the medulla oblongata:

    1. nucleus hypoglossus
    2. nucleus of Perlia
    3. inferior and superior salivatory nuclei
    4. Westphal-Edinger nucleus
    A B C D E

    19. Which of the following allows accomodation of near vision:

    1. contraction of ciliary muscles
    2. relaxation of the ciliary muscles
    3. thickening of the lens
    4. flattening of the lens
    A B C D E

    20. Which of the following statements are true regarding the sympathetic innervation of ocular muscles:

    1. the ocular sympathetic innervation is a three-neuron pathway
    2. the ciliospinal center is located in the intermediolateral column of the spinal cord at the levels of C8 and Th1-2
    3. it supplies the pupillary dilator and the superior tarsal muscles
    4. its lesion results in Horner triad
    A B C D E

    21. Trismus ("lockjaw"= spasms of the masseter muscle) may associate with:

    1. tetanus
    2. pontine encephalitis
    3. peritonsillar abscess
    4. hypertensive encephalopathy
    A B C D E

    22. Branches from the basilar artery are the:

    1. superior cerebellar artery
    2. anterior inferior cerebellar artery
    3. pontine branches
    4. labyrinthine artery
    A B C D E

    23. Which is a part of the auditory system the:

    1. ganglion oticum
    2. ganglion geniculi
    3. ganglion stellatum
    4. ganglion spirale
    A B C D E

    24. Vestibular nuclei include:

    1. nucleus lateralis Deiters
    2. nucleus medialis Schwalbe
    3. nucleus superior Bechterew
    4. nucleus descendes spinalis Roller
    A B C D E

    25. Which of the following corresponds to the primary auditory cortex:

    1. Brodman 38
    2. Brodman 39
    3. Brodman 40
    4. Brodman 41
    A B C D E

    26. Nucleus ambiguus belongs to the:

    1. nervus glossopharyngeus
    2. nervus vagus
    3. nervus accessorius
    4. nervus hypoglossus
    A B C D E

    27. Which of the following ganglions belong(s) to the vagal nerve:

    1. ganglion jugulare (superius)
    2. ganglion superius (intracraniale)
    3. ganglion nodosum (inferius)
    4. ganglion inferius (extracraniale)
    A B C D E

    28. The fibers of the superior cerebellar peduncles decussate in the:

    1. tectum
    2. base of pons
    3. pontine tegmentum
    4. tegmentum of the midbrain
    A B C D E

    29. Which of the following nuclei are affected in Wallenberg syndrome:

    1. nucleus vestibularis inferior
    2. nucleus dorsalis vagi
    3. nucleus tractus solitarii
    4. nucelus ambiguus
    A B C D E

    30. Which of the following tracts/structures are involved in Wallenberg syndrome:

    1. tractus spinocerebellaris anterior
    2. tractus tegmentalis centralis
    3. tractus spinothalamicus
    4. pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
    A B C D E

    31. Signs of Wallenberg syndrome include:

    1. Horner triad
    2. ipsilateral nystagmus
    3. ipsilateral ataxia
    4. contralateral sensory disturbance
    A B C D E

    32. Medulla oblongata is/are supplied by the:

    1. posterior inferior cerebellar artery
    2. anterior inferior cerebellar artery
    3. anterior spinal artery
    4. posterior cerebral artery
    A B C D E

    33. Pons is/are supplied by the:

    1. posterior cerebral artery
    2. anterior spinal artery
    3. posterior choroidal artery
    4. basilar artery
    A B C D E

    34. Midbrain is/are supplied by the:

    1. superior cerebellar artery
    2. posterior cerebral artery
    3. rami interpedunculares
    4. posterior choroidal artery
    A B C D E

    35. Which if the following statements are true concerning the Parinaud syndrome:

    1. it may associate with refractory nystagmus on convergence
    2. it is characterized by a paralyis of upward gaze
    3. it is usually caused by a tumor of the pineal gland
    4. it is usually caused by hypophyseal tumor
    A B C D E

    36. Cerebellar nuclei include:

    1. nucleus emboliformis
    2. nucleus globosus
    3. nucleus dentatus
    4. nucleus fastigii
    A B C D E

    37. Which of the following statements are true regarding inferior olive:

    1. it lies in the ventral medulla
    2. it receives its afferentation via central tegmental tract
    3. its cells project to the contralateral cerebellar cortex via the inferior cerebellar peduncle
    4. it receives afferent fibers from red nucleus
    A B C D E

    38. Cerebellum is important for:


    1. maintaining balance
    2. regulating muscle tone
    3. performing rapid, precise, coordinated movement patterns
    4. regulating muscle power
    A B C D E

    39. Which of the following statements are true of thalamus:

    1. it is the gateway to the cortex
    2. it integrates outflow from cerebellum and basal nuclei and transmit this information to the motor cortex
    3. appart from olfaction sensory stimuli pass through the thalamus and are relayed to the cortex for conscious processing
    4. it regulates consciousness, arousal and attention
    A B C D E

    40. The limbic system consist of the:

    1. gyrus cinguli
    2. amygdala
    3. fornix
    4. corpus mamillare
    A B C D E

    41. Nucleus solitarius receives impulses from taste receptors of the tongue through the sensory ganglia of which cranial nerves:

    1. n. intermedius
    2. n. glossopharyngeus
    3. n. vagus
    4. n. hypoglossus
    A B C D E

    42. Components of vestibular system are:

    1. utricle
    2. saccule
    3. semicircular canals
    4. organ of Corti
    A B C D E

    43. Dizziness may be associated with:

    1. zoster oticus
    2. panic attacks
    3. drug intoxication
    4. neuronitis vestibularis
    A B C D E

    44. The sixth nerve palsy is a part of the:

    1. Gradenigo syndrome
    2. Benedikt syndrome
    3. Foville syndrome
    4. Weber syndrome
    A B C D E

    45. Combined unilateral lesion of the III., IV., and VI. cranial nerves is associated with:

    1. Foville syndrome
    2. superior orbital fissure syndrome
    3. Millard-Gubler syndrome
    4. Tolosa-Hunt syndrome
    A B C D E

    46. Oculomotor palsy is the common sign of:


    1. Nothnagel syndrome
    2. Benedikt syndrome
    3. Weber syndrome
    4. Foville syndrome
    A B C D E

    47. In which syndrome is the facial nerve affected:

    1. Melkersson -Rosenthal
    2. Avellis
    3. Millard-Gubler
    4. Parinaud
    A B C D E

    48. Effects of acetylcholin receptor activation may include:

    1. increased sweating
    2. miosis
    3. rapid depolarization, contraction of skeletal muscle
    4. release of nitric oxide
    A B C D E

    49. What deficit would occur if thalamus were destroyed:

    1. contralateral hemianesthesia
    2. contralateral pain
    3. disorders of the emotions
    4. movement disorder
    A B C D E

    50. Characteristic CSF findings in meningitis basilaris:

    1. mild pleocytosis
    2. high glucose level
    3. low glucose level
    4. cell count about 20000/3
    A B C D E

    51. The signs and symptoms of vertebrobasilar stroke may include:

    1. dizziness
    2. numbness around the mouth
    3. drop attacks
    4. unsteadiness
    A B C D E

    52. Which of the following drugs are use for treatment of tuberculosis:

    1. Isoniazid
    2. Rifampin
    3. Pyrazinamide
    4. Ethambutol
    A B C D E

    53. Which of the following drugs are used for treatment of multiple sclerotis:

    1. Interferon Beta-1b (Betaseron)
    2. Pramipexole (Mirapex)
    3. Glatiramer Acetate (Copaxone)
    4. Ticlopidine hydrochloride (Ticlid)
    A B C D E

    54. Which of the following diseases are muscular in origin:

    1. progressive muscular dystrophy
    2. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
    3. myotonia congenita
    4. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
    A B C D E

    55. Which of the following structures are affected in poliomyelitis:

    1. posterior horns of the spinal cord
    2. motoneurons of the ventral horns in the spinal cord
    3. pontine tegmentum
    4. nuclei of the caudal cranial nerves
    A B C D E

    56. Which of the following is a low motoneuron disease:

    1. bulbar paresis
    2. Heine-Medin disease
    3. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
    4. pseudobulbar paresis
    A B C D E

    57. Which of the following is/are the sign(s) of an injury to the common peroneal nerve:

    1. inability to evert foot
    2. loss of plantar flexion
    3. loss of sensation on dorsum of foot and lateral aspect of leg
    4. loss of sensation on sole of foot
    A B C D E

    58. What lies below the inferior olive:

    1. central tegmental tract
    2. spinocerebellar tract
    3. spinothalamic tract
    4. pyramidal tract
    A B C D E

    59. Which of the following statements are true regarding Krabbe disease:

    1. it is an X-linked disorder
    2. it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner
    3. the galactocerebrosidase enzyme activity is elevated
    4. the galactocerebrosidase enzyme activity is very low
    A B C D E

    60. Which of the following nerves may be involved in Möbius syndrome:

    1.olfactory
    2. facial
    3. optic
    4. abducent
    A B C D E

    61. Epileptic seizure often associates with:

    1. intracranial tumors
    2. chronic alcoholism
    3. fhead injury
    4. multiple sclerosis
    A B C D E

    62. Which of the following statements are true reagarding Leber hereditary optic neuropathy:

    1. males are more commonly affected than females
    2. it is characterized by subacute bilateral visual loss
    3. visual evoked potentials may confirm the diagnosis
    4. MRI is often normal
    A B C D E

    63. Which of the following can be found in the cytoplasm of the neurons:

    1. neurofibrillary tangle
    2. Negri body
    3. Lewy body
    4. Pick body
    A B C D E

    64. Spastic paraparesis may be associated with:

    1. multiple sclerosis
    2. transverse myelitis
    3. anterior spinal artery thrombosis
    4. cercical myelopathy
    A B C D E

    65. Plasmapheresis is accepted for the treatment of:

    1. myasthenia gravis
    2. polymyositis
    3. Guillain-Barré syndrome
    4. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
    A B C D E

    66. Which of the following are characteristic of progressive muscular dystrophy:

    1. EMG: polyphasic motor unit potentials with small amplitude
    2. the transaminase values are normal
    3. serum CPK is markedly elevated
    4. muscle biopsy reveals angular atrophic fibers with fiber type grouping
    A B C D E

    67. Common signs of myotonic dystrophy are:

    1. alopecia
    2. weakness and wasting in the distal limb muscles
    3. cataracts
    4. testicular atrophy
    A B C D E

    68. Which of the following statements are true concerning Emery-Dreifuss dystrophy:

    1. its inheritance is X-linked
    2. its inheritance is autosomal dominant
    3. ankle and elbow contractures are common
    4. atrial arrhythmias may be noted on cardiac examination
    A B C D E

    69. Phakomatoses include:

    1. Arnold-Chiari malformation
    2. sclerosis tuberosa
    3. Dandy-Walker syndrome
    4. neurofibromatosis generalisata
    A B C D E

    70. Characteristic of Sturge-Weber syndrome are:

    1. naevus flammeus on the face
    2. late onset of symptoms
    3. epileptic seizures
    4. adenoma sebaceum on the face
    A B C D E

    71. Characteristics of Hippel-Lindau disease include:

    1. multiple café au lait spots
    2. cerebellar hemangioblastoma
    3. naevus flammeus on the face
    4. retinal hemangioblastoma
    A B C D E

    72. Types of spinal muscular atrophies are:

    1. Werdnig-Hoffmann - infantile, proximal, severe form
    2. Kugelberg-Welander - juvenile, proximal, intermediate form
    3. Vulpian-Bernhard - adult, proximal, mild form
    4. Aran-Duchenne - adult, distal
    A B C D E

    73. Which of the following statements are true regardin subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord:

    1. it is a disorder caused by vitamin B12 deficiency
    2. it is characterized by a demyelination affecting the dorsal columns
    3. it often associated with pernicious anemia
    4. the firs symptom is generally urinary incontinence
    A B C D E

    74. The most common signs of encephalitis include:

    1. altered consciousness
    2. taste disturbance
    3. epileptic seizures
    4. peripheral paresis
    A B C D E

    75. Cerebral edema may be associated with:

    1. brain abscess
    2. leukodystrophy
    3. glioblastoma multiforme
    4. Huntington disease
    A B C D E

    76. Senile plaques are composed of:

    1. ß-amyloid protein
    2. intranuclear inclusions
    3. dystrophic neurites
    4. paired helical filaments
    A B C D E

    77. Most common signs of Jakob-Creutzfeldt's disease are:

    1. progressive dementia
    2. myoclonus
    3. epileptic seizures
    4. papilledema
    A B C D E

    78. Neurological complications of AIDS include:

    1. opportunistic infections
    2. dementia
    3. malignant intracranial tumors
    4. peripheral neuropathy
    A B C D E

    79. Characteristics of malignant hyperthermia are:

    1. myoglobinuria
    2. triggers: inhalational anesthetic agents
    3. fever
    4. muscle rigidity
    A B C D E

    80. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the structure of the intracranial arteries:

    1. the have an external elastic lamina
    2. they have an internal elastic lamina
    3. their tunica media is rich in elastic fibers
    4. under normal conditions, they have no vasa vasorum
    A B C D E

    81. Which of the following statements ar true concerning " ischemic penumbra" :

    1. it occurs in the area surrounding the ischemic core
    2. in the area of penumbra, the nerve cells undergo necrosis
    3. it is a term which refers to the reversible loss of neuronal cell function related to cerebral hypoperfusion
    4. after restoration of circulations, the cells does not regain their functionality
    A B C D E

    82. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the so-called luxury perfusion:

    1. it is generally caused by lactic acidosis
    2. vasoparalysis is present
    3. in the affected site, the metabolism is damaged
    4. in the affected site, the neurons regain rapidly their function
    A B C D E

    83. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding cavernous hemangioma:

    1. it may be inherited in an autosomal dominant mode
    2. the angiography is the best imaging modality to make an accurate diagnosis
    3. it contains sinusoidal vascular spaces lined with endothelium and an adventitial layer
    4. functional neural tissue exists between the sinusoidal vessels
    A B C D E

    84. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the fat embolism syndrome:

    1. it generally follows long bone fractures
    2. an asymptomatic period of about 12-48 hours precedes the clinical manifestations
    3. petechial rashes appear on the upper anterior portion of the body
    4. altered level of consciousness is not uncommon
    A B C D E

    85. Conditions which predispose to intracranial hemorrhage in neonates include:

    1. diabetes
    2. immaturity
    3. hypotension
    4. hypoxia
    A B C D E

    86. The outlet(s) of the fourth ventricle is/are:

    1. foramen of Magendie
    2. foramen of Monroe
    3. foramen of Luschka
    4. foramen jugulare
    A B C D E

    87. The most common complications of SAH are:

    1. vasospasm
    2. rebleeding
    3. hydrocephalus
    4. meningitis
    A B C D E

    88. Diagnostic criteria for clinical diagnosis of brain death:

    1. coma
    2. abscence of brainstem reflexes
    3. negative apnea test
    4. exclusion of drug intoxication or poisoning
    A B C D E

    89. Characteristic signs of Binswanger's disease:

    1. gait disturbances
    2. progressive dementia
    3. urinary incontinence
    4. double vision
    A B C D E

    90. Causes of hydrocephalus may include:

    1. excessive secretion of CSF
    2. blockage to CSF circulation
    3. Dandy Walker syndrome
    4. posterior fossa tumors
    A B C D E

    91. Which of the following are characteristic of Hallervorden-Spatz disease:

    1. muscle rigidity
    2. autosomal recessive inheritance
    3. dementia
    4. choreoathetosis
    A B C D E

    92. Treatment of Wilson disease:

    1. use of D-Penicillinamin
    2. low-copper diet
    3. use of zinc acetate
    4. copper-rich diet
    A B C D E

    93. Local injections of botulinum toxin are effective in the treatment of:

    1. athetosis
    2. blepharospasm
    3. chorea
    4. spasmodic torticollis
    A B C D E

    94. Indications of beta blockers include:

    1. migrain prophylaxis
    2. epilepsy
    3. essential tremor
    4. Guillain-Barré syndrome
    A B C D E

    95. The most widely used agent(s) for reduction of spasticity is/are:

    1. Baclofen
    2. Tizanidine
    3. Diazepam
    4. Madopar
    A B C D E

    96. Drug(s) that may exacerbate weakness in myasthenia gravis is/are:

    1. beta blockers
    2. aminoglycosides
    3. procainamide hydrochloride
    4. dopamine agonists
    A B C D E

    97. Which of the following is/are recommended for the tretament of the cholinergic crisis:

    1. neostigmine methylsulfate
    2. pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)
    3. edrophonium chloride (Tensilon)
    4. atropine
    A B C D E

    98. Which of the followings are characteristic of the myasthenic crisis:

    1. miosis
    2. mydriasis
    3. bradycardia
    4. tachycardia
    A B C D E

    99. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include:

    1. diclofenac
    2. haloperidol
    3. indomethacin
    4. valium
    A B C D E

    100. Paraneoplastic syndromes include:

    1. cerebellar atrophy
    2. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
    3. polyneuropathy
    4. dermatomyositis
    A B C D E





    Solution:
    1B, 2C, 3E, 4A, 5A, 6E, 7E, 8B, 9B, 10A, 11C, 12A, 13E, 14A, 15B, 16C, 17C, 18B, 19B, 20E, 21A, 22E, 23D, 24E, 25D, 26A, 27B, 28D, 29E, 30E, 31E, 32A, 33D, 34E, 35A, 36E, 37E, 38A, 39E, 40E, 41A, 42A, 43E, 44B, 45C, 46A, 47B, 48E, 49E, 50B, 51E, 52E, 53B, 54B, 55C, 56A, 57B, 58D, 59C, 60C, 61A, 62E, 63E, 64E, 65A, 66B, 67E, 68E, 69C, 70B, 71C, 72E, 73A, 74B, 75B, 76B, 77A, 78E, 79E, 80C, 81B, 82A, 83B, 84E, 85C, 86B, 87A, 88E, 89A 90E, 91E, 92A, 93C, 94B, 95A, 96A, 97D, 98C, 99B, 100E
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